Biology NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Solutions

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration

by

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Which of the two adrenocortial layers, zona glomerulosa and zona reticularis lies outside enveloping the other?
Solution:
Zona glomerulosa envelops zona reticularis from the outside.

Question 2.
What is erythropoiesis? Which hormone stimulates it?
Solution:
The process of formation of RBC is Erythropoiesis. Erythropoietin, a Peptide hormone secreted from the juxtaglomerular cells of kidney stimulates erythropoiesis.

Question 3.
Name the only hormone secreted by pars intermedia of the pituitary gland.
Solution:
The only hormone secreted by Pars intermedia ^ of pituitary gland is Melanocyte Stimulating hormone (MSH). This hormone causes dispersal of pigment granules in the pigment cells, which darken the colour in certain animals like fishes and amphibians.

Question 4.
Name the endocrine gland that produces calcitonin and mention the role played by this ‘ hormone.
Solution:
Calcitonin/thyrocalcitonin linear polypeptide hormone comprising of 32 amino acids that is produced in humans primarily by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. It checks excess Ca2+ and phosphate in plasma by • decreasing mobilization from bones.

Question 5.
Name the hormone that helps in cell-mediated immunity.
Solution:
The hormone thymosin plays a maj or role in the development and differentiation of T-lymphocytes, which provide cell-mediated immunity.

Question 6.
A patient complains of constant thirst, excessive 3. passing of urine and low blood pressure. When the doctor checked the patients’ blood glucose and blood insulin level, the level were normal or 4. slightly low. The doctor diagnosed the condition a diabetes insipid us. But he decided to measure one more hormone in patients blood. Which hormones does the doctor intend to measure?
Solution:
The doctor intends to measure the hyperglycaemia hormone, and its action is opposite to that of insulin Excess of glucose in blood suppresses the secretion of glucose, whereas fall in glucose level enhance glucose production.

Question 7.
Correct the following statements by replacing the term underlined.
(a) Insulin is a steroid hormone.
(b) TSH is secreted from the corpus leteum.
(c) Tetraiodothyronine is an emergency hormone.
(d) the pineal gland is located on the anterior part of the kidney.
Solution:
(a) Insulin is a peptide hormone
(b) TSH is secreted from the pars distalis region ofpitutary.
(c) Adrenaline is an emergency hormone.
(d) The adrenal gland is located on the anterior part of the kidney.

Question 8.
Match the following columns.
Column I                           Column II
A. Oxytocin                     1. Amino acid derivative
B. Epinephrine                2. Steroid
C. Progesterone             3. Protein
D. Growth hormone       4. Peptide
Solution:
The correct matching is
Column I                             Column II
A. Oxytocin                 –       Peptide
B. Epinephrine            –       Amino acid derivative
C. Progesterone         –        Steroid
D. Growth hormone   –       Protein

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
What is the role-played by luteinising hormones in males and females respectively.
Solution:

  1. LH and FSH stimulate activity of gonads and hence are called gonadotropins.
  2. Luteinising hormone (LH) in males stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hormones called androgens from testis. Androgens along with FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) regulate spermatogenesis.
  3. LH induces ovulation of fully mature follicles in females and maintains the corpus luteum, formed from the remnants of the graafian follicles after ovulation. This secretes progesterone.

Question 2.
George comes on a vacation to India from US. The long journey disturbs his biological system and he suffers from jet lag. What is the cause of his discomfort?
Solution:

  1. The melatonin hormone secreted by the pineal gland is also called as ‘sleep hormone’ as it promotes sleep-wake cycle.
  2. The disruption of the body clock as it is out of synchronisation because of the unfamiliar time zone of the destination causes Jet lag. The body experiences different patterns of light and dark conditions than it is normally used to, this disrupts the natural sleep-wake cycle.
  3. A hormone that plays a key role in body rhythms and causes jet lag is melatonin. Eyes perceive darkness after the sun sets and alert the hypothalamus to begin releasing melatonin, which promotes sleep. Conversely, when the eyes perceive sunlight, they induce the hypothalamus to with hold melatonin prodtiction.
  4. The hypothalamus however cannot readjust its schedule instantly and it may take several days, to overcome this problem.

Question 3.
Inflammatory responses can be controlled by a certain steroid. Name the steroid, its source and also its other important functions.
Solution:

  1. Glucocorticoids cortisol in particular, produce anti-inflammatory reactions and suppress the immune response.
  2. The middle zone, in adrenal cortex which is the widest of three zones called zona fasciculata is the source for glucocorticoids.
  3. The glucocorticoids as the name suggests affect carbohydrate metabolism and metabolism of proteins and fats.
  4. They stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis. They also inhibit utilization of amino acid and cellular uptake. Cortisol is also called stress hormone as it copes with stress.

