MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Planning and Sustainable Development MCQs Pdf Class 12 Question 1.

The formulation and implementation of the sets of schemes or programmes aimed at development of various sectors of the economy such as agriculture, irrigation, manufacturing, power, construction, transport, communication, social infrastructure and services is termed as :

(A) sectoral planning
(B) regional planning
(C) linear planning
(D) implementation planning
Answer:
(A) sectoral planning

Explanation:
Sectoral planning is deeply based on various sectors of economic activities such as Primary, Secondary, Tertiary and Quaternary and their development.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 2.

The uneven pattern of development over space necessitates that the planners have a spatial perspective and draw the plans to reduce regional imbalance in development. This type of planning is known as :

(A) sectoral planning
(B) linear planning
(C) regional planning
(D) none of the Above
Answer:
(C) regional planning

Explanation:
Regional planning is related to urban planning as it relates land use practices on a broader scale.

Question 3.

Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during the :

(A) Third Five Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five Year Plan
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan
(D) Sixth Five Year Plan
Answer:
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan

Explanation:
Hill Area Development Pro-grammes were initiated during Fifth Five Year Plan covering 15 districts comprising all the hilly districts of Uttar Pradesh (present Uttarakhand), Mikir Hill and North Cachar hills of Assam, Darjiling district of West Bengal and Nilgiri district of Tamil Nadu.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 4.

Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated during the :

(A) Second Five Year Plan
(B) Third Five Year Plan
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan
Answer:
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan

Explanation:
This programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets to mitigate the effects of droughts.

Question 5.

The irrigation in the Command Area was started in:

(A) early 1940s
(B) early 1950s
(C) early 1960s
(D) early 1970s
Answer:
(C) early 1960s

Explanation:
The Government of India launched the Command Area Development programme to bridge narrow the gap between irrigation potential created and actually utilized in major and medium irrigation schemes.

Question 6.

The the irrigation in the Command Area was started in:

(A) Mid- 1960s.
(B) Mid-1970s
(C) Mid-1980s
(D) Mid- 1990s
Answer:
(C) Mid-1980s

Question 7.

The negative impact of the canal irrigation taken up in the areas surrounding the Indira Gandhi Canal is:

(A) increase in fertility level
(B) water -logging
(C) soil salinity
(D) both (B) and (C)
Answer:
(D) both (B) and (C)

Explanation:
The canal irrigation led to adverse impact in the form of water logging, soil salinity, raising of ground water level, siltation of canal by sand.

Question 8.

The concept of development is:

(A) dynamic
(B) stagnant
(C) consistent
(D) static
Answer:
(A) dynamic

Explanation:
The developmental process is viewed as change within a complex dynamic system.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 9.

‘The Population Bomb’ was written by :

(A) Meadows and others
(B) Ehrlich
(C) Darwin
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Ehrlich

Explanation:
The Population Bomb is a best- selling book written by Stanford University Professor Paul R. Ehrlich and his wife, Anne Ehrlich, in 1968.

Question 10.

What were the reasons due to which the 8th Five Year Plan got delayed?

(A) Political instability
(B) Liberalisation
(C) Democratisation
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation:
Due to political turmoil at the centre as well as the global economic changes and fiscal imbalances of the country in late 80’s the Eighth plan could not take off.

Question 11.

The Eight Five Year Plan got delayed for how many years?

(A) One year
(B) Two Years
(C) Three Years
(D) Four Years
Answer:
(B) Two Years

Explanation:
The plan was postponed by two years because of the political upheavals at the centre.

Question 12.

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I.

Column IColumn II
Five Year PlanYear of Launch
(i) 1st Five year Plan1. Evolution of good irrigation system
(ii) 2ndFive year Plan2. Rapid industrialisation
(iii) 3rd Five year l’ian3. Improvement in the production of wheat
(iv) 4th Five year Plan4. Annual growth rate of 5 per cent in aghculhire

Options:
(A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
(B) i-2, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
(C) i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2
(D) i-3, u-2, iii-1, iv-4
Answer:
(A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4

Explanation:
Top priority was given to the development of agricultural sector. The idea was agricultural development would lead to higher rate of economic growth.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 13.

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I.

Column IColumn II
Five Year PlanObjectives
(i) 1st Five year Plan1. 1969-74
(ii) 2ndFive year Plan2. 1961-66
(iii) 3rd Five year l’ian3. 1956-61
(iv) 4th Five year Plan4. 1951-56

Options:
(A) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
(B) i-2. ii-4. iii-1, v-3
(C) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
(D) i-1, ii-4, iii-2, iv-3
Answer:
(A) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

Question 14.

What is the extent of the Indira Gandhi Canal?

(A) 200 km
(B) 300 km
(C) 500 km
(D) 600 km
Answer:
(D) 600 km

Explanation:
It covers an area 600 Km long and 45 Km wide of the Thar Desert in North West of Rajasthan.

Question 15.

When was the Indira Gandhi Canal Project launched?

(A) 1948
(B) 1958
(C) 1968
(D) 1978
Answer:
(B) 1958

Explanation:
Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31st March, 1958.

Question 16.

Which is the most backward area of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Sangla
(B) Kalpa
(C) Barot
(D) Bharmaur
AnsweR:
(D) Bharmaur

Explanation:
A number of development programmes, policies and projects have been introduced to improve the well-being of tribal people.

Question 17.

The action or practice of moving livestock from one grazing ground to another in a seasonal cycle, typically to lowlands in winter and highlands in summer is known as :

(A) transhumance
(B) transition
(C) transportation
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(A) transhumance

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Explanation:
Transhumance is a type of pastoralism or nomadism, a seasonal movement of livestock between fixed summer and winter pastures.

Question 18.

The Planning Commission of India (1967)identified ………….. districts (entire or partly) of the country prone to drought.

(A) 59
(B) 47
(C) 67
(D) 97
Answer:
(C) 67

Explanation:
The Irrigation Commission (1972) introduced the criterion of 30 per cent irrigated area and demarcated the drought-prone areas,

Question 19.

What predictions did Ehrlich make in his book ‘The Population Bomb’?

(A) Predicted worldwide famine in the 1970s and 1980s due to overpopulation.
(B) Predicted worldwide floods in the 1970s and 1980s due to overpopulation.
(C) Predicted worldwide food overproduction in the 1970s and 1980s due to overpopulation.
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(A) Predicted worldwide famine in the 1970s and 1980s due to overpopulation.

Explanation:
The book predicted that there J will be a disaster for humanity due to overpopulation. 10 million people will be starving during each of the years in the 1970s.

Question 20.

What factor determines the human environment interaction?

(A) Level of technology nurtured by the society.
(B) Level of stagnation faced by the society.
(C) Level of love nurtured by the society.
(D) All of the Above.
Answer:
(A) Level of technology nurtured by the society.

Explanation:
Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. The processes of human environment interaction depend upon the level of technology and institutions nurtured by a society.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 21.

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is known as:

(A) Advanced development
(B) Sustainable development
(C) Respectable development
(D) Recognised development
Answer:
(B) Sustainable development

Explanation:
Sustainable development is defined as an approach to developing or growing by using resources in a way that allows for them to renew or continue to exist for others.

Question 22.

system means equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet.

(A) Waranbandi
(B) Naranballi
(C) Hisssabandi
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Waranbandi

Explanation:
Warabandi is a system of equitable water distribution by turns according to a predetermined schedule specifying the day, time and duration of supply to each irrigation in proportion to holdings in the outlet command.

Question 23.

What was the main argument of Dennis Meadows in Limits to Growth?

(A) Limits to Growth has had a significant impact on the conception of environmental issues.
(B) Limits to Growth has had a limited impact on the conception of environmental issues.
(C) Limits to Growth has had a no impact on the conception of environmental issues.
(D) Limits to Growth has had a marginal impact on the conception of environmental issues.
Answer:
(A) Limits to Growth has had a significant impact on the conception of environmental issues.

Explanation:
The Limits to Growth is a 1972 report on the exponential economic and population growth with a finite supply of resources. Meadows states that Limits to Growth has had a significant impact on the conception of environmental issues and notes I that the models in the book were meant to be taken as predictions “Only in the most limited I sense of the World”.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The word ‘planning’ is not new to you.
Reason (R): You must have used it with reference to preparation for your examination or visit to a hill station.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Planning involves the process of thinking, formulation of a scheme or programme and implementation of a set of actions to achieve some goal.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): On 1 January 2015, the NITI Aayog was formed.
Reason (R): But on 1 January 2015, the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
NITI Aayog has been set up with the objective of involving the states in economic policy making for India for providing strategic and technical advice to the Central and State governments.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): There is no uniform economic development over space in any country.
Reason (R): Some areas are more developed and some lag behind.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
There are many reasons which explain differences in levels of development between countries. Factors such as climate, availability of resources, terrain and government type are important various regions of a country to development.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.
Reason (R): It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh.

