CBSE Class 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions 

Question 1.
Define zeta potential.

Question 2.
Name an oxoanion having oxidation number of metal equal to its group number.

Question 3.
Draw structure of 4-methoxy, N, N-dimethyl aniline.

Question 4.
Arrange according to increasing acidic strength- phenol, 2-methyl phenol, benzoic acid.

Question 5.
Name the type of semiconductor formed when Cu₂O having metal deficiency defect.

Question 6.
[Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ are of different colours in dilute solutions. Why?
OR
What is the co-ordination entity formed when excess of aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? Why is it that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained, when H₂S(s) is passed through this solution?

Question 7.
(a) Draw the shape of BrF^–₄.
(b) Arrange according to increasing boiling point HF, HCl, HI, HBr.

Question 8.
Define osmosis & osmotic pressure.

Question 9.
Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% of reaction is 10 times of the half life (t_1/2) of the reaction.

Question 10.
Write chemical reaction to affect the following change:
(a) Benzene to m-bromophenol
(b) Benzoic acid to aniline

Question 11.
X-ray diffraction studies show that copper crystallises in fee unit cell with cell edge of 3.6 x 10^-8 cm and its density is 8.92 g/cm³. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.

Question 12.

1. What is the significance of leaching in the extraction of Al?
2. Describe a method for refining of nickel.
3. Which possesses more carbon-pig iron or cast iron?

Question 13.
Complete the following chemical equations:

1. XeF₂ + H₂O →
2. H₂O + F₂ →
3. Zn + HNO₃ (dil.) →

Question 14.

1. Find co-ordination number of metal ion in [Co(ox)₂Cl₂]⁺?
2. Which will react with ethylene diamine-ris [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] or trans [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]?
3. What is the role of co-ordination compounds in analytical chemistry. Give one example.

Question 15.
(a) Chlorobutane has higher boiling point than f-butyl chloride. Explain
(b) Arrange according to increasing SN2 reactivity

(c) Give reason, why do alcoholic KOH gives alkene on reaction with haloalkane?

Question 16.

1. Why do all digestive tablets contain salt?
2. Arrange according to increasing coagulating power-Na₃PO₄, NaCl, sugar.
3. Define electrophoresis.

Question 17.
Calculate the mass of a non volatile solute AB₂ (molar mass 60 g/mol) which should be dissolved in 5 litre of water to boil it at 108°C, if K_b for water is 0.52 K Kg mol^-1. (The solution is 80% dissociated in H₂O).
OR
Calculate the osmotic pressure in pascals exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 1.0 g of polymer of molar mass 1,85,000 g per mole in 450 ml of water at 37°C.

Question 18.
Distinguish between the following pair with a suitable chemical test:

1. Phenol and benzyl alcohol
2. Propanmine and propanal
3. Methanol and propanal

Question 19.
Illustrate the following reaction with a suitable chemical reaction:

1. Carbylamine reaction
2. Crossaldol condensation
3. Sandmeyer reaction

Question 20.

1. Name three type of RNA.
2. Define peptide linkage.
3. Name the deficiency disease caused by vitamin ‘D’.

Question 21.
(a) If slope of this line is -1.25 × 10⁴ K, what will be value of E_a?
(b) If intercept of the line on Y-axis is 14.34 find arrhenius constant ‘A’.

Question 22.
Write monomer units with structure and name for the following polymers:
(a) PTEE
(b) Buna-N
(c) Dacron

Question 23.
In a holiday, Neelam wanted to prepare some halwa for her husband who is diabetic. She does not want to add sugar to halwa, so she wants to use aspartame as artificial sweetner. Her daughter Tanya, a student of class XII chemistry suggested not to use aspartame.

1. Why do Tanya suggested her not to use aspartame?
2. Suggest a suitable artificial sweetner for making Halwa.
3. In which type of food aspartame can be used.
4. Mention the values associated with the suggestion of Tanya.

Question 24.
(i) State the relationship amongst cell constant of a cell, resistance of the solution in the cell and conductivity of the solution. How is molar conductivity of a solution related to conductivity of its solution?
(ii) A voltaic cell is set up at 25°C with the following half cell Al/Al³⁺ (0.001 M) and Ni/Ni²⁺ (0.50M). Calculate the cell voltage

OR
(i) Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10.
(ii) State Faraday’s laws of electrolysis. How much charge in terms of Faraday, F is required for reduction of 1 mol Cr₂O^2-₇ to Cr³⁺.

Question 25.
(i) Complete the following chemical reactions:
(a) kMnO₄ \(\underrightarrow { Heat } \)
(b) Cr₂O^2-₇ + H₂S + H⁺ →
(ii) Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from chromate ore with chemical equations involved. What is the effect of increasing pH on a solution of potassium dichromate?
OR
Explain the following:

1. Copper (I) ion is not stable in an aqueous solution.
2. Transition metals in general acts as good catalysts.
3. Lanthanoid contraction is less than actinoid contraction.
4. Melting point of Fe is more than Mn.
5. Name the lanthanoid having +4 oxidation state and which acts as oxidising agent.

Question 26.
Two moles of an organic compound ‘A’ (C₇H₆O) on treatment with a strong base gives two compound ‘B’ and ‘C’. ‘B’ on oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ gives ‘C’. B on reaction with ‘C’ in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄ gives fruity smelling compound ‘D’. Write all the reactions and draw structures of A, B, C & D.
OR

Answers 

Answer 1.
Zeta potential: Adsorption of ions on particles of dispersed phase leads to the formation of electrical double layer. The potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges is called zeta potential or electrokinetic potential.

Answer 2.
MnO^–₄, Cr₂O^2-₇, CrO^2-₄ (any one).

Answer 3.

Answer 4.
2-methyl phenol < phenol < benoic acid (Increasing acidic strength)

Answer 5.
p-type semiconductor

Answer 6.
Explanation according to VBT : Iron is in + 2 state and have 3d⁶ configuration in both the complexes, but [Fe(CN)₆]^4- is an inner orbital-complex so no unpaired electron is there and as a result it is colourless

On the other hand [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is an outer orbital-complex, hence there is unpaired electrons and the complex is coloured.

According to crystal field theory, CN^– is a strong field ligand but H₂O is a weak field ligand, hence t_2g e_g configuration is as follows

OR

since Cu is within the co-ordination sphere, so it will not get precipitated as CuS on passing H₂S(s).

Answer 7.

(b) HCl < HBr < HI < HF (Increasing boiling point)

Answer 8.

• Osmosis : Movement of solvent particles from low concentration solution to higher concentration solution through a semipermeable membrane is known as osmosis.
• Osmotic pressure : The pressure applied on higher concentration side of a semipermeable membrane separating solutions of different concentration, so that there is no net flow of solvent on either side of membrane is known as osmotic pressure.

Answer 9.
For a first order reaction

for 99.9% completion of a reaction, if [A]0 = 100, then
[A]_t = 100 – 99.9 = 0.1

Answer 10.
(a) Benzene to m-bromophenol

(b) Benzoic acid to aniline

Answer 11.
From question Z = 4, a = 3.6 x 10^-8 cm, d = 8.92 g/cm³, λ = ?

Answer 12.

1. Leaching with NaOH(aq) makes soluble complex Al₂O₃ and leaving behind all the impurities.
   Al₂O₃ . xH₂O + NaOH (aq) → Na [Al(OH)₄]
   [from this soluble complex on passing CO₂, Al(OH)₃ gets precipitated from which pure Al₂O₃ can be obtained]
2. Mond’s process is used for refining of nickel in this method Ni converted to volatile complex which breaks down on further heating.
   
3. Pig iron (4% C) possesses more carbon content than cast iron (3% C)

Answer 13.

1. 2XeF₂ (s) + 2H₂O(l) → 2Xe(g) + 4HF(aq) + O₂(g)
2. 2H₂O (l) + 2F₂(g) → 4HF (aq) + O₂(g)
3. Zn + HNO₃ (dil) → 4Zn(NO₃)₂ + 5H₂O + N₂O

Answer 14.

