CBSE Class 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 5

Time Allowed : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions 

• All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
• This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
• Section A contains five questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains five questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains twelve questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains one value based question of 4 marks and Section E contains three questions of 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and all the 3 questions of 5 marks weightage. You have to attempt only 1 of the choices in such questions.
• You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

Questions
SECTION : A

Question 1.
The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a place is B and angle of dip is 60°. What is the value of vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at equator?

Question 2.
A heating element is marked 210 V, 630 W. What is the value of current drawn by the element when connected to a 210 V dc source?

Question 3.
Predict the directions of induced currents in metal rings 1 and 2 lying in the same plane where current I in the wire is increasing steadily.

Question 4.
Show on a graph, the variation of resistivity with temperature for a typical semiconductor.

Question 5.
Why should electrostatic field be zero inside a conductor?

SECTION : B

Question 6.
Draw a plot showing the variation of
(i) electric field (E) and
(ii) distance r due to a point charge Q.

Question 7.
Distinguish between ‘Analog and Digital signals’

OR

Mention the functions of any two of the following used in communication system :
(a) Transducer
(b) Repeater
(c) Transmitter
(d) Bandpass Filter

Question 8.
A ray of light incident on an equilateral prism (μ_g = \(\sqrt { 3 } \)) moves parallel to the base line of the prism inside it. Find the angle of incidence for this ray.

Question 9.
The susceptibility of a magnetic material is -2.6 x 10^-5. Identify the type of magnetic material and state its two properties.

Question 10.
Two identical circular wires P and Q each of radius R and carrying current ‘I’  are kept in perpendicular planes such that they have a common centre. Find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field at the common centre of the two coils.

SECTiON : C

Question 11.
A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected to two external resistance R₁ and R₂ and a perfect ammeter. The current in the circuit is measured in four different situations :
(i) without any external resistance in the circuit
(ii) with resistance R₁only
(iii) with R₁ and R₂ in series combination
(iv) with R₁ and R₂ in parallel combination.
The currents measured in the four cases are 0.42 A, 1.05 A, 1.4 A and 4.2 A, but not necessarily in the order.Identify the currents corresponding to the four cases mentioned above.

Question 12.
Define self-inductance of a coil. Show that magnetic energy required to build up the current I in a coil of self inductance L is given by 1/2 LI²

Question 13.
(a) Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern?
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. Find out the intensity of light at a point where path difference is λ/3.

Question 14.
When an ideal capacitor is charged by a dc battery, no current flows. However, when an ac source is used the current flows continuously. How does one explain this based on the concept of displacement current?

Question 15.

A rectangular loop of wire of size 4 cm x 10 cm carries a steady current of 2 A. A straight long wire carrying 5 A current is kept near the loop as shown. If the loop and the wire are coplanar,
find
(i) the torque acting on the loop and
(ii) the magnitude and direction of the force on the loop due to the current carrying wire.

Question 16.
In the figure a long uniform potentiometer wire AB is having a constant potential gradient along its length. The null points for the two primary cells of emfs ε₁ and ε₂ connected in the manner shown are obtained at a distance of 120 cm and 300 cm from the end A.
Find
(i) ε₁/ε₂ and
(ii) position of null point for the cell ε₁

How is the sensitivity of a potentiometer increased?

OR

Using Kirchhoffs rules determine the value of unknown resistance R in the circuit so that no current flows through 4 Q resistance. Also find the potential between A and D.

Question 17.
Write any two factors which justify the need for modulating a signal. Draw a diagram showing an amplitude modulated wave by superimposing a modulating signal over a sinusoidal carrier wave.

Question 18.
The current in the forward bias is known to be more (~ mA) than the current in the reverse bias (~ μA). What is the reason, then, to operate the photodiode in reverse bias?

Question 19.
A metallic rod of length ‘L’ is rotated with angular frequency of ‘ω’ with one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius L about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field B parallel to the axis is present everywhere. Deduce the expression for the induced em/between the centre and the metallic ring.

Question 20.
Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly how this equation is obtained using the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation. Write the three salient features observed in photoelectric effect which can be explained using this equation.

Question 21.

The figure shows a series LCR circuit with L = 5 H, C = 80 μF, R = 40 Ω connected to a variable frequency 240 V source, calculate
(i) the angular frequency of the source which drives the circuit at resonance,
(ii) the current at the resonating frequency,
(iii) the rmspotential drop across the inductor at resonance.

Question 22.
(i) What characteristic property of nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) in the range of mass number ‘A’ lying 30 < A < 170?
(ii) Show that the density of nucleus over a wide range of nuclei is constant independent of mass number A.

SECTION : D

Questoin 23.
Renu and her friend went to see an exhibition. There, security guard standing on the entrance gate, asked them to come through a metal detector gate. Her friend was scared of it. But Renu convinced her and explained the purpose and working of a metal detector.
(i) What values Renu possess?
(ii) What is a metal detector and how it works?