Answer;
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Bharmaur is inhabited by ‘Gaddi’, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. The economy of this area is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh.
Reason (R): The social benefits derived from ITDP include tremendous increase in literacy rate, improvement in sex ratio and decline in child marriage.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
This plan laid the highest priority on development of transport and f communications, agriculture and allied f activities, and social and community services. The most significant contribution of tribal sub-plan in Bharmaur region is the development of infrastructure in terms of schools, healthcare facilities, potable water, roads, communications and electricity.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The term development is generally used to describe the state of every societies and the process of revolt experienced by them.
Reason (R): Development is a multi- dimensional concept and signifies the positive, irreversible transformation of the economy, society and environment. R

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The term development is generally used to describe the state of 1 particular societies and the process of changes experienced by them. During a fairly large period of human history, the state of the societies has largely been determined by the interaction processes between human societies and their bio- physical environment.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): In 1970s, the phrases such as redistribution with growth and growth and equity were incorporated in the definition of development.
Reason (R): In the post World War II era, the concept of development was synonymous to economic growth which is measured in terms of temporal increase in gross national product (GNP) and per capita income/per capita consumption. But,even the countries having high economic growth, experienced speedy rise in poverty because ofits unequal distribution.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
By 1980s, development emerge as a concept encapsulating wide-spread improvement in social as well as material well-being of all in a society.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India.
Reason (R): The canal originates at Harikebarrage in Punjab and runs parallel toPakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Conceived by Kanwar Sainin 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): The concept of development is dynamic and has evolved during the second half of twentieth century.
Reason (R): The notion of sustainable development emerged in the wake of general rise in the awareness of environmental issues in the late 1960s in Western World.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.”

Question 10.

Assertion (A): The ecological sustainability of Indira Gandhi Canal Project has been questioned by various scholars.
Reason (R): It is a hard fact that attaining sustainable development in the command area requires major thrust upon the measures to achieve ecological sustainability.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Their point of view has also largely been validated by the course of development this region has taken during the last four decades, which has resulted in degradation of physical environment.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets. Initially, this programme laid emphasis on the construction of labour-intensive civil works. But later on, it emphasised on irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation, grassland development and creation of basic rural infrastructure, such as electricity, roads, market, credit and services.

The National Committee on Development of Backward Areas reviewed the performance of this programme. It has been observed that this programme is largely confined to the development of agriculture and allied sectors with major focus on restoration of ecological balance. Since growing population pressure is forcing the society to utilise the marginal lands for agriculture, and, thereby causing ecological degradation, there is a need to create alternative employment opportunities in the drought-prone areas.

The other strategies of development of these areas include adoption of integrated watershed development approach at the micro-level. The restoration of ecological balance between water, soil, plants, and human and animal population should be a basic consideration in the strategy of development of drought-prone areas.

Question 1.

When was the Drought Prone Area Programme initiated?

(A) Fourth Five Year Plan
(B) Fifth Five Year Plan
(C) Sixth Five Year Plan
(D) Seventh Five Year Plan
Answer:
(A) Fourth Five Year Plan

Explanation:
DPAP was the earliest area devel-opment programme launched by the Central Government to tackle the special problems faced by those fragile areas, which are con-stantly affected by severe drought conditions.

Question 2.

What was its objective?

(A) Providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas
(B) Creation of basic rural infrastructure
(C) Afforestation
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
The basic objective of the programme was to minimise the adverse effects of drought on production of crops and livestock and productivity of land, water and human resources ultimately leading to drought proofing of the affected areas. In other words, the main objective was to create productive assets to mitigate the effects of droughts.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 3.

Who reviewed the performance of the DPAP?

(A) National Committee on Development Backward Areas
(B) National Commission on Development Backward Areas
(C) National Compartment on Development Backward Areas
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) National Committee on Development Backward Areas

Explanation:
Which is the other strategy of development that has been inculcated in these areas?

Question 4.

Which state has a low literacy rate?

(A) Integrated watershed development approach
(B) Integrated waterfall development approach
(C) Intelligent watershed development approach
(D) Integrated watershed department approach
Answer:
(A) Integrated watershed development approach

Explanation:
The main objective of IWMP is to restore ecological balance by harnessing, conserving and developing degraded natural resources such as soil, vegetative cover and water.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21 November 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by ‘Gaddi’, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km.

It is one of the most(economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio- economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’.

Question 1.

In which year was Bharmaur notified as a tribal area?

(A) 1965
(B) 1975
(C) 1985
(D) 1995
Answer:
(B) 1975

Explanation:
In 1975 the region of Bharmaur was notified as a tribal region.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 2.

What was the population of Bharmaur according to the 2011 Census?

(A) 39,113
(B) 29,113
(C) 49,113
(D) 59,113
Answer:
(A) 39,113

Question 3.

Bharmaur is the most economically backward area of …………….

(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Ladakh
Answer:
(B) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation:
Bharmour is a medium size village located in Brahmaur Tehsil of Chamba district, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 4.

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in when Gaddis were included among’scheduled tribes’.

(A) 1950s
(B) 1960s
(C) 1970s
(D) 1980s
Answer:
(C) 1970s

Explanation:
The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’. Under die Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harikebar rage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan.

The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19.63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 per cent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages.

The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 5.53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churn districts covering culturable command area of 14.10 lakh ha.

It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50°C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi Canal system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 1.

When was the Indira Gandhi Canal Project launched?

(A) 1948
(B) 1958
(C) 1968
(D) 1978
Answer:
(B) 1958

Explanation:
Stage of construction began in 1958and was completed in 1983. This stage is described as consisting of a 204 km feeder canal and 189 km main canal.

Question 2.

The canal caters to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of lakh hectares.

(A) 19.63
(B) 19.83
(C) 19.73
(D) 19.93
Answer:
(A) 19.63

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Explanation:
The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19.63 lakh hectares.

Question 3.

The command area of is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts.

(A) Stage I
(B) Stage II
(C) Stage III
(D) Stage IV
Answer:
(B) Stage II

Explanation:
The canal traverses seven districts of Rajasthan: Barmer, Bikaner, Churu, Hanuman garh, Jaisalmer, Jodhpur, and Sriganganagar.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Question 4.

In water is not transported by natural flow, but is lifted with pumps or surge pools.

(A) Lift canal
(B) Shift canal
(C) Substitute canal
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Lift canal

Explanation:
Lift canal isa method of irrigation in which water instead of being transported by natural flow requires external energy through animal, fuel based or electric power using 1 pumps or other mechanical means.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Mineral and Energy Resources Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Mineral And Energy Resources Class 12 MCQ Question 1.

…………… is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore.

(A) Copper
(B) Manganese
(C) Mica
(D) Bauxite
Answer:
(B) Manganese

Explanation:
Manganese removes oxygen and sulfur when iron ore is converted into iron. It also is an essential alloy that helps convert iron into steel.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Mineral And Energy Resources MCQ Chapter 7 Question 2.

The ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium is:

(A) Bauxite
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Gold
Answer:
(A) Bauxite

Explanation:
Bauxite ore is the world’s primary source of aluminium. The ore must first be chemically processed to produce alumina (aluminium oxide). Alumina is then smelted using an electrolysis process to produce pure aluminium metal.

MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Class 12 Question 3.

…………….. is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries.

(A) Mica
(B) Manganese
(C) Copper
(D) Brass
Answer:
(A) Mica

Explanation:
Mica is used principally in the electronic and electrical industries. Its usefulness in these applications is derived from j its unique electrical and thermal properties and its mechanical properties, which allow it to be cut, punched, stamped, and machined to close tolerances.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 12 MCQ Question 4.

97% of the coal reserve occurs in valley of:

(A) Damodar
(B) Spiti
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Roorkee
Answer:
(A) Damodar

Explanation:
Damodar basin is known for its coal deposits and commonly referred as the store house of Indian coal’.

Mineral Resources MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 5.

Petroleum reserves are located at:

(A) Punjab
(B) Mumbai High
(C) Haryana
(D) Jharia
Answer:
(B) Mumbai High

Explanation:
The Mumbai High Field, formerly called the Bombay High Field, is an offshore oil field 176 km off the west coast of Mumbai.

MCQs On Minerals And Energy Resources Class 12 Question 6.

Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the:

(A) Peninsular plateau region
(B) Northern Plains
(C) Himalayan Ranges
(D) Deccan range
Answer:
(A) Peninsular plateau region

Explanation:
Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari.

MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Class 12 Question 7.

…………… can be converted to electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking.

(A) Bio- energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Crude oil
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(A) Bio- energy

Explanation:
Bio-energy is a form of renewableenergy that is derived from recently living organic materials known as biomass, which can be used to produce transportation fuels, heat, electricity, and product

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 8.

The kinetic energy of wind, through turbines is converted into :

(A) bio- energy
(B) electrical energy
(C) geothermal energy
(D) solar energy
Answer:
(B) electrical energy

Explanation:
Electrical energy is energy derived as a result of movement of electrons.

Mineral MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 9.

………….. is absolutely pollution free, inexhaustible source of energy.

(A) Wind energy
(B) Mineral fuels
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Coal energy
Answer:
(A) Wind energy

Explanation:
Using wind to produce energy has fewer effects on the environment than many other energy sources. Wind turbines do j not release emissions that can pollute the air or water (with rare exceptions), and they do not require water for cooling.

Question 10.

Minerals are formed by inorganic processes of :

(A) short duration
(B) long duration
(C) stagnant duration
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) long duration

Explanation:
Mineral, naturally occurring homogeneous solid with a definite chemical composition and a highly ordered atomic arrangement; it is usually formed by inorganic processes.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Question 11.

The energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are :

(A) exhaustible resources
(B) inexhaustible resources
(C) alternate energy
(D) available resources
Answer:
(B) inexhaustible resources

Explanation:
Mineral, naturally occurring homogeneous solid with a definite chemical composition and a highly ordered atomic g arrangement; it is usually formed by inorganic processes.

Question 12.

Minerals which do not contain iron are known as:

(A) Ferrous minerals
(B) Non- ferrous minerals
(C) Nuclear minerals
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Non- ferrous minerals

Explanation:
All pure metals are non- ferrous elements except iron.

Question 13.

