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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Transport and Communication

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Transport and Communication Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Transport And Communication MCQ Chapter 10 Question 1.

India has one of the largest road networks in the world with a total length of :

(A) 33.1 lakh km (2005)
(B) 22.1 lakh km(2005)
(C) 11.1 lakh km (2005)
(D) 34.1 lakh km (2005)
Answer:
(A) 33.1 lakh km (2005)

MCQs On Transport And Communication Class 12 Question 2.

The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in …………..

Explanation:
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is an autonomous agency of the Government of India, set up in 1995 and is responsible for management of a network of over 50,000 km of National Highways out of a 1,32,499 km in India.

Transport And Communication MCQs Class 12 Question 3.

State Highways are constructed and maintained by:

(A) Village Government
(B) State Government
(C) ITBP
(D) Central Government
Answer:
(B) State Government

Explanation:
The state highways are maintained by the respective states or union territories through their Public Works Department (PWD).

Transport And Communication Class 12 MCQ Question 4.

The density of roads is high in most of the:

(A) northern states and major southern states
(B) the mountainous terrains
(C) the desert area
(D) None of these
AnsweR:
(A) northern states and major southern states

Explanation:
The density of roads is high in 1 North India because of high concentration of industries and urbanisation in these areas. Building material is locally available. High f density of 50-100 km is also found in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh of the northern plain. This is due to advanced agriculture, industry and urbanisation in these areas. Building material is obtained from the Himalayan region. Large parts of the Deccan plateau have moderate density of roads.

MCQs On Transport And Communication Chapter 10 Class 12 Question 5.

……………. is an important mode of transport for both passenger and heavy cargo traffic in India.

(A) Waterways
(B) Backwaters
(C) Road transport
(D) Pipeline
Answer:
(A) Waterways

Explanation:
Waterways are an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India. It is the cheapest means of transport and is most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material. It is a fuel-efficient § and eco-friendly mode of transport.

Transport And Communication MCQ Class 12 Chapter 10 Question 6.

The backwaters (Kadal) of Kerala has special significance in:

(A) inland waterway
(B) oceanic waterway
(C) international waterways
(D) tourist waterways
Answer:
(A) inland waterway

Explanation:
Connected by artificial canals, the backwaters form an economical means of transport and a large local trade is carried on by inland navigation

MCQs On Transport And Communication Pdf Class 12 Question 7.

transport is the fastest means of movement from one place to the other.

(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Road
(D) Pipeline
Answer:
(A) Air

Explanation:
The air travel, today, is the § fastest, most comfortable and prestigious j mode of transport. It has reduced distances by minimising the travel time. It is very essential § for a vast country like India, where distances § are large and the terrain and climatic conditions are diverse.

Question 8.

Air transport in India started in :

(A) 1911
(B) 1922
(C) 1933
(D) 1944
Answer:
(A) 1911

Question 11.

India’s own launching vehicle is called:

(A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(B) Polar Satellite Attack Vehicle
(C) Polar Satellite Receiving Vehicle
(D) Polar Satellite Reacting Vehicle
Answer:
(A) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle

Explanation:
The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle g is an expendable medium-lift launch vehicle designed and operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation

Question 12.

Name the railway line that was constructed between Roha in Maharashtra and Mangalore in Karnataka.

(A) Konkan Railways
(B) Western Railways
(C) Southern Railways
(D) Deccan Railways
Answer:
(A) Konkan Railways

Explanation:
The Konkan Railway takes you on a breathtaking journey through rugged mountains, lush valleys, sunlit paddy fields, bustling villages and glistening rivers that lead out to sea.

Question 13.

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I:

Column I	Column II
(i) NHI	1. 534km
(ii) NH2	2. 1,326 km
(iii) NH3	3. 556 km
(iv) H4	4. 230 km

Options:
(A) (i)-1 (ii) -3, (iii) -2, (iv) -4
(5) (i)-1. (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(C) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-4. (iv)4
(D) (i)4. (ii)-2 (iii)-1, (iv)-3
Answer:
(A) (i)-). (ii) -3, (iii) -2, (iv) -4

Question 14.

Operation. maintenance and deelupmriir ut National Highways S done by:

(A) NiNA
(Dl NHiA
(C) NHAI
(D) NM-ti
Answer:
(C) NHAI

Explanation:
Major function of the National Highways Authority of India C’JHAE) Is Operation. maintenance and development of National Highways. It a nodal agency of the Ministry 0E Road Transport and Highways.

Question 15.

Name the terminal stations of East West Corridor.

(A) Assam and Bagdogra
(B) Manipur and Bengaluru
(C) Silchar and Porbandar
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Silchar and Porbandar

Explanation:
Silchar and Porbandar are the terminal stations of the East West corridor. Jhansi is the junction of both the corridors.

Question 16.

Name the boat race that is held in the backwaters of Kerala.

(A) Nallamkali
(B) Vallamkali
(C) Kallamkali
(D) Hellamkali
Answer:
(B) Vallamkali

Explanation:
The famous Nehru Trophy Boat I Race (VALLAMKALI) is held in the backwaters.

Question 17.

Inland Waterways Authority was set up in:

(A) 1966
(B) 1976
(C) 1986
(D) 1996
Answer:
(C) 1986

Explanation:
Forthedevelopment, maintenance and regulation of national waterways in the country, the Inland Waterways Authority was set up in 1986.

Question 18.

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I:

Column I	Column II
(i) Ganga- Bhagìrathi- Hooghly River System	1. NW 2
(ii) Brahmaputra River	2. NW 3
(iii) Kollam to Kottapuram	3. NW1
(iv) Godavari and Krishna River Canal	4. NW 4

Options:
(A) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2. (iv)-4
(B) (i)-4. (i)-2(iii)-1. (iv)-3
(C) (i)-3, (i)-2 (mi)-4. (iv)-1
(D) (i)-1. (ii)-2. (111)-3, (iv)4
Answer:
(A) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2. (iv)-4

Explanation:
Thc ven Enjor rivers slong with their numen,us tributañes make up the river system of India Most of the rivers pour their wafers info the Bavol Bengal.

Question 19.

Low many types of waterways are found in India?

(A) Marsh
(B) Inland water
(C) Creek
(D) River
Answer:
(C) Creek

Explanation:
The witcr transport is o two types – (a) inland waterways and (b) oceanic waterways.

Question 20.

…………… means narrow, sheltered water way. especially an in a hcwdine of a channel in a marsh.

(a) Marsh
(B) Inland waler
(C) Creek
(D) Riwr
Answer:
(C) Creek

Explanation:
Creek is a natural stream of water normally smaller than and often tributary to a river.

Question 21.

There are …………….. National Waterways in India.

(A) 111
(B) 112
(C) 113
(D) 114
Answer:
(A) 111

Explanation:
There are 111 officially notified Inland National Waterways (NWs) in India S identified for the purpose of inland water transport, as per The National Waterways Act, 2016. Out of the 111 NWs, 106 were created in 2016.

Question 22.
Arrange the correct sequence of pipelines column I against column II:

Column I	Column II
(i) Naharkatia-Nunmati-Barauni	1. Crude Oil
(ii) Mumbai High-Mumbai Ankleshwar-Kayoli	2. LPG
(iii) Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur	3. Gas
(iv) Jamnagar-Loni	4. Crude oil and Natural Gas

Options
(A) (1)-1, (ii)-4, (111)-3, (iv)-2
(B) (i)-2, (ii)-1, (iii)-4, (iv)-1
(C) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(D) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-3, (iv)-2
Answer:
(A) (1)-1, (ii)-4, (111)-3, (iv)-2

Explanation:
Pipelines are ideal for the unidirectional flow of goods and inflationary influences have minimal effect on the transport cost.

Question 23.
To help the Indian exporters and make their export more competitive, the government had introduced an ………….. Policy for cargo.
(A) Closed Sky
(B) Fly Sky
(C) Free Sky
(D) Open Sky
Answer:
(D) Open Sky

Explanation:
The Open Sky Policy allows the government to enter into an open sky’ air services agreement on a reciprocal basis with SAARC nations as well as countries beyond a 5,000-kilometre radius from New Delhi.

Question 24.

When did the government adopt the Open Sky Policy for cargo?

(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1993
Answer:
(A) 1990

Explanation:
A policy of “open skies” for air cargo was adopted in 1990, initially for a three-year period and extended in 1992 on a permanent basis.

Question 25.

The ………….. is responsible for providing safe efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air Space.

(A) The Air Authority of India
(B) The Airport Authority of India
(C) The Airspace Authority of India
(D) The Aircraft Authority of India
Answer:
(B) The Airport Authority of India

Explanation:
An airport authority is an independent entity charged with the operation and oversight of an airport or group of airports. The Airport Authority of India is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air Space.

Question 26.

Pawan Hans Limited was incorporated in as the Helicopter Corporation of India (HCI).

(A) 1965
(B) 1955
(C) 1975
(D) 1985
Answer:
(D) 1985

Explanation:
Pawan Hans Limited is the country’s national helicopter company which helps in providing helicopter support services to the oil sector for its off-shore exploration operations as well as services m remote areas.

Question 27.

The communication among masses is known as:

(A) Communication
(B) Personal communication
(C) Mass communication
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Mass communication

Explanation:
Mass communication is the process of imparting and exchanging information through mass media to large segments of the population.

Question 28.

The National Remote Sensing Centre is located at:

(A) Chennai
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Secundrabad
(D) Nasirabad
Answer:
(B) Hyderabad

Explanation:
National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) at Hyderabad is responsible for remote sensing satellite data acquisition and processing, data dissemination, aerial remote sensing and decision support for disaster management.

Question 29.

The communication between person to person is known as :

(A) Mass communication
(B) Personal communication
(C) Group communication
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Personal communication

Explanation:
Personal communication is the process by which people exchange j information, feelings and meaning through verbal and non- verbal messages: it is face-to-face communication.

Question 30.

Radio, television, newspapers, books, magazines, etc., are examples of:

(A) Giving sermon
(B) Mass communication
(C) Giving instruction
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Mass communication

Explanation:
Mass communication is practiced through multiple mediums, such as radio, television, social networking, billboards, newspapers, magazines, books, film and the Internet.

Question 31.

The is like a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items.

(A) internet
(B) classroom
(C) newspaper
(D) radio
Answer:
(A) internet

Explanation:
The Internet is a vast network that connects computers all over the world. Through the Internet, people can share information and communicate from anywhere with an Internet connection.

Question 32.

The IRS satellite system became operational with the launching of IRS-IA in March from Vaikanour in Russia.

(A) 1988
(B) 1999
(C) 1966
(D) 1977
Answer:
(A) 1988

Explanation:
India began development of an indigenous Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellite program to support the national economy in the areas of agriculture, water resources, forestry and ecology, geology, water sheds, marine fisheries, coastal management, weather forecasting, natural calamities and disaster management.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions:
In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Transportation of people and goods by road transport is not new in India.
Reason (R): Since ancient times, pathways and unmetalled roads have been in use for this purpose.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
With the technological advancement, there are now metalled roads, railways, cableways and pipelines for movement of large volume of goods and passengers.