1. Co-ordination number = 6 (∵ ox(Oxilato-bidentate ligand)
2. Ethylene diamine, a bidentate ligand can react only with cis isomer, so cis is [Pt(NH₃)₂ Cl₂] is the correct answer.
3. Role of co-ordination compound in analytical chemistry
   • EDTA for estimation of hardness of water
   • DMG for analysis/confirmation of Ni²⁺ ion
   • Confirmation of chloride ion by dissolving AgCl in NH₃ solution.

Answer 15.
(a) Chlorobutane has larger surface area than compact butyl chloride and as a result, more intermolecular forces in chlorobutane and it has higher boiling point.

(c) KOH + C₂H₅OH → C₂H₂O^–K⁺ + H₂O
Ethoxide ion forms in presence of alcohol is a stronger base than OH^– (hydroxyl) ion, hence it can remove β-hydrogen and leads to the formation of alkene.

Answer 16.

1. Salt is a strong electrolyte, hence coagulate food particles easily and so helps in easy digestion.
2. Sugar < NaCl < Na₃PO₄
3. The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential is called electrophoresis.

Answer 17.
From question
ΔT_b = 108° – 100° = 8°C
= 381 – 373 = 8 K
mass of solvent = 5 litre = 5000 g
K_b = 0.52 K kg mol^-1, molar mass of solute = 60 g/mol
AB₂ is 80% dissociated, so

OR
It is given that
w_B= 1 g, m_B = 1,85,000 g/mol, w_A = 450 mL
T = 37 + 273 = 310K, π = ?

Answer 18.
(a)

(b)

(c)

Answer 19.

1. Carbylamine reaction :
   
2. Cross aldol condensation:
   
3. Sandmeyer reaction:
   

Answer 20.

1. Three type of RNA
   • m-RNA
   • t-RNA
   • r-RNA
2. Peptide linkage :
   
   The linkage (amide linkage) present between two amino acids is known as peptide linkage in protein chemistry.
3. Deficiency disease caused by vitamin-D → Rickets and osteomalacia.

Answer 21.
(a) From Arrhenius relation


(b) Since intercept on y-axis is log A, so
log A = 14.34
A = antilog 14.34
A = 2.188 x 10¹⁴ s^-1.

Answer 22.
(a) PTEE

(b) Buna-N

(c) Dacron :

Answer 23.

1. Since aspartame is unstable at cooking temperature, so Tanya suggested her mother not to use it.
2. Sucralose or Alitame
3. Aspartame can be used for cold food items.
4. Knowledge of chemistry, concern for family.

Answer 24.
(i) Relationship between cell constant, resistance and conductivity of a cell:

(ii) Since Al³⁺/Al reduction potential has more -ve value as it will act as anode and nickel will act as cathode. The cell will be

OR
Since pH of solution is 10, so [H⁺] = 10
From Nemst equation at 298 K

(ii) Faraday’s first law : The amount of chemical reaction which occurs at any electrode during electrolysis by a current is proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolytic solution or melt.
Faraday’s second law : The amount of different substances liberated by the same quantity of electricity passing through the electrolytic solution are proportional to their chemical equivalent weights.
Number of Faraday’s required for Cr₂O^2-₇ to Cr³⁺ is 6 F.

Answer 25.
(i) (a) 2KMnO₄ \(\underrightarrow { Heat } \) K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂
(b) Cr₂O^2-₇ + 3H₂S + 8H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 3S + 7H₂O
(ii) Preparation of potassium dichromate:

Effect of increasing pH :
Dichromate ion will convert to form chromate ion as follows :

OR

1. Cu⁺ in aqueous solution undergoes disproportionation, i.e.
   2Cu⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + Cu(s)
   The E° value for this reaction is favourable (due to high hydration energy for Cu²⁺ ion)
2. Catalytic property of transition metals is due to their ability of adopting multiple oxidation state and to form complexes.
3. Shielding effect of 4f electrons is more as compared to 5f orbital electrons and hence lanthanoid contraction is less than actinoid contraction.
4. The size of iron is smaller than manganese which compensate for one less impaired electron present in iron in comparison to manganese, hence M-M bond in iron is stronger than Mn and as a result iron has higher melting point than Mn.
5. Lanthanoids with +4 oxidation state are → Ce⁴⁺, Gd⁴⁺, HO⁴⁺, Dy⁴⁺.
   These acts as oxidising agent to acquire +3 oxidation state like other elements of their group.

Answer 26.
Since compound (A) C₇H₆O gives B and C on treatment with a strong base and they combine together in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄ to give fruity smelling it means ester formation takes place and C and B are acid and alcohol. B on oxidation gives ‘C’ it means ‘B’ is alcohol and C is an acid. There is 5 unsaturation in compound A, so the compound must be benzaldehyde having no a hydrogen and gives disproportionation reaction with cone, alkali.

OR

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Give one difference between immigration and emigration.

Question 2.
Write the meaning of sustainable human development.

Question 3.
What do you mean by quinary activities?

Question 4.
What is an outport?

Question 5.
Give one example each of religious and mining towns of India.

Question 6.
Mention the two environmental problems that emerged due to intensive irrigation in Indira Gandhi Canal command area.

Question 7.
Which seaport is known as ‘queen of Arabian Sea’?

Question 8.
“The human activities create cultural landscape”. Support the statement with any three
examples.

Question 9.
The proportion of literate population of a country is an indicator of its socio-economic development. Explain.

Question 10.
Explain any three features of clustered rural settlements of India.

Question 11.
Study the diagram given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Identify and name the iron and steel plant shown in the above diagram. In which state is this plant located?
(ii) Which river provides water to the plant?
(iii) From where does it get iron ore? In which year did it start production?

Question 12.
Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion. Mention which human values are important to enhance it?

Question 13.
How did the Bhils in Petalwad block of Jhahua district revitalise large parts of common property resources throw their own efforts? Explain any three points.

Question 14.
Mention the meaning of manufacturing industry. Explain any three characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing industry in the world.

Question 15.
Name the country in which Suez Canal is located. Which are the two terminal points of this canal? Explain the economic significance of Suez canal.

Question 16.
Discuss the important features of Mixed Farming.

Question 17.
“Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive”. Justify the statement.

Question 18.
Explain the main causes of the rapid growth of population in India from 1951 to 1981.

Question 19.
“Indian farmers gamble with the monsoon”. Discuss.

Question 20.
Define the term ‘Watershed Management’. Explain any four features of watershed management progress initiated in the country.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) An area of commercial livestock rearing.
(B) A major seaport
(C) An airport
(D) A mega city
(E) A large country of the size of a continent in terms of area.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) The state which is the leading producer of jute.
(ii) An oil refinery in Haryana.
(iii) A headquarter city of the North-Western Railways.
(iv) A land-locked seaport.
(v) The state with lowest level of HDI.

Answers

Answer 1.
Migrants who move into a new place are called Immigrants whereas migrants who move out of a place are called Emigrants.

Answer 2 .
To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities.
All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future.

Answer 3.
Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas.

Answer 4.
These are deep water ports built away from the actual ports; serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size.

Answer 5.
(i) Mathura
(ii) Digboi

Answer 6.
(i) Water logging
(ii) Soil salinity.

Answer 7.
Kochi Port

Answer 8.
(i) The imprint of human activities are created everywhere—health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls.
(ii) Fields, orchard and pastures in plains and rolling hills.
(iii) Ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellite in the space.

Answer 9.
(i) Proportion of literate population of a country in an indicator of its socio-economic development.
(ii) It reveals the standard of living, social status of females, availability of educational facilities and policies of government.
(iii) Level of economic development is both a cause and consequence of literacy.