Minerals can be divided into how many categories?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer:
(B) Two

Explanation:
Minerals are classified based on their crystal form and chemistry. Minerals are divided into two types namely metallic and 1 non- metallic.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Question 14.

………….. minerals are magnetic and give little resistance to corrosion.

(A) Ferrous
(B) Non- ferrous
(C) Metallic
(D) Cast
Answer:
(A) Ferrous

Explanation:
Ferrous minerals are generally magnetic by nature and have high tensile strength, making them ideal in construction.

Question 15.

Minerals that have no metallic lustre and break easily are called:

(A) Non- metallic minerals
(B) Metallic minerals
(C) Delicate Minerals
(D) Hard minerals
Answer:
(A) Non- metallic minerals

Explanation:
Non-metallicmaterialslackmetallic characteristics like good electric and thermic I conductivity, luster, rigor, and malleability; they are, however, essential for many industries.

Question 16.

Resources can be defined as homogenous, naturally occurring, inorganic materials that are of economic interest in or on the crust of the Earth. U

(A) Solar
(B) Nuclear
(C) Mineral
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Mineral

Explanation:
A mineral resource is a concentration of natural solid inorganic or fossilized organic material, including metals, coal and minerals in sufficient quantity and quality to have reasonable prospects for economic extraction.

Question 17.

Bauxite, iron ore, manganese and limestone are found in:

(A) North-Western Region
(B) South-Western Plateau region
(C) North-Eastern Region
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) South-Western Plateau region

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Explanation:
The South-Western plateau region covers major parts of Karnataka, Goa, and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala. Major mineral resources of South-Western plateau region are iron ore, manganese, and limestone. Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, and bauxite, clay and Goa has deposits of iron ore.

Question 18.

Copper, zinc, sandstone, granite, marble, petroleum deposits and salt are found in:

(A) East-Western Region
(B) South-Western Plateau Region
(C) North-Eastern Region
(D) North-Western Region
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Major minerals of North-Western regions are copper and zinc; other significant minerals include sandstone, granite, and marble, along with Gypsum and Fuller’s earth deposits. In addition, Gujarat and Rajasthan, both have rich sources of salt.

Question 19.

How many minerals are mined in India ?

(A) 48
(B) 58
(C) 68
(D) 78
Answer:
(C) 68

Explanation:
India is endowed with huge resources of many metallic and non-metallic minerals.

Question 20.

Arrange the bauxite producing states from the highest to the lowest.

(i) Jharkhand
(ii) Odisha
(iii) Andhra Pradesh
(iv) Gujarat Options:
(A) ii, iii, iv, i
(B) iii, ii, iv, i
(C) iv, ii, iii, i
(D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
(A) ii, iii, iv, i

Explanation:
Odisha alone constitutes almost 50% of India’s bauxite production and has about 325,269 thousand tonnes of bauxite reserves.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Question 21.

Which state is the largest producer of Coal in India?

(A) Bihar
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Manipur
(D) Jharkhand
Answer:
(D) Jharkhand

Explanation:
Jharkhand has the largest coal deposits of 25.88%.

Question 22.

……………… fuels are essential for generation of power, required by agriculture, industry, transport and other sectors of the economy.

(A) Solar
(B) Mineral
(C) Electrical
(D) Nuclear
Answer:
(B) Mineral

Question 23.

Coal, Petroleum and Natural gas are:

(A) Conventional sources of energy
(B) Non- conventional sources of energy
(C) Exhausted sources of energy
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Conventional sources of energy

Explanation:
When we cannot reuse a source of energy after using it once we call them conventional sources of energy”.

Question 24.

Arrange the states having the highest Coal reserves to the lowest (as per 2020).

(i) Odisha
(ii) Jharkhand
(iii) Chhattisgarh
(iv) West Bengal
Options:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) iv, iii, ii, i
(C) ii, i, iii, iv
(D) iv, iii, i, ii
Answer:
(C) ii, i, iii, iv

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Explanation:
Jharkhand tops the list of coal reserves with an estimated reserve of 83,152 million tonnes. Jharia mines in Dhanbad district is one of the principal coal mines of the

Question 25.

Arrange the states having the highest Crude oil producing capacity to the lowest (as per 2019-20) :

(i) Assam
(ii) Gujarat
(iii) Rajasthan
(iv) Tam il Nadu
Options:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) iv. ii, iii, j
(C) iii, ii, i, iv
(D) ii, j, iii, iv
Answer:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv

Explanation:
The onshore Crude oil production across the Indian state of Assam amounted to almost 4.3 million metric tons at the end of fiscal year 2019. About 71 percent of the crude oil production in the country was done by Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, which is a state owned enterprise.

Question 26.

Which is the largest oil refinery in India?

(A) Jharia
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Jamnagar
(D) Ghaziabad
Answer:
(C) Jamnagar

Explanation:
The Jamnagar Refinery is a private sector crude oil refinery owned by Reliance Industries Limited in Jamnagar, Gujarat, India.

Question 27.

Non- conventional resources are :

(A) Artificial resources
(B) Imaginary resources
(C) Natural resources
(D) Replaceable resources
Answer:
(B) Imaginary resources

Explanation:
A non- renewable resource is a natural resource that cannot be readily replaced by natural means at a pace quick enough to keep up with consumption.

Question 28.

The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of quest for economic development with concerns.

(A) Social
(B) Political
(C) Environmental
(D) Educational
Answer:
(C) Environmental

Question 29.

Renewable energy resources are also known as :

(A) Alternative energy resources
(B) Collective energy resources
(C) Available energy resources
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Alternative energy resources

Explanation:
Alternative energy resources includes all renewable and nuclear energy sources.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Question 30.

methods of resource use result into generating enormous quantity of waste as well as create other environmental problems.

(A) Modern
(B) Collective
(C) Primitive
(D) Traditional
Answer:
(D) Traditional

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions:
In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The promotion of the use of non- conventional sources of energy in India is the need of the hour.
Reason (R): Unlike conventional sources of energy, most of the non- conventional energy sources are cheaper and renewable.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The overall limitation and scarcity of fossil fuels have given rise to the urgent need for exploiting alternative energy sources.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Power from non- conventional and renewable sources is must in order to reduce carbon dioxide emissions of the coal-based power plants. Reason (R): It is exhaustible in nature and environment-friendly.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Explanation:
Non- conventional energy sources | like hydropower, solar, and wind energy are 1 environment friendly sources.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Minerals have certain characteristics.
Reason (R): These are evenly distributed over space.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Minerals are unevenly distributed over space. These variations exist largely because of difference in the geological structure processes and time involved in the 1 I formation of minerals.

Question 4.

Assertion (A):A11 minerals are inexhaustible over time.
Reason (R): These take long to develop geologically and they cannot be replenished immediately at the time of need

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
All minerals are truly exhaustible 1 natural resources. Exhaustible resources means resources which cannot be generated 2 back easily. Natural minerals are formed after a very long period of time. Thus, they have to be conserved and not misused as they do not have the second crop.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India.
Reason (R): Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India is a rich country in terms of minerals. Most of the metallic minerals occur in the Peninsular Plateau region in the old crystalline rocks. River valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi, and Godavari have over 97% of coal reserves in India.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The North-Eastern Plateau Region belt covers Chhotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha Plateau, West Bengal and parts of Chhattisgarh. Reason (R): Major iron and steel industry are located in this region.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The region has rich reserves of iron ore of mainly haematite variety. Availability of good quality of iron ore at low cost, provides ideal location for setting up of iron and steel industries.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): The South-Western Plateau Region belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
Reason (R): This belt does not have as diversified mineral deposits as the North-Eastern belt.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Explanation:
This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. It also contains high grade iron ( ore, manganese and limestone) This belt lacks S in coal deposits except Neyveli lignite.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): The North-Western Region belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat.
Reason (R): Gujarat is known for its petroleum deposits.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Gujarat houses about 20% of total estimated crude oil reserves of India and about 4% of total estimated natural gas reserves.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Our country is well-placed in respect of ferrous minerals both in reserves and production.
Reason (R): Ferrous minerals such as iron ore manganese, chromite, etc., provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Our country is well-placed in respect of ferrous minerals both in reserves and production. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar system.
Reason (B): Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Odisha is the largest producer of manganese ores in India. It accounted for one-third of the country’s total production in 2000

Question 11.

Assertion (A): India is poorly endowed with non- ferrous metallic minerals except bauxite.
Reason (R): Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 12.

Assertion (A): Among the non- metallic minerals produced in India, Mica is the important one.
Reason (R): Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Mica is one of the most indispensable minerals used in electric and electronic industries, due to its Di-electric strength, low power factor insulating properties and resistance to high voltage.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Question 13.

Assertion (A): Coal is a one of the important ‘ minerals.
Reason (R): Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages,namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Coal is one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power and smelting of iron ore.

Question 14.

Assertion (A): Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times.
Reason (R): Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are Uranium and thorium.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Nuclear power is presently a sustainable energy source. Since Uranium extracted is continuously replenished through geologic processes, nuclear would become as endless as solar.

Question 15.

Assertion (A): There is an urgent need to conserve the resources.
Reason (R): For sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for the future generations.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
We need to conserve our natural resources because it is the main source of our daily needs. We need to conserve it because they are available in limited quantity only.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Fossil fuel sources, such as coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear energy use exhaustible raw materials. Sustainable energy resources are only the renewable energy sources like solar, wind, hydro geothermal and biomass. These energy sources are more equitably distributed and environment friendly. The non- conventional energy sources will provide more sustained, eco-friendly cheaper energy after the initial cost is taken care of.

Question 1.

What are the sources of fossil fuels?