SECTION : E

Question 24.
A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential difference V by a dc source. The capacitor is then disconnected from the source. If the distance between the plates is doubled, state with reason how the following will change;
(i) electric field between the plates
(ii) capacitance, and
(iii) energy stored in the capacitor

OR

(a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. units.
(b) Using Gauss’s law, prove that the electric field at a point due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet is independent of the distance from it.
(c) How is the field directed if
(i) the sheet is positively charged,
(ii) negatively charged?

Question 25.
Define magnifying power of a telescope. Write its expression. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and an eye-piece of focal length 5 cm. If this telescope is used to view a 100 m high tower 3 km away, find the height of the final image when it is formed 25 cm away from the eye-piece.

OR

How is the working of a telescope different from that of a microscope? The focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece of a microscope are 1.25 cm and 5 cm respectively. Find the position of the object relative to the objective in order to obtain an angular magnification of 30 in normal adjustment.

Question 26.
Draw a simple circuit of a CE transistor amplifier. Explain its working. Show that the voltage gain A_v of the amplifier is given by

is the current again ; R_L is the load resistance and r. is the input resistance of the transistor. What is the significance of the negative sign in the expression for the voltage gain?

OR

(a) Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier using p-n junction diode. Explain its working and show the output, input waveforms.
(b) Show the output waveforms (Y) for the following inputs A and B of
(i) OR gate
(ii) NAND gate.

 Answers :
SECTION : A

Answer 1.
On the equator, the value of both angle of dip (5) and vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is zero. So, in this case,
B_v = 0.

Answer 2.
In dc source, P = VI
Given that P = 630 W and V = 210 V
So, I = P/V = 630/210 = 3 A.

Answer 3.
Using Lenz’s law we can predict the direction of induced current in both the rings. Induced current oppose the cause of increase of magnetic flux. So, it will be clockwise in ring 1 and anticlockwise in ring 2.

Answer 4.
The following curve shows the variation of resistivity with temperature for a typical semiconductor.

This is because for a typical semiconductor resistivity decreases rapidly with increasing temperature.

Answer 5.
Charge on conductor resides on its surface. So if we consider a Gaussian surface inside the conductor to find the electrostatic field,

Where, q = charge enclosed in Gaussian surface. q = 0, inside the conductor, hence the electrostatic field inside the conductor is zero.

SECTION : B

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
What is nomadic herding?

Question 2.
What are the retail trading services?

Question 3.
Name the terminal stations of the Orient Express Railway.

Question 4.
Name the metropolitan city of Kerala.

Question 5.
Name the air service which is widely used in the hilly areas of the north-eastern sector.

Question 6.
What type of pollution is responsible for acid rain?

Question 7.
Which port is specially designed to receive large quantities of petroleum and petroleum products and fertiliser?

Question 8.
Discuss the concept of New Determinism with suitable example.

Question 9.
Why is sex ratio unfavourable to women in the world? Mention any three reasons.

Question 10.
Explain the concept of productivity and empowerment as the pillars of human development.

Question 11.
Study the following map carefully and answer the questions that follows.

(i) Name the Trans Continental Railways.
(ii) Name the stations situated at both ends of this railways.
(iii) Name the ports situated at Bay of Spencer through which it passes.

Question 12.
Continued feelings of dejection may motivate people to fall in the trap of anti social activities like crime and drug abuse. Which human values are important that could bring a positive change among such people?

Question 13.
Explain any three points of distinction between rural and urban settlements of India.

Question 14.
Describe the main characteristics of Commercial Livestock Rearing.

Question 15.
Describe the factors affecting the location of rural settlements in the world.

Question 16.
Describe the important characteristics of the Panama Canal. 5×1 = 5

Question 17.
Explain any five factors which influenced the location of Tata Iron and Steel Plant.

Question 18.
What is wind energy? State two advantages of wind energy. Name the states of India having favourable conditions for the development of wind energy.

Question 19.
Describe important characteristics of India’s international trade.

Question 20.
What is an air pollution? How is the air get polluted? Explain any three effects of air pollution on human life.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) An area having highest density of population.
(B) Areas of extensive commercial grain farming
(C) A major seaport
(D) A mega city
(E) A major airport

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A highly urbanised state, in terms of population.
(ii) A leading producer state in Groundnut.
(iii) An oil refinery that lies in Bihar.
(iv) Software Technology Park in Madhya Pradesh
(v) A major sea port.

Answers

Answer 1.
Nomadic herding is an activity in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter tools and transport. They move from one place to another along with their livestock depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.

Answer 2.
This is the business activity concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers. Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed stores solely devoted to selling.

Answer 3.
Paris in the West and Istanbul in the East.

Answer 4.
Kochi

Answer 5.
Pawan Hans.

Answer 6.
Air Pollution.

Answer 7.
Kandla Port.

Answer 8.
(i) Griffin Taylor introduced this concept which reflects a middle path between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism.
(ii) It was termed as Neo-determinism or stop-and-go determinism and tried to explain with the example of traffic signals. The concept shows that neither is a situation of absolute necessity nor is there a condition of absolute freedom.
(in) It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications. Possibilities can be created within the limits—that does not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents.

Answer 9.
(i) If gender discrimination is rampant, the sex-ratio is bound to be unfavourable to women.
(ii) The practice of female foeticide, female infanticide and domestic violence against women.
(iii) Lower socio-economic status of women.

Answer 10.
(i) Productivity: Productivity means human labour productivity in terms of human work.
(ii) Productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people as they are real wealth of nations. Efforts to increase their knowledge or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.
Empowerment: It means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people oriented policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.

Answer 11.
(i) The Australian Trans Continental Railways.
(ii) Perth in the West and Sydney in the East.
(iii) Port Augusta and Port Pirie.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening
(ii) Cooperation and counsellings
(iii) Harmony.

Answer 13.
(i) The rural settlements derive their life support from land based primary economic activities whereas urban settlements depend on processing of raw materials and manufacturing of finished goods and various services.
(ii) Cities act as nodes of economic growth and provide goods and services not only to urban dwellers but also to the people of rural settlements in their hinterlands in return for food and raw materials.
Functional relationship between the urban and rural settlements take place through transport and communication network.
(iii) Rural and urban settlements differ in terms of social relationship, attitude and outlook.
Rural people are less mobile; social relations among them are intimate. Way of life complex and fast; social relations are formal.

Answer 14.
(i) Commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.
(ii) Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western culture and is practised on permanent ranches.
(iii) Ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcel which are fenced to regulate the grazing.
(iv) The grass of one parcel is grazed, then animals are moved to another parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.
(v) It is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goat and horses. Rearing of animals in ranching is organised on a scientific basis.
(vi) The main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care of the animals.

Answer 15.
(i) Water supply: Rural settlements are located near waterbodies such as rivers, lakes and
springs where water can be easily obtained. Most water based ‘wet point’ settlements have many advantages such as water for drinking, cooking, and washing. Rivers and lakes can be used to irrigate farm land.
(ii) Land: People choose to settle near fertile lands suitable for agriculture. In Europe, villages grew up near rolling country avoiding swampy, low lying land, while people in south east Asia chose to live near low-lying river valleys and coastal plains suited for wet rice cultivation.
(iii) Upland: It is not prone to flooding, was chosen to prevent damage to houses and loss of life. In low lying river basins, people chose to settle on terraces and levees which are ‘dry point’. In tropical countries people build their houses on stilts near marshy land to protect themselves from flood, insects and animal pests.
(iv) Building Materials: The availability of building materials—Wood and stone near settlement is another advantage. Early villages were built in forest clearings where wood was plentiful. In some areas of China, cave dwellings were important and African Savanna’s building materials were mud, bricks and the Eskimos use ice blocks to construct igloos.
(v) Defence: During the times of political instability, war, hostility of neighbouring groups, villages were build on defensive hills and islands. In Nigeria, upstanding Inselberges formed good defensive sites. In India most of the settlements are located on higher grounds or hills.

Answer 16.
(i) This canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the Pacific Ocean in the west.
(ii) It is about 72 km long and involves a very deep cutting for a length of 12 km.
(iii) It has a six lock system and ships cross the different levels through these locks before entering the Gulf of Panama.
(iv) It shortens the distance between New York and San Francisco by 13000 km by sea. The distance between Western Europe and the West coast of USA, and north, eastern and central USA and East and South-east Asia is shortened.
(V) Its economic significance is relatively less than the Suez canal. It is vital to the economies of Latin America.

Answer 17.
(i) The Tata Iron and Steel plant lies very’ close to the Mumbai-Kolkata railway line.
(ii) 240 km away from Kolkata, nearest port for the export of steel.
(iii) The rivers Subamarekha and Kharkai provide water to the plant.
(iv) The iron-ore for the plant is obtained from Noamundi and Badam Pahar and coal is brought from Joda mines in Odisha.
(v) Cooking Coal comes from Jharia and West Bokaro coal fields.

Answer 18.
(a) Wind energy is absolutely pollution free and an inexhaustive source of energy. The mechanism of energy conversion from blowing wind is simple.
(b) (i) It is non-conventional energy sources. It will provide more sustained, eco-friendly, and cheaper energy.
(ii) The kinetic energy of wind through turbines is converted into electrical energy. Land and sea breeze can also be used.
(iii) The ministry of non conventional sources of energy is developing wind energy in India to lessen the burden of oil import bill.
(c) In Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharastra and Karnataka favourable conditions for wind energy exist.

Answer 19.
(i) India’s International trade has undergone a sea change in recent years in terms of volume, composition as well as direction.
(ii) India’s contribution in the world trade is as low as one percent of the total volume. It plays significant role in the world economy.
(iii) U.S. A is the biggest International trade partner that is an important destination for India’s export.
(vi) Most of India’s foreign trade is carried through sea and air routes.
(v) A small portion is also carried through land route to neighbouring countries like Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Pakistan.

Answer 20.
(a) Air pollution is taken as addition of contaminants like dust, fumes, gas, fog, odour, smoke to the air in substantial proportion and duration that may be harmful to flora and fauna and to property.
(b) With increasing use of varieties of fuels as source of energy, there is a marked increase in emission of toxic gases into the atmosphere resulting in the pollution of air.
(c) (i) Air pollution causes various diseases related to respiratory, nervous and circulatory systems.
(ii) Smoky fog over cities called as urban smog is caused by atmospheric pollution. It proves very harmful to human health.
(iii) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen, hydrocarbons, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide; lead and asbestos have direct effect on human being in various ways and are cause of many deadly diseases.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which parts of U.S.A and Europe have density more than 200 persons per sq. km?

Question 2.
Define the term ‘positive growth of population’.

Question 3.
Which is the leading steel producing region of Germany?

Question 4.
Which is the busiest sea route in the world?

Question 5.
Name the metropolitan city of Bihar.

Question 6.
Name any two ferrous minerals other than iron ore.

Question 7.
Which port has been developed to relieve pressure of Chennai?

Question 8.
Explain with examples the three economic factors influencing the population distribution in the world.

Question 9.
What is subsistence agriculture? Mention any four characteristics of primitive subsistence agriculture.

Question 10.
Explain any three features of Semi-clustered settlement.

Question 11.
Study the diagram given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Why is the utilisation of surface water limited in Industrial sector in India?
(ii) Which sector utilises the most of surface water and why?

Question 12.
Which human values are important to minimise the air pollution as human activities are main causes?

Question 13.
Degradation of cultivation land is one of the most serious problems that arises out of faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development in India. Explain.

Question 14.
Explain any two functions of WTO. Why has this organisation been criticised? Mention three reasons in this regard.

Question 15.
How are technological innovations an important aspect of modern manufacturing industries? Explain.

Question 16.
Describe the main characteristics of quaternary activities.

Question 17.
What are the Trans-continental Railways? Write four features of trans-Siberian Railways.

Question 18.
How are physical and economic factors responsible for uneven distribution of population in India?

Question 19.
Define the term ‘Migration’. Explain four factors that are responsible for migration of people in India.

Question 20.
Discuss any five geographical factors that affect localisation of an industry at a particular place in India.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A mega city
(B) A country having highest growth rate of population
(C) An area of Mediterranean agriculture
(D) A seaport
(E) An International airport

Question 22.
Locate and label theTollowing five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A state with lowest gender ratio.
(ii) An oil refinery situated in Uttar Pradesh.
(iii) A leading producer state of Maize.
(iv) A software technology park situated in Odisha.
(v) A major seaport of Tamil Nadu.

Answers

Answer 1.
(i) North-Eastern parts of U.S.A. and North-Western part of Europe.

Answer 2.
Positive growth of population happens when the birth rate is more than the death rate between two points of time or when people from other countries migrate permanently to a region.

Answer 3.
The Ruhr region.

Answer 4.
The Northern Atlantic Sea Route is the busiest sea route in the world.

Answer 5.
Patna

Answer 6.
(i) Manganese
(ii) Chromite

Answer 7.
Tuticorin port was developed to relieve pressure of Chennai port.

Answer 8.
(i) Minerals: Areas with minerals deposits attract industries. Mining and industrial activities generate employment skilled and semi-skilled workers move to these areas and make them densely populated.
(ii) Urbanisation: Cities offer better employment opportunities; educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication, good civic amenities, attraction of city life. It leads to rural to urban migration.
(iii) Industralisation: It provides job opportunities and attract large number of people. These include not just factory workers but transport operators, shopkeepers, bank employees, doctors, teachers and others providers.

Answer 9.
(a) Subsistence agriculture is one in which the farming areas consume all or nearly so, of the products locally grown.
(b) (i) It is widely practised by many tribes in the tropics, especially in Africa.
(ii) The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil.
(iii) Cultivated patches area very small and done with very primitive tools.
(iv) The farmer may return to the earlier patch after some time.

Answer 10.
(i) These may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlements.
(ii) More often such a pattern may also result from segregation of a large compact of village. One more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from cluster.
(iii) The land owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village whereas the people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village.

Answer 11.
(i) The availability of surface water is not sufficient.
(ii) (a) Agriculture sector.
(b) Agriculture needs sufficient water for irrigation throughout the year.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening .
(ii) To follow the principle of sustainable development
(iii) Cooperation and Eco-friendly

Answer 13.
(i) One of the serious problems that arises out of faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development is degradation of land resources.
(ii) It may lead to depletion of soil fertility, alarming fall in water table in irrigated areas. A large tract of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and waterlogging.
(iii) Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile.
(iv) Leguminous crops have been displaced form the cropping pattern in the irrigated areas and duration of fallow has substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping.

Answer 14.
(a) (i) WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations. It sets the rules for the global trading system and resolves disputes between its member nations.
(ii) It covers trade in services such as tele-communication and banking and other issues such as intellectual rights.

(b) (i) It has been criticised and opposed that free trade does not make ordinary peoples lives prosperous.
(ii) It is actually widening the gulf between rich and poor, by making rich countries more rich.
(iii) The influential nations in the W.T.O focus on their own commercial interests. Developed countries have not fully opened their markets to products from developing countries.

Answer 15.
(i) Technological innovations through research and development strategy are an important aspect of modem manufacturing for quality control; eliminating waste and inefficiency and combating pollution.
(ii) The importance of responsible factors for the localisation of industries are decreased regularly.
(iii) The structure and forms of industries are changed due to the progress in developed economy.
(iv) Many changes occurred in the activities of modem industries. Advanced technique is being used in industries forgetting production.
(v) Scattered units of small scales are being noticed in large areas in place of industries.

Answer 16.
(i) Quaternary activities involve in the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information.
(ii) These activities centre around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and technical skills.
(iii) Over half of all workers in developed economies are in the knowledge sector and great demand for the consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, statisticians.
(iv) Working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classroom, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage belong to the same.
(v) Quaternary activities can also be outsourced.

Answer 17.
(a) Trans-continental railways run across the continent and link its two ends. They were constructed for economic and political reasons to facilitate long runs in different directions.
(b) (i) It is a major rail route of Russia that runs from St. Petersburg in the west to Valadivostak on the Pacific coast in the east passing through Moscow, Ulfa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, Chita and Khabarovsk.
(ii) Most important route in Asia and the longest double-tracked and electrified Trans Continental Railway in the world.
(iii) It has helped in opening up its Asian region to West European markets. It runs across the Ural Mountains and Yenisei rivers.
(iv) Chita is an important agro centre and Irkutsk, a fur centre.
(v) There are connecting links to the south, namely to Odessa, Baku on the Caspian coast, Tashkent, Ulan-Bator etc.

Answer 18.
(A) Physical factors:
(i) Physical along with terrain and availability of water.
(ii) Development of transport network.
(iii) Availability of mineral and energy resources.

(B) Economic factors that determine the pattern of the population distribution:
(i) Development of Irrigation and evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development.
(ii) Industrialisation and urbanisation.
(iii) Pattern of human settlement.

Answer 19.
Migration is the movement of people from one place to another in search of better opportunities with an intention to settle.
(i) Employment: In the rural areas, mostly people depend on agriculture and they do not have employment throughout the year so they move from village to city.
(ii) Marriages: It influences mainly women as they migrate from one place to another due to their marriages. They leave their parental houses which is the most important cause in the rural areas except in Meghalaya.
(iii) Education: It is an important cause. People who want to get higher education move from rural areas to the cities.
(iv) Lack of Security: As a pull factor and push factor where people are in dilemma and worried due to the security of life and property during political turmoil people migrate towards a safe area.

Answer 20.
(i) Raw materials Industries using weight losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw materials are located. Most of the iron and steel industries are located either near sources of invention (Bhadravati, Bhilai, and Rourkela) or near the coal fields (Bokaro, Durgapur).
(ii) Power: Power provides the motive force for machines. Certain industries, like aluminum and synthetic nitrogen manufacturing industries tend to be located near sources of power because they are power intensive and require huge quantum of electricity.
(iii) Market: Markets provide the outlets for manufactured products. Cotton textile industry uses a non-weight losing raw material and generally located in large urban centre, Ahmedabad, Surat, etc. Petroleum refineries are also located near the markets to make easier, the transport of crude oil. Koyali, Mathura and Barauni refineries are typical examples.
(iv) Transport: Industries are concentrated in Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi, and in and around Kolkata. It was due to the fact that they initially became the nodal point having transport links. Industries shifted to interior locations only when railways lines were laid. All major industries plants are located on the trunk rail rates.
(v) Labour: In India, labour is quite mobile and is available in large number due to our large population. Cheap labour available from thickly populated parts of the country.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5 drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Biology is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. There are total 26 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer Type Questions of one mark each.
3. Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer Type Questions of two marks each.
4. Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer Type Questions of three marks each.
5. Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four mark.
6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer Type Questions of five marks each.
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examiner is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
8. No. of printed pages are three.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
What are cleistogamous flowers?

Question 2.
What is coleorrhiza?

Question 3.
What are alleles?

Question 4.
What are introns?

Question 5.
What is apiculture?

SECTION-B

Question 6.
Explain MOET.

Question 7.
Write a note on discovery of penicillin.

Question 8.
What does the diagram below signify?

Question 9.
What are the basic steps involved in genetically modifying an organism?

OR

What is humus?

Question 10.
Represent the age pyramids for human population.

SECTION-C

Question 11.
Explain the parts of an ovule with a diagram

Question 12.
How is RNA synthesized in bacteria? Illustrate

Question 13.
Discuss the barrier methods for contraception

Question 14.
Explain convergent evolution with examples.

Question 15.
What are the major causes of cancer?

Question 16.
Is it possible to obtain large quantities of DNA from a single cell?

Question 17.
What are the advantages of GM plants?

Question 18.
Explain T_i plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Question 19.
Give the equations of both exponential and logistic growth curves. Also represent them graphically.

OR

Present a case study for remedy of plastic waste

Question 20.
Complete the diagram below:

Question 21.
Haploid content of human DNA is 3.3 x 10⁹ bp and the distance between two consecutive
bp is 0.34 x 10 ⁹. What is the length of the DNA molecule?

Question 22.
Label the diagram given below:

SECTION-D

Question 23.
Rita and her parents were watching a TV serial in the evening. During a commercial break
an advertisement flashed on the screen which was promoting use of sanitary napkins. Rita
was still watching the TV when the parents got embarrassed and changed the channel. Rita
objected to her parent’s behaviour and explained the need for these advertisements.
(a) What values did the parents show?
(b) Briefly describe the phases of a menstrual cycle.

SECTION-E

Question 24.
What are the post pollination events?

OR

Explain endosperm development.

Question 25.
What are chromosomal disorders?

OR

List the observations of Human Genome Project.

Question 26.
Explain some interspecific relationship where no species is harmed.

OR

Explain ecological succession.

Answers

SECTION-A

Answer 1.
Self pollinating flowers in which stamens and pistil are in close proximity.

Answer 2.
In embryos of monocots the root cap and radicle are enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath j called coleorhiza.

Answer 3.
Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits.

Answer 4.
Intervening sequences in DNA which are not expressed in mature or processed RNA.

Answer 5.
Apiculture is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey.

SECTION-B

Answer 6.
Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET) is a programme for herd improvement. In this method, a cow is administered hormones, with FSH-like activity, to induce follicular maturation and super ovulation – instead of one egg, which they normally yield per cycle, they produce 6-8 eggs. The animal is either mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated. The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are recovered non-surgically and transferred to surrogate mothers. The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation.

Answer 7.
Alexander Fleming while working on Staphylococci bacteria, once observed a mould growing in one of his unwashed culture plates around which Staphylococci could not grow. He found out that it was due to a chemical produced by the mould and he named it Penicillin after the mould Penicillium notatum.

Answer 8.
The first diagram is that of the normal cells which show controlled growth due to property of contact inhibition.
The second diagram shows loss of contact inhibition by cancer cells. This uncontrolled cell growth leads to tumor

Answer 9.
Three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism are:

• Identification of DNA with desirable genes;
• Introduction of the identified DNA into the host;
• Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.

OR

Humus is a dark coloured amorphous substance which is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of nutrients. The process of humus formation is called humification.

Answer 10.

SECTION-C

Answer 11.

The ovule is a small structure attached to the placenta by means of a stalk called funicle.The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region called hilum. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments. Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small opening called the micropyle is organised. Opposite the micropylar end, is the chalaza, representing the basal part of the ovule. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called the nucellus. Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials. Located in the embryo sac or female gametophyte.

Answer 12.

In a bacteria, there are three major types of RNAs: mRNA (messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), and rRNA (ribosomal RNA). The mRNA provides the template, tRNA brings aminoacids and reads the genetic code, and rRNAs play structural and catalytic role during translation. There is single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription (Initiation). It uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate and polymerises in a template depended fashion following the rule of complementarity. It also facilitates opening of the helix and continues elongation. Only a short stretch of RNA remains bound to the enzyme. Once the polymerases reaches the terminator region, the nascent RNA falls off, so also the RNA polymerase. This results in termination of transcription.

Answer 13.
In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting. Such methods are available for both males and females.
(1) Condoms are made of thin rubber/latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in the male or vagina and cervix in the female, just before coitus so that the ejaculated semen would not enter into the female reproductive tract. This can prevent conception.

(2) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus. They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix. They are reusable.

(3) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with these barriers to increase their contraceptive efficiency.

(4) Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs): These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These Intra Uterine Devices are presently available as the non- medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop), copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) and the hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20). IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.

Answer 14.
Convergent evolution is a evolution of different structures for the same function and hence having similarity. It is the similar habitat that has resulted in selection of similar adaptive features in different groups of organisms but toward the same function.
For example the eye of the octopus and of mammals, the flippers of Penguins and Dolphins, sweet potato (root modification) and potato (stem modification) similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse organisms give clues to common ancestory.

Answer 15.
The major causes of cancer are:

1. Transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells which may be induced by physical, chemical or biological agents called carcinogens.
2. Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations like UV cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation.
3. The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major cause of lung cancer.
4. Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes. Cellular oncogenes (cone) or proto oncogenes have been identified in normal cells which,when activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
   

Answer 16.
Yes, it is possible to make large quantities of DNA from a single cell by

PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. In this reaction, multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest is synthesised in vitro using two sets of primers (small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA) and the enzyme DNA polymerase. The enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template. If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can be amplified to approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are made. Such repeated amplification is achieved by the use of thermostable DNA polymerase (isolated form a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus), which remain active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA. The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to ligate with a vector for further cloning.

Answer 17.
Advantages of GM plants are:

• GM crops are more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
• These have reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).
• These crops helped to reduce post harvest losses.
• GM crops have increased efficiency of mineral usage which prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil.
• These crops have enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice.
• These crops have also helped in creation of tailor-made plants to supply alternative resources to industries, in the form of starches, fuels and pharmaceuticals.

Answer 18.
Agrobacterium tumifaciens is a pathogen of several dicot plants which has an ability to deliver ‘T-DNA’ that further transforms normal plant cells into a tumor and direct these tumor cells to produce the chemicals required by the pathogen. The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants.

Answer 19.

Answer 20.

Answer 21.
Haploid content = 3.3 x 10⁹.
Therefore, diploid content = 6.6 x 10⁹
Distance between bp = 0.34 x 10 ⁹
Therefore length = diploid content x distance between bp
⇒ 6.6 x 10⁹ x 0.34 x 10~⁹ = 2.24 m

Answer 22.

SECTION-D

Answer 23.
(a) The parents were traditional but understood the need for such advertisements.
(b)

SECTION-E

Answer 24.

Following compatible pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ pores. The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style and reaches the ovary. In plants, where the pollen grains are shed at the two celled stage, the generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth of pollen tube in the stigma. In plants which shed pollen in the three-celled condition, pollen tubes carry the two male gametes from the beginning. Pollen tube after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through the micropyle and then enters one of the synergids through the filiform apparatus. Filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of the synergids guides the entry of pollen tube. All these events are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.

OR

Endosperm development precedes embryo development. The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue. The cells of this tissue are filled with reverse food materials and are used for the nutrition of the developing embryo. In the most common type of endosperm development, the PEN undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei. This stage of endosperm development is called free-nuclear endosperm. Subsequently cell wall formation occurs and the endosperm becomes cellular. The number of free nuclei formed before cellularisation varies greatly

Answer 25.
The chromosomal disorders are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome), called aneuploidy.

Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an organism and is called polyploidy.

Sometimes, either an additional copy of a chromosome may be included in an individual or an individual may lack one of any one pair of chromosomes: These situations are known as trisomy or monosomy of a chromosome, respectively.

Common examples of chromosomal disorders are Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome.

Down’s Syndrome: Caused by trisomy of 21 chromosome number.

Klinefelter’s Syndrome: Caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 447, XXY.

Turner’s Syndrome: Caused due to the absence of one of the X chromosome, i.e. 45 with XO.

OR

The salient observations drawn from human genome project are:

1. The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
2. The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly, with the largest known human gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
3. The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000-much lower than previous estimates of 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people.
4. The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of the discovered genes.
5. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
6. Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
7. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times, sometimes hundred to thousand times. They are thought to have no direct coding functions, but they shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution.
8. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231).
9. Scientists have identified about 1.4 million location where single base DNA differences (SNPs- single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occur in humans. This information promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and tracing human history.

Answer 26.
Some interspecific relationship where no species is harmed are:
(1) Commonalism: This is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited. For example: an orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch, barnacles growing on the back of a whale, the cattle egret and grazing cattle, and Sea anemones stinging tentacles protect the clown fish from predators that lives among them.

(2) Mutualism: This interaction confers benefits on both interacting species. For example, Lichens represent an intimate mutualjstic relationship between a fungus and photosynthesising algae or cyanobacteria.

(3) Plant-Animal Relationships: Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their flowers and dispersing their seeds; in return plants offer rewards or fees in the form of pollen and nectar for pollinators and juicy and nutritious fruits for seed dispersers.

The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called Ecological succession. During succession some species colonise an area and their populations become more numerous, whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). The individual transitional communities are termed serai stages or serai communities. In the successive serai stages there is a change in the diversity of species of organism, increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass. Succession is a process that starts where no living organisms are there-these could be areas where no living organisms ever existed, i.e., bare rock; or in areas that somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed there. The former is called primary succession, while the latter is termed secondary succession.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Name the area which has now become the rust bowl of the U.S.A.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of ‘ports of call’ with suitable example.

Question 3.
Explain the term bilateral trade.

Question 4.
Define the term poverty.

Question 5.
Name the two broad categories of reasons responsible for migration in India.

Question 6.
Name the sea port which was developed as satellite port to relieve the pressure at the Mumbai Port.

Question 7.
State any two sources of air pollution.

Question 8.
Explain any three characteristics of extensive commercial grain cultivation in the world.

Question 9.
Mention any three characteristics of retail trading services.

Question 10.
“Slavery was a curse.” Justify the statement.

Question 11.
Explain the economic significance of river Rhine in three points.

Question 12.
Cultural activities such as pilgrimage, religious fairs, tourism cause water pollution. By which human values such activities may be minimised/controlled.

Question 13.
Describe any three characteristics of hamlet rural settlement in India.

Question 14.
Describe any five features of plantation agriculture in the world.

Question 15.
Road transport plays a vital role in the promotion of trade and tourism in the world. Support this statement with the suitable arguments

Question 16.
Name the first city of a million population in the world. Describe any two characteristics of administrative and cultural towns.

Question 17.
Define the term ‘growth of population’. Explain any four causes for the steady growth of population in India in the decades 1921-1951.

Question 18.
Explain the important factors which influenced the location of Rourkela Steel Plant.

Question 19.
“Maize is a food as well as fodder crop”. Discuss.