Answer 10.
(i) It is a compact or closely built up area of houses.
(ii) In this type of village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, bams and pastures.
(iii) Its intervening streets present some geometric shape-as rectangular, radial, liner etc

Answer 11.
(i) (a) Durgapur steelplant (b) West Bengal
(ii) Damodar valley corporation.
(iii) It gets iron ore from Noamundi. It started its production in 1962.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening
(ii) Eco-friendly
(iii) Cooperation

Answer 13.
(i) Land Reforms — improve the agroland, pastureland etc.
(ii) Revitalise the irrigation resources.
(iii) Planted fodder grass on pastureland, adapted social fencing, no open grazing.

Answer 14.
(A) (i) Manufacturing involves a full array of production from handicrafts to moulding iron and steel and stamping out plastic toys to assembling delicate computer components or space vehicles.
(ii) The common features are the application of power, mass production of identical products and specialised labour in factor setting for the production of standardised commodities. It adds value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable product.

(B) Characteristics of modem large scale manufacturing:
(i) Specialisation of skills/methods of production.
(ii) Mechanisation.
(iii) Technological innovation.
(iv) Organisational structure and stratification.

Answer 15.
(A) Egypt
(B) Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the South.
(C) (i) It reduces direct sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo.
(ii) The tolls are so heavy that some find it cheaper to go by the longer Cape Route whenever the consequent delay is not important.
(iii) It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean.

Answer 16.
(i) This form of agriculture is found in the highly developed parts of the world-North-westem
Europe, Eastern North America, parts of Eurasia.
(ii) Mixed farms are moderate in size and usually the crops associated with it are wheat, barley, oats, rye, maize, fodder and root crops.
(iii) Fodder crops are an important component of mixed farming.
(iv) Crop rotation and inter cropping play an important role in maintaining soil fertility.
(v) Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry. Animals like cattle, sheep, pigs and poultry provide the main income along with crops.

Answer 17.
• This means that development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions.
• Development occurs when positive growth takes place. Positive growth does not always lead to development. Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality.
• The quality of life people enjoy in a country, the opportunities they have and freedoms they enjoy; are important aspects of development is not new ideas.
• According to Mahbub-ul-Haq, development enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. Choices are not fixed but keep on changing. Development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.
• A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. It means people must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals.

Answer 18.
(i) The decades of 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion.
(ii) It was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country.
(iii) The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent.
(iv) The developmental activities were introduced through a centralised planning process and economy started showing up answering the improvement of living condition of people at large.
(v) Increased international migration contributed to the high growth rate.

Answer 19.
It is rightly said that Indian farmers gamble with monsoon. It can be proved with following:
(i) Irrigation covers only about 33% of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall.
(ii) Poor performance of South-west monsoon also adversely affects the supply of canal water for irrigation.
(iii) The rainfall in Rajasthan and other drought-prone areas is too meagre and highly unreliable.
(iv) Areas receiving high annual rainfall experience considerable fluctuations. It makes them vulnerable to both droughts and floods.
(v) Drought is a common phenomenon in the low rainfall areas that may experience occasional floods. Both droughts and floods continue to be twin menace in Indian agriculture.

Answer 20.
Watershed Management: It basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources.
Features of watershed management:
(i) It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods – percolation tanks, recharge wells.
(ii) It includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources—natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human within a watershed.
(iii) It aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. .
(iv) It not only conserves the entire ecosystem of an area but also empowers the people by making them socially and economically self reliant as it has community participation as its vital component.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which continent has the highest growth rate of population?

Question 2.
Define sex ratio.

Question 3.
Give any two examples of tertiary activities.

Question 4.
Give the meaning of Human Settlement.

Question 5.
What are National Highways?

Question 6.
Name the headquarter of ‘South Central’ Railway zone.

Question 7.
Name any two natural sources of water pollutants.

Question 8.
Explain how technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.

Question 9.
Explain the key areas of human development.

Question 10.
Explain any three characteristics of ‘Foot Loose Industries’.

Question 11.
Mention main features of ‘Pastoral nomadism’.

Question 12.
‘Drought’ is a natural disaster. As a push factor it compels people to migrate from one area to another area in India. Which human values can minimise the impact of drought?

Question 13.
Study the map of India given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Define the term ‘metropolitan city.’
(ii) Which state of India has the largest number of metropolitan cities?
(iii) Name any two northern states of India which have no metropolitan city.

Question 14.
State any three characteristics of water transport. Why is traffic faster on the Cape of Good Hope Route? Give two reasons.

Question 15.
Explain any five basis of international trade in brief.

Question 16.
Explain any five problems of rural settlements in developing countries of the world.

Question 17.
Describe the uneven distribution of mineral and energy resources of India with suitable examples.

Question 18.
When was National Water Policy undertaken? Mention its key features.

Question 19.
Explain the problems caused by urban waste disposal in India.

Question 20.
“Despite the setback caused by the partition, Indian ports continued to grow after the independence.” Support the statement with examples.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A large country of North-America in area.
(B) An area of subsistence gathering.
(C) The terminal station of a trans-continental Railway.
(D) A major sea port.
(E) An international airport.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following live features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) The most urbanised state (2011).
(ii) A leading cotton producing state.
(iii) The software technology park located in Punjab.
(iv) The major coal field located in Chhattisgarh.
(v) The international airport located in Karnataka.

Answers

Answer 1.
Africa.

Answer 2.
The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the sex ratio.

Answer 3.
(i) Trade
(ii) Transport communication.

Answer 4.
Human settlement means cluster of dwellings of any type of size where human beings live.

Answer 5.
The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the central government are known as the National highways.

Answer 6.
Secunderabad.

Answer 7.
(i) Erosion
(ii) Land slides.

Answer 8.
Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.
– Concepts of friction and heat helped us discover fire.
– Similarly, understanding of the secrets of DNA and genetics enabled us to conquer many diseases.
– We use the laws of aerodynamics to develop faster planes.

Answer 9.
(i) Access to resources
(ii) Health
(iii) Education

Answer 10.
(i) Foot loose industries relocated in a wide variety of places.
(ii) They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise.
(iii) They largely dependent on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and employ a small labour force.

Answer 11.
(i) It is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
(ii) They move from one place to another along with their livestock depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
(iii) Each nomadic community occupies a well identified territory as a matter of tradition.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening for Rain water harvesting.
(ii) Provision for the distribution of safe drinking water facilities and fodder and water for cattle.
(iii) Cooperation in all respect.

Answer 13.
(i) Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called metropolitan cities.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh
(iii) (a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh

Answer 14.
(A) Characteristics of water transport:
(i) Water transportation does not require route construction.
(ii) The oceans are linked with each other and are negotiable with ships of various sizes.
(iii) It is much cheaper because the friction transportation than others. Its energy cost is lower.

(B) The traffic is faster on the Cape of Good Hope Sea route because:
(i) Limited development.
(ii) Very long sea route amongst the countries of Asia and Europe:

Answer 15.
Basis of International Trade:
(i) Difference in national resources.
(ii) Population factors—size, distribution and diversity.
(iii) Stage of economic development,
(iv) Extent of foreign investment.
(v) Transport development.

Answer 16.
Problems:
(i) Supply of water is not adequate.
(ii) Water borne disease such as cholera and jaundice tend to be a common problem.
(iii) Crop cultivation sequences in the absence of irrigation also suffer.
(iv) Absence of toilet and garbage disposal facilities cause health related problems.
(v) Difficult to provide adequate health and educational infrastructure for their large rural population.

Answer 17.
Distribution of Minerals and Energy resources:
(i) Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.
(ii) Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the Valley of Damodar, Son, Mahanadi and Godavari.
(iii) Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and Mumbai High.
(iv) Most of the major mineral resources occur to the east of a line linking Mangalore and Kanpur.
(v) Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India:
(1) The North-Eastern Plateau Region.
(2) The South-Western Plateau Region.
(3) The North-Western Region.

Answer 18.
The National Water Policy was undertaken in 2002. Priorities broadly in the following order:
Drinking water, irrigation, hydro power, navigation, industrial and other uses.

Key features:
(i) Irrigation and multi-purpose projects should invariably include drinking water component wherever there is no alternative source of drinking water.
(ii) Providing drinking water to all human beings and animals should be the first priority.
(iii) Measures should be taken to limit and regulate the exploitation of groundwater.
(iv) Both surface and groundwater should be regularly monitored for quality. A phased programme should be undertaken for improving water quality.
(v) The efficiency of utilisation in all the diverse uses of water should be improved.
(vi) Awareness of water as a scarce resource should be fostered.
(vii) Conservation consciousness should be promoted through education, regulation, incentives and disincentives. (Any Four)

Answer 19.
(i) The huge turnout of ashes and debris from industries, thermal power houses and building
construction have posed problems of serious consequences.
(ii) Solid wastes cause health hazard through creation of obnoxious smell, and harbouring of flies and rodents which act as carriers of diseases like typhoid, diphtheria, diarrhoea, malaria and cholera.
(iii) Wastes cause frequent nuisances and when these are carelessly handled spread by wind and spread through rain water.
(iv) The dumping of industrial waste into rivers leads to water pollution.
(v) River pollution from city based industries and untreated sewage leads to serious health problems downstream.

Answer 20.
Development of Indian Sea Ports:
(i) Today Indian ports are handling large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade.
(ii) Most of the ports are equipped with modem infrastructure.
(iii) Previously the development and modernisation was the responsibility of the government agencies.
(iv) Considering the increase in function and need to bring these ports at par with the international ports; private entrepreneurs have been invited for the modernisation of ports in India.
(v) The capacity of Indian ports increased from 20 million tonnes of cargo handling in 1951 to more than 586 million tonnes in 2008-09.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

• This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

1. Suspense was over when my high school results finally came out. But I was upset. I hadn’t done as well as I had expected. My father tried to console me. “Why are you worried? You have done very well my dear.” “No, I haven’t, Baba,” I protested, controlling my tears, and wondering if I had disappointed him. “It doesn’t really matter,” he assured me. “Do you know what I got when I finished high school ?” I looked into Baba’s face and waited for the answer to his own question. ‘You know,” he told me. “I’ve never told you this. I got just a third division. But, look at me, I’ve done quite well.” Baba got a third division! I was almost in shock, but the thought of my having done a lot better than that made me realize that I had no reason to complain. I certainly felt better! “Everything is under control!” said Baba, smiling. That was his favourite phrase. Posted in Kolkata, my father was then a senior official in the Indian Railway Service, and an expert in goods traffic operations. He was soon to become a director with the Railway Board. By the time he retired in 1981, he was general manager of the Central Railways. By the time Baba passed away in November 2000, his name had found place in several hearts as well. He was open, easy to know, and full of life. We were extremely close, but I had so much more to learn about him from many things I came to know after his death.

2. In September 2000, he was in hospital for treatment of cancer and given just two months to live. When he found out, his reaction was an extremely rational one. He asked me to fetch files from his cupboard, so that he could explain the details of my mother’s pension. He also dictated his will from his hospital bed. “Everything is under control!” After Baba’s death, Satish, our old family retainer, was inconsolable. We tried to cheer him up. “Your Baba had scolded me only once in all these years!” he cried. Satish pointed to the watch on his left hand. “I had been coming late for work and everyone in the family was complaining about it,” said Satish. “Then, one day, your Baba gave me this watch and told me, ‘now that you have a watch, you can’t be late’.” That was the scolding Satish received. On the fourth day after Baba’s death, my sister and I had to perform a ceremony. Since several relatives were expected, we decided to order lunch from a caterer in our locality, reputed for his home cooked food. But, when we went to pay the owner, we got a surprise. He refused to accept any money! “When I wanted to start my catering business, it was your father who lent me money,” he told us. It seems Baba never asked for it back. Now, after four or five years, the caterer wanted to repay that debt. Of course, we made him accept the full payment for the fine food and service. ‘It was Baba’s gift and it ought to remain so,” I told him.

3. Some days later, there was yet another piece of information as we were preparing for the main ceremony. Vikram, my brother drove me to the local market. On recognizing our car, the parking assistant, in his twenties, came running towards us and asked why he had not seen its owner for long. We had to break the news to him and to our utter surprise, he started crying. We were really surprised by this reaction from a stranger – until the man told us that Baba used to pay his daughter’s school fees and buy her books. It seems, it was on my father’s advice that he’d even started sending the child to school. More than three years after Baba’s death, as we were looking into Baba’s personal things, we came across an old file with Baba’s certificates and I found among them, his high school diploma from 1937, the one he’d told me about 30 years earlier, about the third division that had made no difference in his life or career. It had made me see beyond mere marks and first classes as the main road to success. But there was one more fact. Baba had actually got a first division, a rare achievement in his day. Today, . years after his passing, when I think of Baba, I see a man who was able to sympathise with others so easily and touch their lives in such a special way. (Delhi (C) 2015)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

(a) Why was the narrator in tears when her school results came out?

1. She did better than she expected.
2. She did not do as expected.
3. Her Baba had not done well.
4. Her Baba had done better than her.

(b) On knowing the result, how did the narrator’s father react?

1. He scolded her.
2. He beat her.
3. He consoled her.
4. He made fun of her.

(c) Why did the narrator say that she had nothing to complain?

1. She had done better than her father.
2. She had done as well as her father.
3. She had topped in her school.
4. She had not worked hard at all.

(d) Choose the option that is not correct.

1. Baba was a senior official in the Indian Railway Service.
2. Baba was to become a director with the Railway Board.
3. Baba was the general manager of the Central Railways.
4. Baba had got a third division in high school.

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(e) Why did the narrator’s sick father want her to fetch files from his cupboard ?
(f) Why did Baba buy Satish a watch ?
(g) Why did the caterer not want to take money from the narrator ?
(h) Why were the narrator and her brother surprised on meeting the parking assistant?
(i) Today years after his passing away what has the narrator realized about her Baba?
(j) What was the story that Baba had invented on the day the narrator’s results were published ?

III. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) tension/anxiety (para 1)
(b) servant (para 2)

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10 Marks)

1. We often make all things around us the way we want them. Even during our pilgrimages we have begun to look for whatever makes our heart happy, gives comfort to our body and peace to the mind. It is as if external solutions will fulfil our needs, and we do not want to make any special efforts even in our spiritual search. Our mind is resourceful- it works to find shortcuts in simple and easy ways.

2. Even pilgrimages have been converted into tourism opportunities. Instead, we must awaken our conscience and souls and understand the truth. Let us not tamper with either our own nature or that of the Supreme.

3. All our cleverness is rendered ineffective when nature does a dance of destruction. Its fury can and will wash away all imperfections. Indian culture, based on Vedic treatises, assists in human evolution, but we are now using our entire energy in distorting these traditions according to our convenience instead of making efforts to make ourselves worthy of them.

4. The irony is that humans are not even aware of the complacent attitude they have allowed themselves to sink to. Nature is everyone’s Amma and her fierce blows will sooner or later corner us and force us to understand this truth. Earlier, pilgrimages to places of spiritual significance were rituals that were undertaken when people became free from their worldly duties. Even now some seekers take up this pious religious journey as a path to peace and knowledge. Anyone travelling with this attitude feels and travels with only a few essential items that his body can carry. Pilgrims traditionally travelled light, on foot, eating light, dried chickpeas and fruits, or whatever was available. Pilgrims of olden days did not feel the need to stay in special AC bedrooms, or travel by luxury cars or indulge themselves with delicious food and savouries.

5. Pilgrims traditionally moved ahead, creating a feeling of belonging towards all, conveying a message of brotherhood among all they came across whether in small caves, ashrams or local settlements. They received the blessings and congregations of yogis and mahatmas in return while conducting the dharma of their pilgrimage. A pilgrimage is like penance or sadhana to stay near nature and to experience a feeling of oneness with it, to keep the body healthy and fulfilled with the amount of food, while seeking freedom from attachments and yet remaining happy while staying away from relatives and associates.

6. This is how a pilgrimage should be rather than making it like a picnic by taking a large group along and living in comfort, packing in entertainment, and tampering with environment. What is worse is giving a boost to the ego of having had a special darshan. Now alms are distributed, charity done while they brag about their spiritual experiences!

7. We must embark on our spiritual journey by first understanding the grace and significance of a pilgrimage and following it up with the prescribed rules and rituals — this is what translates into the ultimate and beautiful medium of spiritual evolution. There is no justification for tampering with nature.

8. A pilgrimage is symbolic of contemplation and meditation and acceptance, and is a metaphor for the constant growth or movement and love for nature that we should hold in our hearts.

9. This is the truth! (Delhi 2015)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) How can a pilgrim keep his body healthy?

1. By travelling light
2. By eating small amount of food
3. By keeping free from attachments
4. Both (i) and (ii)

(b) How do we satisfy our ego?

1. By having a special darshan
2. By distributing alms
3. By treating it like a picnic
4. Both (i) and (ii)

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(c) What change has taken place in our attitude towards pilgrimages?
(d) What happens when pilgrimages are turned into picnics?
(e) Why are we complacent in our spiritual efforts?
(f) How does nature respond when we try to be clever with it?
(g) In olden days with what attitude did people go on a pilgrimage?
(h) What message does the passage convey to the pilgrims?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) made / turned (para 3)
(b) very satisfied (para 4)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

More than a century ago, some countries had no police force. Local leaders devised their own methods of ensuring that their orders were carried out and fulfilled. The offender was not given a second chance to repeat his mistake for he was either killed or hunted out of the district.

In England the modern police force grew largely from an unofficial body gathered together by a London magistrate. He found that it was practically impossible to apprehend any of the criminals in his area unless he deployed some men secretly to detect and hunt the culprits.

These unofficial constables had to patrol one large district. They looked upon their position largely as an honorary one and had very little power. Worse still they were sometimes corrupt men themselves for they would conveniently look the other way round in times of trouble, like theft, hooliganism and vandalism.

Magistrate fielding enrolled a few men whom he could explicitly trust and employed them to catch the thieves and other undesirable persons. The majority of the people resented what they thought was a threat to their liberties, intrusion on their privacies and above all spying on them. They maintained that they should have every right to drink themselves to death with any form of alcohol, as so many of them did. They thought too that they should be allowed to quarrel, to fight and even kill amongst themselves. The situation was made worse by the fact that the penalties for offences were very heavy in those days and man could be hanged for the theft of some unimportant thing. Arrest by the magistrate’s men could bring disastrous results.

Contrary to general feeling, the authorities gradually admitted that these early policemen were vitally necessary, after much discussion, argument and persuasion, the government secretly agreed to re-imburse the magistrate for the men he employed. This step was not made public lest it should be thought that the government was planting spies amidst its people. Eventually the public came to look upon the police with a more friendly spirit as the benefits became more noticeable. At long last, men and women could walk along the streets by day and even by night without fear of robbery and other acts of violence. Hitherto, the people were free to do practically anything-good or bad, irrespective of the possible consequences, as the police force built up. The people gave up their freedom to commit evil deeds so that they might have a greater freedom to do good so as to enable one and all to enjoy life peacefully and harmoniously.

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)

B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
An inter class drama competition is to be held in St. Stephens School, Vishakhapatnam. As Akash, head boy of the school, draft a notice to be put up on the school notice board inviting entries in about 50 words. Provide all necessary details. (Delhi (C) 2015) (4 Marks)
OR
You are Varsha/Varun, Secretary, Inlingua Institute. The institute is going to start fresh batches in foreign languages shortly. Write a classified advertisement for a local daily announcing the courses in not more than 50 words. Give relevant details.

Question 5.
Along with air and water pollution, our cities are also under attack of noise pollution. Marriage, DJ’s during wedding receptions, loud music from neighbourhood flats, etc. are all sources of noise which is not good for the old, the ailing and students. Write a letter in 120-150 words to the editor of a local newspaper describing the problem and making a request to the concerned authorities to solve it. You are Karan/Karuna, M 114, Mall road, Delhi. (All India 2016) (6 Marks)
OR
You are Karan/Karuna, pursuing a course in tourism from YMCA, Delhi. You recently saw an advertisement offering a limited period discounted trip to Paris. Write a letter to Thomas Cook Travels enquiring about the trip and giving your requirements.

Question 6.
Brain drain is a bane for India. Write an article on it for the school magazine in 150- 200 words. You are the head boy of Salwan Public School, Delhi. (10 Marks)
OR
On Teacher’s Day your principal has asked you to deliver a speech in the morning assembly on ‘The Role of Teachers in a Society’. Write a speech in 150¬200 words. You are Navtej/Navita. (Foreign 2015)

Question 7.
You are Nitin/Navya. You have to participate in a debate for the motion, ‘Westernization has eroded Indian culture’. Write this debate in 150-200 words. (10 Marks)
OR
You are Pari/ Rakesh of Bluebells Academy, Delhi. As the reporter for your school magazine write a report on the Annual Inter School English Debate that was organized in your school recently in about 150 -200 words. Include relevant points like inauguration, venue, participants, etc.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow: (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

At back of the dim class
One unnoted, sweet and young. His eyes live in a dream,
Of squirrel’s game, in the tree room, other than this. (Foreign 2015)

(a) Why is the class dim?
(b) Why is the child called ‘sweet and young’?
(c) What does the child want to enjoy?
(d) What is the significance of the phrase ‘other than this’?

OR

And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read:
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink. (Delhi (C) 2015)

(a) Name the poem.
(b) Who are the ‘mighty dead’ referred to here?
(c) What is the endless fountain of immortal drink?
(d) What does the word ‘brink’ mean?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each : (4 × 3 = 12 Marks)

(a) What does the line ‘Therefore are we wreathing a flowery band to bind us to earth’ suggest to you? (NCERT)
(b) What symbol from nature does the poet involve to say that there can be life under apparent stillness? (NCERT)
(c) What is the misadventure that William Douglas speaks about?
(d) Garbage to them is gold. Why does the author say so about the rag pickers? (Delhi 2008)
(e) Why is Rajkumar Shukla described as being ‘resolute’? (NCERT)
(f) What precautions and arrangements were made for the smooth conducting of the examination and providing Evans with no means of escape?

Question 10.
To be grateful is the virtue of a gentleman. How did the peddler show his gratitude to Edla? (Delhi (C) 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
“It is his Karam, his destiny that made Mukesh’s grandfather go blind.” How did Mukesh disprove this belief by choosing a new vocation and making his own destiny? (Delhi (C) 2015)

Question 11.
How did Jack end Roger Skunk story? How and why did Jo want to change it? (120-150 words) (All India 2016) (6 Marks)
OR
What change took place in Derry when he met Mr. Lamb?(120-150 words) (Delhi (C) 2015)

Question 12.
After reading the novel, The Invisible Man, what opinion do you form of Dr. Kemp? (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
How do William Dane’s deceit and Sara’s desertion affect Silas? (120-150 words) (All India 2016)

Question 13.
Describe Dolly Winthrop as the most lovable character in George Eliot’s ‘Silas Mamer’. (120-150 words) (Delhi 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
Attempt a character sketch of Marvel. (120-150 words) (Delhi 2015)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.

I. (a) (ii) She did not do as expected.
(b) (iii) He consoled her.
(c) (i) She had done better than her father.
(d) (iv) Baba had got third division in high school.

II. (e) The narrator’s sick father wanted her to fetch files from the cupboards as he wanted to explain to her the details of her mother’s pension. if) Baba bought a watch for Satish so that he would never be late.
(g) The caterer did not want to take money from the narrator because he felt indebted to Baba as he had helped him financially to start his business.
(h) The narrator and her brother were surprised on meeting the parking assistant as he started crying on hearing about Baba’s demise. Actually, Baba had been helping him by paying his daughter’s school fees and buying her books.
(i) Years after passing away of Baba, the narrator realized that baba was a deeply sympathetic man and touched people’s lives in a special way.
(j) On the day the narrator’s results were published Baba had invented the story that he had got third division and yet had done so well in his career.

III. (a) suspense (b) retainer

Answer 2.

I. (a) (ii) By eating small amount of food
(b) (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

II. (c) Today we see pilgrimages as picnics.
(d) When pilgrimage is seen as a picnic, spiritual significance is not understood. Comforts, food, AC rooms and entertainment become more important than spiritual activities.
(e) We are complacent in our spiritual efforts because we are materialistic and listen to our ego.
(f) Nature responds with fury and natural disasters can wipe away humans.
(g) In olden days people went on pilgrimages with humility and grace. They understood the spiritual significance of the pilgrimage and respected nature.
(h) The passage conveys the message that pilgrimage should be done for contemplation, meditation and acceptance.

III. (a) rendered (b) complacent

Answer 3.

A. TITLE: Rise of Police Force in England
NOTES :

1. A century ago
(a) no police force
(b) local leaders devised their own methods for law and order
(c) extreme punishments
(i) death (ii) exile

2. Modern police force
(a) by effrts of fielding a magistrt
(b) deployed trustworthy men secretly to catch culprits

3. Duties of constables
(a) patrolling
(b) catch undesirable men

4. Reaction of the people
(a) resented constables as
(i) threat to their freedom
(ii) threat to their rights

5. Authorities’ decision
(a) constle role crucial
(b) secretly agreed to pay them

6. Effects of the decision
(a) ppl became friendly to police
(b) law and order became better
(c) less fear of vio
(d) led to peaceful life for citizens

B. SUMMARY

A century ago there was no police force in England. Leaders devised their own methods to curb crime. Culprits were either killed or exiled. Trustworthy men employed by a magistrate were fielded to keep vigilance on culprits. These men would patrol and nab undesirable men. People saw these constables as impinging on their rights and liberties. However the authorities upheld the practice recognizing that constables were crucial for peace. Gradually when the law and order bettered and people led safer lives, they became friendly to the police.

Key to Abbreviations
effrts : efforts
magistrt : magistrate
constle : constable
ppl : people
vio : violence

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

M 114
Mall Road
Delhi
September 5, 20××
The Editor
Times of India
New Delhi

Sub: Noise pollution caused by excessive noise.

Dear Sir

I beg to draw your kind attention to the fact that along with air and water pollution, our cities are also under attack of noise pollution. Marriage, DJ’s during wedding receptions, loud music from neighbourhood flats, etc. are all sources of noise. Nobody seems to realize that noisy activities are not only stressful but against the norms of civic behaviour.

High levels of noise may cause dull hearing and ringing in the ears. Regular high level noise exposures lead to loss of hearing and other adverse health effects.

Noise is very harmful for the old and the ailing who are in need of peace and quiet. Excessive noise also distracts the students especially during examination days. Recently I had to take my preboard class 12 examinations. I had immense problem concentrating at night because our neighbours had organized a ‘jagrata’ lasting the entire night.Every year a prohibitory order is issued for banning the use of loudspeakers at late night but the question is that who will enforce it?

I request you to ban the use of loudspeakers totally for a period of two months so that the students can prepare well for their examination. I also wish that the law is enforced strictly at all times. Lastly the people need to be sensitized to the harms of noise pollution I request you to publish this letter in your prestigious daily so that the concerned authorities will take note of the distressing rise in noise pollution.

Thank you
Yours sincerely
Karan

OR

YMCA
Rajiv Chowk
Delhi
9 th September, 20××
The Manager
Thomas and Cook
Barakhamba Road

Sub: Inquiry about a trip to Paris

Dear Sir/Madam,

We are doing a vocational course in tourism from YMCA, Delhi. We were surfing on the internet when we came across an advertisement offering a limited period offer of a trip to Paris in your website. We are a group of five and are very interested in visiting Paris because we have Christmas holidays from 25th December to 5th January. We haven’t got a lot of information about the trip and we would like to know more about it. Our queries are listed below:

What does the tour include?

What kind of accommodation will we have?

Will there be a guide on the tour?

In particular, we would like to visit the most important monuments such as the Eiffel Tower or Versailles.

We will be grateful if you send us a brochure at your earliest.

Yours faithfully
Karan

Answer 6.
According to a UN definition, the flight of talent that is required for a country’s development, to another country is called brain drain. It was with great effort and high hopes that we set up our institutes of higher education. It is unfortunate that thousands of our doctors and engineers are leaving the country every year.

We have a large pool of scientific and technical manpower that is waiting for respectable assignments. Several thousand engineering graduates are waiting for employment. Some feel that they are under-employed, so they migrate to countries wherever they find better opportunities. It is also the grievance of some of them that they do not have adequate facilities and a congenial environment for work or research in this country.

The human resources department of the government has laid stress on the evolution of suitable mechanism to bring back and woo talent from other countries. The government must think in terms of instituting a compulsory national service for a limited period of time. The basic facilities congenial for research and education should be provided in the institutions so that our technical graduates do not feel ill-at-ease in their own set-up. Let every graduate realize that he has a duty towards the country that educated him.

OR

A very good morning to the Principal, respected teachers and my dear friends.

We are here today to celebrate a most revered occasion of Teacher’s Day. It is an honorable occasion for the students of India. It is observed every year to pay respect to the teachers. So, dear friends come on and join this celebration to pay a hearty respect to our own teachers. Teachers are the backbone of our society because they contribute to building our characters, shaping our future and help us to be ideal citizens of the country. Teacher’s Day is celebrated all across the India every year on 5th of September to pay tribute to teachers. Teacher’s Day is an occasion to pay tribute and gratitude to teachers for their continuous, selfless and precious efforts in shaping the future. They enrich the quality of education system in the country and improve it. Our teachers teach us from their hearts. As students we need inspiration and motivation which we get amply from our teachers.

They prepare us to tackle life through knowledge and patience.

Dear teachers, we are and will be always grateful to you!

Thank you

Answer 7.
Indian culture, which is one of the oldest and richest cultures, is nowadays posing a serious threat as western culture is establishing its strong base in India and slowly and gradually wiping the Indian culture.

One of the esteemed members of the jury I, Navya stand before you to debate for the motion that westernization has eroded Indian culture.

Westernization has affected our traditions, customs, family and our respect and love for others. The concept of joint families is fast declining and everyone wants to remain aloof from others. Nobody now bothers about others which is totally contradictory to our Indian culture which teaches us to love and share. Westernization has given rise to single families. Marriages are fast breaking and our tolerance and patience are at an end. In today’s scenario where both husband and wife are working, there is no one at home to look after their children or to instill ‘sanskaras’ in them. In majority of case the children prefer to remain away from their parents which is very unfortunate. It is unfortunate that today’s generation has little knowledge about their culture and their roots. This is the mistake of their parents who fail to enlighten their children.

Contradictory to it, parents feel proud in giving the western sanskaras to their children. Unless adults initiate educating their children, they will remain miles away from Indian culture.

OR

Bluebells Academy Hosts Inter-School English Debate
By Rakesh

Delhi, 13th September: Bluebells Academy organized an annual interschool debate competition on 12th September, 20xx. The programme was organized in the spacious auditorium of the school. Twenty four prestigious schools of Delhi and NCR participated enthusiastically in the much awaited debate.