(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Natural gas
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
Fossil fuels are made from de-composing plants and animals. There are three main fossil fuels: coal, petroleum and natural

Question 2.

Sustainable energy sources:

(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Gas energy
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(A) Solar energy

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Explanation:
Sustainable energy is an energy that is produced from natural processes and continuously replenished.

Question 3.

Geothermal energy allows us to fetch energy from:

(A) the Earth’s surface.
(B) beneath the Earth’s surface.
(C) the water bodies.
(D) the air particles.
Answer:
(B) beneath the Earth’s surface.

Explanation:
Geothermal energy, form of energy conversion in which heat energy from within Earth is captured and harnessed for cooking, bathing, space heating, electrical power generation, and other uses.

Question 4.

Renewable energy sources also called:

(A) Non- conventional energy sources
(B) Conventional energy sources
(C) Ferrous energy sources
(D) Non- ferrous energy sources
Answer:
(A) Non- conventional energy sources

Explanation:
Renewable energy comes from natural sources or processes that are constantly replenished. For example, sunlight or wind.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Sun rays tapped in photo voltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy. The two effective processes considered to be very effective to tap solar energy are photo voltaics and solar thermal technology. Solar thermal technology has some relative advantages over all other non renewable energy sources.

It is cost competitive, environment friendly and easy to construct. Solar energy is 7 per cent more effective than coal or oil based, plants and 10 per cent more effective than nuclear plants. It is generally used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

Question 1.

Solar energy is a ………….. source of energy.

(A) Conventional
(B) Non- conventional
(C) Perishable
(D) Non- perishable
Answer:
(B) Non- conventional

Explanation:
Solar energy is the most readily available source of energy. It is also the most important of the non- conventional sources of energy because it is non- polluting and, there fore, helps in lessening the greenhouse effect. Solar energy has been used since prehistoric times, but in a most primitive manner.

Question 2.

…………….. System is a system that converts sunlight into heat.

(A) Solar thermal
(B) Solar heat
(C) Solar conversion
(D) Solar Calculation
Answer:
(A) Solar thermal

Explanation:
Solar thermal energy is a form of energy and a technology used for harnessing solar energy to generate thermal energy for household and industrial use.

Question 3.

What are the advantages of using Solar energy?

(A) Reduces electricity bills
(B) Low maintenance cost
(C) Diverse applications
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
Among all the benefits of solar panels, the most important thing is that solar energy is a truly renewable energy source.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Question 4.

States which have great potential to develop Solar energy.

(A) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(B) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(C) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
(D) Gujarat and Maharashtra
Answer:
(B) Gujarat and Rajasthan

III. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of quest for economic development with environmental concerns. Traditional methods of resource use result into generating enormous quantity of waste as well as create other environmental problems. Hence, for sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for the future generations. There is an urgent need to conserve the resources. The alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are inexhaustible resources.

These should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources. In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals. Use of scrap is especially significant in metals like copper, lead and zinc in which India’s reserves are meagre. Use of substitutes for scarce metals may also reduce their consumption. Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be reduced, so that the existing reserve may be used for a longer period.

Question 1.

Sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for the generations.

(A) present
(B) past
(C) future
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(C) future

Explanation:
Sustainable development is defined as development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their demands.

Question 2.

Alternative energy source :

(A) Solar energy
(B) Hydro energy
(C) Tidal energy
(D) All of the Above
Answer;
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
Alternative energy is any energy source that does not use fossil fuels.

Question 3.

Why is the conservation of mineral resources important?

(A) They are limited in number.
(B) They are the country’s asset.
(C) Indispensable part of our lives.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(D) All of the above.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Explanation:
Conservation of mineral resources is essential because they are a country’s valuable possession.

Question 4.

Why is scrap metal important?

(A) Less pollution
(B) Can be recycled
(C) Can be exported
(D) Great country asset
Answer:
(B) Can be recycled

Explanation:
Scrap metals like aluminium, copper, steel, brass, and iron are recycled to make a wide variety of new products. Using scrap metal for numerous products reduces waste and helps to preserve the environment for future generations.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Water Resources Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Water Resources Class 12 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 1.

The river basin which makes the maximum utilisation of groundwater is ………

(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Satluj
(D) Indus
Answer:
(B) Brahmaputra

Explanation:
Ganga has about 46 per cent of the total replenish able groundwater resources. The level of groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in north-western region and parts of south India.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Water Resources MCQ Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 2.

The river basin which makes the minimum utilisation of groundwater:

(A) Ganga
(B) Luni
(C) Subarnrekha
(D) Brahmaputra
Answer:
(D) Brahmaputra

Explanation:
The digging of wells, the over use of water and the highly economic conditions such as uses of water becomes four times of the past years and the agriculture irrigation, tube wells and the use of water over large field cause decline in the level of groundwater utilization.

Class 12 Geography Water Resources MCQ Question 3.

Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh more than 85 per cent of their net sown area is under :

(A) irrigation
(B) agriculture
(C) pesticides
(D) wasteland
Answer:
(A) irrigation

Explanation:
These states prosperity has been largely due to the state’s development of agriculture. One factor that makes these states a productive agricultural area is its fertile soil,

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

MCQ Of Water Resources Class 12 Question 4.

The North-western India and Deccan Plateau are deficient in :

(A) population
(B) rainfall
(C) moist air
(D) sunlight
Answer:
(B) rainfall

Explanation:
The Western Ghats mountain range is very massive and blocks the moisture from the southwest monsoon from reaching the Deccan Plateau, so the region receives very little rainfall.

Class 12 Water Resources MCQ Question 5.

The per capita availability of water is dwindling day by day due to the:

(A) decrease in population
(B) increase in population
(C) stagnation in population
(D) no change in population
Answer:
(B) increase in population

Explanation:
Increasing population, rising demands for food and cash crops, increasing urbanisation and rising standards of living are the major factors leading to shortages in supply of fresh water either due to drying up of water sources or water pollution.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources MCQ Question 6.

The purity of water or water without unwanted foreign substances is known as:

(A) water quality
(B) water quantity
(C) water availability
(D) water scarcity
Answer:
(A) water quality

Explanation:
The most common standards used to monitor and assess water quality convey the health of ecosystems, safety of human contact, and condition of drinking water.

Water Resources Class 12 MCQs Question 7.

…………… involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation  tanks, recharge wells, etc.

(A) Watershed management
(B) Rainwater harvesting
(C) Underground preservation
(D) All the Above
Answer:
(A) Watershed management

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Explanation:
Watershed management recharges the groundwater table. Restores soil fertility and helps in soil conservation Restores water for drinking.

MCQ On Water Resources Class 12 Question 8.

Traditional ………… in rural areas is done by using surface storage bodies like lakes, ponds, irrigation tanks.

(A) rain water harvesting
(B) ground water preservation
(C) watershed management
(D) storage management
Answer:
(A) rain water harvesting

Explanation:
Rainwater harvesting is the collection and storage of rain, rather than allowing it to run off

Water Resources Class 12 Geography MCQ Question 9.

The area from which rainfall flows into a river, lake or reservoir is called a area.

(A) connecting
(B) catchment
(C) flooding
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) catchment

Explanation:
A catchment is an area of land where water collects when it rains, often bounded by hills. As the water flows over the landscapeit finds its way into streams and down into the soil, eventually feeding the river.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Water Resources Class 12th MCQ Chapter 6 Question 10.

An area of shallow body of water separated from the sea by barrier islands or reefs is known as:

(A) Backwaters
(B) Catchment area
(C) Lagoon
(D) Lake
Answer:
(C) Lagoon

Explanation:
A lagoon is a body of water separated from larger bodies of water by a natural barrier. Lagoons are separated from larger bodies of water by sandbars, barrier reefs, coral reefs, or other natural barriers.

MCQs Of Water Resources Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 11.

Which sector grounds for most of the surface and groundwater utilisation?

(A) Agriculture
(B) Industrial
(C) Household
(D) Medical
Answer:
(A) Agriculture

Explanation:
Agriculture sectors accounts for most of the groundwater utilisation. In agriculture, water is mainly used for irrigation,

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

MCQ Water Resources Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 12.

Which state utilises very small proportion of their groundwater potentials.

(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Odisha
(C) Kerala
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, etc., utilise only a small proportion of their groundwater potentials. This is due to the fact that the underground water potential of these states is low as compared to other states.

MCQ Of Chapter 6 Water Resources Class 12 Question 13.

Name the rivers which have huge catchment areas.

(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Krishna
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
These rivers are also harnessed in their upstream catchment area to generate hydroelectricity.

Water Resources Class 12th MCQs Chapter 6 Question 14.

Water held underground in the soil or in pores and crevices in rocks is called as:

(A) Groundwater
(B) Underground water
(C) Inaccessible water
(D) Clear water
Answer:
(A) Groundwater

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Explanation:
Groundwater is that water that occurs below the surface of Earth, where it occupies all or part of the void spaces in soils or geologic strata.

Chapter 6 Water Resources Class 12 MCQ Question 15.

Why is irrigation required?

(A) For progress
(B) Due to uneven rain distribution
(C) To aid agriculture
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer:
(D) Both (B) and (C)

Explanation:
The monsoons are uncertain. So irrigation is necessary to protect crops from drought as a result of uncertain rainfall. Irrigation enhances agricultural productivity and it also promotes stability in production of crops. Irrigation ful fills the water requirement of such crops.

Geography Class 12 Water Resources MCQ Question 16.