Question 20.
Explain the advantages of satellite communication with reference to India.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A large country of the size of continent in term of area
(B) A mega city
(C) A major area of nomadic herding
(D) A sea port
(E) An International airport.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A state having highest gender ratio.
(ii) A leading producer state of Rice.
(iii) An oil refinery situated in Gujarat
(iv) An international airport of Assam.
(v) A software technology park situated in Jammu & Kashmir.

Answers

Answer 1.
North Aplacian (Pittsburg)

Answer 2.
These are the ports which originally developed as calling points on main sea routes where
ships used to anchor for refuelling, watering and taking food items. Aden and Singapore are good examples.

Answer 3.
Bilateral trade is done by two countries with each other and enter into agreement to trade specified commodities amongst them.

Answer 4.
Poverty is a state of deprivation. In absolute terms it reflects the inability of an individual to satisfy certain basic needs for a sustained, healthy and reasonably productive living.

Answer 5.
(i) Push factors
(ii) Pull factors

Answer 6.
Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Answer 7.
(i) Combustion of fossil fuels.
(ii) Mining and Industries.

Answer 8.
(i) It is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid latitudes.
(ii) Wheat is the principal crop though other crops like com, barley, oats and rye are also grown.
(iii) The size of the farm is very large. Entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.

Answer 9.
(i) This is the business activity concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
(ii) Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments or stores solely devoted to selling.
(iii) Street peddling, handcarts, trucks, door-to-door, mail order, telephone, automatic vending machines and Internet are examples of non-star retail trading.

Answer 10.
(i) 15th century onwards the European colonialism began and along with trade of exotic commodities, a new form of trade emerged known as slave trade.
(ii) The Portuguese, Dutch, Spaniards and British captured African natives and forcefully transported them to the newly discovered America for their labour in plantation.
(iii) Slave trade was a lucrative business for more than two hundred years till it was abolished.

Answer 11.
(i) It flows through a rich coal field and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
(ii) Huge tonnage moves along the stretch south of the Ruhr.
(iii) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea route.

Answer 12.
(i) Eco-friendly
(ii) Awakening
(iii) Cooperation

Answer 13.
(i) These settlement are fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing common name.
(ii) These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani etc.
(iii) This segmentation of a village is often motivated by social and ethnic factors.

Answer 14.
(i) This type of farming are large estates or plantation; large capital investment; managerial and technical support.
(ii) Single crop specialisation, cheap labour, and a good system of transportation which links the states to the factories and markets for the export of the products.
(iii) Important plantation on crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
(iv) Plantation agriculture as mentioned above was introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics.
(v) Now, ownership of the majority of plantations has passed into the hands of the government.

Answer 15.
(i) Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railways. It also provides door-to-door service.
(ii) Road transport is most suitable for tourists and they could observe the natural sites through them easily.
(iii) The quality of the roads varies greatly between developed and developing countries as road construction and maintenance require heavy expenditure.
(iv) Roads are universal and provide long distance links. Inter-state highways are used for speedy movement.
(v) Lorries of increasing size and power to carry heavy loads are common in increasing the trade as well as tourism.

Answer 16.
(a) London
(b) (i) National capitals, which house the administrative offices of central governments—
New Delhi, Washington are called administrative towns.
(ii) Provincial towns can also have administrative functions as Victoria, Mumbai, Bangalore (Bangluru).
(c) (i) All over the world many places (towns) are known as pilgrimage, where people visit for religious and other cultural activities. Varanasi, Mecca are the best example.
(ii) Some towns are known for their cultural activities (Movies, Drama, Literature, festivals etc). Jaipur, Panaji, Miami are the main centres.

Answer 17.
(a) Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time.
(b) (i) An overall improvement in health and sanitation, brought down the mortality rate
(ii) Better transport and communication system improved distribution system.
(iii) The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate..
(iv) Life expectancy increased.

Answer 18.
(i) It was set up in 1959. The plant was located on the basis of proximity to materials to minise the cost of transporting weight-losing material.
(ii) This plant has a unique locational advantage.
(iiii) It receives coal from Jharia and Iron ore from Sundargarh and Kandujhar.
(iv) The Hirakund project supplies power for the electric furnaces.
(v) Water is being obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers.

Answer 19.
(i) Maize is a food as well as fodder crop grown under semi arid climate condition and in the
inferior soils.
(ii) This crop occupies only about 3.6% of total cropped area. Its cultivation is not concentrated in any specific region.
(iii) It is sown all over India except eastern and north-eastern regions.
(iv) The leading producers of maize are the states of Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
(v) Yield level of maize is higher than other coarse cereals. It is high in southern states and declines towards central parts.

Answer 20.
(i) Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication.
(ii) The use of satellite in getting a continuous and synoptic view of larger area has made If satellite communication very vital for the country due to the economic and strategic reasons.
(iii) Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring of natural calamities surveillance of border areas.
(iv) Satellites collect data in several spectral bonds and transmit them to the ground stations for various uses.
(v) The National Remote Sensing Agency at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing. These are very useful in the management of natural resources.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.