CBSE Class 9

CBSE Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Pastoralists in the Modern World Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World.

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NCERT Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the regions of the cyclic movement of Kurumas and Kurubas. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The Kurumas and Kurubas lived in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. In the dry season they moved near the coast and left when the rains came.

Question 2.
Which Pastoralist nomads live in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The pastoralist nomads who lived in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh were:
(a) The Gollas.
(b) Kurumas and Kurubas.

Question 3.
Why were the British officials suspicious of the nomadic people? Give one reason. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The British officials were suspicious of the nomadic people because they distrusted mobile craftmen and traders who sold their goods in villages, and pastoralists who changed their places or residence every season. They were considered as criminals.

Question 4.
How did the Gaddis earn their livelihood? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
They sold milk, ghee and other products.

Question 5.
What are bugyals?
Answer:
Bugyals are vast natural pastures on the high mountains, about 12,000 feet. After April the entire mountainside is covered with a variety of grasses, roots and herbs. By monsoon these pastures are covered with thick vegetation and wild flowers.

Question 6.
Who are Gujjar Bakarwals?
Answer:
Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir are herders of goat and sheep.

Question 7.
What is Bhabhar?
Answer:
It is a dry forested area in the foothills of Garwhal and Kumaun.

Question 8.
Who were Bhotiyas, Sherpas and Kinnauris?
Answer:
They were the pastoral communities of the Himalayas.

Question 9.
Name the most important pastoral community of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Dhangars were an important pastoral community of Maharashtra.

Question 10.
Why were the Dhangars welcomed by the Konkani peasants?
Answer:
After the kharif crops were harvested, the field had to be fertilised for the rabi crops. Dhangar flocks manured the fields and fed on the stubble. Dhangars were also given supplies of rice which they supplied to the plateau where grain was scarce.

Question 11.
Why did the Dhangars leave the Konkan and coastal areas before the onset of monsoon?
Answer:
The Dhangars left the Konkan and the coastal areas before the onset of monsoon because the sheep could not tolerate the wet monsoon conditions.

Question 12.
What are ‘Kharif and ‘rabi crops’?
Answer:
Kharif is the autumn crop, usually harvested between September and October. Rabi, the spring crop, usually harvested after March.

Question 13.
What is a Gujjar Mandap?
Answer:
A Gujjar Mandap is a place where the Gujjar cattle herders live. It is made of ringal and grass. A mandap was also a workplace, where the Gujjar made ghee for the purpose of sale.

Question 14.
Name the cattle, goat and sheep herders found in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
The Gollas herded cattle, the Kurumas and Kurubas reared sheep and goat and sold woven blankets.

Question 15.
What defined the seasonal rhythms of the movement of the pastoralists in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
It was the alternation of the monsoon and dry season which defined the seasonal rhythms of the movement of pastoralists in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. In dry season they moved to the coastal areas and left when the rains came.

Question 16.
Who are the Banjaras? Where are they found?
Answer:
Banjaras are a well known group of graziers. They are found in the villages of Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 17.
How did the Banjaras earn their living?
Answer:
By selling plough cattle and other goods to villagers in exchange for grain and fodder.

Question 18.
Where did the Raikas live? What is their occupation?
Answer:
Raikas lived in the deserts of Rajasthan. Harvest fluctuated every year and no crop could be grown over large areas. So the Raikas combined cultivation with pastoralism.

Question 19.
Who are Maru Raikas? What is their settlement called?
Answer:
The camel herders in the Thar desert near Jaisalmer in Rajasthan are called Maru (desert) Raikas, and their settlement is called a Dhandi.

Question 20.
Name two places in Rajasthan where camel fair are held.
Answer:
The camel fairs are held at Balotra and Pushkar.

Question 21.
What kind of forests were declared as ‘Reserved’ Forests?
Answer:
The forests that produced commercially valuable timber like sal and deodar were declared as Reserved Forests.

Question 22.
Where do the Maasai cattle herders live?
Answer:
The Massai cattle herders live primarily in East Africa.

Question 23.
What was the extent of area of Maasailand before colonial times?
Answer:
Before colonial period, Maasiland extended over a vast area from north Kenya to the steppes of north Tanzania.

Question 24.
What happend to Maasailand in 1885?
Answer:
In 1885, the colonial powers scrambled for territorial possesions. Maasailand was cut into half with an international boundary between British Kenya and German Tanganyika. The Maasai lost 60 per cent of their pre-colonial land.

Question 25.
What does the title ‘Maasai’ mean? What did they depend on for subsistence?
Answer:
The title ‘Maasai’ is derived from the word ‘maa’. Maa-sai means ‘My People’. Maasai are nomadic and pastoral people who depend on milk and meat for subsistence.

Question 26.
State one measure introduced by the British to administer the affairs of the Maasai.
Answer:
(a) They appointed chiefs of different sub-groups of Maasai, who were made responsible for the affairs of the tribe.
(b) The British imposed various restrictions on raiding and warfare. (Any one)

Question 27.
What is meant by kafila?
Answer:
In winter, when the high mountains were covered with snow, the pastoralists lived with their herds in the low hills of the Siwalik range. The dry scrub forests here provided pasture for their herds. By the end of April they began their northern march for their summer grazing grounds. Several households came together for this journey, forming what is known as a kafila.

Question 28.
According to environmentalists and economists why are nomadic pastoralists the important communities?
Answer:
Nomadic pastoralists are important communities because because they play a major role in the conservation of forests. People get useful products like milk, ghee, wool from herders.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 29.
Explain any three factors that the pastoral groups have to consider to sustain their life. [CBSE 2010, 2015, 2016]
Answer:
The three factors which the pastoral groups have to consider to sustain their life are:
(a) They have to judge how long the herds could stay at one place and know where they could find water and pastures.
(b) They had to calculate the timing of their movement and had to move through different territories.
(c) They had to set up relationship with the farmers, on the way, so that herds could graze in the harvested fields and manure the soil. They combined number of activities like cultivation, herding, and trade to sustain themselves.

Question 30.
Explain any three different livelihood practices adopted by the pastoralists in the 20th century, as they left their traditional occupations. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Three livelihood practices adopted by the pastoralists in the 20th century were as follows:
(a) Richer pastoralists started buying land and settling down, giving up their nomadic life.
(b) Some became settled peasants cultivating land.
(c) Others took to trnding.

Question 31.
Give one example to explain why the pastoralists have been compelled to change their movement in modern times. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The pastoralists have been compelled to change their movement in modern times.
After 1947, the camel and sheep herding Raikas could no longer move into Sindh and graze their animals on the banks of Indus. The new political boundaries between Indian & Pakistan stopped their movement. In recent years, they have been migrating to Haryana where sheep could graze on agricultural land, after harvests are cut.

Question 32.
Who are Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir? Name their winter and summer grounds. Why did they go to these places?
Or
Describe the lifestyle of the Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir are herders of goat and sheep. They move between their winter and summer grounds. In winters when the ground is covered with snow, they live with their herds in the Siwalik range. The herds feed on the dry scrub forests, By April, they start moving to their summer grazing grounds. After crossing the Pir Panjal passes they reach the Kashmir valley. With the onset of summer, the snow has melted, and the valley is covered with variety of flowers and grasses. They provide nutritious forage for the animals. By the end of September they come back to their winter homes in the Siwalik.

Question 33.
Write about the life style of the Gujjars of Kangra.
Answer:
The Gujjar cattle herders live in Garhwal and Kumaon. In the winter, they come to the dry forest of the Bhabhar and go up to the high meadows-the bugyals-in summer. Gujjars are exclusively a pastoralist tribe in the hills, where they do not cultivate anything. Buffaloes are the main wealth of the Gujjars. They live near the boundary of the forests and the mainstay of their existence is the sale of milk, ghee and other products. The men graze the cattle. The women go -to the markets every morning, with little earthen pots filled with milk, butter milk and ghee. During the hot weather they move their herds to the upper ranges where the buffaloes enjoy the weather.

Question 34.
Who were Dhangars? What were their occupations? Why were they continuously on the move? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
The Dhangars were an important pastoral community of Maharashtra. Most of them were shepherds, some were blanket weavers and others were buffalo herders. They were continously on the move in search of pasture for their cattle.

Question 35.
Discuss the various restrictions imposed on pastoral groups in Africa. [CBSE 2010]
Or
What restrictions were imposed by the colonial government on the African pastoralists?
Answer:
(a) The various pastoral groups were forced to live in special reserves. They were not allowed to move their stock without special permits which were not easy to get. Those who defied the rules were severely punished.
(b) Pastoralists were not allowed to enter the markets area of the whites.
(c) In many regions, they were prohibited from participating in any trading activity.
Thus, the restrictions imposed on the pastoralists adversely affected their pastoral and trading activities.

Question 36.
What are some of the problems that pastoralists face in the modern world ? How have these groups adapted to the new times? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
Some of the problems that pastoralists face in the modern world are as follows.
(a) New laws and new borders have affected the patterns of the pastoralists movement.
(b) Now, they find it difficult to move in search of pastures. As pasture lands have shrunk, grazing has become a problem.
(c) Remaining pastures deteriorate due to continuous over grazing.
(id) Cattle die in large numbers during drought. This become the time of crises. (any three)
They have adapted to new times by changing the paths of their annual movement and reducing their cattle numbers. They have also demanded rights in management of forests and water resources. Some became settled peasants cultivating land, some took to trading, while others became labourers.

Question 37.
What are the similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa?
Answer:
(a) In both countries Pastoralists reduced the number of cattle in their herds since there were not enough pasture fields to feed large numbers.
(b) New pastures were found when movement to old grazing grounds become difficult.
(c) Many combined pastoral activity with other forms of income and thus adapted to changes in the modern world.

Question 38.
Why were the chiefs appointed by the British not affected by war or drought in Maasai land?
Answer:
The chiefs appointed by the colonial government often accumulated wealth over time. They had a
regular income with which they could buy animals, goods and land.
They lent money to poor neighbours who needed cash to pay taxes. Many of them began living in towns, and became involved in trade. Their wives and children stayed back in the villages to look after the animals.
These chiefs managed to survive the devastations of war and drought. They had both pastoral and non-pastoral income, and could buy animals when their stock was depleted.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 39.
Who are pastoral nomads? Describe any four features of them? [CBSE 2015, 2016]
Answer:
Pastoral nomads are people who do not live at one place but move from one area to another to earn their living. They depend on livestock rearing, they move with their cattle and other animals. The four features of pastoral nomads are as follows.
(a) Pastoral nomads had to adjust to seasonal changes and make best use of available pastures in different places. When the pastureland was exhausted they moved to a different place where pastures are available.
(b) Cold and snow are not the only factors which defined their seasonal movement. In dry season they moved to coastal areas and left when the rain came.
(c) They set up a relationship with farmers, so that the herds could graze in harvested fields and manure the soil.
(id) They combine a range of different occupations – cultivation, trade and herding to earn their living. For example, the Gollas, Kurumas and Kurubas herded cattle, cultivated small patches of land and also engaged in a variety of petty trades.

Question 40.
In which two social categories was the Maasai society divided in pre-colonial times? In what way
did their roles change because of the colonial policies? [CBSE 2016]
Or
Describe the social organisations of the Massai’s in the pre-colonial times. What changes occured in Maasai’s society during the colonial rule? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
The Massai society was divided into two social groups in pre-colonial times – elders and warriors. The elders were the ruling group and met in periodic councils to decide on the affairs of the community and settle disputes. The warriors consisted of young people, responsible for the protection of the tribe. They defended the community and organised cattle raids. Raiding was an important activity in a society where cattle was wealth. It was the way through which different pastoral groups asserted their superiority.
The British introduced a number of measures which changed the lives of the Maasai. The chiefs of different sub-groups were appointed to look after the affairs of the tribe. Restrictions were imposed on raiding and warfare. So, the traditional authority of both the elders and warriors changed dramatically. The difference based on age, between elders and warriors broke down, and a new distinction was developed between the rich and poor pastoralists.
The chiefs appointed by the colonial government became rich overtime. They had regular income with which they purchased land, goods, animals and also get involved in trade. But the poor pastoralists worked as charcoal, burners or work in road or building construction or did odd jobs.