About two-thirds of its population have been dependent on:

(A) Agriculture
(B) Industrialisation
(C) Monsoons
(D) Trade
Answer:
(A) Agriculture

Explanation:
The majority of the working f population is engaged in agriculture due to the importance of agriculture. Agriculture is responsible for meeting food requirements and a industrial needs.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Class 12 Geography Ch 6 Water Resources MCQ Question 17.

The supply of water to land or crops to help growth, typically by means of channels is known as:

(A) Agriculture
(B) Irrigation
(C) Horticulture
(D) Vericulture
Answer:
(B) Irrigation

Explanation:
Irrigation is the artificial process of applying controlled amounts of water to land to assist in production of crops.

Ch 6 Water Resources Class 12 MCQ Question 18.

Provision of irrigation makes cropping possible.

(A) Single
(B) Multiple
(C) Foreign
(D) New
Answer:
(B) Multiple

Explanation:
Since India has a tropical and sub-tropical climate, it has potentialities to grow crops on a year-round basis. Provision of irrigation facilities can make possible the growing of two or three crops in a year in most areas of the country.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 19.

Bhakra- Nangal, Hirakud, Damodar Valley, Nagarjuna Sagar, Indira Gandhi Canal Project, etc, are:

(A) Picnic spots
(B) Tourist areas
(C) Multipurpose river valley projects
(D) Irrigation points
Answer:
(C) Multipurpose river valley projects

Explanation:
Dams are referred to as multipurpose projects where the many uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another. economy is a type of economy that relies primarily on agricultural industry including livestock farming or crop production.

Question 20.

An ……………. economy is a type of economy that relies primarily on agricultural industry including livestock farming or crop production.

(A) Traditional
(B) Agrarian
(C) Old
(D) Underdeveloped
Answer:
(B) Agrarian

Explanation:
An agrarian society, is any community whose economy is based on producing and maintaining crops and farmland.

Question 21.

can be defined as a process that extracts minerals from saline water.

(A) Salination
(B) Desalination
(C) Detoxication
(D) Saturation
Answer:
(B) Desalination

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Explanation:
Desalination is a process that takes away mineral components from saline g water. More generally, desalination refers to the removal of salts and minerals from water.

Question 22.

Sewage disposal, urban run-off, toxic effluents from industries,run-off over cultivated lands and nuclear power plants are examples of:

(A) Water source
(B) Water pollutants
(C) Water residue
(D) Water storage
Answer:
(B) Water pollutants

Explanation:
The main water pollutants include bacteria, viruses, parasites, fertilisers, pesticides, pharmaceutical products, nitrates, phosphates, plastics, faecal waste and even radioactive substances.

Question 23.

Name the board that monitors the water quality of national aquatic resources.

(A) The Central Pollution Centre Board
(B) The Central Pollution Control Board
(C) The Central Pollution Communication Board
(D) The Central Pollution Common Board
Answer:
(B) The Central Pollution Control Board

Explanation:
The main function of CPCB is to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 24.

River water is used for:

(A) Irrigation
(B) Drinking
(C) domestic and industrial purposes
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
River water is a surface water source and a part of the water cycle. It can be used for households, irrigation, processing in industries or for the production of energy. means using treated waste water for other purposes.

Question 25.

…………….. means using treated waste water for other purposes.

(A) Reclaimed waste water
(B) Relieved waste water
(C) Reclaimed waste water
(D) Reclaimed waste water
Answer:
(D) Reclaimed waste water

Explanation:
Water reclamation is the process of converting municipal wastewater or industrial wastewater into water that can be reused for a variety of purposes.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 26.

Recycled Water generally refers to treated wastewater.

(A) Domestic
(B) Industrial
(C) Social
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Domestic

Explanation:
Recycled Water generally refers to treated domestic wastewater that is used more than once before it passes back into the water cycle.

Question 27.

What is the local name of rainwater harvesting structure in Rajasthan?

(A) Kund
(B) Tanka
(C) Nalka
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation:
A taanka, are also known as a tanka or kunds, is a traditional rainwater harvesting technique, common to the Thar desert region of Rajasthan.

Question 28.

Neeru- Meeru programme belongs to which state?

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(A) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation:
Poverty eradication by Neeru-Meeru, an initiative undertaken by government of Andhra Pradesh.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 29.

What determines the success of watershed development?

(A) Government policies
(B) MNCs help
(C) Community participation
(D) Individual effort
Answer:
(C) Community participation

Explanation:
Participatory watershed manage- ment is seen as a process which aims to create a self-supporting system and is essential for 1 sustainability of economy.

Question 30.

…………….. is a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government.

(A) Haryali
(B) Hawarahili
(C) Harwara
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Haryali

Explanation:
Haryali aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 31.

Rivers can be important remedies for solving problem in India.

(A) Rain
(B) Water
(C) Land
(D) Flow
Answer:
(B) Water

Question 32.

Water is a recyclable resource but its availability is:

(A) Limited
(B) Abundant
(C) Unlimited
(D) Endless
Answer:
(A) Limited

Explanation:
Freshwater is a renewable source because it can be used over and over again, as it has a cycle. However, freshwater is also a limited resource, because less than 3% of the world’s water is fresh. And more than 75% of the world’s freshwater is being stored in glaciers and ice caps.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Water scarcity is possibly to pose the greatest challenge on account of its increased demand coupled with shrinking supplies due to over utilization and pollution.
Reason (R): The per capita availability of water is dwindling day by day due to increase in population.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The available water resources are also getting polluted with industrial, agricultural and domestic effluents, and this, in turn, is further limiting the availability of usable water resources.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Water is a cyclic resource with abundant supplies on the globe.
Reason (R): The availability of fresh water varies over space and time.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
A cyclic resource is what which can be formed again and again, Similarly water is a cyclic resource. It can be recycled and reused. Approximately, 71 per cent of the earth’s surface 1 1 is covered with water.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The states of Punjab, Haryana and Tamil Nadu were regions for green revolution.
Reason (R): The states of Punjab, Haryana and Tamil Nadu have agriculture supported mainly by irrigated water and the main source for it is the underground water.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Explanation:
All the green revolution crops are water intensive, hence the demand for water in these states is very high. These regions have soft alluvial soil which allows the rain water to seep down and recharge the underground water table. This area is easy to be dug, hence extraction of underground water is easiest source of water.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): In Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh more than 85 per cent of their net sown area is under irrigation.
Reason (R): Of the total net irrigated area 76.1 per cent in Punjab and 51.3 per cent in Haryana are irrigated through wells and tube wells.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
This shows that these states 5 utilize large proportion of their groundwater ? potential which has resulted in groundwater depletion in these states.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): At present the agriculture use accounts for the lowest share of utilization for both ground and surface water resources.
Reason (R): This in turn will reduce the share of the agriculture and increase the share of industrial and domestic sector in the consumption of all resources including the water resources of the country.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
At present the agriculture use accounts for the highest share of utilization for both ground and surface water resources. The main reason being that the agriculture accounts or the largest share in economy of the country, but in recent times the share of secondary and tertiary activities have been rising in the economy.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Although, water is generally brackish in these water bodies, it is used for fishing and irrigating certain varieties of paddy crops,coconut, etc.
Reason (R): The States like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources in the lagoons and lakes.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Water, the best and the most reliable method which can be used for Kerala is the construction of storage reservoirs for impounding water during the monsoon and utilizing the water in the reservoir for critical periods of the crops.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Development of irrigation to increase agricultural production has been assigned a very high priority in the Five Year Plans.
Reason (R): India’s water demand at present is dominated by irrigational needs.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India has traditionally been an agrarian economy, and about two-third of its population have been dependent on agriculture.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): The share of agricultural sector in total water utilisation is much higher than other sectors.
Reason (R): Agriculture accounts for most of the surface and groundwater utilisation.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Explanation:
Agriculture accounts for 89 percent of the surface water and 92 per cent of the groundwater utilisation.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): The large tracts of the country are deficient in rainfall and are drought prone.
Reason (R): North-western India and Deccan plateau constitute such areas.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Winter and summer seasons are more or less dry in these parts of the country.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Provision of irrigation makes single cropping possible.
Reason (R): It has also been found that irrigated lands have higher agricultural productivity than inaugurated land.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Provision of irrigation makes multiple cropping possible. Since India has a tropical and sub-tropical climate, it has 1 potentialities to grow crops on a year-round basis. Provision of irrigation facilities can make possible the growing of two or three crops in a : I year in most areas of the country.

Question 11.

Assertion (A): Water gets polluted by foreign matters, such as micro-organisms, chemicals, industrial and other wastes.
Reason (R): The Ganga and the Yamuna are the two highly clean rivers in the country.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Explanation:
When toxic substances enter lakes,streams, rivers, ocean and other water bodies, they get dissolved or lie suspended in water This results in pollution of water whereby quality of water deteriorates affecting aquatic systems.

Question 12.

Assertion (A): Another way through which we can improve fresh water availability is by recycle and reduce.
Reason (R): This would conserve better quality of water for drinking purposes.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Another way through which we can improve fresh water availability is by recycle and reuse. In urban are as water after bathing and washing utensils can be used for gardening. Water used for washing vehicle can also be used for gardening. This would conserve better quality of water for drinking purposes.

Question 13.

Assertion (A): Watershed management involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater.
Reason (R): The success of watershed development largely depends upon community participation.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance , between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 14.

Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses.
Reason (R): Rainwater harvesting increases water availability, checks the declining groundwater table, improves the quality of groundwater.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation o

Explanation:
Rainwater harvesting is used to recharge groundwater aquifers. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rain water to bore well, pits and wells.

Question 15.