Question 4.
Old people have weak immune system. What could be the reasons?
Solution:

  1. A major role in the development of the immune system is played by thymus.
  2. The thymus gland is a lobular structure located on the dorsal side of the heart and the aorta. It is derived from the endoderm of the embryo. Thymus secretes a hormone named thymosin which stimulates the development of white blood cells (WBCs), involved in producing immunity.
  3. In old individuals, thymus is degenerated which results in decreased production of thymosin. The immune system as a result becomes weak, in old people.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Calcium plays a very important role in the formation of bones. Write on the role of endocrine glands and hormones responsible for maintaining calcium homeostasis.
Solution:
The hormones and endocrine glands that are responsible for maintaining calcium
homeostasis, are thyroid and parathyroid glands j and their associated hormones are calcitonin and Parathyroid Hormone (PTH).
(i) Parathyroid glands – These glands developed from the endoderm of the embryo. The cells of parathyroid glands are
of two types – chief cells and oxyphil cells. The chief cells of the parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).
This hormone (PTH) is involved in regulation of calcium and phosphate balance between the blood and other tissue. It mobilises the release of calcium into the blood from bones. PTH increases reabsorption of calcium by the body organs like intestine and kidneys.
(ii) Thyroid gland – It is the largest endocrine gland located anterior to the thyroid cartilage of the larynx in the neck.

This gland plays a major role in maintaining calcium homeostasis. It releases thyrocalcitonin hormone produced by the parafollicular cells, also called, ‘C’ cells. This hormone is secreted when the calcium level in blood gets high.

It is a 32 amino acid peptide hormone that lowers the calcium level by suppressing release of calcium ions from the bones. Calcitonin thus has an action opposite to that of the parathyroid hormone in calcium homeostasis.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration 1

Question 2.
Hypothalamus is a supper master endocrine gland. Elaborate.
Solution:
Hypothalamus is a minor but extremely important part of the diencephalon that is involved in the mediation of endocrine, autonomic and behavioural fiinction.

It consists of several groups of neuro secretory cells called nuclei which produce hormones. Hypothalamus provides anatomical connection between the nervous and endocrine system. It controls the release of major hormones by

hypophysis which include :
(i) Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to release growth hormone or somatostatin.
(ii) MSH Releasing Hormone stimulates the intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland to secrete Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)
The hormones released from hypothalamus are involved in the processes like temperature regulation, control of water balance in body, sexual behaviour and reproduction, control of daily cycles in physiological state, behaviour and mediation’ of emotional response hypothalamus is thus called as super master endocrine gland of body.
(iii) Prolactin Releasing Hormone (PRH) stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to secret prolactin.
(iv) Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to release gonadotropic hormones (FSHandlH).
(v) Thyrotropm Releasing Hormone (TRH) stimulates the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to release Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH).
(vi) Adrenocorticotrophic releasing Hormone (ARH) stimulates the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH). ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones called glucocorticoids by adrenal glands.
The hormones released from hypothalamus are involved in the processes like temperature regulation, control of water balance in body, sexual behaviour and reproduction, control of daily cycles in physiological state, behaviour and mediation of emotional responses. Hypothalamus is thus called as super master endocrine gland of body.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination

by

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Rearrange the following in the correct order of involvement in electrical impulse movement.
Solution:
The correct order of involvement in electrical impulse movement is as follows:
(i) Dendrites
(ii) Cell body
(iii) Axon
(iv) Axon terminal (vi) Synaptic knob
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination 1.1

Question 2.
Which cells of the retina enable us to see coloured objects around us?
Solution:
Cone cells present in unable us to see the colours. There are three types of cones which possess their own characteristic photopigments that respond to red, green and blue light.

Question 3.
Arrange the following in the order of reception and transmission of sound wave from the ear drum. Cochlear nerve, external auditory canal, ear drum, stapes, incus, malleus, cochlea.
Solution:
The reception and transmission of sound waves occurs in following order – External Auditory canal —» Eardrum —» Malleus —> Incus —> Stapes —>• Cochlea —> Cochlear nerve

Question 4.
During resting potential, the axonal membrane is polarized, indicate the movement of H-ve and -ve ions leading to polarisation diagrammatically.
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination 4.1

Question 5.
Our reaction like aggressive behaviour, use of abusive words, restlessness etc. are regulated by brain, name the parts involved.
Solution:
Functions as aggressive behaviour, use or abusive words, restlessness, etc. The inner part of cerebral hemispheres and a group of associated deep structures called limbic lobe or limbic system along with hypothalamus are involved.