Question 41.
Which parts of the African continent are inhabited by the pastoralists? What are the different types of activities they are involved in? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Most of the pastoralists in Africa lived in semi-arid grasslands or arid deserts where rain-fed agriculture is difficult.
The pastoralists are involved in different type of activities like they rear cattle, camels, goats, sheep and donkeys; and sell milk, meat, animal skin and wool. Some also earn through trade and transport, others combine pastoral activity with agriculture, still others do a variety of odd jobs to supplement their meagre and uncertain earnings from pastoralism.

Question 42.
How did the pastoralists cope with the changes in new times?
Answer:
Pastoralists managed to cope with the changes in many ways.
(a) Some pastoralists reduced the number of cattle because there were not enough pastures to feed large numbers. When pastureland in one place was closed to them, they changed the direction of their movement and combined pastoral activity with other forms of trade.
(b) Some pastoralists found new pastures.
(c) They exert political pressure on the government for relief, subsidy and other forms of support and demand a right in the management of forests and water resources.
(d) Some rich pastoralists gave up their nomadic habits, purchased land and started leading a settled life.
(e) Some became settled peasants cultivating land. Some borrowed money from the moneylenders to survive.

Question 43.
Why were wasteland rules enacted in various parts of the country?
Answer:
The colonial government wanted to convert all grazing land into cultivated land. Land revenue was one of the main sources of its finance. By cultivation, it could yield more revenue and at same time produce more cotton, jute, wheat and other agriculture products that were required in England. To colonial official all uncultivated land was unproductive. It was seen as wasteland and had to be brought under cultivation. According to them forest which is used for grazing cannot be used for any other purpose and is unable to yield timber and fuel, which are the main legitimate forest produce. In 19th century wasteland rules were enacted in many parts of the country.

Question 44.
Trace the movements of pastorals of India in the mountains.
Answer:
Ans. The Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir are great herders of goat and sheep. Many of them migrated to this region in the nineteenth century in search of pastures for their animals.
In winter, when the high mountains were covered with snow, they lived with their herds in the low hills of the Siwalik range. The dry scrub forests here provided pasture for their herds. By the end of April they began their northern march for their summer grazing grounds. Several households came together for this journey, forming what is known as a kafila.
With the onset of summer, the snow melted and the mountainsides were lush green. The variety of grasses that sprouted provided rich nutritious forage for the animal herds. By end September the Bakarwals were on the move again, this time on their downward journey, back to their winter base.
The Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh had a similar cycle of seasonal movement. By April they moved north and spent the summer in Lahul and Spiti. By September they began their return movement. On the way they stopped once again in the villages of Lahul and Spiti, reaping their summer harvest and sowing their winter crop.
Then they descended with their flock to their winter grazing ground on the Siwalik hills. Next April, once again, they began their march with their goats and sheep, to the summer meadows.
In Garhwal and Kumaon, the Gujjar cattle herders came down to the dry forests of the bhabar in the winter, and went up to the high meadows – the bugyals – in summer. This pattern of cyclical movement is common to Bhotiyas, Sherpas and Kinnauris.

Question 45.
Trace the movement of pastoral nomads of India on the plateaus. [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) Dhangars were an important pastoral community of Maharashtra. Most of them were shepherds,
some were blanket weavers, and still others were buffalo herders. The Dhangar shepherds stayed in the central plateau of Maharashtra during the monsoon.
(b) Nothing but dry crops like bajra could be sown here. In the monsoon this tract became a vast grazing ground for the Dhangar flocks. By October they move to Konkan. This was a flourishing agricultural tract with high rainfall and rich soil. Here the shepherds were welcomed by Konkani peasants.
(c) After the kharif harvest was cut at this time, the fields had to be fertilized and made ready for the rabi harvest. Dhangar flocks manured the fields and fed on the stubble. The Konkani peasants also gave supplies of rice which the shepherds took back to the plateau where grain was scarce. With the onset of the monsoon the Dhangars left the Konkan and.the coastal areas with their flocks and returned to their settlements on the dry plateau. The sheep could not tolerate the wet monsoon conditions.
(d) In Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh the Gollas herded cattle. The Kurumas and Kurubas reared sheep and goats and sold woven blankets.
(e) Unlike the mountain pastoralists, it was not the cold and the snow that defined the seasonal rhythms of their movement: rather it was the alternation of the monsoon and dry season that determined their movement.
(f) In the dry season they moved to the coastal tracts, and left when the rains came. Only buffaloes liked the swampy, wet conditions of the coastal areas during the monsoon months. Other herds had to be shifted to the dry plateau at this time. (any five)

Map Skills

Question 46.
Locate and label the places where the following nomadic tribes are found on the given outline map of India.
Nomadic Tribes

• Gujjar Bakarwal
• Gaddi shepherds
• Gujjars
• Bhotiyas
• Kinnauris
• Dhangars
• Gollas
• Kurumas
• Kurubas
• Banjaras
• Raikas
• Maldhari herders

Answer:
Nomadic Tribes                        Location
Gujjar Bakarwal         – Jammu and Kashmir
Gaddi shepherds       – Himachal Pradesh
Gujjars                       – Garhwal and Kumaon
Bhotiyas                    – Uttar Pradesh
Kinnauris                   – Himachal Pradesh
Dhangars                  – Maharashtra
Gollas                        – Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Kurumas                    – Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Kurubas                     – Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Banjaras                     – Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
Raikas                         – Rajasthan
Maldhari herders        – Rann of Kachchh (Gujarat)

Question 47.
On the outline map of Africa mark the following points.
Nomadic and Pastoral Tribes
Bedouin, Berbers, Maasai – South Kenya and Tanzania, Somali, Boran, Turkana, Kaokoland herders in South-West Africa present Namibia, Kabbabish, Tuarag
Game Reserves
Maasai Maru – Kenya, Samburu – Kenya, Amboseli – Kenya, Serengeti – Tanzania
Answer:

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CBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions India-Size and Location Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Geography Chapter 1 India-Size and Location.

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Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 India-Size and Location

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which hemisphere does India lie?
Answer:
India lies in the Northern hemisphere.

Question 2.
What is the latitudinal extent of India?
Or
What are the degrees of the southernmost latitude of mainland India? [CBSE 2011]
Or
What are the degrees of the northernmost latitude of India?
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of India is between 8°4′ N (southernmost) and 37°6’ N and (northernmost) latitude.

Question 3.
What is the longitudinal extent of India?
Or
What are the degrees of the easternmost and westernmost longitude of India?
Answer:
The longitudinal extent of India is 68°7′ E (westernmost) to 97°25′ E (easternmost) longitude.

You can also Download NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science PDF to help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Question 4.
Name the parallel of latitude which divides India roughly into two equal halves.
Answer:
The parallel of latitude which roughly divide India into two equal halves is the Tropic of Cancer (23° 30′ N).

Question 5.
Name the two seas located around India.
Answer:
The two seas located around India are the Arabian Sea in the west and the Bay of Bengal in the east.

Question 6.
What is the southernmost point of the Union of India?
Answer:
Southernmost point of the Union of India is Indira Point.

Question 7.
In which year did ‘Indira Point’ submerge under water due to tsunami? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
In 2004 ‘Indira Point’ got submerged under the sea water.

Question 8.
What is the total area of the Indian landmass? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The landmass of India has an area of 3.28 million square km. It is 2.4% of the total area of the world.

Question 9.
What is the size of India among the countries of the world?
Answer:
India is the seventh largest country in the world.

Question 10.
What is the total land frontier of India?
Answer:
The total land frontier of India is 15,200 km.

Question 11.
Give the total length of the Indian coastline including the Indian islands.
Answer:
The total length of the Indian coastline is 7,516.6 km.

Question 12.
In which direction India is bound by young fold mountains?
Answer:
In the north, northwest and northeast direction, India is bound by young fold maintains.

Question 13.
Why is the north-south extent of India larger than east-west extent even though the latitudinal and longitudinal extent in degrees is of the same value?
Answer:
This is because the distance between two latitudes is always 111 km i.e. always same whereas between two longitudes, it is the maximum at the equator and decreases towards the poles.

Question 14.
What is the time lag between Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:
The time lag between Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh is 2 hours.

Question 15.
Why has 82°30′ been selected as the standard meridian of India? [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
82°30′ E has been selected as the standard meridian of India because it passes through the centre of India, i.e. Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 16.
Which route connects countries of Europe in the west to the countries of east Asia?
Answer:
The trans Indian Ocean route.

Question 17.
In which year Suez Canal opened?
Answer:
Suez Canal opened up in 1869.

Question 18.
What is the significance of the Suez Canal?
Answer:
With the Suez Canal, India’s distance from Europe has been reduced by 7,000 km.

Question 19.
What is the total north-south extent of India in km?
Answer:
The north-south extent of India in kilometre is 3,214 km.

Question 20.
What is the total east-west extent of India in km?
Answer:
The total east-west extent of India is 2,933 km.

Question 21.
How had India kept her relationship with the world in ancient times?
Answer:
Passes in the mountains of the Himalayas provided passages to the ancient travellers while the oceans restricted this as people were afraid to travel by oceans.

Question 22.
Which ideas of India could reach the world?
Answer:
Ans. The ideas of the Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of Panchtantra, the Indian numerals, decimal system could reach many parts of the world.

Question 23.
Which commodities were exported from India?
Answer:
The spices, muslin cloth and many other commodities were exported from India.

Question 24.
From which regions and styles India got influenced in ancient times?
Answer:
India got influenced from greek sculpture, the architectural styles of dome and minarets from west Asia in the ancient times.

Question 25.
Which is the largest and smallest state of India areawise?
Answer:
The largest state is Rajasthan and the smallest state is Goa.

Question 26.
Name the states of India which do not have an international border or lie on the coast.
Answer:
The states are Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Haryana and Jharkhand.

Question 27.
Name the states of India which have common border with Pakistan.
Answer:
The states are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 28.
Name the states of India which have common border with China.
Answer:
The states are Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 29.
Name the states of India which have common border with Myanmar.
Answer:
The states are Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram.

Question 30.
Name the countries which share borders with India.
Answer:
The countries are Pakistan and Afghanistan in the northwest, China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan in the north, Myanmar and Bangladesh in the east.

Question 31.
Which two island countries are India’s neighbours? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Sri Lanka and Maldives are the two island countries.

Question 32.
Name the two waterbodies which separate India from Sri Lanka.
Answer:
The two waterbodies that separate India are Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.

Question 33.
Mention the types of states in India present before 1947.
Answer:
The two types of states in India were:
(a) the provinces
(b) the princely states.

Question 34.
Who ruled the princely states?
Answer:
Princely states were ruled by the local hereditary rulers.

Question 35.
Name the country that has common land frontier with the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim.
Answer:
The country is Nepal.

Question 36.
Name the states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes.
Answer:
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

Question 37.
Name the Union Territories of India.
Answer:
The Union Territories are Delhi, Chandigarh, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry.

Question 38.
With which country Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujarat share international boundary?
Answer:
The country is Pakistan.

Question 39.
Name the states of India which lie along the eastern coast of India from North to South.
Answer:
The states lying along the eastern coast are West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 40.
Name the two states of India which are parts of Indian desert.
Answer:
Gujarat and Rajasthan are parts of Indian Desert.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 41.
Write the size and extent of India.
Answer:
(a) India is the 7th largest country in the world. It has an area of 3.28 million square km. It accounts for 2.4% of the world’s total area.
(b) India has a land frontier of 15,200 km.
(c) India has a coastline of 7516.6 km including the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep islands.

Question 42.
Explain why 82°30′ E an odd value has been chosen as the standard meridian of India. [HOTS]
Answer:
The odd value has been chosen as the standard meridian because the longitudinal extent of India is 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E and this meridian passes through the centre of India.
It passes through Mirzapur i.e. the centre of India. Then there is an understanding among the countries of the world that the degrees of the meridian should be divisible by 7\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) i,e. 82° 30′ E. This
enables us to overcome the difference of 2 hours of time between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. The time is Indian Standard Time.