Assertion (A): The dumping of industrial waste into rivers leads to water pollution.
Reason (R): The Yamuna river is the most polluted river in the country.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Industries and industrial sites are a major contributor to water pollution, Industrial waste from agricultural sites, mines and manufacturing plants can make its way I into rivers, streams and other bodies of water 1 that lead directly to the sea.

Question 16.

Assertion (A): Water is not the most essential component of life and is vital for sustenance.
Reason (R): Level of groundwater is decreasing day by day. It leads to the scarcity of potable drinking water.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Water is the most essential component of life and is vital for sustenance. Without water people cannot live, without water plants cannot live, without water animal cannot live.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
AvaiLable water resources are degrading rapidly. The major rivers of the country generally retain better water quality in less densely populated
upper stretches in hilly areas. In plains, river water is used intensively for irrigation, drinking, domestic and industrial purposes. The drains carrying agricultural (fertilizers and insecticides), domestic (solid and liquid wastes), and industrial effluents join the rivers. The concentration of pollutants in rivers, especially remains very high during the summer season when flow of water is low. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in collaboration with State Pollution Control Boards has been monitoring water quality of national aquatic resources at 507 stations.

The data obtained from these stations show that organic and bacterial contamination continues to be the main source of pollution in rivers. The Yamuna river is the most polluted river in the country between Delhi and Etawah. Other severely polluted rivers are: the Sabarmati at Ahmedabad, the Gomti at Lucknow, the Kali, the Adyar, the Cooum (entire stretches), the Vaigai at Madurai and the Musi of Hyderabad and the Ganga at Kanpur and Varanasi. Ground water pollution has occurred due to high concentrations of heavy/toxic metals, fluoride and nitrates at different parts of the country.

Question 1.

Why the available water resources are degrading rapidly?

(A) Border conflicts
(B) Concentration of pollutants is very high
(C) Drying up of water bodies
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Concentration of pollutants is very high

Explanation:
Water pollution happens when toxic substances enter water bodies such as lakes, rivers, oceans and so on, getting dis-solved in them, lying suspended in the water or depositing on the bed. This degrades the quality of water.

Question 2.

What is the main role of CPCB?

(A) Environmental assessments and research
(B) Maintaining national standards under a variety of environmental laws
(C) conduct monitoring of water quality
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Explanation:
The primary objective/goal of the CPCB is to promote cleanliness and restore wholesomeness of water in wells and streams.

Quesrtion 3.

When was the CPCB established?

(A) 1964
(B) 1974
(C) 1984
(D) 1994
Answer:
(B) 1974

Explanation:
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974.

Question 4.

Why does the concentration of pollutants in rivers, especially remains very high during the summer season?

(A) Due to high flow of water
(B) Due to high precipitation level
(C) Due to low flow of water
(D) Due to increased industrial use
AnsweR:
(C) Due to low flow of water

Explanation:
The drains carrying agricultural (fertilizers and insecticides), domestic (solid and liquid wastes), and industrial effluents join the rivers. The concentration of pollutants in rivers, especially remains very high during the summer season when flow of water is low.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ralegan Siddhi is a small village in the district of Ahmednagar, Maharashtra. It has become an example for watershed development throughout the country. In 1975, this village was caught in a web of poverty and illicit liquor trade. The transformation took place when a retired army personnel, settled down in the village and took up the task of watered development. He convinced villagers about the importance of family planning and voluntary labour; preventing open grazing, felling trees, and liquor prohibition.

Voluntary labour was necessary to ensure minimum dependence on the government for financial aids. “It socialised the costs of the projects”, explained the activist. Even those who were working outside the village contributed to the development by committing a month’s salary every year. Work began with the percolation tank constructed in the village. In 1975, the tank could not hold water. The embankment wall leaked. People voluntarily repaired the embankment. The seven wells below it swelled with water in summer for the first time in the living memory of the people. The people reposed their faith in him and his visions.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

A youth group called Tarun Mandal was formed. The group worked to ban the dowry system, caste discrimination and untouchability. Liquor distilling units were removed and prohibition imposed. Open grazing was completely banned with a new emphasis on stall-feeding. The cultivation of water-intensive crops like sugarcane was banned. Crops such as pulses, oil seeds and certain cash crops with low water requirements were encouraged. All elections to local bodies began to be held on the basis of consensus.

“It made the community leaders complete representatives of the people.” A system of Nyay Panchayats (informal courts) were also set up. Since then, no case has been referred to the police. A Rs. 22 lakh school building was constructed using only the resources of the village. No donations were taken. Money, if needed, was borrowed and paid back. The villagers took pride in this self-reliance. A new system of sharing labour grew out of this infusion of pride and voluntary spirit. People volunteered to help each other in agricultural operation. Landless labourers also gained employment. Today the village plans to buy land for them in adjoining villages.

At present, water is adequate; agriculture is flourishing, though the use of fertilizers and pesticides is very high. The prosperity also brings the question of ability of the present generation to carry on the work after the leader of the movement who declared that, “The process of Ralegan’s evolution to an ideal village will not stop. With changing times, people tend to evolve new ways. In future, Ralegan might present a different model to the country.”

Question 1.

In which state is Ralegan Siddhi situated?

(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(C) Maharashtra

Explanation:
Ralegan Siddhi is a small village 1 of Ahmadnagar district, Maharashtra, India.

Question 2.

What happened to the embankment wall in 1975?

(A) Fell down
(B) Leaked
(C) Held steady
(D) Destroyed by terrorists
Answer:
(B) Leaked

Explanation:
In 1975, the tank could not hold water. The embankment wall leaked.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 3.

What name was given to the youth group formed?

(A) Youth Ekta
(B) Yuva Mandal
(C) Tarun Mandal
(D) Students to Soldiers
Answer:
(C) Tarun Mandal

Explanation:
A youth group called Tarun Mandal was formed. The group worked to ban the dowry system, caste discrimination and untouchability.

Question 4.

How much donation was arranged to construct school building?

(A) Nil
(B) Rs. 10 lakhs
(C) Rs. 20 lakhs
(D) Rs. 22 lakhs
Answer:
(A) Nil

Explanation:
A Rs. 22 lakh school building was constructed using only the resources of the village.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

OR

Question 1.

Ralegan Siddhi is an example of:

(A) Rainwater harvesting
(B) Watershed development
(C) Afforestation
(D) Social security
Answer:
(B) Watershed development

Explanation:
Watershed development refers to the conservation; regeneration and the judicious use of all the natural resources particularly land, water, vegetation and animals and human development.

Question 2.

Which trade proliferated in the village in mid 1970s?

(A) Smuggling
(B) Illicit liquor
(C) Trafficking
(D) Black marketing
Answer:
(B) Illicit liquor

Explanation:
In 1975, this village was caught in f a web of poverty and illicit liquor trade.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 3.

What was necessary to ensure minimum dependence on government?

(A) Voluntary aid
(B) Voluntary capital
(C) Voluntary land
(D) Voluntary labour
Answer:
(D) Voluntary labour

Explanation:
Voluntary labour was necessary to ensure minimum dependence on the government for financial aids.

Question 4.

The term Nyaya Panchayats refers to:

(A) Formal courts
(B) Informal courts
(C) Formal police
(D) Informal police
Answer:
(B) Informal courts

Explanation:
Nyaya Panchayat is a part of the Panchayat system which is formed to setile disputes among the villagers. ;

III. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: u1 Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human with in a watershed.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of watershed development largely depends upon comm u nih’ participation. The Central and State Governments have initiated many watershed development and management programmes in the country. Some of these are being implemented by non-governmental organisations

also. Haryali watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation. The Project is being executed by Gram Panchayats with people’s participation. Neeru- Meeru (Water and You) programme (in Andhra Pradesh) and Arvary Pani Sansad (in Alwar, Rajasthan) have taken up constructions of various water-harvesting structures such as percolation tanks, dug out ponds (Johad), check dams, etc., through people’s participation.

Question 1.

basically, refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources.

(A) Rainwater harvesting
(B) Watershed management
(C) Watershed conservation
(D) Watershed initiation
Answer:
(B) Watershed management

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Explanation:
Watershed management is the process of creating and implementing plans, programs and projects to sustain and enhance watershed functions that affect the plant, animal, and human communities.

Question 2.

The success of watershed development largely depends upon :

(A) Community participation
(B) Government policies
(C) State Government involvement
(D) Community isolation
Answer:
(A) Community participation

Explanation:
The key to the success of any watershed project and its sustainability depends on people’s participation.

Question 3.

Who has sponsored the Project Haryali?

(A) State Government
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Central Government
(D) District Magistrate
Answer:
(C) Central Government

Explanation:
Hariyali is a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

Question 4.

The concept of envisages creation of awareness amongst the people to ensure their participation and to facilitate conservation efforts of various government departments.