The programme began with the lighting of the lamp. The principal Ms Navya Doshi introduced the chief guest and the three esteemed judges. The chief guest for the programme was Mr. J.M Goel, former ambassador to Thailand. The judges were Mr. M.K. Rana, a professor of English at JNU, Ms Kajal Banneiji, renowned columnist and Ms Lalitha Lalwani, professor at Jamia Milia University.

The participants debated enthusiastically on the motion-Examinations are not a true reflection of a student’s ability’. They also interjected other speakers. The best team prize was bagged by Rajmal Pubilc School. The first two prizes were bagged by Nitin and Mohan of Rajmal Public School, while the third was secured by Suhana of SLF Public School, Noida. They received attractive prizes. The judges congratulated the winners heartily. The chief guest remarked, “It was an honour to be part of such a prestigious debate.” The programme ended with a vote of thanks proposed by-the principal.

Answer 8.

(a) ‘The class is dimly and insufficiently lit. That’s the reason that it has been referred to as ‘dim’.
(b) The child is innocent and indeed young as he belongs to an elementary class.
(c) The child wishes to enjoy watching the squirrel’s play outside. Perhaps he too wishes to be outside in a tree house.
(d) The child dreams of being outside, anywhere except in the confines of the dull and dim classroom.

OR

(a) The poem is A Thing of Beauty by John Keats
(b) The mighty dead are the ancient powerful and brave men who did noble deeds in the past. But now they are dead.
(c) The beautiful things mentioned in the poem are the endless fountain of immortal drink.
(d) The word ‘brink’ means ‘edge’ of heaven.

Answer 9.

(a) We know that this world is often not a happy planet to stay on. From birth to death, it is full of suffering and pain. These things depress our spirits. But God has provided us several things of beauty that pour love and happiness to our depressed feelings. These objects of beauty are like a ‘flowery band’ that keeps us bound to the earth.

(b) The poet does not want us to confuse stillness with total inactivity. There is life under apparent stillness. He quotes the example of the Earth which is active round the clock. Thus the poet involves the Earth as a living symbol to prove his point. When everything seems dead, the Earth proves to be alive under apparent stillness, the nature remains at work and thus keeps the Earth alive.

(c) The narrator was at the Y.M.C.A. pool. He had decided to learn to swim. Suddenly a strongly built boy of eighteen came. He teased the narrator and finally tossed him into water. Very soon he went to the bottom. He struggled to come up but couldn’t. He felt paralysed and suffocated. He was nearly drowned.

(d) For the ragpickers of Seemapuri, garbage is nothing less than gold. It is their ‘daily bread’. For the children it is wrapped in wonder. Sometimes they find a ten-rupee note or even a silver coin in a heap of garbage. For the elders it is a means of survival.

(e) Rajkumar Shukla is described as being ‘resolute’ because he was fully determined to take Gandhi to Bihar. Being an illiterate and poor share cropper from Champaran, he had come to apprise and complain to Gandhi about the injustice of the landlord system in Bihar. He met Gandhi in the Lucknow session of the Congress. He was committed to accompany Gandhi everywhere. Gandhi was very much impressed by his tenacity and fixed time for him in Calcutta. Months passed in waiting. Shukla was sitting at the haunches at the fixed place in Calcutta, till Gandhi was free. Finally both boarded a train to Patna.

(f) The prison-staff and the Governor made all precautions for the smooth conduct of the examination. A parson, Mr. McLeery was to invigilate. Stephens and Jackson were to stand outside the locked cell. Evans’s cell was thoroughly searched for two hours. The Governor himself coordinated and supervised all the activities.

Answer 10.
It is true that thankfulness is the mark of a gentleman. Miss Willmansson had been kind to the peddler all day long, as if he were a captain. For the first time he had received such compassion and trust. He would have been caught in this world’s rattrap if he had not been raised to a captain. That gave power to him to redeem himself. Miss Willmansson found a rattrap and in it lay three wrinkled ten kroner notes. In the rattrap lay a letter. It was addressed to her. She was praised for being so nice to the peddler. Miss Willmansson was full of joy. The peddler returned the stolen 30 kronors to be given to the rightful owner. She also got a rattrap as a Christmas present from him. Thus in showing his gratitude to Edla he proved how he could be as dignified as a captain.

OR

Despite long years of hard labour, Mukesh’s father couldn’t renovate his house nor was he able to send his two sons to school. Mukesh’s grandmother said that it was in his ‘karam’ or destiny to suffer in poverty. But still they couldn’t change their ‘God-given lineage’. Born in the caste of bangle-makers they learnt nothing else except making bangles. Though Mukesh belonged to a poor family of bangle-makers, he dared to challenge his fate. He was determined to be a motor mechanic. He didn’t dream of flying a machine but a car on the roads of Firozabad. It is heartening to see that at least somebody tried to break the shackles of the debilitating mentality of the older generation. With hard work and focus Mukesh could indeed be successful.

Answer 11.
In Jack’s story Roger Skunk’s mommy was very furious that the wizard had made Roger smell like roses. She went straight to the wizard. She took an umbrella and hit that wizard right over his head. Then the wizard was ready to do what she wanted. Roger Skunk did not smell of roses any more. He smelled very bad again, just like a skunk. Jo was unhappy that the hero of the story Roger Skunk was made to smell very bad again. Roger’s mommy wanted it to happen. Jo wanted that the stupid mommy should have been punished. The wizard should have taken the magic wand and hit it very hard on her head. Jo wanted her little hero to smell of roses. The conflict arose because of different perspectives of an adult and a child. While Jack felt compelled to show loyalty to his own mother, Jo felt loyalty for the baby skunk’s peer group with which she identified.

OR

Derry is withdrawn and defiant. He hates people. Acid had burnt one side of his face . This creates an inferiority complex in his mind. When he looks in the mirror and sees it, he is afraid of himself. He thinks that no one will ever kiss him. Only his mother kisses him and that too on the other side of his face. Mr Lamb is a physically challenged man. He has a tin leg. Children call him ‘Lamey Lamb’. But Mr Lamb never minds such things. He has a positive attitude towards life. Mr Lamb’s meeting with Derry brings a turning point in Derry’s life. He gives confidence to Derry. He counsels him that he can get better than rest of the people and that hatred burns one’s inside. Mr Lamb brings a change in Derry’s life. He develops confidence to face the world in a more positive way.

Answer 12.
Dr Kemp is the perfect foil for the maniacal Griffin. Kemp continues his own study in the hope of being admitted to “the Royal Fellows.” His own experiments and fascination with science enable him to listen sensibly to Griffin, but his common sense and decency prevent him from being a part of Griffin’s scheme as he is able to see the evil in them. He betrays Griffin to the police. Kemp is also a calm and practical person in the town once the final attack begins. He runs to escape Griffin, but as soon as Griffin catches him, he has the presence of mind to turn the capture around. He is also the first to realize that even though Griffin is invisible, he is injured, and, ultimately, dead Griffin hopes that Kemp would help him spread the reign of terror, but Kemp is too ethical to join him.

OR

The deceit of William Dane, his close friend leaves Silas disillusioned. On top of that Sarah’s desertion leaves him heartbroken and bitter. He shuts himself up and makes no effort to defend himself in front of Sarah. His faith in God was shaken . He took refuge in his work and devoted himself to it. When he receives the message that Sarah has broken his engagement to him, he responds with silence and resumes his work of weaving. Within a month he gets news of Sarah’s marriage to William Dane. Thus heartbroken and faithless he left for Raveloe where he remains a mystery.

Answer 13.
Dolly is the wheelwright’s wife who helps Silas with Eppie. Dolly later becomes Eppie’s godmother and mother-in-law. She is a kind, patient woman who aids Silas greatly. She first visits him in Raveloe, bringing him a plate of cakes with the initials I.H.S. on them and begging him to at least give up weaving on Sunday. When Silas starts caring for Eppie, Dolly advises him how to care for a child. Later, she becomes Eppie’s godmother and Silas’s trusted advisor in religion and life. Silas goes to seek her advice whenever he has a problem, whether it concerns Eppie’s welfare or his past. Dolly makes him see that he should trust the world. She represents Raveloe’s community spirit and has real concern for others. She is not a stereotyped character. Through her discussions with Silas, she comes across as a convincing personality, slow in thought but steady in faith.

OR

Marvel is a tramp whom Griffin frightens into aiding him. Marvel is short, fat, and a loner. Marvel is something of a stock comical character when we first meet him. He’s a poor, homeless, jobless wanderer, in other words, he’s a vagabond. He wears a shabby, old-fashioned clothes, like his “obsolete hat”, and he has buttons replaced by pieces of string to tie his coat. He is the area tramp. The narrator goes so far as to tell us that he does everything in a leisurely manner. He doesn’t seem to like work or excitement Griffin tries to use as an accomplice. Mr. Griffin perhaps also thinks that he is a little stupid and will thus not be able to resist and will not be believed even if he tries to tell anyone about his predicament. He even thinks of resigning from his job but in vain. Surprisingly he ends up owning an inn and in possession of Griffin’s money and books.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Name any two densely populated regions of the world with more than 200 persons living on every sq km.

Question 2.
Give two reasons for unfavourable sex-ratio in the world.

Question 3.
Name two member nations of SAFTA.

Question 4.
Which is the most significant aspect of human development?

Question 5.
Enumerate the factors responsible for slower growth rate of population in India since 1981.

Question 6.
Explain one reason for Kerala’s highest value in Human Development Index.

Question 7.
Mention the two factors which have adversely influenced Bharmaur Tribal region of Himachal Pradesh.

Question 8.
“There is a direct dependence of human beings on nature for resources which sustain them.” Justify the statement by giving any three points in the light of environmental determinism.

Question 9.
Find out the reasons for the countries with low Human Development Index value. Mention three reasons.

Question 10.
Explain three problems of slums in India.

Question 11.
Study the following figure carefully and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Why do higher numbers of females migrate from rural to rural in both the diagrams?
(ii) Why is the male migration higher from rural to urban in second diagram?
(iii) Distinguish between Intra-state migration and Inter-state migration.

Question 12.
What is a metropolitan city? Give two reasons for its becoming a metropolitan.

Question 13.
By which human values can be the purity of water maintained?

Question 14.
Describe any five salient features of Dairy Farming.

Question 15.
Classify the industries on the basis of raw materials with at least one example of each. Explain in detail.

Question 16.
Explain the types of rural settlements on the basis of forms and shapes of the settlements.

Question 17.
Explain types of ports on the basis of specialised functions.

Question 18.
Why are the iron ore mines an added advantage for industrial development in India? Mention any two types of iron ore which are found in India fairly in abundance. Name the states where 95% of total reserves of iron ore is located.

Question 19.
Explain any five problems faced by Indian agriculture.

Question 20.
“Indian railways network facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contribute to the growth of Indian economy.” Explain the statement by citing the improvement made by Indian Railways so far.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A country with large area in Asia.
(B) A major area of subsistence gathering.
(C) The terminal station of a Trans-Continental Railway.
(D) A major sea port(E)An international airport.

Question 22.
Locate and label the.following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) The state having the highest rank in Human Development in India.
(ii) The leading producer state of groundnut.
(iii) The software technology park located in Odisha.
(iv) The major coal field located in Tamil Nadu
(v) An international airport located in Assam.

Answers

Answer 1.
(a) North Eastern part of U.S.A.
(b) North Western part of Europe.
(c) South, South-East and East Asia.

Answer 2.
(a) Female foeticide
(b) Female infanticide
(c) Domestic violence against women
(d) Lower socio-economic status of women.

Answer 3.
They are Bangladesh, Maldives, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Pakistan and Sri-Lanka.

Answer 4.
Education and Healthy life.

Answer 5.
(i) Decline in crude birth rate.
(ii) Increase in the mean age at marriage.

Answer 6.
(i) High literacy rate.

Answer 7.
(i) Harsh climate conditions.
(ii) Low-resource base.

Answer 8.
(i) Low level of technology and primitive stage of human social development.
(ii) Fear of nature’s fury and Nature worship.
(iii) Physical environment became ‘Mother Nature.’

Answer 9.
(i) Political turmoil and social instability in the form of civil war.
(ii) Hunger, starvation and famine, a high incidence of diseases.
(iii) More expenditure on defence rather than social sectors.

Answer 10.
(i) Jhuggi-Jhopari clusters and colonies of shanty structure-areas of least choice, dilapidated houses.
(ii) Overcrowded with narrow street pattern prone to serious hazards like fire.
(iii) The poverty makes slum people vulnerable to drug abuse, alcoholism, crime, vandalism, escapism, apathy and ultimately death.

Answer 11.
(i) Higher number of females migrate from rural to mral areas as they move from their parental house following their marriage.
(ii) Male migration is higher from rural to urban areas in case of inter-state migration as economic reasons like work and employment are the chief cause.
(iii) Intra-state migration: People move from one place to another within a state : e.g. Agra to Lucknow.
Intra-state migration: People move from one state to another, e.g. Lucknow to Mumbai.

Answer 12.
(i) Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called metropolitan cities.
Reasons for becoming metropolitan city:
(i) Population growth and migration from nearby adjoining areas.
(ii) Education and employment opportunities and better medical facilities. Transport and Communication facilities also available.

Answer 13.
(i) Awakening
(ii) Cooperation
(iii) Eco-friendly

Answer 14.
(i) Dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals.
(ii) Capital: It is highly capital-intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines add to the cost of dairy farming. Cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services require huge amount of capital.
(iii) Labour: It is highly labour-intensive as it involves rigorous care in feeding and milching. No off-season throughout the year. Labourers get ample employment opportunities in dairy farming.
(iv) Market: Dairy farming is mainly practiced near urban and industrial centres which provide neighbourhood market for fresh milk and other dairy products.
(v) Main Regions: The largest (a) North-Western Europe, (b) Canada and North-Eastern U.S.A. (c) South-Eastern Australia, New-Zealand.

Answer 15.
(i) Agro-based Industries e.g. food processing, sugar industry, pickle and fruit juices, beverages-tea, coffee.
(ii) Mineral-based Industries e.g. Iron and steel industries, aluminum smelting, copper smelting, jewellery industry, cement industry.
(iii) Chemical based industries e.g. Petro-chemicals, salts, sulphur, potash, synthetic fibre, plastic.
(iv) Forest-based industry e.g. Furniture, paper, rubber, industry.
(v) Animal based industry e.g. Leather, Woollen textile, ivory.

Answer 16.
(i) Linear Pattern
(ii) Rectangular Pattern
(iii) Circular pattern
(iv) Star-like pattern
(v) T-shaped,Y-shaped, Cross-shaped
(vi) Double village (explain any five)

Answer 17.
(i) Oil ports
(ii) Ports of call
(iii) Pocket station
(iv) Entrepot ports
(v) Naval ports (To be explained with example)

Answer 18.
(i) The iron-ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal field in the north-eastern plateau region of the country.
(ii) Hematite and magnetite.
(iii) Reserves of Iron ore are in Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhatisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Answer 19.
(i) Dependence on erratic monsoon, low productivity.
(ii) Constraints of financial resources and indebtedness.
(iii) Lack of land reforms.
(iv) Small farm size and fragmentation of land-holding.
(v) Lack of commercialization.
(vi) Disguised unemployment and vast underemployment.
(vii) Degradation of cultivable land.

Answer 20.
(i) Conversion of meter and narrow gauge into broad gauge.
(ii) Replacing steam engines by diesel and electric engines.
(iii) Increase in speed and haulage capacity. Introduction of Metro rail.
(iv) Extension of rail routes to remote and marginalized areas. Development of Konkan Railway along the western coast; an area where landslides are very common.
(v) Computerised railway reservation system.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.