Question 43.
Why is the difference between the durations of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari but not so in Kashmir?
Answer:
The difference in the durations of day and night and Kanyakumari and Kashmir are respectively due to their latitudinal locations. Kanyakumari is located closer to the equator and experiences a maximum difference of 45 minutes between day and night. However, Kashmir lies further away from the equator and experience a significant gap between the duration of day and night that can extend to as much as 3-5 hours.

Question 44.
What is a subcontinent? Name the countries that constitute the Indian subcontinent. How is India different from other countries of Asia?
Answer:
A subcontinent is a distinctive geographical unit which stands out distinctively from rest of the region because of its large size, varied climates, varied relief etc.
Countries that make up the Indian subcontinent are – India at the centre, Pakistan in the west, Nepal and China (Tibet) in the north, Bhutan and Bangladesh in the east.
India is different from other countries of Asia regarding climate, vegetation and culture.

Question 45.
Justify the naming of Indian Ocean after India.
Answer:
India ocean is named after India because:
(a) India has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean.
(b) India has a central location between east and west Asia.
(c) India’s southernmost extension, the Deccan Peninsula, protrudes into the Indian Ocean which makes it significant to international trade done through the Indian Ocean.
(d) India was the favourite destination of the traders of the world. (any three)

Question 46.
What do you know about India and her neighbours? [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) India occupies an important strategic position in south-east Asia. India has 29 states, 6 Union
Territories and one National Capital Territory.
(b) India shares her land borders with Pakistan and Afghanistan in the north-west, China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan in the north, and Myanmar and Bangladesh in the east. Our southern neighbours across the sea consists of two island countries i.e. Sri Lanka and Maldives.
(c) Sri Lanka is separated from India by Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar while Maldives islands are situated to the south of the Lakshadweep islands.

Question 47.
India’s land routes have been important since ancient times. Explain. [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) India’s contacts with the outside world have continued through the ages, but her relationships
through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts.
(b) The various passes across the mountains in the north have provided passages to the ancient travellers. These routes (Kyber and Bolan pass) across the mountains have contributed in the exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times.
(c) The ideas of Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of Panchatantra, the Indian numerals,
the decimal system could reach many parts of the world through the land routes. The spices and muslin cloth along with other commodities were taken from India to other countries. The Greek sculpture and the architectural style of dome and minarets from west Asia can be seen in many parts of our country. This is the result of the exchange of commodities and ideas movement of people.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 48.
Why are Ahmedabad and Kolkata able to see the noon seen exactly overhead twice a year but not Delhi?
Answer:
The sun’s apparent movement towards north and south of the equator is within two tropics.
(a) All the places located within the tropics have overhead sun twice a year.
(b) Both Ahmedabad and Kolkata lie to the south of the Tropic of Cancer. That is why these two stations see the noon sun overhead twice a year.
(c) Delhi is located at 29°N latitude much to the north of Tropic of Cancer.
(d) The sun’s rays are near overhead in sub-tropical zone. It will never see noon sun overhead, at anytime of the year.

Question 49.
India occupies an important strategic position in south Asia. Discuss. [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) The Indian landmass has a central location between the east and the west Asia. India is a
southward extension of the Asian continent.
(b) The trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the west and the countries of east Asia provide a strategic central location to India.
(c) The part that is attached to the Asian continent connects India through the land routes and mountain passes to the various countries lying to its north, west and east.
(d) The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with west Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and southeast and east Asia from the eastern coast.

Question 50.
Describe how the geographical features of India have fostered unity and homogenity in the Indian society.
Answer:
India has a distinct physical and cultural identity: India’s unity and homogenity have been enabled by its physical diversity i.e., physical features.
(a) The lofty mountains in the north which run east-west for thousands of kilometres. They provide a natural wall against all possible intrusions. It gives India an intact structure.
(b) The southern part of India is surrounded by the seas and oceans on the sides. These physical features have also ensured that the people from outside could enter India only through well defended routes through sea or passes in the mountains.
(c) Standard meridian 82’30” has been taken as local time all over India providing uniformity.
(d) Rivers and their tributaries provide irrigation facility throughout the country bring uniform development.
(e) Monsoons foster unity. Many festivals are associated with it. Apart from that agricultural and domestic needs are also met by monsoons.
Thus, by adopting new norms and values and accepting as their own, unity and homogenity of India has been promoted.

Map Skills

Question 51.
Locate and Label the Indian States and Capital on the outline map of India.
Answer:

• Hyderabad is the Joint Capital of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 52.
On the political map given locate and label the following.
(a) Tropic of cancer
(b) Standard meridian with degrees.
(c) Union Territories- Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu.
Answer:

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CBSE Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions Forest Society and Colonialism Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST History Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism.

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NCERT Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How are forests useful to us?
Answer:
Forests provide bamboo, wood for fuel, grass, charcoal, packaging, fruits, flowers, animals, birds and many other things.

Question 2.
Which common feature is found in the Amazon forests and the Western Ghats?
Answer:
It is possible to find as many as 500 different plant species in one forest patch in the Amazon forests and the Western Ghats.

Question 3.
What is deforestation?
Answer:
The disappearance of forests is referred to as deforestation.

Question 4.
Mention the reason for increased landmass under cultivation in India.
Answer:
Over the centuries, population increased, demand for food went yp so peasants extended the boundaries of cultivation, clearing forests and breaking new land.

Question 5.
Why did the British encourage the production of commercial crops in India?
Answer:
The demand for the commercial crops like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton increased in the 19th century Europe. Food grains were required to feed the growing urban population and raw materials were needed for industrial production.

Question 6.
What are sleepers?
Answer:
Wooden planks laid across railway tracks, to hold them in position are called sleepers.

Question 7.
Why did oak forests in England disappear?
Answer:
Oak forests in England were disappearing fast because oak wood was needed to build ships.

Question 8.
Why was wood needed for railways?
Answer:
Wood was needed as fuel to run the locomotives and to lay railway lines sleepers to hold the tracks together.

Question 9.
How did the forests around railway tracks start disappearing.
Answer:
The railway tracks expanded, trees were being cut for sleepers. The government gave out contracts to individuals to fulfil the supply and they cut the trees indiscriminately.

Question 10.
Name the plantations for which large areas of India’s natural forest were cleared.
Answer:
Large areas of natural forests were cleared for the cultivation of tea, coffee and rubber plantation.

Question 11.
Name any two beverage crops.
Answer:
Tea and coffee are beverage crops.

Question 12.
Why did the British feel the locals were destroying forests?
Answer:
According to the Britishers, the use of forests by local people, the reckless felling of trees by traders would destroy forests.

Question 13.
Who was Dietrich Brandis?
Answer:
Dietrich Brandis was a German expert who was invited by Britishers to give advice on the matters of forest management. He was made the first Inspector General of Forests in India.

Question 14.
When and where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute set up?
Answer:
The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at Dehadun in 1906.

Question 15.
What is scientific forestry?
Answer:
A system of cutting trees controlled by the forest department, in which different varities of trees are cut and one type of trees are planted.

Question 16.
In which three categories forests were divided according to 1878 Act?
Answer:
Forests were divided into three categories: reserved, protected and village forests.

Question 17.
For what purpose did the people in the forests use bamboo? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Bamboo was used to make fences and to make umbrellas and baskets.

Question 18.
How did the new forest laws affect the hunter and forest dwellers in 1927? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Forest Act meant severe hardship to villagers. After the Act, all their everyday practices like cutting wood for houses, grazing cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and fishing became illegal. They were punished for poaching.

Question 19.
What is Swidden agriculture?
Answer:
In Swidden agriculture, parts of the forest are cut and burnt in rotation. Seeds are sown in the ashes. The crop is harvested by October-November. Such plots are cultivated for a few years and then left follow for 12-18 years for the forest to grow back.

Question 20.
By which local name shifting cultivation is known in Central America?
Answer:
Milpa

Question 21.
What is another name of Swidden agriculture?
Answer:
Shifting cultivation.

Question 22.
Write any two local terms for Swidden agriculture used in India.
Answer:
Jhum, kumri, dhya, penda, bewar, nevad, podu, khandad. (any two)

Question 23.
What were the types of crops grown through shifting cultivation?
Answer:
In Central India and Africa it could be millets, in Brazil manioc and in other parts of Latin America maize and beans.

Question 24.
What did the large animals signify in Britishers view?
Answer:
The Britishers saw large animals as a sign of a wild, primitive and savage society. They believed that . by killing dangerous animals they would civilise India.

Question 25.
How did some people benefit from the laws of forest department?
Answer:
The laws of forest department opened up new opportunities in trade. Some communities left their traditional occupations and started trading in forest products.

Question 26.
Who were the Mundurucu peoples of the Brazilian Amazon?
Answer:
Mundurucu peoples of the Brazilian Amazon lived in villages on high ground, cultivated manioc and collected latex from rubber trees for supplying to traders.

Question 27.
Name three pastoralist and nomadic communities of the Madras Presidency.
Answer:
Korava, Karacha and Yerukula.

Question 28.
Who were known as criminal tribes?
Answer:
Some of the pasoralist of the Madras presidency were known as crimal tribes.

Question 29.
Who were recruited to work on tea plantations in Assam?
Answer:
Both men and women from forest communties like Santhals and Oraons from Jharkhand, and Gonds from Chhattisgarh were recruited to work on tea plantations.

Question 30.
Name the two leaders of the forest communities who rebelled against the British.
Answer:
The two leaders were:
(a) Birsa Munda of Chhotanagpur
(b) Alluri Sitaram Raju of Andhra Pradesh
(c) Siddhu and Kanu in the Santhal Palganas (any two)

Question 31.
Where is Bastar located?
Answer:
Bastar is located in the southernmost part of Chhattisgarh and borders Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Maharashtra.

Question 32.
Which river flows through Baster region?
Answer:
Indravati river.

Question 33.
Name the various communities who live in Bastar.
Answer:
The different communities are Maria and Muria Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras and Halbas.

Question 34.
What do you mean by devsari, dand or man?
Answer:
If people from Bastar village want to take some wood from the forests of another village they pay a small fee called devsari, dand or man.

Question 35.
What are forest villages?
Answer:
Forest villages are those villages where people were allowed to stay in the reserved forests on the condition that they would work free for the forest department in cutting and transporting trees and protecting the forest from fires.

Question 36.
Where did the reservation first take place in Bastar?
Answer:
The reservation first took place in the Kanger forest in Bastar.

Question 37.
Who was Gunda Dhur?
Answer:
Gunda Dhur, from village Nethanar, was an important figure in the movement against the British.

Question 38.
How was the message given to the villagers to rebel against the British government?
Answer:
Mango boughs, a lump of earth, chillies and arrows were circulated among villagers.

Question 39.
What did the World Bank propose in 1970s?
Answer:
The World Bank proposed that 4600 hectares of natural sal forest should be replaced by tropical pine to provide pulp for the paper industry.

Question 40.
Name the colonial power in Indonesia.
Answer:
The Dutch were the colonial power in Indonesia.

Question 41.
Where did the Dutch start forest management?
Answer:
The Dutch started forest management in Java.

Question 42.
Who were the Kalangs of Java?
Answer:
The Kalangs were a community of skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators.

Question 43.
Why did the Dutch feel the need to enact forest laws in Java? [CBSE 2015,2016]
Answer:
In the 19th century, when it became necessary to control territory and not just the people, the Dutch enacted forest laws in Java, restricting villagers’ access to forests. Now wood could only be cut for specified purposes.

Question 44.
Why were the villagers punished?
Answer:
The villagers were punished for grazing cattle, transporting wood without permit or travelling on forest roads with horse carts or cattle.

Question 45.
What was the blandongdiensten system?
Answer:
It was a system which exempted villagers from rent in exchange for free labour and supply of buffaloes for transporting timber.

Question 46.
What was Samin’s challenge?
Answer:
Randublatung village was a teak village. Surontiko Samin questioned state ownership of forests. People protested against the Dutch by lying down on their land, and by refusing to pay taxes or fines or perform labour.

Question 47.
What policy did the Dutch follow during war?
Answer:
The Dutch followed ‘a scorched earth’ policy. They destroyed sawmills, burnt huge piles of teak logs so that they would not fall into enemy’s hands (Japanese).

Question 48.
Name a few sacred groves.
Answer:
Samas, devarakudu, kan and red etc.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 49.
What is deforestation? How did cultivation expand rapidly during the colonial period?
Answer:
The disappearance of forests is referred to as deforestation. Cultivation expanded rapidly during the colonial period in the following ways.
(a) The British encouraged the production of commercial crops like sugar, wheat, jute and cotton.
(b) Large areas of forests, considered to be wilderness was brought under cultivation.
(c) Large areas of natural forests were also cleared to make way for tea, coffee and rubber plantations to meet Europe’s growing need for these commodities. (any two)

Question 50.
Who was appointed as the first Inspector General of Forests in India? Explain any three reforms introduced by him. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Dietrich Brandis, a German expert, was appointed as the First Inspector General of forests in India by the British Government to save the forests.
The following were the main reforms introduced by Dietrich Brandis.
(a) In 1864, Dietrich Brandis set up the ‘Indian Forest Service’ (IFS) and helped formulate the Indian Forest Act of 1865.
(b) He encouraged/advised for ‘scientific forestry’ where in place of natural forests, one type of trees were planted in straight rows.
According to the Forest Act of 1878, there were three categories of forests—reserved, protected and village forests. Villagers were not allowed to take anything from the forests.
According to the plan/reform, Forest officials surveyed and planned that every year how much of the plantation will be cut and replanted so that trees remain always ready to be cut again, in some years.
(c) In 1906, the Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up in Dehradun.

Question 51.
What is scientific forestry? How did the forest officials implement it?
Answer:
In scientific forestry, natural forests, which had different kind of trees, were cut down. In their place one type of trees were grown in straight rows.
Forest officials surveyed the area and estimated how much of the plantation was to be cut. The area was then replanted and trees could be cut after a few years.

Question 52.
Why is it necessary to increase area under forests? Give three reasons. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
(a) Forests are useful as the people use forest products in a variety of ways. Fruits and tubers were eaten because they were nutritious and herbs were used for medicinal purposes.
(b) Bamboo was used to make fences, baskets and umbrellas. The wood was used to make agricultural implements like yokes and ploughs.
(c) A dried scooped-out gourd was used as a portable water bottle. Oil for cooking and lighting lamps was acquired from the fruit of the Mahua tree.
(d) The siadi creeper was used to make ropes and leaves could be used, usually stitched together to make disposable cups and plates. (any three)

Question 53.
Why did the government ban shifting cultivation? What was the result?
Answer:
European foresters regarded the practice of shifting cultivation as harmful. They felt:
(a) the land which was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railway timber.
(b) when the forests were burnt, there was a danger of flames spreading and burning valuable timber.
(c) It became difficult for the government to calculate taxes.
Many communities were forcibly displaced from the forest, some had to change their occupations.

Question 54.
Why was hunting popular in India and what were its effects? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Ftunting of big game was a popular sport in India. It was a popular sport among the emperors and
nobility. Many Mughal paintings show emperors and princes enjoying a hunt. Under colonial rule, hunting increased to such an extent that many species became extinct. For the British, large animals was a sign or primitive society. They believed that by killing large animals, they would civilise India. Tigers, leopards and wolves were killed, because they posed a threat to the villagers. Over 80,000 tigers, 150,000 leopards and 20,00,00 wolves were killed. Only then did environmentalists and conservators advocate that these animals had to be protected.

Question 55.
What was the impact of regulation of trade in forest products by the British government in India? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
Following was the import of regulations of trade in forest products by the British government in India.
(a) Trade in forest products was completely regulated by the British government. It gave many large European trading firms the sole right to trade in the fofest products of particular areas in Indian Forests.
(b) The grazing and hunting by local people were restricted. In the process many nomadic communities like the Koravas and Karacha lost their livelihood.
(c) Some of them began to be called ‘criminal tribes’ and were forced to work in factories and plantations under government supervision.

Question 56.
Name two communities that live in Bastar. Mention some of the beliefs regarding nature of the communities of Bastar? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
The communities living in Bastar are, Maria, Muria Gonds, Dhurwar and Halbas. (any two)
Their beliefs regarding nature are as follows:
(a) The people believed that each village was given its land by the Earth and thus they look after the earth by making some offerings at each agricultural festival.
(b) Respect is also shown to the spirits of the river, the forest and the mountain.
(c) As each village was aware of its boundaries, all the natural resources within that boundary were looked after by the local people.
(d) If people from a village wanted to take some wood from the forests of another village, they paid a small fee called dand. Some villages protect their forests by engaging watchmen and every household contributes some grain to pay them. (any three)

Question 57.
Describe the main causes of the revolt of Bastar. [CBSE 2010, 2016] [HOTS]
Answer:
The main causes of the revolt of Bastar were as follows.
(a) The colonial government wanted to reserve 2/3 of the forests in 1905 and stop shifting cultivation, hunting and collection of forest produce.
(b) Some villagers were allowed to stay in the reserved forest on the condition that they worked free for the forest department in cutting and transporting trees and protecting the forest from fires. These villages came to be known as forest villages. People of other villages were removed without any compensation. They were not given prior notice.
(c) For long people had suffered under increased rents and demand for free labour and goods by forest officials. People also suffered because of famines in 1899-1900 and again in 1907-1908.

Question 58.
Explain the provisions of the Forest Act passed by the Dutch. [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
The Provision of Forest Act passed by the Dutch were as follows:
(a) The Dutch restricted the villagers’ access to forests.
(b) Wood could only be cut for specified purposes like making river boats or constructing houses only from certain forests under close supervision.
(c) Villagers were punished for grazing cattle in young stands, transporting wood without a permit or travelling on forest roads with horse carts or cattle.

Question 59.
What new developments have occurred in forestry in Asia and Africa in recent times? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
(a) In recent years, Asian and African governments introduced social forestry and they realised that
the policy of keeping forest communities away from forests have only resulted in conflicts.
(b) Conservation of forests rather than collecting timber became the primary aim. In order to meet this goal, the government realised that the involvement of people living near the forests is a must.
(c) In fact, across India from Mizoram to Kerala dense forests have survived only because villagers protected them in sacred groves known as kan, rai and sarnas.
(d) Some villages patrolled their own forests with each household taking turns instead of leaving it
to forest guards. (any three)

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 60.
How did commercial farming lead to a decline in forest cover during colonial period? [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
The factors which led to deforestation during the colonial rule are as follows:
(a) The British encouraged the production of commercial crops like wheat, sugar, jute and cotton. The demands for these crops increased in the 19th century Europe because food grains were needed to feed the growing urban population and raw materials were required for growing industries.
(b) In the 19th century, the colonial government thought that forests were unproductive. The land had to be brought under cultivation, which would increase food production and revenue. Between 1880 and 1920 cultivation area rose by 6.7 million hectares. The forests had to the cleared. As the population increased and demand for food went up, the forests were cleared for the expansion of agricultural land.
(c) The oak forests were fast depleting. It became a problem to supply timber for the Royal Navy. Ships could not be built without a regular supply of timber. Ships were needed to protect the overseas colonies. By 1820 search parties were sent to explore forest resources in India. Trees were being cut on a large scale and exported to England.
(d) Wood was needed as fuel to run locomotives and to lay sleepers which could hold the railways tracks. As early as 1850, 3500 trees were cut annually in Madras presidency for sleepers.
(e) Large areas of forests were cleared to make way for tea, coffee and rubber plantations.

Question 61.
Why was Dietrich Brandis invited by the British government? What steps were taken by him to protect forests?
Answer:
The Britishers feared that the reckless felling and cutting of trees by traders destroyed the forests. So they invited Dietrich Brandis for advice and made him the first Inspector General of Forests in India.
The steps taken by Brandis to protect the forests were:
(a) A proper system was adopted to manage forest and people to conserve forests.
(b) Rules about the use of forest resources were framed.
(c) Felling of trees and grazing of land was restricted, so that forests could be used for timber production.
(d) Anyone who did not follow the system was punished. Brandis set up the Indian Forest Service in 1864.

Question 62.
What was the practice of shifting cultivation? Why did European foresters want to unfollow it?
Answer:
One of the major impacts of European colonialism was on the practice of shifting cultivation or Swidden agriculture.
This practice was followed in Asia, Africa and South America. In shifting cultivation, parts of the forest are cut and burnt. After the first monsoon showers, seeds are sown in the ashes and crop is harvested in October-November. Such plots are cultivated for a few years and then left fallow for 12 to 18 years for the forest to grow.
European foresters did not want the cultivators to follow this practice. They felt that the land which was used for cultivation for a few years could not grow trees to provide timber for railways. When the forests were burnt, there was a danger of flames spreading to other parts of the forest. If was also difficult for the government to calculate taxes. So they decided to ban shifting cultivation.

Question 63.
‘The new forest laws changed the lives of forest dwellers. They could not hunt’. How? [HOTS]
Answer:
The forest laws changed the lives of forest dwellers significantly. Before the forest laws, many people who lived in or near the forests lived by hunting deer, partridges and a number of small animals. The customery right of the forest dwellers was prohibited by the forests law. They were punished for poaching, if caught hunting.
Hunting of big game became a sport under colonial rule. Hunting increased so much, that various species became extinct. British believed large animals were a sign of primitive society and by killing dangerous animals they would civilise India. People were rewarded for killing tigers, wolves and other animals because they were a threat to the cultivators.

Question 64.
Describe the life of the tribal people of Bastar. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
(a) Bastar is located in the southernmost part of Chhattisgarh and borders Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Maharashtra. A number of different communities such as Maria and Muria Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras and Halbas live in Bastar. They speak different languages but have common beliefs and customs.
(b) The people in Bastar believe that the Earth gave land to each village and in return they look after the land and make offerings at each agricultural season.
(c) They also show respect to the spirit of the rivers, mountains and the forests.
(d) The local people of the village look after the natural resources of the village. If people wanted wood from another village, they had to make payments, called devsari, dand or man. Some people also engaged watchmen to look after their forest and each household contributed some grain to pay them.
(e) Every year the headmen of the villages met and discussed issues concerning the forest.

Question 65.
Who were the Kalangs of Java? How did Samins challenge the Dutch?
Answer:
Kalangs of Java were a community of skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators. Without their expertise, it would have been difficult to harvest teak and for the kings to build their palaces. When the Mataram kingdom was split in 1755, the 6000 Kalang families were equally divided between the two kingdoms. When the Dutch gained control over the forests, they tried to make Kalangs work under them. The Kalangs revolted and attacked the Dutch fort at Joana.
Around 1890, Surontiko Samin of Randublatung village, a teak forest village, began questioning the state ownership of forests. He was supported by his sons-in-law and about 3000 families. Some of the Saminists protested by lying down on their land when Dutch came to survey it, while others refused to pay taxes or perform labour.

Map Skills

Question 66.
On the given map of Indonesia, locate and label the following items.
Indonesia: Consists of the following islands Sumatra, Java, Borneo, Kalimantan and West Irian.
Randublatung: A village with teak forest surontiko Samin of the village questioned state ownership of the forest.
Soolay pagoda: Sleepers were piled here after forests were cut and cleared.
Rembang: A logyard under Dutch colonial control.
Answer:

Question 67.
In the outline map of India, mark and name the following :

1. Western Ghats
2. Madras Presidency:
   (i) Where as early as 1830s, 35000 trees were cut.
   (ii) Pastoralist and nomadic communities like Korava, Karacha and Yerukula lost their livelihood.
3. Dehradun: Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at Dehradun in 1906.
4. Nomadic tribes: Baigas in Central India, Banjaras in Madhya Pradesh, Santhals in Assam, Oraons in Jharkhand Gonds in Chhattisgarh.
5. Kanger forest

Answer:

We hope the given CBSE Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions Forest Society and Colonialism Pdf free download will help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST History Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution.

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NCERT Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who controlled economic and social powers before the 18th century in France?
Answer:
The aristocracy and the church controlled the economic and social powers in France before the 18th century.

Question 2.
Name any two Indians who talked of the significance of the French Revolution.
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy and Derozio talked of the significance of the French Revolution.

Question 3.
What were the varied responses in Europe about transformation of society?
Answer:
There were some who accepted that some changes were necessary but wished to have a gradual shift while others wanted radical restructuring of the society.

Question 4.
Mention the type of government favoured by the liberals.
Answer:
They insisted on a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by a well-trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials,

Question 5.
How can you say that the ‘liberals’ were not ‘democrats’? [HOTS]
Answer:
The liberals were not democrats because they did not believe in universal adult franchise and felt that only men of property should have a right to vote. They were against voting rights to women.

Question 6.
Mention one significant view of the radicals.
Answer:
Radicals wanted a nation in which the government was based on the majority of a country’s population.

Question 7.
When did the conservatives become receptive to the need of change?
Answer:
After the French Revolution, the conservatives became receptive to some kind of change.

Question 8.
Which group of ideology was against any kind of political or social change earlier in the 18th century?
Answer:
The conservatives, in the early 18th century were against any kind of political and social change.

Question 9.
What were the ideas of ‘conservatives’ regarding social change in the 19th century?
Answer:
The conservatives believed that some change was required in the society but the changes should be slow.

Question 10.
What kind of developments took place as a result of new political trends in Europe?
Answer:
As a result of new political trends in Europe industrial revolution occurred, new cities came up and railways expanded.

Question 11.
List the major change during industrialisation.
Answer:
Men, women and children were brought to factories during industrialisation.

Question 12.
What were the firm beliefs of the liberals?
Answer:
The liberals firmly believed in the value of individual effort, labour and enterprise.

Question 13.
How would society develop according to the liberals?
Answer:
Liberals believed that societies would develop if freedom of individuals was ensured, if poor could labour, and those with capital could operate without restraint.

Question 14.
Who were the people that wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in Europe in 1815?
Answer:
Some nationalists, liberals and radicals who became revolutionaries wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in Europe in 1815.

Question 15.
What were nationalists views about revolutions?
Answer:
The nationalists viewed that revolutions would create nations where all citizens would enjoy equal rights.

Question 16.
Who was responsible for achieving equal rights in Italy?
Answer:
An Italian nationalist, Giuseppe Mazzini, conspired with others to achieve equal rights to all citizens in Italy after 1815.

Question 17.
Why were the socialists against private property?
Answer:
The socialists were against private property because individuals who owned property were concerned only about their personal gains rather than social welfare.

Question 18.
What were the two different visions of the socialists for future?
Answer:
Some socialists like Robert Owen believed in the idea of cooperatives and build cooperative community called New Harmony in Indiana. Others like Louis Blanc felt that it could not be achieved through individual initiative. Governments should encourage cooperatives.

Question 19.
What did Karl Marx want workers to overthrow? Why?
Answer:
Karl Marx wanted the workers to overthrow capitalism and free themselves from capitalist exploitation.

Question 20.
Which international body was formed in Europe in the 19th century to coordinate the efforts of socialists all over Europe?
Answer:
An international body was formed in Paris in 1889, to coordinate the efforts of socialists all over Europe. It was called the Second International.

Question 21.
Name the socialist parties formed in Britain and France in 1905.
Answer:
Labour Party was formed in Britain by socialists and trade unionists. A Socialist Party was also formed in France.

Question 22.
Who was the ruler of Russia and its empire in 1914?
Answer:
The ruler of Russia and its empire was Tsar Nicholas II.

Question 23.
Mention the regions included in Russian empire.
Answer:
The Russian empire included territory around Moscow and current-day Finland, Latvia, Lithuania, Estonia, parts of Poland, Ukraine and Belarus. It also comprised some of today’s Central Asian states.

Question 24.
Name the religions practised in the Russian empire.
Answer:
The religions in the Russian empire included Russian Orthodox Christianity’, Catholics, Protestants, Muslims and Buddhists.

Question 25.
Which was the major occupation of Russian people at the beginning of twentieth century?
Answer:
Agriculture was the occupation of about 85 per cent of the Russians at this time.

Question 26.
Name the prominent industrial areas in the Russian empire.
Answer:
St Petersburg and Moscow were the prominent industrial areas.

Question 27.
Name any two factors that led to the setting up of industries in Russia by the end of the 19th century.
Answer:
The expansion of Russian railway network and increase in foreign investment led to the setting up of industries in Russia by the end of the 19th century.

Question 28.
What was the commune/mir?
Answer:
The commune/mir was a cooperative community of people in Russia living together and sharing possessions and responsibilities.

Question 29.
Mention the role of Socialist Revolutionary Party. .
Answer:
The Socialist Revolutionary Party struggled for peasants’ rights and demanded that land belonging to nobles be transferred to peasants.

Question 30.
On what point did the Social Democrats and Socialist Revolutionaries differ with each other? [HOTS]
Answer:
The socialists felt that peasants were not a united group. Some were poor while others were rich, some worked as labourers while others were capitalists.

Question 31.
How was the Socialist Revolutionary Party divided over the strategy of organisation?
Answer:
One group under Lenin felt that the party should be disciplined and number and quality of members should be maintained. Others wanted the party to be open to all.

Question 32.
Which communities demanded constitution during 1905 Revolution? Who supported them?
Answer:
Liberals, Social Democrats and Socialist Revolutionaries with peasants and workers demanded constitution. Nationalists and jadidists supported them.

Question 33.
Who were jadidists?
Answer:
The jadidists were the Muslim reformers within the Russian empire. They wanted modernised Islam to lead their societies.

Question 34.
What was Bloody Sunday?
Answer:
Bloody Sunday was an incident when a workers procession led by Father Gapon was attacked by the police and at Winter Palace Cossacks killing hundreds.

Question 35.
What do you mean by Union of Unions?
Answer:
During the 1905 revolution, lawyers, doctors, engineers and other middle class workers established a union of unions and demanded a constituent assembly.

Question 36.
Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?
Answer:
The Tsar dismissed the first Duma within 75 days of its election because the Tsar did not want any reduction in his power and anyone to question his authority.

Question 37.
Between which two European alliances First World War broke out?
Answer:
The two European alliances were Germany, Austria and Turkey and France, Britain and Russia.

Question 38.
Give one instance of high anti-German sentiments in Russia.
Answer:
Renaming of St Petersburg a German name, as Petrograd showed the high anti-German sentiments.

Question 39.
What made autocracy unpopular in Russia?
Answer:
The German origin of the Tsarina Alexandra and advisers like the monk Rasputin made the autocracy unpopular in Russia.

Question 40.
What were the divisions in the layout of the Petrograd city?
Answer:
Workers’ quarter and factories were located on the right bank of River Neva whereas on the left bank fashionable area, the Winter Palace and official building were located.

Question 41.
Which division faced the food shortages in February 1917?
Answer:
The workers’ quarters was affected deeply with the food shortages in February.

Question 42.
To which the Tsar’s desire of Parliamentarians were opposed? Why?
Answer:
Parliamentarians were opposed to Tsar’s desire to dissolve the Duma to preserve the elected government.

Question 43.
Why did a lockout take place at a factory on the right bank of the River Neva on 22 February, 1917?
Answer:
A lockout took place at a factory on the right bank of the River Neva on 22nd February, 1917 in favour of the workers at the left bank of the river. They had a bad time due to severe winter and food shortages.

Question 44.
Which events took place after the Tsar abdicated on 2nd March?
Answer:
The events that took place after the abdication of Tsar on 2nd March 1917 were:
(a) Forming of the Provisional Government.
(b) Decision to set up a constituent assembly.

Question 45.
Who formed the Provisional Government to run the country?
Answer:
Soviet and the Duma leaders formed a Provincial Government to run the country.

Question 46.
Who were influential in the Provisional Government?
Answer:
Army officials, landowners and industrialists were influential in the Provisional Government.

Question 47.
What were Lenin’s ‘April Theses’?
Answer:
The three demands of Vladimir Lenin after his return to Russia in April 1917 were called Lenin’s April Theses’.

Question 48.
Why were most of the Bolshevik Party members initially surprised by ‘April Theses’?
Answer:
Most of the Bolshevik Party members were surprised by the April Thesis’ because of the following reasons.
(a) They wanted continuation of World War I.
(b) They thought that time was not ripe for a socialist revolution.
(c) Government needed to be supported at this time.

Question 49.
What do you mean by nationalisation of banks and industries?
Answer:
This meant that the ownership and management of banks and industries held by the government.

Question 50.
Name the ship that protected the Winter Palace during the October Revolution in 1917 in Russia.
Answer:
Aurora protected the Winter Palace during the October Revolution in 1917 in Russia.

Question 51.
What was Budeonovka?
Answer:
Budeonovka was the Soviet hat that was chosen to assert change in army uniform.

Question 52.
What was the Bolshevik Party renamed after October Revolution?
Answer:
Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party after the October Revolution.

Question 53.
What was Cheka?
Answer:
Cheka was the secret police set up by the Bolsheviks to clamp down on its critics.

Question 54.
To whom did the ‘reds’, ‘greens’ and ‘whites’ refer to during the Civil War in Russia?
Answer:
The ‘reds’ were the Bolsheviks
The ‘greens’ were the Socialist Revolutionaries
The ‘whites’ were the pro-Tsarists.

Question 55.
Name the countries that supported the Socialist Revolutionaries and the pro-Tsarists in Russia.
Answer:
France, America, Britain and Japan supported the Socialist Revolutionaries and pro-Tsarists in Russia.

Question 56.
What were Stalin’s views about rich peasants and traders?
Answer:
Stalin viewed that rich peasants and traders held stocks of foodgrains hoping for higher prices in future.

Question 57.
Who were the ‘Kulaks’?
Answer:
Kulakas were the rich peasants who held most of the land in Russia.

Question 58.
What was the problem associated with small-sized farms in Russia? .
Answer:
Production in the small-sized farms declined as modern farming cannot be used.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 59.
Liberals were not Democrats. Explain. [CBSE 2016]
Or
Why do we say that liberals could not be called ‘democrats’?
Answer:
The liberals could not be called democrats because even though they argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by a well-trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials, they did not believe in universal adult franchise and also did not want the voting rights for women. They felt right to vote should only be given to the propertied men.

Question 60.
Describe the views of radicals. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The following were the viewpoints of the radicals.
(a) Radicals wanted a nation in which government was based on the majority of a country’s population.
(b) Many supported women’s suffragette movements.
(c) They opposed the privileges of great landowners and wealthy factory owners. Though they favoured private property, they disliked concentration of property in the hands of a few.

Question 61.
What were the viewpoints of the conservatives?
Answer:
The conservatives had the following viewpoints.
(a) In the beginning of the eighteenth century, they were opposed to the idea of change.
(b) Later in the nineteenth century, they accepted that some change was inevitable.
(c) At the same time they believed that the past had to be respected and change had to be brought about through a slow process.

Question 62.
How should society, according to liberals and radicals, develop?
Answer:
Liberals and radicals were often property owners and employers. They acquired wealth through industrial ventures and trade. They believed that society could develop in the following ways.
(a) They strongly believed that if the workforce is healthy and educated, more profits could be earned.
(b) They firmly believed in valuing individual efforts, labour and enterprise.
(c) They believed that the society would develop if poor could work and freedom of all individuals is ensured.
(d) For this, they wanted investment and trade to be carried out without restrictions.

Question 63.
Why were socialists against private property and saw it as the root of all social ills? [HOTS]
Or
To what changes did the socialists campaign for?
Or
Explain the Socialist view on private property.
Answer:
The socialists were against private property because of the following reasons.
(a) They believed that private property was the root cause of all social evils.
(b) Individuals who owned property, did provide employment but at the same they are much more concerned with personal gains.
(c) They did not bother about the welfare of the people. .
(d) Socialists also felt that if society controlled property, more attention would be paid to collective social interests and concentration of wealth in the hands of a few could be restricted.

Question 64.
What was the basic principle of the Marxist theory?
Answer:
Marx believed that the condition of workers could not improve as long as private capitalists had profit motive. Workers had to overthrow capitalism and the rule of private property. Workers must construct a radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled. This would be a communist society, the natural society of the future.

Question 65.
Explain how workers were divided in social groups. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The workers were divided in social groups in Russia in the following ways.
(a) Some workers were closely linked to their villages while others settled in the cities permanently,
(b) The division among the workers was on the basis of skills they possessed. Metalworkers were on the high level as their work required training.
(c) Apart from males, women also formed a considerable working force in the factories though they were paid less than the males.

Question 66.
Discuss the relationship between peasants and nobles in Russia during early 19th century.
Answer:
Peasants cultivated most of the land that was owned by the nobility, the crown and the Orthodox Church. Nobility had no respect except in few cases. Peasants demanded the land of the nobles to be distributed to them. Often they refused to pay rent and even murdered landlords. Such events were on rise all over Russia.

Question 67.
How did Social Democrats disagree with Socialist Revolutionaries? ICBSE 2016]
Answer:
Social Democrats disagreed with Socialist Revolutionaries in the following ways.
(a) Social Democrats believed workers to be the mainforce of revolution whereas Socialist Revolutionaries argued that peasants would be the revolutionary class.
(b) Social Democrats wanted benefits for the workers and control on the factors of production. Socialist Revolutionaries on the other hand demanded land to the peasants.
(c) Social Democrats felt that peasants were not a united group as they were rich and poor and many owned large tracts of land. Socialist Revolutionaries favoured peasants as natural socialists.

Question 68.
What was the difference between Bolshevik and Menshevik group. [CBSE 2016]
Or
Who were the Bolsheviks and Mensheviks?
Answer:
The Bolsheviks were the majority group led by Vladimir Lenin who thought that in a repressive society like Tsarist Russia, the party should be disciplined and control the number and quality of its members. They were the group who conducted the Russian Revolution.
Mensheviks, on the other hand, were the minority group who thought that the party should be open to all. They did not believe in revolution but wanted to bring changes through democratic means.

Question 69.
What made the Tsar the ‘autocrat of all the Russians’? Describe the steps he took just before the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
Russia followed autocracy. The Tsar was not subject to Parliament. This made the Tsar the autocrat of all Russia. The liberals in Russia campaigned to end this state of affairs.
The following steps were taken by the Tsar just before the Russian Revolution to ascertain his authority.
(a) All political parties were declared illegal in Russia.
(b) Every possible effort was taken to crush the rebellion and revolution against the Tsar.

Question 70.
Why is Tsarist Russia termed as a repressive society?
Answer:
Tsarist Russia is termed as a repressive society because of the following reasons.
(a) Large tracts of land were owned by nobility, crown and the Orthodox Church. Nobles enjoyed privileges at the cost of the common people.
(b) Political parties were illegal. No one could raise voice against the aristocratic class.
(c) Tsar enjoyed unconditional power without being responsible to any one.

Question 71.
Describe the incident known as ‘Bloody Sunday’.
Answer:
The following events gave way to the incident known as Bloody Sunday.
(a) The dismissal of four members of the Assembly of Russian Workers called for an industrial action by the workers.
(b) Over 110,000 workers in St Petersburg went on strike in 1905, demanding a reduction in the working day to eight hours, an increase in wages and improvement in working conditions.
(c) When this procession led by father Gapon reached the Winter Palace it was attacked by the police and the Cossacks. Hundreds of the workers were killed and many hundreds wounded. This incident came to be known as Bloody Sunday. It started a series of events that later resulted in the 1905 Revolution.

Question 72.
How did the destruction of Russian industries after the First World War become one of the causes of resentment of people?
Or
What effects did the First World War have on industry of Russia?
Answer:
The First World War had a devastating impact on industries. Russia had few industries and on that supplies of industrial goods were cut off due to war. Industrial equipments began to disintegrate rapidly, railway lines began to break down. All the able-bodied men were engaged in war which resulted in the shutdown of the small workshops. Grains were supplied to the army engaged in war. This created food shortages. In cities, bread and flour became scarce. Riots at the bread shops became a common scene in Russia.

Question 73.
Discuss Lenin’s ‘April Theses’. [CBSE 2016]
Or
What were the demands referred in Lenin’s ‘April Theses’?
Answer:
The following were the demands referred to in Lenin’s April Theses’.
(a) World War I should be brought to an end.
(b) Land should be transferred to the peasants.
(c) Banks should be nationalised.

Question 74.
What were the effects of the February Revolution in Russia?
Answer:
Ans. The following were the effects of the February Revolution in Russia.
(a) The Tsar abdicated and monarchy was brought down.
(b) The Soviet leaders and Duma leaders formed a Provisional Government to run the country.
(c) Russia’s future would be decided by a constituent assembly, elected on the basis of universal adult suffrage.

Question 75.
Why did the Kerenskii government become unpopular in Russia? [HOTS]
Answer:
The Kerenskii government became unpopular in Russia because of the following reasons.
(a) He tried to suppress the workers’ movement. Peasants in the countryside had started demanding redistribution of land.
(b) The Bolshevik demonstrators was suppressed. Many of them had to go into hiding.
(c) Kerenskii was suspected of setting up a dictatorship and Lenin persuaded the Petrograd Soviet and Bolshevik Party to agree to a socialist seizure of power.
(d) Sensing the trouble to be caused by the revolutionaries he left the city to summon troops.

Question 76.
Mention any two changes introduced by Stalin in the Russian economy. How did Stalin deal with the critics?
Answer:
The following changes were introduced by Stalin.
(a) Elimination of kulaks, the well-to-do farmers. The land from the kulaks was taken and state-controlled farms were established.
(b) Collectivisation of land i.e., Stalin’s collectivisation programme was followed. All peasants had to cultivate collective farms (Kolkohz) and the profit was shared by the peasants working on the land.
There were peasants’ resistances which Stalin dealt with severely. The critics were charged with conspiracy against socialism. Many were deported and exiled and forced into prisons or labour camps. Many were forced to make false statements under torture and were later executed.

Question 77.
Why was the decision to collectivise farms taken?
Answer:
Russia was facing acute shortages of grain supplies. The price at which grains must be sold was fixed by the government. Still the peasants refused to sell their grains to the government. Stalin thought that rich peasants and traders in the countryside were holding stocks in the hope of higher prices. This created a shortage. Therefore, the decision to collectivise farms was taken. It was felt that small size farms were not as productive as they could not be modernised which caused the shortage. Modern farming was the need of the hour. They wanted to run farms along industrial lines with machinery.

Question 78.
“By the 1950s it was acknowledged within the country that the style of government in the USSR was not in keeping with the ideals of the Russian Revolution.” Why was this said?
Answer:
By 1950s the style of government in the USSR was not in keeping with the ideals of the Russian Revolution. It was said because of the following reasons:
(a) No doubt Russia, being a backward country, had become a great power with developments in industries and agriculture and feeding the poor. But at the same time its citizens were denied the essential freedoms.
(b) Its developmental projects were carried through repressive policies.
(c) Workers faced hardships with poor working conditions.

Question 79.
What were the main objectives of the Russian Revolutionaries? [HOTS]
Answer:
The following were the main objectives of the Russian Revolutionaries.
(a) Peace: The Russian revolutionaries wanted to maintain peace and order in the country. The people of Russia were against the war. Just after the fall of Tzar, Russia withdrew from the war.
(b) Land to the Tiller: The Russian revolutionaries were of the opinion that the agricultural land should be allotted to the cultivators as the peasants in Russia were leading a miserable life under the large landowners.
(c) Control of industry by the workers: In Russia, the capitalists greatly exploited the workers. This made the condition of Russian workers deplorable. There was great need to control the industry by workers themselves.
(d) Equal status for the non-Russian nationalists: The Russian revolutionaries demanded equal status
for the non-Russian nationalities. Just after the revolution, a declaration of the people was issued by the new government conferring them political autonomy. (any three)

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 80.
What changes did industrialisation bring to the then society in Russia?
Answer:
The following changes were brought in the Russian society with the advent of industrialisation.
(a) The society saw profound social and economic changes.
(b) It was a time when new cities came up and new industrialised regions developed and railways expanded.
(c) Industrial Revolution brought men, women and children to factories.
(d) Work hours were often long and wages were very low.
(e) During the time of low demand, unemployment was common.
(f) As the towns were growing rapidly, problems like housing and sanitation emerged.

Question 81.
What solutions did radicals and liberals find to the problem of the industrial society?
Answer:
The following solutions were found by the radicals and the liberals to the problems of Industrial society.
(a) They felt that efforts should be made to make the workforce healthy and educated.
(b) They were opposed to the privileges enjoyed by the old aristocracy.
(c) They advocated value of individual effort, labour and enterprise.
(d) They thought of freedom of individuals so that poor could labour and those with capital could operate freely. This would develop the society.
(e) It was also sought that the government should be removed through revolution.

Question 82.
Explain how a society, according to socialists, can operate without property. What would be the basis of socialist society?
Answer:
Socialists had different visions of the future. Robert Owen, a leading English manufacturer, sought to build a cooperative community called New Harmony in Indiana (USA). Some other socialists felt that cooperatives could not be built on a wide scale through individual initiative only. The governments must encourage cooperatives and replace capitalist enterprise. The same view was propagated by Louis Blanc in France. It was said that cooperatives were to be associations of people who produced goods together and divided the profits according to the work done by members.
More ideas were added to this body of arguments by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels. Marx argued that industrial society was capitalist who owned resources and invested in the factories. The profit was produced by the workers but they did not gain anything. Their condition could improve only if they were freed from the clutches of capitalist exploitation.
Control of means and factors of production by the workers themselves can be the basis of such a socialist society. For this, the workers needed to construct a radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled. This would be a communist society.

Question 83.
What developments took place in Europe in support of socialism?
Answer:
The following developments took place in Europe in support of socialism.
(a) An international body, called the Second International was formed by the socialists to coordinate the efforts of the workers.
(b) Workers Associations were formed to fight for better living and working conditions.
(c) Funds were set up to help members in times of distress.
(d) Workers demanded a reduction in working hours and the right to vote.
(e) In many places in Europe, these associations worked closely with the Social Democratic Party and helped it win parliamentary seats.
(f) In 1905, socialists and trade unionists formed Labour Party in Britain and a Socialist Party in France.

Question 84.
What were the events preceding the 1905 Revolution in Russia?
Answer:
The following events preceded the 1905 Revolution in Russia.
(a) The year 1904 was a particularly bad one for Russian workers. Prices of essential goods rose rapidly and the real wages declined.
(b) The membership of workers’ associations rose dramatically.
(c) There was a call for an industrial action when four of the workers at the Putilov Iron Works were dismissed.
(d) There were mass strikes by the workers demanding reduction in the working hours, an increase in wages and improvement in working conditions.
(e) When a procession of workers led by the Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace it was attacked by the police and the cossacks that killed hundreds of the workers. This incident is known as Bloody Sunday.
(f) There were strikes all over the country and universities closed, student bodies staged walkouts, complaining lack of civil liberties. Various unions of doctors, engineers and other middle-class workers were established that demanded a constituent assembly. (any five)

Question 85.
Describe the steps taken by Tsar Nicholas II after the Revolution to maintain his authority.
Answer:
The following steps were taken by Tsar Nicoholas II after the Russian Revolution to maintain his authority:
(a) Under pressure, he allowed the creation of an elected consultative Parliament or Duma.
(b) Most committees and unions were declared illegal. Severe restrictions were placed on political activity.
(c) Later he dismissed the first Duma within 75 days and re-elected second Duma within three months.
(d) The voting laws were changed.
(e) The third Duma was packed with conservatives and tried to keep liberals and revolutionaries out of the Duma.

Question 86.
What were the conditions in Russia during the First World War?
Answer:
The following were the conditions in Russia during the First World War.
(a) Russia became a part of First World War in 1914. In the beginning, the war was popular. The Tsar refused to consult the main parties in the Duma. This led to weaken the support within Russia. Anti-German sentiments among the Russians were on an increase. St Petersburg, a German name was renamed as Petrograd.
(b) Russia’s armies suffered defeats in Germany and Austria between 1914 and 1916. Casualties were very high. Soldiers did not wish to fight such a war. The retreating Russian army destroyed crops and buildings to prevent them from being used by the enemies. This led to millions of refugees in Russia.
(c) The Tsar and the government were further discredited for the situation.
(d) The war also had a severe impact on industry. Russia had few industries and that too were cut
off from suppliers of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic Sea. Industrial equipment began to disintegrate, railway lines began to break down.
(e) Able-bodied men were called up to the war that resulted in labour shortages and shut down of small workshops.
(f) Grains were sent to feed the army which led to food shortage in cities. Riots at bread shops were common. (any five)

Question 87.
Discuss the role and importance of Lenin in the history of the USSR. [HOTS]
Or
Examine the role of Lenin in Russian Revolution.
Answer:
After returning from exile, Lenin felt that the time was right for the Soviets to take over the power in Russia. Following was the role played by Lenin in Russian Revolution 1917.
(a) He led the Bolsheviks in the revolution.
(b) He declared three points, to end war, transfer land to peasants and nationalisation of banks that came to be known as April Theses.
(c) He introduced radical land reforms that led to turn Russia into a socialist society.
(d) He was the driving force behind the October Revolution that eventually led to the formation of the Soviet Union.
(e) Lenin was instrumental in the victory of Bolsheviks in the civil war (1917-1922).

Question 88.
Why did Bolshevik Party accept the ‘April Theses’? Give any five reasons. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Bolshevik Party accepted the April Theses’ because of the following reasons.
(a) The Provisional Government under Kerenskii failed to fulfil the aspirations of the people like land to the tiller, peace, control of industries by the workers, etc. Rather it became more unpopular.
(b) The government was under the influence of landowners, army officials and industrialists that affected its decisions.
(c) Lenin felt that time had come to seize the power from the government.
(d) People’s demands were included in the programme along with exit from the war and nationalisation of banks.
(e) Lenin’s view was accepted when the Provisional Government began suppressing the Bolsheviks.

Question 89.
Discuss the civil war that took place in Russia after the October Revolution and its consequences.
Answer:
When the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution the Russian army began to break up. They wished
to return home for getting land. Non-Bolshevik socialists, liberals and supporters of autocracy condemned the Bolshevik uprising with the support of those who were apprehensive of the growth of socialism. There was mass looting, banditry and famine during the civil war. The pro-Tsarists who supported private property suppressed the peasants and took their land. This made non-Bolsheviks unpopular. Bolsheviks were supported by non-Russian nationalities and jadidists. Local nationalists were massacred by the Bolsheviks.
Consequences:
The following were the consequences of the civil war in Russia.
(a) The civil war created confusion about the Bolsheviks way of working.
(b) It made the Bolsheviks quite unpopular.
(c) Non-Russian nationalities were given political autonomy.
(d) Nomadism was harshly discouraged.
(e) The Bolsheviks failed to win over different nationalities.

Question 90.
Mention the important steps taken by Lenin to improve the agriculture and economy of Russia.
Answer:
The following steps were taken by Lenin to improve agriculture and economy of Russia.
(a) Most of the industries and banks were nationalised.
(b) He ordered land redistribution and permitted peasants to cultivate the land.
(c) Centralised planning was introduced. Five year plans were made.
(d) The government fixed all price during the first two year plans.
(e) Communes were set up and income was divided according to the principles of cooperative commission.

Question 91.
What steps were taken to improve the condition of factory workers and peasants in Russia after the civil war?
Answer:
The following steps were taken to improve the conditions of the factory workers in Russia after the civil war.
(a) Various industries were set up like in Magnitogorsk city.
(b) Extended schooling system developed so that factory workers could also access universities.
(c) Creches for children of women factoryworkers were established.
(d) Cheap public healthcare was provided. Model living quarters were built up for workers.
(e) Lenin ordered land redistribution and permitted peasants to cultivate the land.
(f) Communes were set up and income was divided according to the problems of cooperative commission.

Question 92.
Critically examine Stalin’s collectivisation programme. [HOTS]
Answer:
Stalin began collectivisation programme to find a solution to the food shortage. But this proved to be disastrous in the subsequent years in the following ways:
(a) The policy of eliminating kulaks and establishing state-owned farms was widely criticised.
(b) Peasants were compelled to work in the kolkhoz.
(c) Peasants resisted the authorities and their livestock were destroyed. It resulted in the decline of cattle.
(d) Policy of deportation and severe punishment was followed for all those who refused to do so.
(e) There was no such increase in the production of food grains. Even his party members criticised Stalin the way the policy was followed.

Question 93.
Explain the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR.
Or
Explain the impact of the Russian Revolution on the world. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The following was the global influence of Russian Revolution and the USSR.
(a) In many countries, communist parties were formed on the line of Russia.
(b) It gave the world a new economic system known as socialism.
(c) The Bolsheviks encouraged colonial peoples to follow their experiment. It inspired a number of freedom movements in other countries.
(d) Many non-Russians from outside the USSR participated in the Conference of the Peoples of the East and the Bolshevik-founded Comintern. Some even received education in the USSR’s Communist University of the Workers of the East.
(e) By the time the Second World War broke, socialism had acquired a global face.
(f) Though by the end of the twentieth century, the image of USSR as a socialist country declined, yet it’s socialist ideals were respected and rethought in many ways suiting individual interests.

Map Skills

Question 94.
Seven features A, B, C, D, E, F and G are marked on the political map of world. Identify these features with the help of given information and write their correct names.

• Central Powers of First World War.
• Allied Powers of First World War.

Answer:

• Central Powers → A. Germany, B. Austria-Hungary, C. Turkey (Ottoman Empire)
• Allied Powers → D. France, E. England, F. Russia, G. Ameriea (USA)

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CBSE Class 9 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions Democracy in the Contemporary Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Civics Chapter 6 Democracy in the Contemporary.

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Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Question 1.
In which continent is Chile located?
Answer:
Chile is located in South America.

Question 2
Who was the President of Chile before the military coup was staged?
Answer:
Salvador Allende was the President of Chile before the miltary coup was staged.

Question 3
Name the party founded by Salvador Allende in Chile?
Answer:
The Socialist Party of Chile was founded by Salvador Allende.

Question 4.
When did Allende become the President of Chile?
Answer:
Allende became the President of Chile in 1970.

Question 5.
What were the policy decisions of President Allende other than works for poors and workers?
Answer:
Other decisions were:

(a) Reform of the educational system.
(b) He was opposed to foreign companies taking away natural resources like copper from the country.

Question 6.
Name the sections of society who were opposed to Allende’s policy?
Answer:
The landlords, the rich and the Church were opposed to Allende’s policies.

Question 7.
What is meant by coup?
Answer:
A coup is the sudden overthrow of the government illegally. It may be violent in nature.

Question 8.
When did the coup against the President of Chile take place?
Answer:
The coup against the President of Chile took place on 11th September 1973.

Question 9.
What was the fate of President Allende?
Answer:
The military surrounded the Presidents house and started bombing it. President Allende died in the military attack.

Question 10.
What happened to the Allende’s government? ‘ ‘
Answer:
Allende’s government, which was elected by people was overthrown by the military through conspiracy and violence.

Question 11.
Who overthrew President Allende’s government?
Answer:
General Augusto Pinochet overthrew President Allende’s government.

Question 12.
For how many years did Pinochet rule Chile?
Answer:
Augusto Pinochet ruled Chile for 17 years.

Question 13.
What do you mean by military dictatorship in Chile?
Answer:
From an elected government power was shifted to officers of military. Military dictatorship means military could do what they wanted. No one could question their action.

Question 14.
How did Pinochet’s government treat the supporters of Salvador Allende?
Answer:
Pinochet’s government tortured and killed several of those who supported Allende and those who wanted democracy to be restored.

Question 15.
What was the result of the referendum held in 1988?
Answer:
As a result of referendum held in 1988, Pinochet lost his political and military powers.

Question 16.
Which hope was expressed by Allende in his last address?
Answer:
Allende expressed that felony, cowardice and treason were finally punished. His hope was realised after referendum.

Question 17.
Who was Michelle Bachelet?
Answer:
Michelle Bachelet was the daughter of General Alberto Bachelet, the Chilean Air Force officer, who was tortured and killed by Pinochet’s government. She was a moderate socialist who became the President of Chile in 2006.

Question 18.
What was the significance of Polish United Workers’ Party?
Answer:
The party was one of the many communist parties that ruled in several countries of East Europe.

Question 19.
How was the USSR government assossiated with government of Poland?
Answer:
Soviet Union (USSR) government, which was a vast and powerful communist state, was supporting and controlling the government of Poland.

Question 20.
When did and by whom a strike happened in the city of Gdansk, Poland?
Answer:
On 14 August 1980, the workers of Lenin shipyard in the city of Gdansk, Poland went on a strike.

Question 21.
What was the first demand of the striking workers in Poland?
Answer:
The first demand was to take back a crane operator, a woman, who was unjustly dismissed from service.

Question 22.
Why was the strike illegal?
Answer:
The strike was illegal because in Poland, as being a communist state trade unions independent of the ruling party were not allowed.

Question 23.
Who was the leader of the striking workers? Why was he dismissed?
Answer:
Lech Walesa, was the leader of the striking workers. He was dismissed for demanding higher pay in 1976.

Question 24.
What were the demands of the striking workers?
Answer:
The demands were-right to form independent trade unions, release of political prisoners, end of press censorship.

Question 25.
How did the strike end in Poland?
Answer:
The strike ended when the workers led by Walesa signed a 21-point agreement with the government.

Question 26.
Name the first independent trade union formed in a communist country?
Answer:
The first independent trade union in any communist country was Solidarity.

Question 27.
What actions were taken by Jaruzelski government during martial lqw?
Answer:
During martial law, thousands of Solidarity workers were imprisoned and freedom to organise, protest and express opinion was taken away.

Question 28.
Why did Solidarity strike again?
Answer:
Solidarity organised the second strike in 1988 against revelations of widespread corruption, and mismanagement in the government under General Jaruzelski, and imposition of martial law.

Question 29.
What was the economic condition of Poland when second strike was organised by Solidarity?
Answer:
The Polish economy was on the decline, the government was weak and there was uncertainity in
support from the Soviet Union.

Question 30.
Who became the President of Poland in 1990?
Answer:
Lech Walesa became the President of Poland in 1990.

Question 31.
Which form of government is found in most countries of the world?
Answer:
Democracy is the form of government found in most countries of the world.

Question 32.
Mention a similarity between Pinochet’s rule in Chile and communist rule in Poland.
Answer:
These governments were non-democratic in nature.

Question 33.
What do you mean by democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.

Question 34.
List two features of democracy.
Answer:
The two features of democracy are:

1. Only representatives elected by the people should rule the country.
2. People have the freedom to express their views, to organise themselves and to protest.

Question 35.
Around what demands struggles for democracy centered during the nineteenth century?
Answer:
Political equality, freedom and justice were the demands.

Question 36.
What was the major demand of struggles in the nineteenth century.
Answer:
The major demand was the right for every adult citizen to vote.

Question 37.
What do you mean by Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Every citizen of 18 years and above has the right to vote under Universal Adult Franchise.

Question 38.
Name the only country to have granted Universal Adult Franchise till the year 1990.
Answer:
New Zealand was the first country which granted Universal Adult Franchise in 1893.

Question 39.
In which year was Universal Adult Franchise introduced in India?
Answer:
In India, Universal Adult Franchise was introduced in 1950, the year when the new Constitution was put into force.

Question 40.
Give an example of colonialism.
Answer:
Most Asian and African countries were colonised by European countries.

Question 41.
Which country was known as Gold Coast?
Answer:
Ghana in west Africa, a British colony, was known as Gold Coast.

Question 42.
Name the first African country to gain independence.
Answer:
The first African country to gain independence was Ghana.

Question 43.
Who was the First Prime Minister of Ghana after independence in 1957?
Answer:
Kwame Nkrumah became the first Prime Minister of Ghana after its independence.

Question 44.
Why was there a big push towards democracy after 1980?
Answer:
After 1980, there was a big push towards democracy because in several countries of Latin America democracy was revived and several countries after gaining independence chose to become democracies.

Question 45.
In which year did the Soviet Union disintegrate into 15 Republics?
Answer:
In 1991, Soviet Union disintegrated into 15 Republics,

Question 46.
What caused a big change in the political map of the world?
Answer:
The end of Soviet control on Eastern Europe and the break up of the Soviet Union led to a big change in the political map of the world.

Question 47.
Name the country which emerged as a democratic republic after abolishing monarchy.
Answer:
Nepal.

Question 48.
When and how did Myanmar become a democracy?
Answer:
Myanmar became a democracy in 1948 and it ended with a military rule.

Question 49.
Which leader of Myanmar got the Nobel Peace Prize?
Answer:
Aung San Suu Kyi got the Nobel Peace Prize.

Question 50.
What is the United Nations Organisation?
Answer:
United Nations Organisation is a global association of nations of the world to help cooperation in international law, security, economic development and social equity.

Question 51.
Who is the chief administrative officer of the UNO?
Answer:
The United Nations Secretary General is the chief administrative officer of the UNO.

Question 52.
Which organ of the UN is responsible for maintaining peace and security among countries?
Answer:
The UN Security Council is responsible for maintaining peace and security among countries.

Question 53.
Name the UN organ, which lends money to governments when they need.
Answer:
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) lends money to governments.

Question 54.
List the powers of UN Security Council.
Answer:
It can put together an international army and take action against the wrongdoers.

Question 55.
What is the limitation of the General Assembly?
Answer:
General Assembly cannot take any decision about what action should be taken to solve a conflict between different countries.

Question 56.
What is the term period of ten temperory member of UN security council? How are they elected?
Answer:
The term is 2 years and they are elected by General Assembly.

Question 57.
What is Veto power?
Answer:
When any of the five permanent members of the Security Council says no to the decision of the Security Council, the council cannot take the decision.

Question 58.
Name the leader of Iraq who became President after the success of a military coup.
Answer:
Saddam Hussein became the President of Iraq after the success of military rule.

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Question 59.
What steps were taken by Salvador Allende to help the poor and the workers? [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Salvador Allende was the founder leader of the Socialist Party of Chile. He led the Popular Unity
coalition to victory in the 1970 elections, was appointed the President.
The three reforms which he undertook to help the poor and the workers were:

1.  Reforming the education system.
2.  Free milk for children.
3.  Redistribution of land to landless farmers.

Question 60.
State any three major incidents which took place in Chile after the military coup of September
1973. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
On 11th September 1973, a military coup was established in Chile under the leadership of General Augusto Pinochet.
The major incidents took place in Chile under the leadership of General Augusto were:

1. A military dictatorship was established.
2. Pinochet’s government tortured and killed those who supported’democracy and opposed him.
3. More than 3,000 men were killed by military.
4. General Bachelet’s wife and daughter were imprisoned and tortured. (any three)

Question 61.
Can Chile under Pinochet’s rule be called a democracy? Support your answer with three arguments.
[CBSE 2012] [HOTS]
Answer:
General Augusto Pinochet’s rule in Chile cannot be called a democracy because of the following reasons.

1. There was no representation in the administration of those elected by the people. All were controled by Pinochet.
2. There was no election or Universal Adult Franchise. Chile was ruled by military for 17 years.
3. There was no real freedom to express one’s opinion—to form political associations, organise protests or undertake any political action in Chile. More than 3,000 men were killed, many more went missing.

Question 62.
Describe any three demands of the workers of Lenin shipyard during their strike which started in August 1980 in Poland. [CBSE 2012, 2014] [HOTS]
Answer:
On 14th August, 1980, the workers of Lenin shipyard in the city of Gdansk went on strike.
The following were their main demands:

1.  They wanted the crane operator, a woman worker who was unjustly dismissed from service, to be taken back.
2. They wanted to form independent trade unions.
3. They demanded the release of political prisoners.
4. They also demanded an end to press censorship. (any three)

Question 63.
Who was Lech Walesa? How did he become famous in Poland? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:

1. Lech Walesa was an electrician at the Lenin shipyard in the city of Gdansk in Poland. He
   became famous for his struggle against the ruling communist government. He dismissed from service in 1976, for demanding higher pay. Later he joined the strike of Lenin shipyard.
2. Very soon Walesa emerged as the leader of the striking workers. Initially, the strike was started with a demand to take back a crane operator, a women worker, who was unjustly dismissed.
3. Later, the strike to spread across the whole city. Now the workers wanted the right to form independent trade unions, release of political prisoners and an end to press censorship of the press. Later Walesa formed Solidarity, the first independent trade union in Poland.

Question 64.
What was the Gdansk agreement?
Answer:

1. The Gdansk agreement was a 21-point agreement that took place between the workers led by
   Lech Walesa and the government. The workers’ strike ended with this agreement.
2. The government agreed to recognise the workers’ right to form independent trade unions and the right to strike. worse for the rulers. The government under General Jaruzelski became anxious and imposed martial law
3. After this agreement was signed a new trade union called Solidarity was formed. It was the first time an independent trade union was formed in a communist country.

Question 65.
What were the reasons that led to the imposition of martial law in Poland under General Jaruzelski?
[CBSE 2011]
Answer:
The reasons which led to the imposition of martial law in Poland were:

1. The workers’ movement under Lech Walesa demanded release of political prisoners, they also demanded the right to form independent trade unions and end of the press censorship.
2. Solidarity, the first independent trade union, was formed in a communist state. Soon it swept across Poland and had about one crore members.
3. Revelations of widespread corruption and mismanagement in the government made matters

Question 66.
Distinguish between Pinochet’s rule in Chile and the Communist rule in Poland.
Answer:

Question 67.
Mention the main features of democracy. [HOTS]
Answer:
The main features of democracy are as follows:

1. Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.
2. Only elected leaders rule the country in a democracy. –
3. People have the freedom to express their views, form political associations and to organise protests and political action.

Question 68.
How did Britain progressed toward the democracy?
Answer:
Britain’s progress towards democracy was started earlier than that of France but it was very slow. The powers of monarchy were reduced. The right to vote was granted to more and more people. It granted right to vote on the basis of universal adult franchise in 1928.

Question 69.
Why did Kwame Nkrumah become unpopular? What was its consequence?
Answer:
Ghana was a British colony in West Africa named Gold Coast. It became independent in 1957. Kwame Nkrumah, was the son of a goldsmith. He was a teacher. But he got himself elected president for life. He was overthrown by military. Ghana thus came into the lap of undemocratic rule.

Question 70.
When did undemocratic rule end in Myanmar? What happened there in 1990? What were its results?
[HOTS]
Answer:
Myanmar gained freedom from colonial rule in 1948 and became a democracy. But the democratic rule could not last long. In 1962, it came to an end through a military coup. In 1990, elections were held and the National League for Democracy led by Aung San Suu Kyi won the elections. But the military leaders refused to step down. They did not recognise the election and put Aung San Suu Kyi and other pro-democracy leaders under house arrest. Political activists and others, who were caught giving their views or issuing statements against the military regime, were jailed and sentenced up to twenty years in prison.

Question 71.
Write a short note on Aung San Suu Kyi.
Answer:
Myanmar got independence in 1948 and became a democracy. But in 1962 there was a military coup. In 1990, elections were held in Myanmar after 30 years and National League for Democracy (NLD) led by Aung San Suu Kyi won the election. But the military leaders did not recognise the election results and refused to step down.

Aung San Suu Kyi was put under house arrest for many years. She has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for she continued her fight for democracy and human rights. Finally, under her leadership, the NLD fought the historic 2015 elections and a democratic republic was established.

Question 72.
What is International Monetary Fund? Is it based on democratic provisions?
Answer:
International Monetary Fund is one of the biggest moneylenders for any country in the world. This organisation with 189 members is not based on democratic provisions.

1. These countries did not have equal voting rights. More than 40% of voting power were given to only seven countries i.e. US, Japan, France, UK, Germany, Italy and Canada.
2. Rest of the 182 countries hardly have any say in its working.

Question 73.
Which country has recently taken the task of promotion of democracy in the rest of the world? Should existing democracies directly intervene in countries that are non-democratic to establish democracy there? Write your opinion in brief. .
Answer:
The United States of America has recently taken the task of promotion of democracy in the rest of the world.
Promoting the values of democracy in the world is a good thing. But it is not good to establish democracy in a non-democratic country by force. For example, in Iraq the same thing happened. The US and its allies invaded Iraq in 2003 for establishing democracy there. In my opinion such an intervention is not appreciated. External force does not help until and unless the people of the country themselves are engaged in a struggle against their government to make it democratic.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Question 74.
List down the contribution of Salvador Allende in Chile.
Answer:

1. Salvador Allende was the founder leader of Socialist Party of Chile who led the Popular Unity coalition in the Presidential elections of 1970.
2. After becoming the President, Aliende took several policy decisions to help the poor and the workers.
   (i) Reforms of educational system
   (ii) Free milk for children
   (iii) Redistribution of land to the landless farmers.
3. The rich, the landlords and the Church all were opposed to his policies as these did not favour them. He was against foreign companies who were taking away natural resources like copper from Chile.

Question 75.
Mention the major developments took place in India’s neighbour in recent years.
Answer:
Developments in Pakistan, Bangladesh and Nepal were:

1. In the 1990’s Pakistan and Bangladesh made a shift from army rule to democracy.
2. In Nepal the king gave up his powers to become a constitutional monarch who would be guided by elected representatives.
3. These changes were not permanent e.g.
   • In 1999, General Musharraf instilled military rule in Pakistan.
   • In 2005, the king dismissed the elected government and took back the political freedom and imposed his rule in Nepal.
4.  But, in 2008, Pakistan became democratic again and Nepal emerged as a democratic republic after abolishing the monarchy.

Question 76.
Democracy has expanded through the 20th century. Explain with examples. [CBSE 2010; HOTS]
Answer:
Democracy has expanded through the 20th century because people consider democracy as the best form of government.

The following examples support the above statement.

1. Chile, a country which was democratic till September 1973, was overthrown by a military dictator called Augusto Pinochet in a coup. After ruling for 17 years the military was overthrown in a referendum and democracy was restored.
2. In Poland, the situation was similar when the communist government was replaced by military rule with martial law in force. But in 1990, this was replaced by democratic rule.
3. In 1991, the Soviet Union broke down into 15 Republics which emerged as democracies.
4. At the beginning of the 20th century, only a handful of the governments were democratic. By 2016, about 140 governments were democratically elected.
5. More than 80 previously non-democratically countries have made significant advance towards democracy since 1980.

Question 77.
Why is there a demand that the UN should be more democratic? [HOTS]
Answer:
There is a demand that the UN should be more democratic because of the following reasons.

1. Even enough the total strength of the UN Security Council is 15, only 5 permanent members— US, Russia, UK, France and China—have the veto power, which means that the council cannot take any decision if any permanent member says ‘no’ to the decision.
2. More than 40% of the voting power in the International Monetary Fund is in the hands of only seven countries, which have contributed the most to the IMF. The remaining 182 countries hardly have any say in decision-making.
3. The President of the World Bank has always been a US citizen, conventionally nominated by the Finance Minister of the US.
4. The decisions of the UN reflect western values and culture. It should encourage representation
   from Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean islands.
5. The permanent members, especially the US, contribute most of its money needed for the maintenance of the UNO, thereby dominating the proceedings.

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