(A) Neeru-Meeru
(B) Haryali
(C) Arvary Pani Sansad
(D) Watershed
Answer:
(A) Neeru-Meeru

Explanation:
Poverty eradication by Neeru-Meeru, an initiative undertaken by government of Andhra Pradesh.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Land Resources and Agriculture Class 12 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-5-part-b/

Land Resources and Agriculture Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Land Resources And Agriculture Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Which type of farming is known as Slash and Burn to farm?
(A) Primitive subsistence
(B) Intensive subsistence
(C) Plantation
(D) Commerical

Answer

Answer: (A) Primitive subsistence


MCQ On Land Resources Chapter 5 Class 12 Question 2.
India is the second-largest producer of which crop in the world?
(A) Tea
(B) Coffee
(C) Rice
(D) Cotton

Answer

Answer: (C) Rice


Agriculture Class 12 MCQ Geography Question 3.
Which state is the largest producer of Jowar in India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: (B) Maharashtra


Land Resources MCQ Geography Chapter 5 Question 4.
India is the leading producer of which crop in the world?
(A) Jute
(B) Rice
(C) Tea
(D) Coffee

Answer

Answer: (C) Tea


Agriculture Class 12 MCQ Questions Chapter 5 Question 5.
Which crop was introduced in Baba Budan Hills?
(A) Tea
(B) Coffee
(C) Rice
(D) Cotton

Answer

Answer: (B) Coffee


MCQ On Agriculture Class 12 Chapter 5 Question 6.
Which is known as golden fiber?
(A) Cotton
(B) Silk
(C) Jute
(D) Wool

Answer

Answer: (C) Jute


Question 7.
Which one of the following is a rabi crop?
(A) Rice
(B) Millets
(C) Gram
(D) Cotton

Answer

Answer: (C) Gram


Question 8.
Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
(A) Pulses
(B) Millets
(C) Jowar
(D) Sesamum

Answer

Answer: (A) Pulses


Question 9.
Which one of the following price is announced by the government in support of a crop?
(A) Maximum support price
(B) Minimum support price
(C) Moderate support price
(D) Influential support price

Answer

Answer: (B) Minimum support price


Question 10.
Cotton needs a frost-free period of
(A) 100 days
(B) 150 days
(C) 210 days
(D) 250 days

Answer

Answer: (C) 210 days


Question 11.
What is the total production of food grains in India?
(A) 70 million tonnes
(B) 100 million tonnes
(C) 150 million tonnes
(D) 250 million tonnes

Answer

Answer: (D) 250 million tonnes


Question 12.
Which state is the largest wheat producing state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh


Question 13.
In which season Kharif crops are grown?
(A) Winter
(B) Summer
(C) Spring
(D) Autumn

Answer

Answer: (B) Summer


Question 14.
The net area sown in India is
(A) 77%
(B) 67%
(C) 45%
(D) 43%

Answer

Answer: (D) 43%


Question 15.
In India, cereals occupy how much-cropped area?
(A) 34%
(B) 44%
(C) 54%
(D) 64%

Answer

Answer: (C) 54%


Question 16.
Which one of the following is NOT a land-use category?
(A) Fallow land
(B) Marginal land
(C) Net Area Sown
(D) Culturable Wasteland

Answer

Answer: (B) Marginal land


Question 17.
Which one of the following is the main reason due to which share of the forest has shown an increase in the last forty years?
(A) Extensive and efficient efforts of afforestation
(B) Increase in community forest land
(C) Increase in the notified area allocated for forest growth
(D) Better peoples participation in managing forest area

Answer

Answer: (C) Increase in the notified area allocated for forest growth


Question 18.
Which one of the following is the main form of degradation in irrigated areas?
(A) Gully erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) Salinisation of soils
(D) Siltation of land

Answer

Answer: (C) Salinisation of soils


Question 19.
Which one of the following crops is not cultivated under dryland farming?
(A) Ragi
(B) Jowar
(C) Groundnut
(D) Sugarcane

Answer

Answer: (D) Sugarcane


Question 20.
In which of the following group of countries of the world, HYVs of wheat and rice were developed?
(A) Japan and Australia
(B) The U.S.A. and Japan
(C) Mexico and the Philippines
(D) Mexico and Singapore

Answer

Answer: (C) Mexico and the Philippines


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Geography Land Resources and Agriculture MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Human Settlements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlement MCQ Question 1.

The sparsely located small settlements are called:

(A) town
(B) village
(C) catchment area
(D) town
Answer:
(B) village

Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ Question 2.

Larger settlements which are specialising in secondary and tertiary activities are known as:

(A) rural settlements
(B) urban settlements
(C) sub-urbans
(D) rented settlements
Answer:
(B) urban settlements

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Explanation:
Urban settlement often has a large population size and high population density,

Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ Chapter 4 Question 3.

The clustered rural settlement is:

(A) closely built up houses
(B) scattered houses
(C) sparsely built up houses
(D) unplanned houses
Answer:
(A) closely built up houses

Explanation:
A clustered rural settlement is a rural settlement where a number of families live in close proximity to each other.

Human Settlements MCQ Chapter 4 Class 12 Question 7.

Urban centre with population of more than one lakh is called a:

(A) class I town
(B) class II town
(C) class III town
(D) class IV town
Answer:
(A) class I town

Explanation:
Class I town is grouped on the I basis their population in Census.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Ch 4 Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ Question 8.

A town containing military base is known as:

(A) defence town
(B) garrison town
(C) military town
(D) closed town
Answer:
(B) garrison town

Explanation:
Garrison town often applies to certain facilities that constitute a military base or fortified military headquarters.

MCQ Of Human Settlement Class 12 Question 9.

Towns and cities are generally classified on the basis of the …………. they perform.

(A) function
(B) size
(C) contribution
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) function

Explanation:
No town performs a single function, rather they are classified on the basis of the dominant function they perform.

Class 12 Geography Human Settlement MCQ Question 10.

The towns that have developed in mineral rich areas are known as:

(A) mining towns
(B) tourist towns
(C) educational town
(D) administrative town
Answer:
(A) mining towns

Explanation:
Mining towns are usually created 1 around a mine or a quarry.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Human Settlements MCQ Chapter 4 Class 12 Question 11.

Varanasi, Mathura, Amritsar, Madurai, Puri are:

(A) mining towns
(B) commercial towns
(C) religious towns
(D) heritage town
Answer:
(C) religious towns

Explanation:
Holy city is a city which is important to the history or faith of a specific religion.

MCQ Of Human Settlement Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 12.

Nainital, Mussoorie, Shimla, Pachmarhi, Jodhpur are:

(A) transport towns
(B) tourist towns
(C) industrial towns
(D) educational town
Answer:
(B) tourist towns

Explanation:
Tourist town is an urban area where tourism or vacationing is the primary component of the local culture

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Class 12 Human Settlement MCQ Chapter 4 Question 13.

Cluster of dwellings of any type or size where human beings live is known as :

(A) human settlement
(B) human development
(C) human displacement
(D) human cluster
Answer:
(A) human settlement

Explanation:
The complexity of a human settlement can range from a small number of dwellings grouped together to the largest of cities with surrounding urbanized areas.

Human Settlement MCQs Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 14.

Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla and Dhani are examples of:

(A) clustered settlement
(B) hamleted settlement
(C) compact settlement
(D) dispersed settlement
Answer:
(B) hamleted settlement

Explanation:
Some settlement is fragmented into several units and physically separated from each other is known as hamleted settlement.

Human Settlement Class 12 MCQs Question 15.

Uttarakhandand, Himachal Pradesh are example of:

(A) compact settlement
(B) isolated settlement
(C) rural settlement
(D) urban settlement
Answer:
(B) isolated settlement

Explanation:
Isolation settlement refers to areas either in the long distance away from cities where there is lack of facilities as well as opportunities such as transportation, market, training place , educational institutions.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

MCQs Of Human Settlement Class 12 Question 16.

settlement is the kind of settlement that generally develops in the fertile plain and river valleys.

(A) Clustered rural settlement
(B) Clustered urban settlement
(C) Clustered grouped settlement
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Clustered rural settlement

Explanation:
The density of population in such areas is very high because of high productivity of the land.

Human Settlement MCQ Class 12 Question 17.

Name any modern town built by the British in modern style.

(A) Chandigarh
(B) Patna
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kochi
Answer:
(C) Mumbai

Human Settlements Class 12 MCQ Question 18.

Towns in India having historical background spanning over 2000 years are known as:

(A) Historical towns
(B) Cultural towns
(C) Administrative towns
(D) Social towns
Answer:
(A) Historical towns

Explanation:
Towns in India that have an historic or original core to it is known as historical town .

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Human Settlements Ch 4 MCQ Class 12 Question 19.

Name the ‘urban agglomeration’ having the highest share of immigration population in India.

(A) Port Blair
(B) Mumbai
(C) Amritsar
(D) Chennai
Answer:
(B) Mumbai

Explanation:
An urban agglomeration is a continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths, or two or more physically contiguous towns together with or without outgrowths of such towns.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 20.

Arrange the following categories of towns in a sequence order according to their development in India.

(i) Ancient towns
(ii) Ultra-modern towns
(iii) Metropolitans
(iv) Modern towns Options:
(A) i, iv, iii, ii
(B) iv, i, iii, ii
(C) ii, iv, i, iii
(D) iii, ii, iv, i
Answer:
(A) i, iv, iii, ii

Question 21.

Arrange the following agglomeration in the sequence of their ranks i.e., 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th.

(i) Delhi
(ii) Chennai
(iii) Greater Mumbai
(iv) Kolkata Options:
(A) iii, iv, i, ii
(B) i, ii, iii, iv
(C) iv, ii, i, iii
(D) ii, i, iv, iii
Answer:
(A) iii, iv, i, ii

Explanation:
An urban agglomeration is identified and ranked according to its size, population, occupations and economic activities.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 22.

towns were typically small and crowded.

(A) Modern
(B) New
(C) Medieval
(D) Religious
Answer:
(C) Medieval

Explanation:
The streets of a medieval town were narrow and busy. These towns were small in size and cramped up.

Question 23.

Name the metropolitan city of Bihar.

(A) Bihar
(B) Muzzafarpur
(C) Gaya
(D) Patna
Answer:
(D) Patna

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 24.

Name the metropolitan city of Karnataka State as per 2011 census.