Question 6.
What do grey and white matter in the brain represent?
Solution:
A major component of CNS is Grey matter consisting of neutronal cell bodies, dendrite, unmyelinated axons, glial cells and capillaries. White matter is also a component of CNS and consists mostly of gilal cell and myelinated axons.

Question 7.
Where is the hunger centre located in human brain?
Solution:
Hypothalamus in human brain contains many centres which control urge for eating and drinking.

Question 8.
Complete the statement by choosing appropriate match among the following.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination 8.1

Solution:
A. -> (3), B. -> (4), C. -> (2), D. -> (1)
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination 8.2

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
The major parts of the human neural system is depicted below. Fill in the empty boxes with appropriate
words.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination s1.1

Solution:
The major parts of the human neural system is filled in the boxes with appropriate words
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination s1.2

Question 2.
Neuron system and computers share certain common features. Comment in five lines.
Solution:
In various organs the sensory neurons is present to sense the environment and extend the message to the brain. So, it is equivalent to input device of computers.
Brain acts as the CPU, or Central Processing Unit. The information gathered by sensory neurons is processed by brain and it gives command to the concerned organ to act accordingly. This message is taken or conveyed by motor neurons which act as output devices.

Question 3.
What is the function described to Eustachian tube?
Solution:
The eustachian tube forms connection between the middle ear cavity with the pharynx. It helps in equalising the pressure on either sides of the ear drum. At the pharyngeal opening of the eustachian tube there is a valve which normally remains closed.
The valve opens during yawning, swallowing and during an abrupt change in altitude, when air enters or leaves the tympanic cavity to v equalise the pressure of air on the two sides of the tympanic membrane.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Explain the process of the transport and release of neurotransmitter with the help of a labelled diagram showing a complete neuron, axon terminal and synapse.
Solution:
The three main parts of a neuron include the
(i) Cell body
(ii) Axon
(iii) Dendrites
Stimulus or nerve impulse of any kind passes from one neuron to another via axon. This nerve impulse is wave of bioelectric/electrochemical disturbance that passes along the neuron during conduction of an excitation.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination l1.1

  • Within a synapse transport and release of a neuro transmiter occurs.
  • At a chemical synapse, the membranes of the pre- and post-synaptic neurons are separated by a fluid-filled space called synaptic cleft. Chemicals called neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses at these synapses.
  • The axon terminals contain vesicles filled with these neurotransmitters.
  • Upon arrival of an impulse (action potential) at the axon terminal, it stimulates the movement of the synaptic vesciles towards the membrane, where they fuse with the plasma membrane and release their neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft.
  • The released neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors, present on the post-synaptic membrane. This binding opens ion channels allowing the entry of ions, that can generate a new action potential in the
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination l1.2

Question 2.
Explain the structure of middle and internal ear with the help of diagram.
Solution:
Ears are a part of statoacoustic organ meant for balancing and hearing the external ear in most mammals is a heap of tissue also called pinna. It is a part of auditory system.

The human ear consists of three main parts external ear, middle, ear and internal ear.

Structure of Middle Ear

  • The middle ear consists of three bones or ossicles-the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil and stapes (stir-up).
  • These bones are attached to one another in a chain-like manner.
  • The malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane and the stapes is attached to the oval window (a membrane beneath the stapes) of cochlea.
  • These three ossicles increase the efficiency of transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
  • The middle ear also opens into the eustachian tube, which connects with the pharynx and maintains the pressure between the middle ear and the outside atmosphere.

Structure of Internal Ear

  • Thd inner ear consists of a labyrinth of chambers filled with fluid within temporal bone of the skull. The labyrinth consists of two parts the bony and membranous labyrinth. The bony labyrinth is a series of channels.
  • Membranous labyrinth lies inside these channels which is surrounded by a fluid called perilymph. The membranous labyrinth is filled with a fluid called endolymph. The coiled portion of the labyrinth is called cochlea.
  • The cochlea has two large canal separated by a small cochlear duct (scala media). An upper vestibular canal (scala vestibuli) and a lower tympanic canal (scala tympani). The vestibular and tympanic canals contain perilymph and the cochlear duct is filled with endolymph.
  • The wall of membranous labyrinth comes in contact with the fenestra ovalis at the base of scale vestibuli while the fenestra rotunda.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination l2.1

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 21 Neural control and co-ordination, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

by

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Name the cells/ tissues in human body which
(a) exhibit amoeboid movement
(b) exhibit ciliary movement
Solution:
(a) Macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit amoeboid movement. Cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments are also involved in amoeboid movement.
(b) Ciliary Movement occurs mostly in the internal organs, lined by the ciliated epithelium, e.g., cilia in trachea helps in removing dust particle and foreign substances inhaled along with atmospheric air.
Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract is also facilitated by the ciliary movement. This is due to the presence of ciliated epithelium in the Fallopian tube.

Question 2.
Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of muscular …… systems.
Solution:
Locomotion requires a prefect coordinated activity of muscular, skeletal and neural systems.

Question 3.
Sarcolemma, sarcoplasm and sarcoplasmic reticulum refer to particular type of cell in our body. Which is this cell and to what parts of that cell do these names refer to?
Solution:
Muscle fibre is lined by the plasma membrane called sarcolemma. Muscle fibre is a syncitium because sarcoplasm (the cytoplasm) of muscle fibre contains number of nuclei and sarcoplasmic reticulum is the endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibre and is the store house of calcium ions.

Question 4.
Label the different components of actin filament in the diagram given below
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 4.1v
Solution:
Each actin filament is made of two ‘F (filamentous) actins helically wound to each other and each ‘F’ actin is a polymer of monomeric ‘G’ (globular) actins.
The different components of action filament can be represented as
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 4.2v

Question 5.
What is the difference between the matrix of bones and cartilage?
Solution:
Difference between the matrix of ones and cartilage
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 5.1v

Question 6.
Which tissue is affected by mysthenia gravis? What is the underlying cause.
Solution:
Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune disorder of skeletal muscle, which affects neuromuscular junction, that leads to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of the skeletal muscle.

Question 7.
How do our bone joints function without grinding noise and pain?
Solution:
The presence of synovial fluid, between articulating surface of the two bones enclosed within synovial cavity of synovial joints to enables out joints to function without grinding noise and pain.

Question 8.
Give the location of a ball and socket joint in a human body.
Solution:
In human body Ball and socket joint are present between humerus and pectoral girdle. These joints allows free movement of bone in all direction. E.g., shoulder joints (humerus bone in socket of pectoral girdle) and

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
With respect to rib cage, explain the following
(a) bicephalic ribs
(b) true ribs
(c) floating ribs
Solution:
There are 12 pairs of ribs. Each rib consist of a thin flat bone dorsally connected to the vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.
(a) Bicephalic ribs each rib has two articulating surfaces on its dorsal end hence, are called as bicephatic ribs.
(b) The first seven pairs of ribs are true ribs. These ribs are dorsally attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
(c) The last two pair (11th and 12th) of ribs are not connected ventrally to the sternum therefore, called as floating ribs.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 1.1s

Question 2.
Exchange of calcium between bone and ^extracellular fluid takes place under the
influence of certain hormones
(a) What will happen if of Ca2+ is in extracellular fluid?
(b) What will happen if very less amount of Ca2+ is in the extracellular fluid?
Solution:
Parathyroid and thyroid glands, function under the feed back control of blood calcium
(a) More Ca2+ concentration in extracellular fluid is associated with hyperparathyroidism. It causes demineralisation, resulting in softening and bending of the bones. This condition leads to osteoprosis.
(b) Very less amount of Ca2+ in extracellular fluid is associated with hypoparathyroidism. This increases the excitability or nerves and muscles, causing cramps, sustained contraction of the muscles of larynx, face, hands and feet. This disorder called parathyroid tetany or hypercalcemic tetany.

Question 3.
Rahul exercises regularly by visiting a gymnasium. Of late he is gaining weight. What could be the reasons? Choose the correct answer and elaborate.
(a) Rahul has gained weight due to accumulation of fats in body
(b) Rahul has gained weight due to increased muscle and less of fat
(c) Rahul has gained weight because his muscle shape has improved
(d) Rahul has gained weight because he is accumulating water in the body
Solution:
(b) Rahul has gained weight because the shape of his muscle has changed. Regular exercise increases the body muscle. There is an enlargement of muscles due to increase in the amount of sarcoplasm and mitochondria and the strength he to developed led him to gain the mass and size of body muscle and reduction in fat content.

Question 4.
Radha was running on a treadmill at a great speed for 15 minutes continuously. She stopped the treadmill and abruptly came out. For the next few minutes, she was breathing heavily/fast. Answer the following questions.
(a) What happened to her muscles when she did strenuously exercised?
(b) How did her breathing rate change?
Solution:
(a) Her muscles got fatigues due to continuous exercise because of the accumulation of lactic acid within skeletal muscles. Pain is also often experienced in the fatigued muscles.
(b) Her breathing rate changes from normal to
high as during as her body muscles require thus oxygen for the ATP production, than the normal value, her breathing thus enhances, to take most oxygen from the atmosphere.

Question 5.
Write a few lines about gout.
Solution:
Gout is a disease caused due to improper purine metabolism. It causes accumulation of uric acid and its crystals in the joints. The level of uric acid and crystals of its salts get raised in blood causing their accumulation in the joint to which causes gouty arthritis. The excess of urates in blood can also lead to the formation stones in the kidneys.

Question 6.
What are the points for articulation of pelvic and pectoral girdles?
Solution:

  1. Each half of the pectoral girdle consist of a clavicle and a scapula.
  2. The dorsal flat, triangular body of scapula has a slightly elevated ridge called the spine that, projects flat expanded process called the acromion and the clavicle articulating with it.
  3. There a depression below the acromion is called the glenoid cavity which articulates with the head of the humerous to form the shoulder joint.
  4. Pelvic girdle consist of two coxal bones, each formed by the fusioin of three bones, ilium, ischium and pubis. It articulates with femur through a cavity called acetabulum forming thigh joint.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
How does a muscle shorten during its contracting and return to its original form during relaxation?
Solution:
Muscles contract due to formation of cross-bridge between the actin and myosin filament
(i) An ATP molecule j oins the active site on the head of myosin myofilament. These heads contains an enzyme, myosin ATPase along with Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions that catalyses the break down of ATP.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 1.3l
(ii) The energy is transferred to myosin head which straightens to join an active site on actin myofilament, forming a across-
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 1.1l
(iii) The energised cross-bridges move, causing the attached actin filaments to move towards the centre of A-band. The Z-line is also pulled inwards causing shortening of sarcomere, contraction. During contraction A-bands retain the length, while I-bands get reduced.
(iv) The myosin head releases ADP and Pi where relaxes to its low energy state. The head detaches from actin myofilaments when new ATP molecule joins it and cross-bridge are broken.
(v) In the next cycle, the free head cleaves the new ATP. The cycles of cross-bridge formation and breakage is repeated causing further sliding.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement 1.2l
(vi) After contraction muscle relaxation occurs when the calcium ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cistemae, thus, blocking the sites on actin myofilaments. The Z-line returns to original positions or relaxation.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination

by

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Where does the selective reabsorption of glomerular filtrate take place?
Solution:
The selective reabsorption of glomerular filtrate takes place in Proximal Convoluted Tubules (PCT) and Distal Convoluted Tubules (DCT).

Question 2.
What is the excretory product from kidneys of reptiles?
Solution:
The excretory product from the kidney of reptile is uric acid.

Question 3.
What is the composition of sweat produced by sweat glands?
Solution:
Sweat produced by sweat glands is a watery fluid that containing NaCl, small amounts of urea, lactic acid, etc. It’s primary function is to facilitate a cooling effect on the body surface and also to helps in removal of water.

Question 4.
Identify the glands that perform the excretory function in prawns.
Solution:
In prawns, the excretory organs are known as antennary glands or green glands. These glands are white pea sized structures and opaque enclosed in the coxa of each 2nd antenna. They mainly excrete ammonia.

Question 5.
What is the excretory structure in Amoeba?
Solution:
Conractile vacuole performs the function of excretion as well as osmoregulation in amoeba.

Question 6.
The following abbreviations are used in the context of excretory functions, what do they stand for?
(a) ANF
(b) ADH
(c) GFR
(d) DCT
Solution:
(a) ANF Stands for Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(b) ADH Stands for Antidiuretic Hormone
(c) GFR Stands for Glomerular Filtration Rate
(d) DCT Stands for Distal Convoluted Tubule

Question 7.
Differentiate glycosuria from ketonuria.
Solution:
Difference between glycosuria and ketonuria is as follows
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination 1

Question 8.
Mention any two metabolic disorders, which can be diagnosed by analysis of urine.
Solution:
Metabolic disorders that can be diagnosed by analysis of urine are
(i) Hematuria- It is a disorder in which blood cells are present in the urine, which could be a sign of kidney stone or a tumor in urinary tract.
(ii) Albuminuria- It is a disorder in which albumin is present in urine and occurs in nephritis i.e., inflammaton of glomeruli. In this condition the size of filtering slits becomes enlarged.

Question 9.
What are the main processes of urine formation?
Solution:
Urine formation includes glomerular filtration (ultra Alteration), selective reabsorption and tubular secretion that occurs in different parts of the nephron.
Glomerular filteration is carried out by glomerulus and is involve the filteration of blood.
Selective reabsorption is the absorption of filtrate through renal tubules either activity or passively.
Tubular secretin involves secretion through tubular cells in urine in order to maintain ionic and acid-base balance of body fluids.

Question 10.
Fill in the blanks appropriately
Organ Excretory wastes
(a) Kidneys ………..
(b) Lungs ………..
(c) Liver ………..
(d) Skin ………..
Solution:
Organ                             Excretory wastes
(a) Kidneys     ——>     Urine
(b) Lungs        ——>    C02
(c) Liver           ——>    Urea
(d) Skin           ——->   Sweat

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Show the structure of a renal corpuscle with the help of a diagram.
Solution:
The structure of a renal corpuscle is shown below.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination 2

Question 2.
What is the role played by renin-angiotensin in the regulation of kidney frictions?
Solution:
On activation by fall in the glomerular blood pressure/flow renin is released from the Juxta-Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).

It converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I and further to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby Glomerular Filteration Rate (GFR). Angiotensin II also activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.

This Aldosterone causes reabsprption of Na+ and water from the distal parts of the tubule. Which leads to an increase in blood pressure and GFR. This complex mechanism is generally known as Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System of RAAS.

Question 3.
The composition of glomerular filtrate and urine is not same. Comment.
Solution:
Glomerular filtrate contains all the content of the blood plasma except proteins. About 180 litres of glomerular filtrate like water, glucose, nutrients ions etc. occurs. As a result, now the composition of urine is quite different from that of the glomerular filtrate. Some ions are also added to this fluid by tubules i.e. tubular secretion to maintain ionic and acid base balance of body fluids. Thus the composition of glomerular filtrate andd urine is not same.

Question 4.
What is the procedure advised for the correction of extreme renal failure? Give a brief account of it.
Solution:
The ultimate method for the correction of acute/ extreme renal failure (kidney failure) is, Kidney transplantation it is to minimise chances of rejection by the immune system of the host, functional kidney is used as a transplant from a donor, preferably close relative modem clinical procedures have increased the success rate of such a complicated technique.

Question 5.
Explain, why a haemodialysing unit called artificial kidney?
Solution:

  1. Haemodialysis is a method that become a boon for thousands of uremic (accumulation of urea in blood) patients all over the world. Haemodialysing unit act as artificial kidney by removing urea from patients blood due to kidney failure.
  2. In this process blood is drained from artery and pumped into a dialysing unit after the addition of an anticoagulant named heparin.
  3. The unit contains a coiled cellophane tube which is surrounded by a dialysing fluid having the same composition as that of plasma except nitrogenous waste.
  4. The porous cellophane mfcmbrane of the tube allows the passage of molecules that is based on concentration gradient.
  5. Absence of nitrogenous water in dialysing fluid these substances freely move out thereby clearing the blood.
  6. In the end the cleared blood is pumped back to the body through a vein after the addition of anti¬heparin to it thereby completing the process.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination 3

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Explain the mechanism of formation of concentrated urine in mammals.
Solution:
Mammals have the ability to produce concentrated urine. The loop of Henle and vasa recta play important role in it which is discussed as follows:
(i) the proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta as well as the counter current that is formed due to the fiow of filtrate in two limp’s of Henle’s loop in opposite direction and help in opposite direction and help in maintaining an increasing osmolality towards the inner medullary interstitium, i.e., from 300 mOsmoL-1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmol-1 in the inner medulla.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination 4
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination 6
(ii) This gradient is caused mainly due to NaCl and urea ascending limb of Henle’s loop transports NaCl, that is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta.
(iii) Through the ascending portion of vasa recta. NaCl is returned to the interstitium.
(iv) Similarly, a small amount of urea enters the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop, which is transported back to the intersitium by the collecting tubule.
(v) This special arrangement of Henle’s loop, and vasa recta, is called the counter current mechanism.
(vi) The rate of dissipation is reduced by the counter current exchange. This in turn, reduces the rate at which the current must pump Na+ to maintain any given gradient.
(vii) Presence of such interstitial garden helps in an easy passage of water from the collecting tubule thereby concentrating the filtrate (urine).
(viii) Human kidneys produces urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of a human kidney with the help of a labelled diagram.
Solution:

  • Human kidney are reddish-brown, bean-shaped structures that is situated between the last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra, which is closer to the dorsal inner wall of the abdominal cavity.
  • Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in thickness with an average weight of 120-170 gm
  • The kidney is covered by a fibrous connective tissue i.e., the renal capsula, that protects the kidney.
  • Internally, it consists of outer dark cortex and an inner light medulla, both containing nephron, nephron is the structural and functional units of kidney.
  • The median concave border of a kidney contains a notch called hilum, that functions as route entry and exit of blood vessels, nerves and ureter.
  • The renal cortex is granular in appearance that contains convoluted tubules that malpighian corpuscles. The renal medulla contains loop of henle, collecting ducts and tubules and ducts ofBertini.
  • Medulla is divided into conical masses, the medullary pyramids that further form papillae.
  • The papillae form calyces, which join to renal pelvis leading to ureter. Between the medullary pyramids, cortex extends into medulla and forms renal columns which are called as column of Bertini.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination 5

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

by

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Name the blood component which is viscous and straw coloured fluid.
Solution:
Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma and cells.

Question 2.
Complete the missing word in the statement given below.
(a) Plasma without …….. factors is called serum.
(b)………and monocytes are phagocytic cells.
(c) Eosinophils are associated with …….. reactions. .
(d) ……. ions play a significant role in clotting.
(e) One can determine the heart beat rate by counting the number of ……….. in an ECG.
Solution:
(a) Clotting
(b) Neutrophils
(c) allergic
(d) Calcium
(e) QRS complex

Question 3.
Name the vascular connection that exists between the digestive tract and liver.
Solution:
Hepatic portal system is the vascular connection that exists between the digestive tract and liver.

Question 4.
Given below are the abnormal conditions related to blood circulation. Name the disorders.
(a) Acute chest pain due to failure of 02 supply to heart muscles.
(b) Increased systolic pressure.
Solution:
(a) Angina
(b) High Blood Pressure

Question 5.
Which coronary artery disease is caused due to narrowing of the lumen of arteries?
Solution:
Atherosclerosis is the coronary artery disease caused due to the narrowing of the lumen of arteries due to deposition of calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissue the arteries become narrow, affecting vessels that supply blood to the heart muscles.

Question 6.
Define the following terms and give their location.
(a) Purkinje fibre
(b) Bundle of His
Solution:
(a) Purkinje Fibres are the fibres that conduct impulse, and the contraction impulses from AV node into the walls of ventricles.
(b) Bundle of His are mass of specialised fibres that originates from the AV node.

Question 7.
State the functions of the following in blood
(a) fibrinogen
(b) globulin
(c) neutrophils
(d) lymphocytes
Solution:
(a) Fibrinogens are the components of blood plasma that are inactive. In the presence of enzyme thrombin, they form a clot or coagulum of a network of threads called fibrin, in which dead and damaged elements of blood are trapped.
(b) Globulins are primarily involved in immunity,
i. e., defence mechanisms of the body.
(c) Neutrophils are phagocytic cells, that destroy foreign organisms entering the body,
(d) Lymphocytes are specialised cells which are responsible for the immune responses in the body. There are two major types of lymphocytes, that are involved in this process are B and T-lymphocytes.

Question 8.
How will you interpret an electocardiagram (ECG) in which time taken in QRS complex is higher?
Solution:
Electrocardiograph (ECG) is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. A patient is connected to the machine having three electrical leads (one to each wrist and one to the left ankle) that continuously monitor the activity of heart.
Multiple leads are attached to the chest regions, for a detailed evaluation of the heart functions The QRS complex represent the depolarisation of the ventricles, that initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole. The time taken in QRS complex is 0.12 second in normal ECG
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 1
The larger Q and R wave indicate a myocardial infarction (heart attack). The S-T segment is elevated in acute myocardial infarction and depressed when the heart muscle receives insufficient oxygen.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
The walls of ventricles are much thicker than atria. Explain.
Solution:
The walls of ventricles are thicker than the atria. It is due to the greater pressure exerted by pumping out of blood through ventricles of heart in compare to atria. Ventricles need to pump blood further and with much force.

Question 2.
Differentiate between
(a) blood and lymph
(b) basophilsand eosinophils
(c) tricuspid and bicuspid valve
Solution:
(a) Difference between blood and lymph are as follows
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 2
(b) Difference between basophils and eosinophils are as follows
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 3
(c)Difference between tricuspid valve and bicuspid valve are as follows
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 4

Question 3.
Briefly describe the followings
(a) anaemia
(b) angina pectoris
(c) atherosclerosis
(d) hypertension
(e) heart failure
(f) erythroblastosis foetalis
Solution:
(a) Anaemia This is the most common disorder
of the blood, which is caused due to decrease in the number of RBC than the normal amount and also due to less quantity of haemoglobin than the normal value in blood. This is the most common disorder of the blood.
(b) Angina Pectoris When there is blockage in coronary artery, thus insufficient supply of blood reaches to heart muscles. That results in chest pain, fear, anxiety, pale skin, profuse
v sweating and vomiting. The pain usually starts in the centre of the chest spreads down to the left arm which last for only few second.
(c) Atherosclerosis It refers the deposition of cholesterol or fatty substance in the inner lining of arteries called atherosclerotic plaque. Sometimes arteries get completely blocked, this may result in stroke of heart attack.
(d) Hypertension It is sometimes also known as arterial hypertension. The blood pressure in the arteries gets elevated. It could be primary or secondary hypertension which
are caused by various conditions which affect kidneys, arteries heart or endocrine system.
(e) Heart Failure It is the state of heart, causes in when heart does not pump blood effectively enough to meet the requirement of the body.
(f) Erythroblastosis foetalis It is a haemolytic disease causes in new boms, which is an allo-immune condition that develops in foetus, when igG molecules produced by mother pass through placenta and attack RBC. It causes reticulocytosis and anaemia. It develops due to Rh incompatibility between the couples.
In a man with RH+ blood and women with Rlr blood, the second pregnancy foetus may have this problem due to IgG accumulation in women during first child development and delivery.

Question 4.
Explain the functional significance of lymphatic system?
Solution:
Lymphatic system comprises blood vessels that carries a fluid called lymph. It contains white blood cells, which are responsible for fighting against any diseases. It removes and filter the interstitial fluid from tissues, later absorbs and transports fatty acids and fats as chyle from digestive system and also transport cells to immune system.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Explain Rh-Incompatibility in humans.
Solution:
In nearly 80% of human Rh antigen is observed on the surface of RBCs. Such individuals are called Rh positive (Rh+) and those individuals where this antigen is not present are called Rh negative (Rh–).
Both Rh+ and Rh– individuals are phenotypically normal. The problem in them arises during blood transfusion and pregnancy.
(i) Incompatibility During Blood Transfusion The first blood transfusion of Rh+ blood to the person with Rh” blood causes no harm because the Rh– person develops anti Rh factors or antibodies in his/ her blood, but second transfusion of Rh+ blood to the Rh– person because anti Rh factors are already formed it destroys the red blood corpuscles of the donor. .
(ii) Incompatibility During Pregnancy If father’s blood is Rh+, mother blood is Rh– and the foetus blood is Rh+. It will lead to a serious problem. Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh’ve blood of the mother in the first pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta.
But in the subsequent Rh+ foetus, the anti Rh factors (antibodies) present in causes mother destroys the foetal RBC due to mixing of blood. This causes the Haemolytic Disease of the New Born (HDN), called as erythroblastosis foetalis. In some cases new born may survive but will be anaemic and may also suffer with jaundice.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 5
This condition can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.

Question 2.
Explain different types of blood groups and donor compatibility by making a table.
Solution:
There are more than 30 surface antigens in blood cells which give rise to different blood groups.
ABO Grouping on basis of the presence or absence of two surface antigens on the RBCs namely, A and B. The plasma of different individuals contain two natural antibodies. The distribution of antigen and antibody in divided four groups into. A, AB, B and O.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 6
Form the given table it is evident that group ‘O’ blood can donate to persons with any other blood group and hence ‘O’ group individuals are called ‘Universal donors’. Person with ‘AB’ blood can accept blood from persons with AB, as well as the other groups of blood. Hence, such persons are called ‘Universal recipients’.

Question 3.
In the diagrammatic presentation of heart given below, mark and label. SAN, AVN, AV bundles, bundle of his and Purkinje fibres.
Solution:
The diagrammatic presentation of heart with labelled SAN, AVN, AV bundles bundle of His and purkinje fibres in heart is shown below.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation 7

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.