Question 2 .

Assertion (A): Human beings use various methods to move goods, commodities, ideas from one place to another.
Reason (R): We use very few items in our daily life.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: The use of transport and communication depends upon our need to move things from place of their availability to the place of their use.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): India has one of the second largest road networks in the world.
Reason (R): These road networks transport 64.5% of all goods in the country and 90% of India’s total passenger traffic uses road network to commute.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India has a total road length of 42.3 lakhs km that places it among the countries 1 which have largest road network.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in 1995.
Reason (R): It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
It is responsible for the development, maintenance and management of National Highways. This is also the apex body to improve the quality of the roads j designated as National Highway.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Water transport is the cheapest means of transport.
Reason (R): It is a fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Water is the cheapest means of transport because the fuel used to run is less than land transport. Building of infrastructure like roads and bridges is not required. It is also used to carry bulky goods easily.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Inland waterways were the chief mode of transport before the advent of railways. Reason (R): However it faced tough competition from road and railway transport.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India has an extensive network of J inland waterways in the form of rivers, canals, backwaters and creek.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) was established in the year 1986.
Reason (R): It was established for development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. 0

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The Inland Waterways Authority has also identified 10 other inland waterways, which could be upgraded.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): The backwaters (Kadal) of Kerala has special significance in Inland Waterway.
Reason (R): The famous Nehru Boat Race (VALLAMKALI) is held in the backwaters. R

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

“Explanation:
Apart from providing cheap J means of transport, they are also attracting a | large number of tourists in Kerala.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Air transport is the slowest means of movement from one place to the other.
Reason (R): It is essential for a vast country like India, where distances are large and the terrain and climatic conditions are diverse.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Air transport is the fastest means § of movement from one place to the other. It has reduced distances by minimising the travel time.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): The Airport Authority of India is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air space.
Reason (R): It manages 126 airports including 11 international, 86 domestic and 29 civil enclaves at defence air fields.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The airport authority of India overlooks into the operation and oversight of an airport or group of airports.

Question 11.

Assertion (A): The air transport in India is managed by Air India.
Reason (R): Many private companies have also started passenger services.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Air India provides International Air Services for both passengers and cargo traffic. It connects all the continents of the world through its services.

Question 12.

Assertion (A): In 2010, domestic movement involved 520.21 lakh passengers and about 23 lakh metric tonnes of cargo.
Reason (R): Pawan Hans is a helicopter service operating in the coastal areas.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Pawan Hans is the helicopter service operating in hilly areas and is widely used by tourists in north-eastern sector. Pawan Hans Limited mainly provides helicopter services to petroleum sector and for tourism.

Question 13.

Assertion (A): Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distances.
Reason (R): Even solids can also be transported by pipelines after converting them into slurry. [U]

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Pipelines transport crude oil I and gas to refineries for processing into the 1 products we use every day.

Question 14.

Assertion (A): Human beings have evolved different methods of communication over time.
Reason (R): Invention of post-office, telegraph, printing press, telephone, satellite, etc., has made the communication much faster and easier.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Development in the field of 1 science and technology has significantly I contributed in bringing about revolution in the 1 field of communication.

Question 15.

Assertion (A): Among all the personal communication system internet is the most effective and advanced one.
Reason (R): It enables the user to establish direct contact through e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge and information.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Internet is widely used in urban areas. It is increasingly used for e-commerce and carrying out money transactions.

Question 16.

Assertion (A): Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication.
Reason (R): Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas, etc. 0]

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Satellite communication refers to any communication link that involves the use of an artificial satellite in its propagation path. Satellite communication plays a vital role in modern life.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Indian Railways network is one of the longest in the world. It facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contributes to the growth of the economy. Indian Railway was introduced in 1853, when a line was constructed from Bombay to Thane covering a distance of 34 km. Indian Railways is the largest government undertaking in the country. The length of Indian Railways network was 66,030 km as on 31st March, 2015. Its very large size puts a lot of pressure on the centralised railway management system. Thus, in India, the railway system has been divided into 16 zones. Indian

Railways has launched extensive programme to convert the metre and narrow gauges to broad gauge. Moreover, steam engines have been replaced by diesel and electric engines. This step has increased the speed, as well as, the haulage capacity. The replacement of steam engines run by coal has also improved the environment of the stations.

Question 1.

Which is the largest railway network in Asia?

(A) Indian railways
(B) Trans-Siberian
(C) Australian railways
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Indian railways

Explanation:
Indian Railways is the largest rail Inetwork in Asia and the world’s second largest under one management.

Question 2.

When was Indian Railways introduced?

(A) 1841
(B) 1843
(C) 1853
(D) 1863
Answer:
(C) 1853

Explanation:
On 16th April, 1853, the first passenger train ran between Bori Bunder (Bombay) and Thane, a distance of 34 km.

Question 3.

Which is the longest railway track in India?

(A) Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari
(B) Trivandrum to Jammu
(C) Manipur to Jamnagar
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari

Explanation:
It joins Dibrugarh in Assam, North-East India to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu which is the southernmost tip of Mainland India.

Question 4.

Why is electric engine considered more efficient than the traditional diesel engine?

(A) Cost effective
(B) Higher speed
(C) More accurate
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow.
India has one of the second largest road networks in the world with a total length of about 56 lakh km (morth.nic.in, Annual Report 2017-18). About 85 per cent of passengers and 70 per cent of freight traffic are carried by roads every year. Road transport is relatively suitable for shorter distance travel. Road transport in modern sense was very limited in India before World War-II. The first serious attempt was made in 1943 when ‘Nagpur Plan’ was drawn.

This plan could not be implemented due to lack of coordination among the princely states and British India. After Independence, twenty-year road plan (1961) was introduced to improve the conditions of roads in India. However, roads continue to concentrate in and around urban centres. Rural and remote areas had the least connectivity by road. For the purpose of construction and maintenance, roads are classified as National Highways (NH), State Highways (SH), Major District Roads and Rural Roads.

Question 1.

What is the length of the Indian road networks as per Annual Report 2017-18?

(A) 56 lakh km
(B) 46 lakh km
(C) 36 lakh km
(D) 26 lakh km
Answer:
(A) 56 lakh km

Question 2.

How much passenger traffic is carried out by roads every year?

(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 80%
(D) 85%
Answer:
(D) 85%

Explanation:
Road transport provides a faster and less costly means of transporting goods over short distances.

Question 3.

What was purpose of the twenty-year road plan introduced after independence?

(A) Bifurcate the roads
(B) To introduce toll tax
(C) Improve the conditions of the road
(D) None of these
AnsweR:
(C) Improve the conditions of the road

Explanation:
In 1943, a twenty-year plan was proposed to increase the road network from 350,000 kilometres (220,000 mi) to 532,700 i kilometres (331,000 mi) by 1963, to achieve a road density of 16 km per 100 km2 of land.

Question 4.

State the importance of national highways.

(A) Connects important places
(B) Very less maintenance cost
(C) Disintegrates into smaller roads
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Connects important places

Explanation:
National highways connect capitals, important places, ports and places of strategic importance of various states.

III. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Air transport is the fastest means of movement from one place to the other. It has reduced distances by minimising the travel time. It is essential for a vast country like India, where distances are large and the terrain and climatic conditions are diverse. Air transport in India made a beginning in 1911 when airmail operation commenced over a little distance of 10 km between Allahabad and Naini. But its real development took place in post-independent period.

The Airport Authority of India is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air Space. The authority manages 125 airports. Now, many private companies have also started passenger services. Air India provides International Air Services for both passengers and cargo traffic. It connects all the continents of the world through its services. Some private companies have also started operations to foreign countries.

Question 1.

What is an example of air travel?

(A) Ferry
(B) Mountain truck
(C) Helicopter
(D) Crane
Answer:
(C) Helicopter

Explanation:
Transport helicopters are used to 1 ferry troops and supplies where the lack of an S airstrip would make transport difficult.

Question 2.

Who is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air Space?

(A) The Airport Community of India
(B) The Airport Authority of India
(C) The Airport Mission of India
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(B) The Airport Authority of India

Explanation:
The Airport Authority of India is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing civil aviation infrastructure in India.

Question 3.

Why is air travel more expensive than land travel?

(A) Not very frequently taken
(B) High cost of fuel
(C) Limited air crafts available
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) High cost of fuel

Explanation:
The cost of maintaining aircraft and fuel cost is higher and the costs for the 1 building of aerodromes and avions are much higher. That’s why air travel is so expensive.

Question 4.

Name one private airline operating in India.

(A) GoAir
(B) Air India
(C) Indian Airlines
(D) Emirates
Answer:
(A) GoAir

Explanation:
GoAir is an Indian ultra-low-cost airline based in Mumbai, Maharashtra. In October 2017, it was the fifth largest airline in 1 K India with an 8.4% passenger market share.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Manufacturing Industries with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Manufacturing Industries Class 12 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-8-part-b/

Mineral and Energy Resources Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Geography Class 12 Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Cement
(C) Sugar
(D) Jute

Answer

Answer: (B) Cement

Question 2.
Which one of the following agencies, market steel for the public sector plants?
(A) HAIL
(B) SAIL
(C) TATA Steel
(D) MNCC

Answer

Answer: (B) SAIL

Question 3.
Which of the following industry uses bauxite as a raw material?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Cement
(C) Jute
(D) Steel

Answer

Answer: (A) Aluminium

Question 4.
Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computers, etc?
(A) Steel
(B) Aluminium
(C) Electronic
(D) Information Technology

Answer

Answer: (D) Information Technology

Question 5.
Manufacturing is an activity of which type:
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quarternary

Answer

Answer: (B) Secondary

Question 6.
Which of the following is an agro-based industry?
(A) Iron and Steel
(B) Cotton
(C) Aluminium
(D) Cement

Answer

Answer: (B) Cotton

Question 7.
The first cotton textile mill was established in Mumbai in:
(A) 1834
(B) 1844
(C) 1854
(D) 1864

Answer

Answer: (C) 1854

Question 8.
Jute mills are mostly located in:
(A) Mahanadi Basin
(B) Damodar valley
(C) Hoogli Basin
(D) Kosi Basin

Answer

Answer: (C) Hoogli Basin

Question 9.
The per capita annual consumption of steel in India is:
(A) 30 kg
(B) 31 kg
(C) 32 kg
(D) 33 kg

Answer

Answer: (C) 32 kg

Question 10.
The production of aluminium in India is:
(A) 500 million tons
(B) 600 million tons
(C) 767 million tons
(D) 800 million tons

Answer

Answer: (C) 767 million tons

Question 11.
Which town is the Electronic Capital of India?
(A) Mumbai
(C) Bengaluru
(B) Kolkata
(D) Pune

Answer

Answer: (B) Kolkata

Question 12.
Which is not a factor of industrial location?
(A) Market
(B) Capital
(C) Population Density
(D) Power.

Answer

Answer: (C) Population Density

Question 13.
The earliest Iron and Steel Company to be established in India was:
(A) IISCO
(B) TISCO
(C) Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works
(D) Mysore Iron and Steel Works

Answer

Answer: (A) IISCO

Question 14.
The first modern cotton mill was established in Mumbai because:
(A) Mumbai is a port
(B) It is located near a cotton-growing area
(C) Mumbai was the financial center
(D) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (D) All of the above

Question 15.
The nucleus of the Hugh Industrial Region is:
(A) Kolkata – Howrah
(B) Kolkata – Medinipur
(C) Kolkata – Rishra
(D) Kolkata – Konnagar

Answer

Answer: (A) Kolkata – Howrah

Question 16.
Which one of the following is the second-largest producer of sugar?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: (A) Maharashtra

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Manufacturing Industries with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Geography Manufacturing Industries MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Planning and Sustainable Development MCQs Pdf Class 12 Question 1.

The formulation and implementation of the sets of schemes or programmes aimed at development of various sectors of the economy such as agriculture, irrigation, manufacturing, power, construction, transport, communication, social infrastructure and services is termed as :

(A) sectoral planning
(B) regional planning
(C) linear planning
(D) implementation planning
Answer:
(A) sectoral planning

Explanation:
Sectoral planning is deeply based on various sectors of economic activities such as Primary, Secondary, Tertiary and Quaternary and their development.

Question 2.

The uneven pattern of development over space necessitates that the planners have a spatial perspective and draw the plans to reduce regional imbalance in development. This type of planning is known as :

(A) sectoral planning
(B) linear planning
(C) regional planning
(D) none of the Above
Answer:
(C) regional planning

Explanation:
Regional planning is related to urban planning as it relates land use practices on a broader scale.

Question 3.

Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during the :

(A) Third Five Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five Year Plan
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan
(D) Sixth Five Year Plan
Answer:
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan

Explanation:
Hill Area Development Pro-grammes were initiated during Fifth Five Year Plan covering 15 districts comprising all the hilly districts of Uttar Pradesh (present Uttarakhand), Mikir Hill and North Cachar hills of Assam, Darjiling district of West Bengal and Nilgiri district of Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.

Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated during the :

(A) Second Five Year Plan
(B) Third Five Year Plan
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan
Answer:
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan

Explanation:
This programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets to mitigate the effects of droughts.

Question 5.

The irrigation in the Command Area was started in:

(A) early 1940s
(B) early 1950s
(C) early 1960s
(D) early 1970s
Answer:
(C) early 1960s

Explanation:
The Government of India launched the Command Area Development programme to bridge narrow the gap between irrigation potential created and actually utilized in major and medium irrigation schemes.

Question 6.

The the irrigation in the Command Area was started in:

(A) Mid- 1960s.
(B) Mid-1970s
(C) Mid-1980s
(D) Mid- 1990s
Answer:
(C) Mid-1980s

Question 7.

The negative impact of the canal irrigation taken up in the areas surrounding the Indira Gandhi Canal is:

(A) increase in fertility level
(B) water -logging
(C) soil salinity
(D) both (B) and (C)
Answer:
(D) both (B) and (C)

Explanation:
The canal irrigation led to adverse impact in the form of water logging, soil salinity, raising of ground water level, siltation of canal by sand.

Question 8.

The concept of development is:

(A) dynamic
(B) stagnant
(C) consistent
(D) static
Answer:
(A) dynamic

Explanation:
The developmental process is viewed as change within a complex dynamic system.

Question 9.

‘The Population Bomb’ was written by :

(A) Meadows and others
(B) Ehrlich
(C) Darwin
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Ehrlich

Explanation:
The Population Bomb is a best- selling book written by Stanford University Professor Paul R. Ehrlich and his wife, Anne Ehrlich, in 1968.

Question 10.

What were the reasons due to which the 8th Five Year Plan got delayed?

(A) Political instability
(B) Liberalisation
(C) Democratisation
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation:
Due to political turmoil at the centre as well as the global economic changes and fiscal imbalances of the country in late 80’s the Eighth plan could not take off.

Question 11.

The Eight Five Year Plan got delayed for how many years?

(A) One year
(B) Two Years
(C) Three Years
(D) Four Years
Answer:
(B) Two Years

Explanation:
The plan was postponed by two years because of the political upheavals at the centre.

Question 12.

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I.

Column I	Column II
Five Year Plan	Year of Launch
(i) 1^st Five year Plan	1. Evolution of good irrigation system
(ii) 2^ndFive year Plan	2. Rapid industrialisation
(iii) 3^rd Five year l’ian	3. Improvement in the production of wheat
(iv) 4^th Five year Plan	4. Annual growth rate of 5 per cent in aghculhire

Options:
(A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
(B) i-2, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
(C) i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2
(D) i-3, u-2, iii-1, iv-4
Answer:
(A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4

Explanation:
Top priority was given to the development of agricultural sector. The idea was agricultural development would lead to higher rate of economic growth.

Question 13.

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I.

Column I	Column II
Five Year Plan	Objectives
(i) 1^st Five year Plan	1. 1969-74
(ii) 2^ndFive year Plan	2. 1961-66
(iii) 3^rd Five year l’ian	3. 1956-61
(iv) 4^th Five year Plan	4. 1951-56

Options:
(A) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
(B) i-2. ii-4. iii-1, v-3
(C) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
(D) i-1, ii-4, iii-2, iv-3
Answer:
(A) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

Question 14.

What is the extent of the Indira Gandhi Canal?

(A) 200 km
(B) 300 km
(C) 500 km
(D) 600 km
Answer:
(D) 600 km

Explanation:
It covers an area 600 Km long and 45 Km wide of the Thar Desert in North West of Rajasthan.

Question 15.

When was the Indira Gandhi Canal Project launched?

(A) 1948
(B) 1958
(C) 1968
(D) 1978
Answer:
(B) 1958

Explanation:
Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31st March, 1958.

Question 16.

Which is the most backward area of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Sangla
(B) Kalpa
(C) Barot
(D) Bharmaur
AnsweR:
(D) Bharmaur

Explanation:
A number of development programmes, policies and projects have been introduced to improve the well-being of tribal people.

Question 17.

The action or practice of moving livestock from one grazing ground to another in a seasonal cycle, typically to lowlands in winter and highlands in summer is known as :

(A) transhumance
(B) transition
(C) transportation
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(A) transhumance

Explanation:
Transhumance is a type of pastoralism or nomadism, a seasonal movement of livestock between fixed summer and winter pastures.

Question 18.

The Planning Commission of India (1967)identified ………….. districts (entire or partly) of the country prone to drought.

(A) 59
(B) 47
(C) 67
(D) 97
Answer:
(C) 67

Explanation:
The Irrigation Commission (1972) introduced the criterion of 30 per cent irrigated area and demarcated the drought-prone areas,

Question 19.

What predictions did Ehrlich make in his book ‘The Population Bomb’?

(A) Predicted worldwide famine in the 1970s and 1980s due to overpopulation.
(B) Predicted worldwide floods in the 1970s and 1980s due to overpopulation.
(C) Predicted worldwide food overproduction in the 1970s and 1980s due to overpopulation.
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(A) Predicted worldwide famine in the 1970s and 1980s due to overpopulation.

Explanation:
The book predicted that there J will be a disaster for humanity due to overpopulation. 10 million people will be starving during each of the years in the 1970s.

Question 20.

What factor determines the human environment interaction?

(A) Level of technology nurtured by the society.
(B) Level of stagnation faced by the society.
(C) Level of love nurtured by the society.
(D) All of the Above.
Answer:
(A) Level of technology nurtured by the society.

Explanation:
Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. The processes of human environment interaction depend upon the level of technology and institutions nurtured by a society.

Question 21.

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is known as:

(A) Advanced development
(B) Sustainable development
(C) Respectable development
(D) Recognised development
Answer:
(B) Sustainable development

Explanation:
Sustainable development is defined as an approach to developing or growing by using resources in a way that allows for them to renew or continue to exist for others.

Question 22.

system means equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet.

(A) Waranbandi
(B) Naranballi
(C) Hisssabandi
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Waranbandi

Explanation:
Warabandi is a system of equitable water distribution by turns according to a predetermined schedule specifying the day, time and duration of supply to each irrigation in proportion to holdings in the outlet command.

Question 23.

What was the main argument of Dennis Meadows in Limits to Growth?

(A) Limits to Growth has had a significant impact on the conception of environmental issues.
(B) Limits to Growth has had a limited impact on the conception of environmental issues.
(C) Limits to Growth has had a no impact on the conception of environmental issues.
(D) Limits to Growth has had a marginal impact on the conception of environmental issues.
Answer:
(A) Limits to Growth has had a significant impact on the conception of environmental issues.

Explanation:
The Limits to Growth is a 1972 report on the exponential economic and population growth with a finite supply of resources. Meadows states that Limits to Growth has had a significant impact on the conception of environmental issues and notes I that the models in the book were meant to be taken as predictions “Only in the most limited I sense of the World”.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The word ‘planning’ is not new to you.
Reason (R): You must have used it with reference to preparation for your examination or visit to a hill station.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Planning involves the process of thinking, formulation of a scheme or programme and implementation of a set of actions to achieve some goal.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): On 1 January 2015, the NITI Aayog was formed.
Reason (R): But on 1 January 2015, the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
NITI Aayog has been set up with the objective of involving the states in economic policy making for India for providing strategic and technical advice to the Central and State governments.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): There is no uniform economic development over space in any country.
Reason (R): Some areas are more developed and some lag behind.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
There are many reasons which explain differences in levels of development between countries. Factors such as climate, availability of resources, terrain and government type are important various regions of a country to development.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.
Reason (R): It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh.

Answer;
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Bharmaur is inhabited by ‘Gaddi’, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. The economy of this area is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh.
Reason (R): The social benefits derived from ITDP include tremendous increase in literacy rate, improvement in sex ratio and decline in child marriage.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
This plan laid the highest priority on development of transport and f communications, agriculture and allied f activities, and social and community services. The most significant contribution of tribal sub-plan in Bharmaur region is the development of infrastructure in terms of schools, healthcare facilities, potable water, roads, communications and electricity.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The term development is generally used to describe the state of every societies and the process of revolt experienced by them.
Reason (R): Development is a multi- dimensional concept and signifies the positive, irreversible transformation of the economy, society and environment. R

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The term development is generally used to describe the state of 1 particular societies and the process of changes experienced by them. During a fairly large period of human history, the state of the societies has largely been determined by the interaction processes between human societies and their bio- physical environment.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): In 1970s, the phrases such as redistribution with growth and growth and equity were incorporated in the definition of development.
Reason (R): In the post World War II era, the concept of development was synonymous to economic growth which is measured in terms of temporal increase in gross national product (GNP) and per capita income/per capita consumption. But,even the countries having high economic growth, experienced speedy rise in poverty because ofits unequal distribution.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
By 1980s, development emerge as a concept encapsulating wide-spread improvement in social as well as material well-being of all in a society.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India.
Reason (R): The canal originates at Harikebarrage in Punjab and runs parallel toPakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Conceived by Kanwar Sainin 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): The concept of development is dynamic and has evolved during the second half of twentieth century.
Reason (R): The notion of sustainable development emerged in the wake of general rise in the awareness of environmental issues in the late 1960s in Western World.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.”

Question 10.

Assertion (A): The ecological sustainability of Indira Gandhi Canal Project has been questioned by various scholars.
Reason (R): It is a hard fact that attaining sustainable development in the command area requires major thrust upon the measures to achieve ecological sustainability.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Their point of view has also largely been validated by the course of development this region has taken during the last four decades, which has resulted in degradation of physical environment.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets. Initially, this programme laid emphasis on the construction of labour-intensive civil works. But later on, it emphasised on irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation, grassland development and creation of basic rural infrastructure, such as electricity, roads, market, credit and services.

The National Committee on Development of Backward Areas reviewed the performance of this programme. It has been observed that this programme is largely confined to the development of agriculture and allied sectors with major focus on restoration of ecological balance. Since growing population pressure is forcing the society to utilise the marginal lands for agriculture, and, thereby causing ecological degradation, there is a need to create alternative employment opportunities in the drought-prone areas.

The other strategies of development of these areas include adoption of integrated watershed development approach at the micro-level. The restoration of ecological balance between water, soil, plants, and human and animal population should be a basic consideration in the strategy of development of drought-prone areas.

Question 1.

When was the Drought Prone Area Programme initiated?

(A) Fourth Five Year Plan
(B) Fifth Five Year Plan
(C) Sixth Five Year Plan
(D) Seventh Five Year Plan
Answer:
(A) Fourth Five Year Plan

Explanation:
DPAP was the earliest area devel-opment programme launched by the Central Government to tackle the special problems faced by those fragile areas, which are con-stantly affected by severe drought conditions.

Question 2.

What was its objective?

(A) Providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas
(B) Creation of basic rural infrastructure
(C) Afforestation
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
The basic objective of the programme was to minimise the adverse effects of drought on production of crops and livestock and productivity of land, water and human resources ultimately leading to drought proofing of the affected areas. In other words, the main objective was to create productive assets to mitigate the effects of droughts.

Question 3.

Who reviewed the performance of the DPAP?

(A) National Committee on Development Backward Areas
(B) National Commission on Development Backward Areas
(C) National Compartment on Development Backward Areas
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) National Committee on Development Backward Areas

Explanation:
Which is the other strategy of development that has been inculcated in these areas?

Question 4.

Which state has a low literacy rate?

(A) Integrated watershed development approach
(B) Integrated waterfall development approach
(C) Intelligent watershed development approach
(D) Integrated watershed department approach
Answer:
(A) Integrated watershed development approach

Explanation:
The main objective of IWMP is to restore ecological balance by harnessing, conserving and developing degraded natural resources such as soil, vegetative cover and water.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21 November 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by ‘Gaddi’, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km.

It is one of the most(economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio- economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’.

Question 1.

In which year was Bharmaur notified as a tribal area?

(A) 1965
(B) 1975
(C) 1985
(D) 1995
Answer:
(B) 1975

Explanation:
In 1975 the region of Bharmaur was notified as a tribal region.

Question 2.

What was the population of Bharmaur according to the 2011 Census?

(A) 39,113
(B) 29,113
(C) 49,113
(D) 59,113
Answer:
(A) 39,113

Question 3.

Bharmaur is the most economically backward area of …………….

(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Ladakh
Answer:
(B) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation:
Bharmour is a medium size village located in Brahmaur Tehsil of Chamba district, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 4.

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in when Gaddis were included among’scheduled tribes’.

(A) 1950s
(B) 1960s
(C) 1970s
(D) 1980s
Answer:
(C) 1970s

Explanation:
The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’. Under die Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harikebar rage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan.

The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19.63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 per cent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages.

The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 5.53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churn districts covering culturable command area of 14.10 lakh ha.

It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50°C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi Canal system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels.

Question 1.

When was the Indira Gandhi Canal Project launched?

(A) 1948
(B) 1958
(C) 1968
(D) 1978
Answer:
(B) 1958

Explanation:
Stage of construction began in 1958and was completed in 1983. This stage is described as consisting of a 204 km feeder canal and 189 km main canal.

Question 2.

The canal caters to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of lakh hectares.

(A) 19.63
(B) 19.83
(C) 19.73
(D) 19.93
Answer:
(A) 19.63

Explanation:
The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19.63 lakh hectares.

Question 3.

The command area of is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts.

(A) Stage I
(B) Stage II
(C) Stage III
(D) Stage IV
Answer:
(B) Stage II

Explanation:
The canal traverses seven districts of Rajasthan: Barmer, Bikaner, Churu, Hanuman garh, Jaisalmer, Jodhpur, and Sriganganagar.

Question 4.

In water is not transported by natural flow, but is lifted with pumps or surge pools.

(A) Lift canal
(B) Shift canal
(C) Substitute canal
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Lift canal

Explanation:
Lift canal isa method of irrigation in which water instead of being transported by natural flow requires external energy through animal, fuel based or electric power using 1 pumps or other mechanical means.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Mineral and Energy Resources Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Mineral And Energy Resources Class 12 MCQ Question 1.

…………… is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore.

(A) Copper
(B) Manganese
(C) Mica
(D) Bauxite
Answer:
(B) Manganese

Explanation:
Manganese removes oxygen and sulfur when iron ore is converted into iron. It also is an essential alloy that helps convert iron into steel.

Mineral And Energy Resources MCQ Chapter 7 Question 2.

The ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium is:

(A) Bauxite
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Gold
Answer:
(A) Bauxite

Explanation:
Bauxite ore is the world’s primary source of aluminium. The ore must first be chemically processed to produce alumina (aluminium oxide). Alumina is then smelted using an electrolysis process to produce pure aluminium metal.

MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Class 12 Question 3.

…………….. is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries.

(A) Mica
(B) Manganese
(C) Copper
(D) Brass
Answer:
(A) Mica

Explanation:
Mica is used principally in the electronic and electrical industries. Its usefulness in these applications is derived from j its unique electrical and thermal properties and its mechanical properties, which allow it to be cut, punched, stamped, and machined to close tolerances.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 12 MCQ Question 4.

97% of the coal reserve occurs in valley of:

(A) Damodar
(B) Spiti
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Roorkee
Answer:
(A) Damodar

Explanation:
Damodar basin is known for its coal deposits and commonly referred as the store house of Indian coal’.

Mineral Resources MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 5.

Petroleum reserves are located at:

(A) Punjab
(B) Mumbai High
(C) Haryana
(D) Jharia
Answer:
(B) Mumbai High

Explanation:
The Mumbai High Field, formerly called the Bombay High Field, is an offshore oil field 176 km off the west coast of Mumbai.

MCQs On Minerals And Energy Resources Class 12 Question 6.

Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the:

(A) Peninsular plateau region
(B) Northern Plains
(C) Himalayan Ranges
(D) Deccan range
Answer:
(A) Peninsular plateau region

Explanation:
Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari.

MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Class 12 Question 7.

…………… can be converted to electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking.

(A) Bio- energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Crude oil
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(A) Bio- energy

Explanation:
Bio-energy is a form of renewableenergy that is derived from recently living organic materials known as biomass, which can be used to produce transportation fuels, heat, electricity, and product

Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 8.

The kinetic energy of wind, through turbines is converted into :

(A) bio- energy
(B) electrical energy
(C) geothermal energy
(D) solar energy
Answer:
(B) electrical energy

Explanation:
Electrical energy is energy derived as a result of movement of electrons.

Mineral MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 9.

………….. is absolutely pollution free, inexhaustible source of energy.

(A) Wind energy
(B) Mineral fuels
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Coal energy
Answer:
(A) Wind energy

Explanation:
Using wind to produce energy has fewer effects on the environment than many other energy sources. Wind turbines do j not release emissions that can pollute the air or water (with rare exceptions), and they do not require water for cooling.

Question 10.

Minerals are formed by inorganic processes of :

(A) short duration
(B) long duration
(C) stagnant duration
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) long duration

Explanation:
Mineral, naturally occurring homogeneous solid with a definite chemical composition and a highly ordered atomic arrangement; it is usually formed by inorganic processes.

Question 11.

The energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are :

(A) exhaustible resources
(B) inexhaustible resources
(C) alternate energy
(D) available resources
Answer:
(B) inexhaustible resources

Explanation:
Mineral, naturally occurring homogeneous solid with a definite chemical composition and a highly ordered atomic g arrangement; it is usually formed by inorganic processes.

Question 12.

Minerals which do not contain iron are known as:

(A) Ferrous minerals
(B) Non- ferrous minerals
(C) Nuclear minerals
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Non- ferrous minerals

Explanation:
All pure metals are non- ferrous elements except iron.

Question 13.

Minerals can be divided into how many categories?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer:
(B) Two

Explanation:
Minerals are classified based on their crystal form and chemistry. Minerals are divided into two types namely metallic and 1 non- metallic.

Question 14.

………….. minerals are magnetic and give little resistance to corrosion.

(A) Ferrous
(B) Non- ferrous
(C) Metallic
(D) Cast
Answer:
(A) Ferrous

Explanation:
Ferrous minerals are generally magnetic by nature and have high tensile strength, making them ideal in construction.

Question 15.

Minerals that have no metallic lustre and break easily are called:

(A) Non- metallic minerals
(B) Metallic minerals
(C) Delicate Minerals
(D) Hard minerals
Answer:
(A) Non- metallic minerals

Explanation:
Non-metallicmaterialslackmetallic characteristics like good electric and thermic I conductivity, luster, rigor, and malleability; they are, however, essential for many industries.

Question 16.

Resources can be defined as homogenous, naturally occurring, inorganic materials that are of economic interest in or on the crust of the Earth. U

(A) Solar
(B) Nuclear
(C) Mineral
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Mineral

Explanation:
A mineral resource is a concentration of natural solid inorganic or fossilized organic material, including metals, coal and minerals in sufficient quantity and quality to have reasonable prospects for economic extraction.

Question 17.

Bauxite, iron ore, manganese and limestone are found in:

(A) North-Western Region
(B) South-Western Plateau region
(C) North-Eastern Region
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) South-Western Plateau region

Explanation:
The South-Western plateau region covers major parts of Karnataka, Goa, and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala. Major mineral resources of South-Western plateau region are iron ore, manganese, and limestone. Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, and bauxite, clay and Goa has deposits of iron ore.

Question 18.

Copper, zinc, sandstone, granite, marble, petroleum deposits and salt are found in:

(A) East-Western Region
(B) South-Western Plateau Region
(C) North-Eastern Region
(D) North-Western Region
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Major minerals of North-Western regions are copper and zinc; other significant minerals include sandstone, granite, and marble, along with Gypsum and Fuller’s earth deposits. In addition, Gujarat and Rajasthan, both have rich sources of salt.

Question 19.

How many minerals are mined in India ?

(A) 48
(B) 58
(C) 68
(D) 78
Answer:
(C) 68

Explanation:
India is endowed with huge resources of many metallic and non-metallic minerals.

Question 20.

Arrange the bauxite producing states from the highest to the lowest.

(i) Jharkhand
(ii) Odisha
(iii) Andhra Pradesh
(iv) Gujarat Options:
(A) ii, iii, iv, i
(B) iii, ii, iv, i
(C) iv, ii, iii, i
(D) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer:
(A) ii, iii, iv, i

Explanation:
Odisha alone constitutes almost 50% of India’s bauxite production and has about 325,269 thousand tonnes of bauxite reserves.

Question 21.

Which state is the largest producer of Coal in India?

(A) Bihar
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Manipur
(D) Jharkhand
Answer:
(D) Jharkhand

Explanation:
Jharkhand has the largest coal deposits of 25.88%.

Question 22.

……………… fuels are essential for generation of power, required by agriculture, industry, transport and other sectors of the economy.

(A) Solar
(B) Mineral
(C) Electrical
(D) Nuclear
Answer:
(B) Mineral

Question 23.

Coal, Petroleum and Natural gas are:

(A) Conventional sources of energy
(B) Non- conventional sources of energy
(C) Exhausted sources of energy
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Conventional sources of energy

Explanation:
When we cannot reuse a source of energy after using it once we call them conventional sources of energy”.

Question 24.

Arrange the states having the highest Coal reserves to the lowest (as per 2020).

(i) Odisha
(ii) Jharkhand
(iii) Chhattisgarh
(iv) West Bengal
Options:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) iv, iii, ii, i
(C) ii, i, iii, iv
(D) iv, iii, i, ii
Answer:
(C) ii, i, iii, iv

Explanation:
Jharkhand tops the list of coal reserves with an estimated reserve of 83,152 million tonnes. Jharia mines in Dhanbad district is one of the principal coal mines of the

Question 25.

Arrange the states having the highest Crude oil producing capacity to the lowest (as per 2019-20) :

(i) Assam
(ii) Gujarat
(iii) Rajasthan
(iv) Tam il Nadu
Options:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) iv. ii, iii, j
(C) iii, ii, i, iv
(D) ii, j, iii, iv
Answer:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv

Explanation:
The onshore Crude oil production across the Indian state of Assam amounted to almost 4.3 million metric tons at the end of fiscal year 2019. About 71 percent of the crude oil production in the country was done by Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, which is a state owned enterprise.

Question 26.

Which is the largest oil refinery in India?

(A) Jharia
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Jamnagar
(D) Ghaziabad
Answer:
(C) Jamnagar

Explanation:
The Jamnagar Refinery is a private sector crude oil refinery owned by Reliance Industries Limited in Jamnagar, Gujarat, India.

Question 27.

Non- conventional resources are :

(A) Artificial resources
(B) Imaginary resources
(C) Natural resources
(D) Replaceable resources
Answer:
(B) Imaginary resources

Explanation:
A non- renewable resource is a natural resource that cannot be readily replaced by natural means at a pace quick enough to keep up with consumption.

Question 28.

The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of quest for economic development with concerns.

(A) Social
(B) Political
(C) Environmental
(D) Educational
Answer:
(C) Environmental

Question 29.

Renewable energy resources are also known as :

(A) Alternative energy resources
(B) Collective energy resources
(C) Available energy resources
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Alternative energy resources

Explanation:
Alternative energy resources includes all renewable and nuclear energy sources.

Question 30.

methods of resource use result into generating enormous quantity of waste as well as create other environmental problems.

(A) Modern
(B) Collective
(C) Primitive
(D) Traditional
Answer:
(D) Traditional

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions:
In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The promotion of the use of non- conventional sources of energy in India is the need of the hour.
Reason (R): Unlike conventional sources of energy, most of the non- conventional energy sources are cheaper and renewable.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The overall limitation and scarcity of fossil fuels have given rise to the urgent need for exploiting alternative energy sources.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Power from non- conventional and renewable sources is must in order to reduce carbon dioxide emissions of the coal-based power plants. Reason (R): It is exhaustible in nature and environment-friendly.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Non- conventional energy sources | like hydropower, solar, and wind energy are 1 environment friendly sources.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Minerals have certain characteristics.
Reason (R): These are evenly distributed over space.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Minerals are unevenly distributed over space. These variations exist largely because of difference in the geological structure processes and time involved in the 1 I formation of minerals.

Question 4.

Assertion (A):A11 minerals are inexhaustible over time.
Reason (R): These take long to develop geologically and they cannot be replenished immediately at the time of need

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
All minerals are truly exhaustible 1 natural resources. Exhaustible resources means resources which cannot be generated 2 back easily. Natural minerals are formed after a very long period of time. Thus, they have to be conserved and not misused as they do not have the second crop.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India.
Reason (R): Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India is a rich country in terms of minerals. Most of the metallic minerals occur in the Peninsular Plateau region in the old crystalline rocks. River valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi, and Godavari have over 97% of coal reserves in India.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The North-Eastern Plateau Region belt covers Chhotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha Plateau, West Bengal and parts of Chhattisgarh. Reason (R): Major iron and steel industry are located in this region.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The region has rich reserves of iron ore of mainly haematite variety. Availability of good quality of iron ore at low cost, provides ideal location for setting up of iron and steel industries.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): The South-Western Plateau Region belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
Reason (R): This belt does not have as diversified mineral deposits as the North-Eastern belt.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. It also contains high grade iron ( ore, manganese and limestone) This belt lacks S in coal deposits except Neyveli lignite.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): The North-Western Region belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat.
Reason (R): Gujarat is known for its petroleum deposits.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Gujarat houses about 20% of total estimated crude oil reserves of India and about 4% of total estimated natural gas reserves.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Our country is well-placed in respect of ferrous minerals both in reserves and production.
Reason (R): Ferrous minerals such as iron ore manganese, chromite, etc., provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Our country is well-placed in respect of ferrous minerals both in reserves and production. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar system.
Reason (B): Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Odisha is the largest producer of manganese ores in India. It accounted for one-third of the country’s total production in 2000

Question 11.

Assertion (A): India is poorly endowed with non- ferrous metallic minerals except bauxite.
Reason (R): Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 12.

Assertion (A): Among the non- metallic minerals produced in India, Mica is the important one.
Reason (R): Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Mica is one of the most indispensable minerals used in electric and electronic industries, due to its Di-electric strength, low power factor insulating properties and resistance to high voltage.

Question 13.

Assertion (A): Coal is a one of the important ‘ minerals.
Reason (R): Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages,namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Coal is one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power and smelting of iron ore.

Question 14.

Assertion (A): Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times.
Reason (R): Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are Uranium and thorium.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Nuclear power is presently a sustainable energy source. Since Uranium extracted is continuously replenished through geologic processes, nuclear would become as endless as solar.

Question 15.

Assertion (A): There is an urgent need to conserve the resources.
Reason (R): For sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for the future generations.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
We need to conserve our natural resources because it is the main source of our daily needs. We need to conserve it because they are available in limited quantity only.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Fossil fuel sources, such as coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear energy use exhaustible raw materials. Sustainable energy resources are only the renewable energy sources like solar, wind, hydro geothermal and biomass. These energy sources are more equitably distributed and environment friendly. The non- conventional energy sources will provide more sustained, eco-friendly cheaper energy after the initial cost is taken care of.

Question 1.

What are the sources of fossil fuels?

(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Natural gas
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
Fossil fuels are made from de-composing plants and animals. There are three main fossil fuels: coal, petroleum and natural

Question 2.

Sustainable energy sources:

(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Gas energy
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(A) Solar energy

Explanation:
Sustainable energy is an energy that is produced from natural processes and continuously replenished.

Question 3.

Geothermal energy allows us to fetch energy from:

(A) the Earth’s surface.
(B) beneath the Earth’s surface.
(C) the water bodies.
(D) the air particles.
Answer:
(B) beneath the Earth’s surface.

Explanation:
Geothermal energy, form of energy conversion in which heat energy from within Earth is captured and harnessed for cooking, bathing, space heating, electrical power generation, and other uses.

Question 4.

Renewable energy sources also called:

(A) Non- conventional energy sources
(B) Conventional energy sources
(C) Ferrous energy sources
(D) Non- ferrous energy sources
Answer:
(A) Non- conventional energy sources

Explanation:
Renewable energy comes from natural sources or processes that are constantly replenished. For example, sunlight or wind.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Sun rays tapped in photo voltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy. The two effective processes considered to be very effective to tap solar energy are photo voltaics and solar thermal technology. Solar thermal technology has some relative advantages over all other non renewable energy sources.

It is cost competitive, environment friendly and easy to construct. Solar energy is 7 per cent more effective than coal or oil based, plants and 10 per cent more effective than nuclear plants. It is generally used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

Question 1.

Solar energy is a ………….. source of energy.

(A) Conventional
(B) Non- conventional
(C) Perishable
(D) Non- perishable
Answer:
(B) Non- conventional

Explanation:
Solar energy is the most readily available source of energy. It is also the most important of the non- conventional sources of energy because it is non- polluting and, there fore, helps in lessening the greenhouse effect. Solar energy has been used since prehistoric times, but in a most primitive manner.

Question 2.

…………….. System is a system that converts sunlight into heat.

(A) Solar thermal
(B) Solar heat
(C) Solar conversion
(D) Solar Calculation
Answer:
(A) Solar thermal

Explanation:
Solar thermal energy is a form of energy and a technology used for harnessing solar energy to generate thermal energy for household and industrial use.

Question 3.

What are the advantages of using Solar energy?

(A) Reduces electricity bills
(B) Low maintenance cost
(C) Diverse applications
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
Among all the benefits of solar panels, the most important thing is that solar energy is a truly renewable energy source.

Question 4.

States which have great potential to develop Solar energy.

(A) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(B) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(C) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
(D) Gujarat and Maharashtra
Answer:
(B) Gujarat and Rajasthan

III. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of quest for economic development with environmental concerns. Traditional methods of resource use result into generating enormous quantity of waste as well as create other environmental problems. Hence, for sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for the future generations. There is an urgent need to conserve the resources. The alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are inexhaustible resources.

These should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources. In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals. Use of scrap is especially significant in metals like copper, lead and zinc in which India’s reserves are meagre. Use of substitutes for scarce metals may also reduce their consumption. Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be reduced, so that the existing reserve may be used for a longer period.

Question 1.

Sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for the generations.

(A) present
(B) past
(C) future
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(C) future

Explanation:
Sustainable development is defined as development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their demands.

Question 2.

Alternative energy source :

(A) Solar energy
(B) Hydro energy
(C) Tidal energy
(D) All of the Above
Answer;
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
Alternative energy is any energy source that does not use fossil fuels.

Question 3.

Why is the conservation of mineral resources important?

(A) They are limited in number.
(B) They are the country’s asset.
(C) Indispensable part of our lives.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(D) All of the above.

Explanation:
Conservation of mineral resources is essential because they are a country’s valuable possession.

Question 4.

Why is scrap metal important?

(A) Less pollution
(B) Can be recycled
(C) Can be exported
(D) Great country asset
Answer:
(B) Can be recycled

Explanation:
Scrap metals like aluminium, copper, steel, brass, and iron are recycled to make a wide variety of new products. Using scrap metal for numerous products reduces waste and helps to preserve the environment for future generations.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Water Resources Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Water Resources Class 12 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 1.

The river basin which makes the maximum utilisation of groundwater is ………

(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Satluj
(D) Indus
Answer:
(B) Brahmaputra

Explanation:
Ganga has about 46 per cent of the total replenish able groundwater resources. The level of groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in north-western region and parts of south India.

Water Resources MCQ Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 2.

The river basin which makes the minimum utilisation of groundwater:

(A) Ganga
(B) Luni
(C) Subarnrekha
(D) Brahmaputra
Answer:
(D) Brahmaputra

Explanation:
The digging of wells, the over use of water and the highly economic conditions such as uses of water becomes four times of the past years and the agriculture irrigation, tube wells and the use of water over large field cause decline in the level of groundwater utilization.

Class 12 Geography Water Resources MCQ Question 3.

Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh more than 85 per cent of their net sown area is under :

(A) irrigation
(B) agriculture
(C) pesticides
(D) wasteland
Answer:
(A) irrigation

Explanation:
These states prosperity has been largely due to the state’s development of agriculture. One factor that makes these states a productive agricultural area is its fertile soil,

MCQ Of Water Resources Class 12 Question 4.

The North-western India and Deccan Plateau are deficient in :

(A) population
(B) rainfall
(C) moist air
(D) sunlight
Answer:
(B) rainfall

Explanation:
The Western Ghats mountain range is very massive and blocks the moisture from the southwest monsoon from reaching the Deccan Plateau, so the region receives very little rainfall.

Class 12 Water Resources MCQ Question 5.

The per capita availability of water is dwindling day by day due to the:

(A) decrease in population
(B) increase in population
(C) stagnation in population
(D) no change in population
Answer:
(B) increase in population

Explanation:
Increasing population, rising demands for food and cash crops, increasing urbanisation and rising standards of living are the major factors leading to shortages in supply of fresh water either due to drying up of water sources or water pollution.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Water Resources MCQ Question 6.

The purity of water or water without unwanted foreign substances is known as:

(A) water quality
(B) water quantity
(C) water availability
(D) water scarcity
Answer:
(A) water quality

Explanation:
The most common standards used to monitor and assess water quality convey the health of ecosystems, safety of human contact, and condition of drinking water.

Water Resources Class 12 MCQs Question 7.

…………… involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc.

(A) Watershed management
(B) Rainwater harvesting
(C) Underground preservation
(D) All the Above
Answer:
(A) Watershed management

Explanation:
Watershed management recharges the groundwater table. Restores soil fertility and helps in soil conservation Restores water for drinking.

MCQ On Water Resources Class 12 Question 8.

Traditional ………… in rural areas is done by using surface storage bodies like lakes, ponds, irrigation tanks.

(A) rain water harvesting
(B) ground water preservation
(C) watershed management
(D) storage management
Answer:
(A) rain water harvesting

Explanation:
Rainwater harvesting is the collection and storage of rain, rather than allowing it to run off

Water Resources Class 12 Geography MCQ Question 9.

The area from which rainfall flows into a river, lake or reservoir is called a area.

(A) connecting
(B) catchment
(C) flooding
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) catchment

Explanation:
A catchment is an area of land where water collects when it rains, often bounded by hills. As the water flows over the landscapeit finds its way into streams and down into the soil, eventually feeding the river.

Water Resources Class 12th MCQ Chapter 6 Question 10.

An area of shallow body of water separated from the sea by barrier islands or reefs is known as:

(A) Backwaters
(B) Catchment area
(C) Lagoon
(D) Lake
Answer:
(C) Lagoon

Explanation:
A lagoon is a body of water separated from larger bodies of water by a natural barrier. Lagoons are separated from larger bodies of water by sandbars, barrier reefs, coral reefs, or other natural barriers.

MCQs Of Water Resources Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 11.

Which sector grounds for most of the surface and groundwater utilisation?

(A) Agriculture
(B) Industrial
(C) Household
(D) Medical
Answer:
(A) Agriculture

Explanation:
Agriculture sectors accounts for most of the groundwater utilisation. In agriculture, water is mainly used for irrigation,

MCQ Water Resources Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 12.

Which state utilises very small proportion of their groundwater potentials.

(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Odisha
(C) Kerala
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, etc., utilise only a small proportion of their groundwater potentials. This is due to the fact that the underground water potential of these states is low as compared to other states.

MCQ Of Chapter 6 Water Resources Class 12 Question 13.

Name the rivers which have huge catchment areas.

(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Krishna
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
These rivers are also harnessed in their upstream catchment area to generate hydroelectricity.

Water Resources Class 12th MCQs Chapter 6 Question 14.

Water held underground in the soil or in pores and crevices in rocks is called as:

(A) Groundwater
(B) Underground water
(C) Inaccessible water
(D) Clear water
Answer:
(A) Groundwater

Explanation:
Groundwater is that water that occurs below the surface of Earth, where it occupies all or part of the void spaces in soils or geologic strata.

Chapter 6 Water Resources Class 12 MCQ Question 15.

Why is irrigation required?

(A) For progress
(B) Due to uneven rain distribution
(C) To aid agriculture
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer:
(D) Both (B) and (C)

Explanation:
The monsoons are uncertain. So irrigation is necessary to protect crops from drought as a result of uncertain rainfall. Irrigation enhances agricultural productivity and it also promotes stability in production of crops. Irrigation ful fills the water requirement of such crops.

Geography Class 12 Water Resources MCQ Question 16.

About two-thirds of its population have been dependent on:

(A) Agriculture
(B) Industrialisation
(C) Monsoons
(D) Trade
Answer:
(A) Agriculture

Explanation:
The majority of the working f population is engaged in agriculture due to the importance of agriculture. Agriculture is responsible for meeting food requirements and a industrial needs.

Class 12 Geography Ch 6 Water Resources MCQ Question 17.

The supply of water to land or crops to help growth, typically by means of channels is known as:

(A) Agriculture
(B) Irrigation
(C) Horticulture
(D) Vericulture
Answer:
(B) Irrigation

Explanation:
Irrigation is the artificial process of applying controlled amounts of water to land to assist in production of crops.

Ch 6 Water Resources Class 12 MCQ Question 18.

Provision of irrigation makes cropping possible.

(A) Single
(B) Multiple
(C) Foreign
(D) New
Answer:
(B) Multiple

Explanation:
Since India has a tropical and sub-tropical climate, it has potentialities to grow crops on a year-round basis. Provision of irrigation facilities can make possible the growing of two or three crops in a year in most areas of the country.

Question 19.

Bhakra- Nangal, Hirakud, Damodar Valley, Nagarjuna Sagar, Indira Gandhi Canal Project, etc, are:

(A) Picnic spots
(B) Tourist areas
(C) Multipurpose river valley projects
(D) Irrigation points
Answer:
(C) Multipurpose river valley projects

Explanation:
Dams are referred to as multipurpose projects where the many uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another. economy is a type of economy that relies primarily on agricultural industry including livestock farming or crop production.

Question 20.

An ……………. economy is a type of economy that relies primarily on agricultural industry including livestock farming or crop production.

(A) Traditional
(B) Agrarian
(C) Old
(D) Underdeveloped
Answer:
(B) Agrarian

Explanation:
An agrarian society, is any community whose economy is based on producing and maintaining crops and farmland.

Question 21.

can be defined as a process that extracts minerals from saline water.

(A) Salination
(B) Desalination
(C) Detoxication
(D) Saturation
Answer:
(B) Desalination

Explanation:
Desalination is a process that takes away mineral components from saline g water. More generally, desalination refers to the removal of salts and minerals from water.

Question 22.

Sewage disposal, urban run-off, toxic effluents from industries,run-off over cultivated lands and nuclear power plants are examples of:

(A) Water source
(B) Water pollutants
(C) Water residue
(D) Water storage
Answer:
(B) Water pollutants

Explanation:
The main water pollutants include bacteria, viruses, parasites, fertilisers, pesticides, pharmaceutical products, nitrates, phosphates, plastics, faecal waste and even radioactive substances.

Question 23.

Name the board that monitors the water quality of national aquatic resources.

(A) The Central Pollution Centre Board
(B) The Central Pollution Control Board
(C) The Central Pollution Communication Board
(D) The Central Pollution Common Board
Answer:
(B) The Central Pollution Control Board

Explanation:
The main function of CPCB is to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution.

Question 24.

River water is used for:

(A) Irrigation
(B) Drinking
(C) domestic and industrial purposes
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
River water is a surface water source and a part of the water cycle. It can be used for households, irrigation, processing in industries or for the production of energy. means using treated waste water for other purposes.

Question 25.

…………….. means using treated waste water for other purposes.

(A) Reclaimed waste water
(B) Relieved waste water
(C) Reclaimed waste water
(D) Reclaimed waste water
Answer:
(D) Reclaimed waste water

Explanation:
Water reclamation is the process of converting municipal wastewater or industrial wastewater into water that can be reused for a variety of purposes.

Question 26.

Recycled Water generally refers to treated wastewater.

(A) Domestic
(B) Industrial
(C) Social
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Domestic

Explanation:
Recycled Water generally refers to treated domestic wastewater that is used more than once before it passes back into the water cycle.

Question 27.

What is the local name of rainwater harvesting structure in Rajasthan?

(A) Kund
(B) Tanka
(C) Nalka
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation:
A taanka, are also known as a tanka or kunds, is a traditional rainwater harvesting technique, common to the Thar desert region of Rajasthan.

Question 28.

Neeru- Meeru programme belongs to which state?

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
Answer:
(A) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation:
Poverty eradication by Neeru-Meeru, an initiative undertaken by government of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 29.

What determines the success of watershed development?

(A) Government policies
(B) MNCs help
(C) Community participation
(D) Individual effort
Answer:
(C) Community participation

Explanation:
Participatory watershed manage- ment is seen as a process which aims to create a self-supporting system and is essential for 1 sustainability of economy.

Question 30.

…………….. is a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government.

(A) Haryali
(B) Hawarahili
(C) Harwara
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Haryali

Explanation:
Haryali aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation.

Question 31.

Rivers can be important remedies for solving problem in India.

(A) Rain
(B) Water
(C) Land
(D) Flow
Answer:
(B) Water

Question 32.

Water is a recyclable resource but its availability is:

(A) Limited
(B) Abundant
(C) Unlimited
(D) Endless
Answer:
(A) Limited

Explanation:
Freshwater is a renewable source because it can be used over and over again, as it has a cycle. However, freshwater is also a limited resource, because less than 3% of the world’s water is fresh. And more than 75% of the world’s freshwater is being stored in glaciers and ice caps.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Water scarcity is possibly to pose the greatest challenge on account of its increased demand coupled with shrinking supplies due to over utilization and pollution.
Reason (R): The per capita availability of water is dwindling day by day due to increase in population.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The available water resources are also getting polluted with industrial, agricultural and domestic effluents, and this, in turn, is further limiting the availability of usable water resources.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Water is a cyclic resource with abundant supplies on the globe.
Reason (R): The availability of fresh water varies over space and time.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
A cyclic resource is what which can be formed again and again, Similarly water is a cyclic resource. It can be recycled and reused. Approximately, 71 per cent of the earth’s surface 1 1 is covered with water.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The states of Punjab, Haryana and Tamil Nadu were regions for green revolution.
Reason (R): The states of Punjab, Haryana and Tamil Nadu have agriculture supported mainly by irrigated water and the main source for it is the underground water.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
All the green revolution crops are water intensive, hence the demand for water in these states is very high. These regions have soft alluvial soil which allows the rain water to seep down and recharge the underground water table. This area is easy to be dug, hence extraction of underground water is easiest source of water.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): In Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh more than 85 per cent of their net sown area is under irrigation.
Reason (R): Of the total net irrigated area 76.1 per cent in Punjab and 51.3 per cent in Haryana are irrigated through wells and tube wells.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
This shows that these states 5 utilize large proportion of their groundwater ? potential which has resulted in groundwater depletion in these states.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): At present the agriculture use accounts for the lowest share of utilization for both ground and surface water resources.
Reason (R): This in turn will reduce the share of the agriculture and increase the share of industrial and domestic sector in the consumption of all resources including the water resources of the country.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
At present the agriculture use accounts for the highest share of utilization for both ground and surface water resources. The main reason being that the agriculture accounts or the largest share in economy of the country, but in recent times the share of secondary and tertiary activities have been rising in the economy.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Although, water is generally brackish in these water bodies, it is used for fishing and irrigating certain varieties of paddy crops,coconut, etc.
Reason (R): The States like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources in the lagoons and lakes.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Water, the best and the most reliable method which can be used for Kerala is the construction of storage reservoirs for impounding water during the monsoon and utilizing the water in the reservoir for critical periods of the crops.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Development of irrigation to increase agricultural production has been assigned a very high priority in the Five Year Plans.
Reason (R): India’s water demand at present is dominated by irrigational needs.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
India has traditionally been an agrarian economy, and about two-third of its population have been dependent on agriculture.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): The share of agricultural sector in total water utilisation is much higher than other sectors.
Reason (R): Agriculture accounts for most of the surface and groundwater utilisation.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Agriculture accounts for 89 percent of the surface water and 92 per cent of the groundwater utilisation.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): The large tracts of the country are deficient in rainfall and are drought prone.
Reason (R): North-western India and Deccan plateau constitute such areas.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Winter and summer seasons are more or less dry in these parts of the country.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Provision of irrigation makes single cropping possible.
Reason (R): It has also been found that irrigated lands have higher agricultural productivity than inaugurated land.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Provision of irrigation makes multiple cropping possible. Since India has a tropical and sub-tropical climate, it has 1 potentialities to grow crops on a year-round basis. Provision of irrigation facilities can make possible the growing of two or three crops in a : I year in most areas of the country.

Question 11.

Assertion (A): Water gets polluted by foreign matters, such as micro-organisms, chemicals, industrial and other wastes.
Reason (R): The Ganga and the Yamuna are the two highly clean rivers in the country.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
When toxic substances enter lakes,streams, rivers, ocean and other water bodies, they get dissolved or lie suspended in water This results in pollution of water whereby quality of water deteriorates affecting aquatic systems.

Question 12.

Assertion (A): Another way through which we can improve fresh water availability is by recycle and reduce.
Reason (R): This would conserve better quality of water for drinking purposes.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Another way through which we can improve fresh water availability is by recycle and reuse. In urban are as water after bathing and washing utensils can be used for gardening. Water used for washing vehicle can also be used for gardening. This would conserve better quality of water for drinking purposes.

Question 13.

Assertion (A): Watershed management involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater.
Reason (R): The success of watershed development largely depends upon community participation.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance , between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other

Question 14.

Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses.
Reason (R): Rainwater harvesting increases water availability, checks the declining groundwater table, improves the quality of groundwater.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation o

Explanation:
Rainwater harvesting is used to recharge groundwater aquifers. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rain water to bore well, pits and wells.

Question 15.

Assertion (A): The dumping of industrial waste into rivers leads to water pollution.
Reason (R): The Yamuna river is the most polluted river in the country.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Industries and industrial sites are a major contributor to water pollution, Industrial waste from agricultural sites, mines and manufacturing plants can make its way I into rivers, streams and other bodies of water 1 that lead directly to the sea.

Question 16.

Assertion (A): Water is not the most essential component of life and is vital for sustenance.
Reason (R): Level of groundwater is decreasing day by day. It leads to the scarcity of potable drinking water.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation:
Water is the most essential component of life and is vital for sustenance. Without water people cannot live, without water plants cannot live, without water animal cannot live.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
AvaiLable water resources are degrading rapidly. The major rivers of the country generally retain better water quality in less densely populated
upper stretches in hilly areas. In plains, river water is used intensively for irrigation, drinking, domestic and industrial purposes. The drains carrying agricultural (fertilizers and insecticides), domestic (solid and liquid wastes), and industrial effluents join the rivers. The concentration of pollutants in rivers, especially remains very high during the summer season when flow of water is low. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in collaboration with State Pollution Control Boards has been monitoring water quality of national aquatic resources at 507 stations.

The data obtained from these stations show that organic and bacterial contamination continues to be the main source of pollution in rivers. The Yamuna river is the most polluted river in the country between Delhi and Etawah. Other severely polluted rivers are: the Sabarmati at Ahmedabad, the Gomti at Lucknow, the Kali, the Adyar, the Cooum (entire stretches), the Vaigai at Madurai and the Musi of Hyderabad and the Ganga at Kanpur and Varanasi. Ground water pollution has occurred due to high concentrations of heavy/toxic metals, fluoride and nitrates at different parts of the country.

Question 1.

Why the available water resources are degrading rapidly?

(A) Border conflicts
(B) Concentration of pollutants is very high
(C) Drying up of water bodies
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Concentration of pollutants is very high

Explanation:
Water pollution happens when toxic substances enter water bodies such as lakes, rivers, oceans and so on, getting dis-solved in them, lying suspended in the water or depositing on the bed. This degrades the quality of water.

Question 2.

What is the main role of CPCB?

(A) Environmental assessments and research
(B) Maintaining national standards under a variety of environmental laws
(C) conduct monitoring of water quality
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Explanation:
The primary objective/goal of the CPCB is to promote cleanliness and restore wholesomeness of water in wells and streams.

Quesrtion 3.

When was the CPCB established?

(A) 1964
(B) 1974
(C) 1984
(D) 1994
Answer:
(B) 1974

Explanation:
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974.

Question 4.

Why does the concentration of pollutants in rivers, especially remains very high during the summer season?

(A) Due to high flow of water
(B) Due to high precipitation level
(C) Due to low flow of water
(D) Due to increased industrial use
AnsweR:
(C) Due to low flow of water

Explanation:
The drains carrying agricultural (fertilizers and insecticides), domestic (solid and liquid wastes), and industrial effluents join the rivers. The concentration of pollutants in rivers, especially remains very high during the summer season when flow of water is low.

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ralegan Siddhi is a small village in the district of Ahmednagar, Maharashtra. It has become an example for watershed development throughout the country. In 1975, this village was caught in a web of poverty and illicit liquor trade. The transformation took place when a retired army personnel, settled down in the village and took up the task of watered development. He convinced villagers about the importance of family planning and voluntary labour; preventing open grazing, felling trees, and liquor prohibition.

Voluntary labour was necessary to ensure minimum dependence on the government for financial aids. “It socialised the costs of the projects”, explained the activist. Even those who were working outside the village contributed to the development by committing a month’s salary every year. Work began with the percolation tank constructed in the village. In 1975, the tank could not hold water. The embankment wall leaked. People voluntarily repaired the embankment. The seven wells below it swelled with water in summer for the first time in the living memory of the people. The people reposed their faith in him and his visions.

A youth group called Tarun Mandal was formed. The group worked to ban the dowry system, caste discrimination and untouchability. Liquor distilling units were removed and prohibition imposed. Open grazing was completely banned with a new emphasis on stall-feeding. The cultivation of water-intensive crops like sugarcane was banned. Crops such as pulses, oil seeds and certain cash crops with low water requirements were encouraged. All elections to local bodies began to be held on the basis of consensus.

“It made the community leaders complete representatives of the people.” A system of Nyay Panchayats (informal courts) were also set up. Since then, no case has been referred to the police. A Rs. 22 lakh school building was constructed using only the resources of the village. No donations were taken. Money, if needed, was borrowed and paid back. The villagers took pride in this self-reliance. A new system of sharing labour grew out of this infusion of pride and voluntary spirit. People volunteered to help each other in agricultural operation. Landless labourers also gained employment. Today the village plans to buy land for them in adjoining villages.

At present, water is adequate; agriculture is flourishing, though the use of fertilizers and pesticides is very high. The prosperity also brings the question of ability of the present generation to carry on the work after the leader of the movement who declared that, “The process of Ralegan’s evolution to an ideal village will not stop. With changing times, people tend to evolve new ways. In future, Ralegan might present a different model to the country.”

Question 1.

In which state is Ralegan Siddhi situated?

(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(C) Maharashtra

Explanation:
Ralegan Siddhi is a small village 1 of Ahmadnagar district, Maharashtra, India.

Question 2.

What happened to the embankment wall in 1975?

(A) Fell down
(B) Leaked
(C) Held steady
(D) Destroyed by terrorists
Answer:
(B) Leaked

Explanation:
In 1975, the tank could not hold water. The embankment wall leaked.

Question 3.

What name was given to the youth group formed?

(A) Youth Ekta
(B) Yuva Mandal
(C) Tarun Mandal
(D) Students to Soldiers
Answer:
(C) Tarun Mandal

Explanation:
A youth group called Tarun Mandal was formed. The group worked to ban the dowry system, caste discrimination and untouchability.

Question 4.

How much donation was arranged to construct school building?

(A) Nil
(B) Rs. 10 lakhs
(C) Rs. 20 lakhs
(D) Rs. 22 lakhs
Answer:
(A) Nil

Explanation:
A Rs. 22 lakh school building was constructed using only the resources of the village.

Question 1.

Ralegan Siddhi is an example of:

(A) Rainwater harvesting
(B) Watershed development
(C) Afforestation
(D) Social security
Answer:
(B) Watershed development

Explanation:
Watershed development refers to the conservation; regeneration and the judicious use of all the natural resources particularly land, water, vegetation and animals and human development.

Question 2.

Which trade proliferated in the village in mid 1970s?

(A) Smuggling
(B) Illicit liquor
(C) Trafficking
(D) Black marketing
Answer:
(B) Illicit liquor

Explanation:
In 1975, this village was caught in f a web of poverty and illicit liquor trade.

Question 3.

What was necessary to ensure minimum dependence on government?

(A) Voluntary aid
(B) Voluntary capital
(C) Voluntary land
(D) Voluntary labour
Answer:
(D) Voluntary labour

Explanation:
Voluntary labour was necessary to ensure minimum dependence on the government for financial aids.

Question 4.

The term Nyaya Panchayats refers to:

(A) Formal courts
(B) Informal courts
(C) Formal police
(D) Informal police
Answer:
(B) Informal courts

Explanation:
Nyaya Panchayat is a part of the Panchayat system which is formed to setile disputes among the villagers. ;

III. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: u1 Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human with in a watershed.

Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of watershed development largely depends upon comm u nih’ participation. The Central and State Governments have initiated many watershed development and management programmes in the country. Some of these are being implemented by non-governmental organisations

also. Haryali watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation. The Project is being executed by Gram Panchayats with people’s participation. Neeru- Meeru (Water and You) programme (in Andhra Pradesh) and Arvary Pani Sansad (in Alwar, Rajasthan) have taken up constructions of various water-harvesting structures such as percolation tanks, dug out ponds (Johad), check dams, etc., through people’s participation.

Question 1.

basically, refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources.

(A) Rainwater harvesting
(B) Watershed management
(C) Watershed conservation
(D) Watershed initiation
Answer:
(B) Watershed management

Explanation:
Watershed management is the process of creating and implementing plans, programs and projects to sustain and enhance watershed functions that affect the plant, animal, and human communities.

Question 2.

The success of watershed development largely depends upon :

(A) Community participation
(B) Government policies
(C) State Government involvement
(D) Community isolation
Answer:
(A) Community participation

Explanation:
The key to the success of any watershed project and its sustainability depends on people’s participation.

Question 3.

Who has sponsored the Project Haryali?

(A) State Government
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Central Government
(D) District Magistrate
Answer:
(C) Central Government

Explanation:
Hariyali is a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government.

Question 4.

The concept of envisages creation of awareness amongst the people to ensure their participation and to facilitate conservation efforts of various government departments.

(A) Neeru-Meeru
(B) Haryali
(C) Arvary Pani Sansad
(D) Watershed
Answer:
(A) Neeru-Meeru

Explanation:
Poverty eradication by Neeru-Meeru, an initiative undertaken by government of Andhra Pradesh.

Transport and Communication Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

India has one of the largest road networks in the world with a total length of :

The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in …………..

State Highways are constructed and maintained by:

The density of roads is high in most of the:

……………. is an important mode of transport for both passenger and heavy cargo traffic in India.

The backwaters (Kadal) of Kerala has special significance in:

transport is the fastest means of movement from one place to the other.

Air transport in India started in :

India’s own launching vehicle is called:

Name the railway line that was constructed between Roha in Maharashtra and Mangalore in Karnataka.

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I:

Operation. maintenance and deelupmriir ut National Highways S done by:

Name the terminal stations of East West Corridor.

Name the boat race that is held in the backwaters of Kerala.

Inland Waterways Authority was set up in:

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I:

Low many types of waterways are found in India?

…………… means narrow, sheltered water way. especially an in a hcwdine of a channel in a marsh.

There are …………….. National Waterways in India.

When did the government adopt the Open Sky Policy for cargo?

The ………….. is responsible for providing safe efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air Space.

Pawan Hans Limited was incorporated in as the Helicopter Corporation of India (HCI).

The communication among masses is known as:

The National Remote Sensing Centre is located at:

The communication between person to person is known as :

Radio, television, newspapers, books, magazines, etc., are examples of:

The is like a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items.

The IRS satellite system became operational with the launching of IRS-IA in March from Vaikanour in Russia.

Assertion (A): Transportation of people and goods by road transport is not new in India. Reason (R): Since ancient times, pathways and unmetalled roads have been in use for this purpose.

Assertion (A): Human beings use various methods to move goods, commodities, ideas from one place to another. Reason (R): We use very few items in our daily life.

Assertion (A): India has one of the second largest road networks in the world. Reason (R): These road networks transport 64.5% of all goods in the country and 90% of India’s total passenger traffic uses road network to commute.

Assertion (A): The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in 1995. Reason (R): It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport.

Assertion (A): Water transport is the cheapest means of transport. Reason (R): It is a fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.

Assertion (A): Inland waterways were the chief mode of transport before the advent of railways. Reason (R): However it faced tough competition from road and railway transport.

Assertion (A): Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) was established in the year 1986. Reason (R): It was established for development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. 0

Assertion (A): The backwaters (Kadal) of Kerala has special significance in Inland Waterway. Reason (R): The famous Nehru Boat Race (VALLAMKALI) is held in the backwaters. R

Assertion (A): Air transport is the slowest means of movement from one place to the other. Reason (R): It is essential for a vast country like India, where distances are large and the terrain and climatic conditions are diverse.

Assertion (A): The Airport Authority of India is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air space. Reason (R): It manages 126 airports including 11 international, 86 domestic and 29 civil enclaves at defence air fields.

Assertion (A): The air transport in India is managed by Air India. Reason (R): Many private companies have also started passenger services.

Assertion (A): In 2010, domestic movement involved 520.21 lakh passengers and about 23 lakh metric tonnes of cargo. Reason (R): Pawan Hans is a helicopter service operating in the coastal areas.

Assertion (A): Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distances. Reason (R): Even solids can also be transported by pipelines after converting them into slurry. [U]

Assertion (A): Human beings have evolved different methods of communication over time. Reason (R): Invention of post-office, telegraph, printing press, telephone, satellite, etc., has made the communication much faster and easier.

Assertion (A): Among all the personal communication system internet is the most effective and advanced one. Reason (R): It enables the user to establish direct contact through e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge and information.

Assertion (A): Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication. Reason (R): Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas, etc. 0]

Which is the largest railway network in Asia?

When was Indian Railways introduced?

Which is the longest railway track in India?

Why is electric engine considered more efficient than the traditional diesel engine?

What is the length of the Indian road networks as per Annual Report 2017-18?

How much passenger traffic is carried out by roads every year?

What was purpose of the twenty-year road plan introduced after independence?

State the importance of national highways.

What is an example of air travel?

Who is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air Space?

Why is air travel more expensive than land travel?

Name one private airline operating in India.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

Mineral and Energy Resources Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

The formulation and implementation of the sets of schemes or programmes aimed at development of various sectors of the economy such as agriculture, irrigation, manufacturing, power, construction, transport, communication, social infrastructure and services is termed as :

The uneven pattern of development over space necessitates that the planners have a spatial perspective and draw the plans to reduce regional imbalance in development. This type of planning is known as :

Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during the :

Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated during the :

The irrigation in the Command Area was started in:

The the irrigation in the Command Area was started in:

The negative impact of the canal irrigation taken up in the areas surrounding the Indira Gandhi Canal is:

The concept of development is:

‘The Population Bomb’ was written by :

What were the reasons due to which the 8th Five Year Plan got delayed?

The Eight Five Year Plan got delayed for how many years?

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I.

Arrange the correct sequence of column II against the column I.

What is the extent of the Indira Gandhi Canal?

When was the Indira Gandhi Canal Project launched?

Which is the most backward area of Himachal Pradesh?

The action or practice of moving livestock from one grazing ground to another in a seasonal cycle, typically to lowlands in winter and highlands in summer is known as :

The Planning Commission of India (1967)identified ………….. districts (entire or partly) of the country prone to drought.

What predictions did Ehrlich make in his book ‘The Population Bomb’?

What factor determines the human environment interaction?

Assertion (A): Transportation of people and goods by road transport is not new in India.
Reason (R): Since ancient times, pathways and unmetalled roads have been in use for this purpose.

Assertion (A): Human beings use various methods to move goods, commodities, ideas from one place to another.
Reason (R): We use very few items in our daily life.

Assertion (A): India has one of the second largest road networks in the world.
Reason (R): These road networks transport 64.5% of all goods in the country and 90% of India’s total passenger traffic uses road network to commute.

Assertion (A): The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in 1995.
Reason (R): It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport.

Assertion (A): Water transport is the cheapest means of transport.
Reason (R): It is a fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.

Assertion (A): Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) was established in the year 1986.
Reason (R): It was established for development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. 0

Assertion (A): The backwaters (Kadal) of Kerala has special significance in Inland Waterway.
Reason (R): The famous Nehru Boat Race (VALLAMKALI) is held in the backwaters. R

Assertion (A): Air transport is the slowest means of movement from one place to the other.
Reason (R): It is essential for a vast country like India, where distances are large and the terrain and climatic conditions are diverse.

Assertion (A): The Airport Authority of India is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air space.
Reason (R): It manages 126 airports including 11 international, 86 domestic and 29 civil enclaves at defence air fields.

Assertion (A): The air transport in India is managed by Air India.
Reason (R): Many private companies have also started passenger services.

Assertion (A): In 2010, domestic movement involved 520.21 lakh passengers and about 23 lakh metric tonnes of cargo.
Reason (R): Pawan Hans is a helicopter service operating in the coastal areas.

Assertion (A): Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distances.
Reason (R): Even solids can also be transported by pipelines after converting them into slurry. [U]

Assertion (A): Human beings have evolved different methods of communication over time.
Reason (R): Invention of post-office, telegraph, printing press, telephone, satellite, etc., has made the communication much faster and easier.

Assertion (A): Among all the personal communication system internet is the most effective and advanced one.
Reason (R): It enables the user to establish direct contact through e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge and information.

Assertion (A): Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication.
Reason (R): Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas, etc. 0]

Assertion (A): The word ‘planning’ is not new to you.
Reason (R): You must have used it with reference to preparation for your examination or visit to a hill station.

Assertion (A): On 1 January 2015, the NITI Aayog was formed.
Reason (R): But on 1 January 2015, the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog.

Assertion (A): There is no uniform economic development over space in any country.
Reason (R): Some areas are more developed and some lag behind.

Assertion (A): Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.
Reason (R): It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh.

Assertion (A): The term development is generally used to describe the state of every societies and the process of revolt experienced by them.
Reason (R): Development is a multi- dimensional concept and signifies the positive, irreversible transformation of the economy, society and environment. R

Assertion (A): Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India.
Reason (R): The canal originates at Harikebarrage in Punjab and runs parallel toPakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan.

Assertion (A): The concept of development is dynamic and has evolved during the second half of twentieth century.
Reason (R): The notion of sustainable development emerged in the wake of general rise in the awareness of environmental issues in the late 1960s in Western World.

Assertion (A): The ecological sustainability of Indira Gandhi Canal Project has been questioned by various scholars.
Reason (R): It is a hard fact that attaining sustainable development in the command area requires major thrust upon the measures to achieve ecological sustainability.

Assertion (A): The promotion of the use of non- conventional sources of energy in India is the need of the hour.
Reason (R): Unlike conventional sources of energy, most of the non- conventional energy sources are cheaper and renewable.

Assertion (A): Minerals have certain characteristics.
Reason (R): These are evenly distributed over space.

Assertion (A):A11 minerals are inexhaustible over time.
Reason (R): These take long to develop geologically and they cannot be replenished immediately at the time of need

Assertion (A): Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India.
Reason (R): Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.

Assertion (A): The South-Western Plateau Region belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
Reason (R): This belt does not have as diversified mineral deposits as the North-Eastern belt.

Assertion (A): The North-Western Region belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat.
Reason (R): Gujarat is known for its petroleum deposits.