(A) Karwar
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Hoobli
(D) Mangalore
Answer:
(B) Bengaluru

Explanation:
Bengaluru is the capital and the largest city of the Indian state of Karnataka. It has a population of more than 8 million and a metropolitan population.

Question 25.

What was the level of urbanisation in 2011 in India?

(A) 31.16%
(B) 32.26%
(C) 33.16%
(D) 33.26%
Answer:
(C) 33.16%

Explanation:
Urbanisation was highest in 2011. It was nearly 31.2%. Urbanisation refers to the movement of people and human settlements from rural areas to urban areas.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 26.

Ghaziabad, Rohtak, Gurugram and Faridabad are:

(A) Rural areas
(B) Satellite cities
(C) Urban cities
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Satellite cities

Explanation:
Satellite cities are smaller municipalities that are adjacent to a major city which is the core of a metropolitan .

Question 27.

How many mega cities are there in India?

(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) Six
Answer:
(C) Five

Explanation:
To qualify as an urban area must have a population of 10 million people.

Question 28.

The level of urbanisation is measured in terms of …………… of urban population to total population.

(A) Percentage
(B) Ratio
(C) Population
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Percentage

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 29.

Raniganj, Jharia, Digboi, Ankleshwar, Singrauliare:

(A) Mining towns
(B) Social towns
(C) Garrison
(D) Religious towns
Answer:
(A) Mining towns

Explanation:
Mining communities or towns are usually created around a mine or a quarry.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions:
In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): People may erect houses and other structures and command some area or territory as their temporary support-base.
Reason (R): The process of settlement inherently involves grouping of people and apportioning of territory as their resource base.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
A house provides a sense of security and wellbeing, along with an economic standing in society. A house is not only a mere physical structure but also a symbol of power, authority and a host of other things that come along with it.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Settlements vary in size and type.
Reason (R): They range from a hamlet metropolitan cities.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Settlements can be small and sparsely spaced; they may also be large and closely spaced.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): In India compact village of a few hundred houses is a rather universal feature, particularly in the northern plains.
Reason (R): People live in compact village for security or defence reasons. In some areas scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilisation of available water resources.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
In this type of village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Unlike rural settlements, urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size. Reason (R): The settlement size is large and there is high density of population.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.t.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Explanation:
Most of the people living in urban settlements are engaged in secondary, tertiary and quaternary activities in these areas.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Cities are functionally linked to rural areas around them.
Reason (R): Exchange of goods and services is performed sometimes directly and sometimes through a series of market towns and cities.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Urban areas rely on rural areas to meet their demands for food, water, wood, raw materials,similarly rural areas gain a lot from urban development, such as market, farm inputs, employment opportunities, etc. Cities are connected directly as well as indirectly with the villages and also with each other.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Clustered village is a universal feature in the northern plains.
Reason (R): Clustered villages are found in areas of level and fertile land. Major portion of the population is landless; hence they are bound to live together.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
A clustered settlement is a closely j built area of dwellings, wherever flat landis available.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Total urban population has increased eleven-fold during the twentieth century.
Reason (R): Enlargement of urban centres and emergence of new towns have played a significant role in the growth of urban population and urbanisation in the country.

Answer:

(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The explosion of industrialization and manufacturing enterprises within a certain urban area gives rise to more employment opportunities — which is another factor of urbanization.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Even specialised cities, as they grow into metropolises become multifunctional.
Reason (R): The functions do not get intertwined and the city can be categorised in a particular functional class.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Explanation:
The functions change due to their dynamic nature. The functions get so intertwined that the city can not be categorised in a particular functional class.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): The objective of the Smart Cities Mission is to promote cities that provide core infrastructure, a clean and sustainable environment and give a decent quality of life to its citizens.
Reason (R): One of the features of Smart Cities is to apply smart solutions to infrastructure and services in order to make them better.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The purpose of the Smart Cities Mission is to drive economic growth and improve the quality of life of people 1 by enabling local area development and 1 harnessing technology, especially technology 1 that leads to Smart outcomes.

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
The level of urbanisation is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to total population. The level of urbanisation in India in 2011 was 31.16 per cent, which is quite low in comparison to developed countries. Total urban population has increased eleven-fold during the twentieth century. Enlargement of urban centres and emergence of new towns have played a significant role in the growth of urban population and urbanisation in the country. But the growth rate of urbanisation has slowed down during last two decades.

Urban centre with population of more than one lakh is called a city or class I town. Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called metropolitan cities and more than five million are mega cities. Majority of metropolitan and mega cities are urban agglomerations.

Question 1.

How much has the urban population increased during the 12th century?

(A) nine folds
(B) ten folds
(C) eleven folds
(D) twelve folds
Answer:
(C) eleven folds

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Explanation:
Modernization and changes in the mode of living have lead to an increase in urban population.

Question 2.

What was the level of urbanisation recorded in India in 2011?

(A) 31.14 %
(B) 31.15%
(C) 31.16%
(D) 31.17%
Answer:
(C) 31.16%

Explanation:
The 2011 Census put the urban percentage of India as a whole at 31.16 percent, with census towns accounting for only 4.2 percentage points of the total.

Question 3.

Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai are examples of:

(A) Rural cities
(B) Metropolitan cities
(C) Transport cities
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Metropolitan cities

Explanation:
A metropolitan area is a region house to a densely populated urban core and its less-populated surrounding territories, sharing industry, infrastructure, and housing.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 4.

An ……………. is a continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths.

(A) urban agglomeration
(B) metro
(C) sub growth
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(A) urban agglomeration

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
The objective of the Smart Cities Mission is to promote cities that provide core infrastructure, a clean and sustainable environment and give a decent quality of life to its citizens. One of the features of Smart Cities is to apply smart solutions to infrastructure and services in order to make them better. For example, making areas less vulnerable to disasters, using fewer resources and providing cheaper services. The focus is on sustainable and inclusive development and the idea is to look at will act like a lighthouse to other aspiring cities.

Question 1.

What is the purpose of the Smart Cities Mission?

(A) Economic growth
(B) Improve the quality of life of people
(C) Provide good environment
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 2.

Name one Smart City in India?

(A) Kapurthala
(B) Agra
(C) Bhubaneswar
(D) Agra
Answer:
(C) Bhubaneswar

Explanation:
The main goal of a smart city is to optimise city functions and promote economic growth while also improving the quality of life for citizens by using smart technologies and data analysis.

Question 3.

When was the Smart Cities Mission launched?

(A) 2015
(B) 2016
(C) 2017
(D) 2018
Answer:
(A) 2015

Explanation:
National Smart Cities Mission is an urban renewal and retrofitting program by the Government of India with the mission to develop smart cities across the country.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 4.

What are the main features of the Smart Cities Mission?

(A) provide core infrastructure
(B) stop migration
(C) stop brain drain
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(A) provide core infrastructure

Explanation:
The main features of the Smart Cities Mission is planning for ‘unplanned areas’ containing a range of compatible activities and land uses close to one another in order to make land use more efficient. Expand housing I I opportunities for all.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India. Even at the time of Indus valley civilisation, towns like Harappa and Mohenjodaro were in existence. The following period has witnessed evolution of towns. It continued with periodic ups and downs until the arrival of Europeans in India in the eighteenth century.

Ancient Towns:
There are number of towns in India having historical background spanning over 2000 years. Most of them developed as religious and cultural centres. Varanasi is one of the important towns among these. Prayagraj (Allahabad), Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai are some other examples of ancient towns in the country.

Medieval Towns:
About 100 of the existing towns have their roots in the medieval period. Most of them developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms. These are fort towns which came up on the ruins of ancient towns. Important among them are Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur.

Question 1.

Name one town that existed in the Indus Valley Civilisation.

(A) Harappa
(B) Madurai
(C) Amritsar
(D) Lahore
Answer:
(A) Harappa

Explanation:
Harappa is an archaeological site in Punjab, Pakistan, about 24 km west of Sahiwal.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 2.

Where did evolution of the first towns begin?

(A) Near agriculturally fertile areas
(B) Near borders
(C) Near rivers
(D) Both (A) and (C ) are correct
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (C ) are correct

Explanation:
The evolution of the first towns began near rivers because of the fertile soil was found near these rivers. Access to water helped with farming and trade routes.

Question 3.

An example of ancient town is :

(A) Karwar
(B) Varanasi
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Madras
Answer:
(B) Varanasi

Question 4.

towns came up on the ruins of ancient town.

(A) Fort
(B) War
(C) Transport
(D) Trade
Answer:
(A) Fort

Explanation:
A fort could provide shelter to the king and his armies against enemies and check the invaders from advancing further into the a kingdom.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

IV. Study the given graph carefully and answer the following questions.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements - 1

Question 1.

Which class of towns constitutes the minimum share in distribution of urban population?

(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) VI
Answer:
(D) VI

Explanation:
The distribution of urban population is less because of less urban development.

Question 2.

Which class of towns constitutes more than 50% share of the urban population?

(A) I
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) V
Answer:
(A) I

Explanation:
Urban centre with population of more than one lakh is called a city or class town.

Question 3.

Which two classes of towns are likely to have similar distribution of urban population?

(A) I and III
(B) II and III
(C) I and IV
(D) III and V
Answer:
(B) II and III

Explanation:
Class II towns has a population of 2 50,000 to 99,999.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Question 4.

If Class towns have a population size of 1,00,000 and more and Class III towns have a population size of 20,000 to 49,999, which of these is most likely to be the population size of Class V towns?

(A) 2,00,000 and more
(B) 75,000 to 99,999
(C) 50,000 to 74,999
(D) 5,000 to 9,999
Answer:
(D) 5,000 to 9,999

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers