CBSE Class 10 – Page 22

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development

January 5, 2022September 4, 2021 by Murali

CBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST Geography Chapter 1 Resource and Development.

Learnintsa.com Committed to provides Extensive NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resource and Development, Students can read and score more marks in your CBSE board examination.

Resource and Development Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 1

QUESTIONS OF 1 MARK

Answers should not exceed 30 words.

Question 1.
What do you understand by Resource ?
Answer:
Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs, provided, it is technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be termed as ‘Resource’.

Question 2.
Classify resources on the basis of exhaustibility.
Answer:
Renewable and non-renewable resources.

Question 3.
Classify resources on the basis of development.
Answer:
Potential, developed stock and reserves.

Question 4.
Give an example of Biotic resources.
Answer:
Human beings, flora and fauna are examples of biotic resources.

Question 5.
What types of resources are solar and wind energy ?
Answer:
Solar and wind energy are renewable resources.

Question 6.
Mention a non-renewable source that cannot be recycled and get exhausted with their use.
Answer:
Fossil fuel.

Question 7.
What do you understand by international resources ? Give example.
Answer:
These resources are regulated by international institutions. Examples are the oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no [ individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions.

Question 8.
What are developed resources ?
Answer:
Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation. The development of resources depends on technology and level of their feasibility.

Question 9.
Which are the results of using resources indiscriminately by human beings ? Mention any one.
Answer:

Accumulation of resources in a few hands.
Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.

Question 10.
What is sustainable development ?
Answer:
Sustainable economic development means ‘development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations’.

Question 11.
What was the object of Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992 ?
Answer:
The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level.

Question 12.
What is Agenda 21 ?
Answer:
It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nation’s Conference on Environment and Development which took place at Rio de Janeiro (Brazil).

It aims at achieving global sustainable development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global cooperation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities.

Question 13.
Which states in India are rich in minerals and coal deposits ?
Answer:
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 14.
How did Gandhiji voice his concern about resource conservation ?
Answer:
Gandhiji said, “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed.”

Question 15.
What was the main reason for the colonial countries to exploit resources of countries under their
control ?
Answer:
High level of technological development.

Question 16.
Which report in 1987 introduced the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’ ?
Answer:
Brundtland Commission Report.

Question 17.
How much area of land in India is plain and what is its importance ?
Answer:
About 43 per cent of the land area is plain. It provides facilities for agriculture and industry.

Question 18.
What is the use of mountains ?
Answer:
Mountains ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects.

Question 19.
What is gross cropped area ?
Answer:
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross cropped area.

Question 20.
What is total geographical area of India ?
Answer:
3.28 million sq. km.

Question 21.
When the National Forest Policy was formed in India ?
Answer:
1952.

Question 22.
How much degraded land is in India ?
Answer:
At present there are about 130 million hectares of degraded land in India.

Question 23.
Which are the factors that determine the use of land ?
Answer:
The factors are topography, climate, soil types, population, density, technological capability and culture and traditions.

Question 24.
State factors responsible for land degradation.
Answer:
Overgrazing, mining, quarrying and deforestation.

Question 25.
Which are the ways to solve the problems of land degradation ?
Answer:
Afforestation, proper management of grazing, control of mining activities etc.

Question 26.
How mining is responsible for the degradation of land ?
Answer:
Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of overburdening.

Question 27.
Mention the states where overgrazing and over-irrigation are responsible for degradation.
Answer:

Overgrazing – Gujarat, Rajasthan Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
Over-irrigation – Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh.

Question 28.
Which part of India is made of alluvial soil ?
Answer:
The entire Northern Plains are made of alluvial soil.

Question 29.
How are alluvial soils classified on the basis of their age ?
Answer:
According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial soil — Bangar and new alluvial – Khadar.

Question 30.
What is the other name of black soils ?
Answer:
Regur soils.

Question 31.
Where are red and yellow soils found ?
Answer:
Red and yellow soils are found in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau, in parts of Orissa, Chattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.

Question 32.
State one feature of laterite soils.
Answer:
The laterite soils are suitable for cultivation with adequate doses of manures and fertilisers.

Question 33.
Which soil is suitable for production of Cashew Nut and where ?
Answer:
Red laterite soil in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala is suitable for the crop of cashew nuts.

Question 34.
What is soil erosion ?
Answer:
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion.

Question 35.
Which are two causes for soil erosion ?
Answer:
Deforestation, overgrazing and mining activities.

Question 36.
What are ravines ?
Answer:
The land that becomes unfit for cultivation is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines.

Question 37.
What is the significance of the shelter belts in the desert in western India ?
Answer:
The shelter belts have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.

Question 38.
What is the use of contour ploughing ?
Answer:
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.

Question 39.
What is use of shelter belts ?
Answer:
Shelter belts contribute significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.

QUESTIONS OF 3/4 MARKS

Answers should he in about 80/100 words.

Question 1.
What is meant by resource ? Mention the four basis to classify the resources.
Answer:
(1) Resource : Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs provided, it is technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be termed as resource.
(2) Four basis to classify resources are as mentioned below :

On the basis of origin – biotic and abiotic.
On the basis of exhaustibility – renewable and non-renewable.
On the basis of ownership – individual, community, national and international.
On the basis of status of development – potential, developed stock and reserves.

Question 2.
Are resources free gifts of nature ?
Answer:
No. Resources are not free gifts of nature. Resources are a function of human activities. Human beings themselves are essential components of resources. They transform material available in our environment into resources and use them.

Question 3.
What are biotic and abiotic resources ? Give two examples for each.
Answer:
On the basis of origin resources are divided as given below :

Biotic resources : These are obtained from biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries and livestock.
Abiotic resources : All those things which are composed of non-living things are called aboitic resources e.g., rocks and metals.

Question 4.
Explain the types of resources on the basis of exhaustibility by giving examples.
Answer:
On the basis of exhaustibility, the resources are of two types as mentioned below :
(1) Renewable resources :

These can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical process. Examples are solar and wind energy, water and forests.
The renewable resources may further be divided into continuous or flow and biological,
Continuous or flow resources are wind and water,
Biological resources are vegetation (forests) and wildlife,
These resources are available continuously.

(2) Non-renewable resources :

They exhaust and take millions of years in their formation.
Examples are minerals and fossil fuels,
Some of the resources like metals are recyclable and some like fossil fuels cannot be recycled and get exhausted with their use.
These resources cannot be regenerated.

Question 5.
Provide a suitable classification for resources on the basis of ownership. Mention main features of any three types of such resources.
Answer:
These are divided as individual, community owned, national and international resources.
(1) Individual resources :

These are owned privately by individuals,
Many farmers own land in the villages which is allotted to them by government against payment of revenue,
Urban people .own plots, houses and other property,
Plantation, pasture lands, ponds are also owned by individuals.

(2) Community owned resources :

These are owned by community.
These are accessible to all the members of the community,
Village commons (grazing grounds, burial grounds), public parks, picnic spots in urban areas are accessible to all the people living there.

(3) National resources :

These are owned and belong to the nation or state,
All the minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife land within the political boundaries and oceanic area upto 12 nautical miles (19.2 km) from the coast termed as territorial water and resources there-in belong to the nation.

(4) International resources :
These do not belong to any country. Some of these resources are regulated by international institutions. Oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive. Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions.

Question 6.
How are the resources divided on the basis of the status of development ? Give example of each type.
Or
Differentiate between stock resources and reserves.
Answer:
These can be divided into four types :

(1) Potential resources : These are found in a region but have not been utilised, e.g., enormous potential for development of wind and solar energy in Rajasthan and Gujarat. But so far these have not been developed properly.

(2) Developed resources :

Resources whose quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation.
Their development depends on technology and their level of feasibility.

(3) Stock :
Materials in the environment which can satisfy human needs but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to access these e.g., two components of water — hydrogen and oxygen can be used as a rich source of energy but we, human beings, do not have technology to use them. Hence it is considered as stock.

(4) Reserves :

These are the subset of the stock which can be used by present technology but their use has not been started fully.
River water can be used for generating hydroelectric power but presently it is being used only to a limited extent,
Such resources can be used for meeting future requirements,
Water in the dams, forests etc. is a reserve which can be used in the future.

Question 7.
Highlight any three problems associated with the indiscriminate use of resources by the human beings.
Answer:
The indiscriminate use of resources by the human beings has resulted in the following :

Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.
Accumulation of resources in few hands which has divided the society into rich and poor or have and have nots.
Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises such as global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.
Thus, an equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace. If the present trend of resource depletion by some individuals and countries continues, the future of our planet is in danger.

Question 8.
Why is the issue of sustainability important for development ? Explain.
Answer:
Sustainable development means that a development should meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs. However, since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning that the present type and levels of development are not sustainable. The issue of sustainable development has emerged from rapid industrialisation of the world in the past century. It is felt that the economic growth and industrialisation have led to reckless exploitation of natural resources. On the other hand, the stock of natural resources are limited. So, the growth of all countries in future is likely to be endangered if the limited resources are completely exhausted. Under these circumstances, the issue of sustainability has become important for development.

Question 9.
Write a note on the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit 1992.
Answer:
(1) Place : In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil for the first International Earth Summit.
(2) Objective : The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level.
(3) Achievements :

The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity,
The Rio convention endorsed the Global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.

Question 10.
Explain Agenda 21.
Answer:

Declaration : It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) which took place at Rio de Janeiro (Brazil).
Aims :
1. It aims at achieving global sustainable development.
2. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global cooperation on common interest, mutual needs and shared responsibilities,
3. One major objective of the Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.

Question 11.
Explain the consequences of indiscriminate use of resources by human beings. How has the indiscriminate use of resources led to the necessity of resource development or resource planning ?
Or
Why is it essential to have resource planning ? Explain with reasons.
Answer:

Development of resources or resource development implies not only exploitation, but also preservation and reuse. In case of natural resources, at the time of using them, their nature, type and the size of their reserve should be considered. These should not be used indiscriminately. Therefore, an equitable distribution of resources is necessary for a sustained quality of life and global peace. The resources must not be put to wrong use. This may lead to their depletion.
Some resources like coal and petroleum are available in limited quantity. If they are continued to be used at the present rate, they would not be left for the future generations.
Accumulation of resources in a few hands has also restricted equitable access to the resources.
Thus, in view of above factors resource planning is necessary.

Question 12.
“In India some regions are rich in certain types of resources but deficient in some other resources.” Do you agree with the statement ? Support your answer with any three examples.
Answer:
(1) I agree with the statement that in India some regions are rich in certain types of resources but deficient in some other resources as mentioned below :

Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh – rich in minerals and coal deposits.
Arunachal Pradesh – abundance of water resources.
Rajasthan — lot of solar and wind energy.
Ladakh – rich cultural heritage.

(2) There is great variation in the availability of resources. Some regions are rich in one resource but deficient in other, as mentioned below :

Arunachal Pradesh – Lack of infrastructural development.
Rajasthan – Lack of water resources.
Ladakh – Deficient in water, infrastructure and vital minerals.

(3) There is lack of technology in some regions. Thus there are regions that are rich in resources but these are included in economically backward regions.

Question 13.
Explain the three stages of Resource Planning in India. [CBSE 2016-17]
Answer:
Three stages of Resource Planning in India are as given below :

Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of resources.
Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.

Question 14.
How did Gandhiji voice his concern about resource conservation ? Explain. [CBSE 2016-17]
Or
What is conservation ? Why is conservation of resources necessary ? What are the views of Gandhiji about resource conservation ?
Answer:
(1) Conservation is defined as the management of resources by human beings in a judicious and planned way without disturbing environment.
(2) It is necessary due to the following reasons :

We have limited quantity of resources.
Irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems.
It is also required for sustainable development.

(3) Gandhiji said, ‘There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed’. He stated that the root cause for resource depletion at the global level was the greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology. He was against mass production and was in favour of the production by the masses.

Question 15.
Describe the relief features of land in India and their importance.
Answer:
India has a variety of relief features of land i.e., mountains, plateaus, plains and islands.

43 per cent of land is plain. It is useful for agriculture and industry.
30 per cent of the total land area is mountainous which ensures perennial flow of some rivers. The mountains provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects.
27 per cent area is plateau region which possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests.

Question 16.
How are land resources used ?
Answer:
Land resources are used for the following purposes :

Forests.
Land not available for cultivation.
1. Barren and wasteland.
2. Land put to non-agricultural uses e.g., buildings, roads and factories etc.
Other uncultivated land (excluding fallow land).
1. Permanent pastures and grazing land.
2. Land under miscellaneous tree crops and groves (not included in net sown area).
3. Culturable wasteland (left uncultivated for more than 5 agricultural years).
Fallow lands :
1. Current fallow (left without cultivation for Ghe or less than one agricultural year).
2. Other than current fallow (left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years).
Net sown area : Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross cropped area.

Question 17.
Explain causes for land degradation.
Or
Explain any four human activities which are mainly responsible for land degradation in India.
Answer:
(1) At present there is about 130 million hectares of degraded land in India as mentioned below :

Forest degraded area — 28%
Water eroded area — 56%
Wind eroded area — 10%
Saline and Alkaline land — 6%

(2) Following factors/human factors are responsible for land degradation in India :

Mining : Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over burdening.
Deforestation : In states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation.
Overgrazing : In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is the main reason for land degradation.
Over-irrigation : In the states of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, over-irrigation is responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry generate dust in the atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water into soil after it settles down on the land. Thus industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land and water pollution in many parts of the country.

Question 18.
What are the ways to solve the problem of land degradation ?
Answer:
There are many ways to solve the problem of land degradation. These are as given below :

Afforestation – Plantation of trees should be encouraged.
Proper management of grazing – Separate sites should be fixed for grazing.
Planting of shelter belts of plants.
Control on overgrazing – Rules for grazing should be framed.
Stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes to stop land degradation.
Proper management of waste lands, control of mining activities, proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment in industrial and suburban areas.

Question 19.
Explain any three factors responsible for the formation of soil.
Or
Give the importance of soil. Explain factors responsible for soil formation.
Answer:
(1) Soil is the most important renewable natural resource. It is the medium of plant growth and supports different types of living organism on the earth.
(2)

The soil is a living system. It takes millions of years to form soil up to a few centimeter in depth.
Relief, parent rock or bed rock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time are important factors in the formation of soil.
Various forces of nature such as change in temperature, actions of running water, wind and glaciers, activities of decomposers contribute to the formation of soil.
Chemical and organic changes which take place in the soil are equally important.
Soil also consists of organic (humus) and inorganic materials.

Question 20.
How are alluvial soils formed ? How is Bangar different from Khadar ?
Answer:

Alluvial soils are formed by the deposition by three important Himalayan river systems – The Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
The Bangar is the old alluvial soil. It is less fertile because it has higher concentration of kankar nodules.
The Khadar is the new alluvial soil. It has more fine particles and is more fertile than the bangar.

Question 21.
Describe features of alluvial soils. Name the places where these are found in India.
Answer:
(1) The features of the alluvial soils are explained as below :

The alluvial soils consist of sand, silt and clay,
These soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime,
These soils are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops,
Soils in the drier areas are more alkaline and need proper treatment and irrigation,
These soils are of two types – old alluvial soil known as bangar and new alluvial soil known as khadar.

(2) Places : These soils are found in the entire northern plains, Rajasthan, Gujarat (a narrow corridor), eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.

Question 22.
What broad category do the soils of Maharashtra fall ?
Or
Mention three characteristics of black soil.
Or
Describe the features of black soil. Name the places where it is found in India.
Answer:
Black soil
(1) Features :

This soil is black in colour,
It is also known as regur soil.
It is ideal for growing cotton and is known as black cotton soil also,
It is believed that climatic condition along with parent rock material are the important factors for the formation of black soil,
It is made of clayey material,
It can hold moisture,
It is rich in soil nutrients such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime,
It is poor in phosphoric contents, It develops deep cracks during hot weather which helps in the proper aeration of the soil,
These soils are sticky when wet and difficult to work on unless tilled immediately after the first shower or during the pre-monsoon period.

(2) Places : It is found in Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and extend in the south-east direction along the Godavari and the Krishna valleys.

Question 23.
Describe the features of red and yellow soils. Mention the places where they are found in India.
Answer:
Red and yellow soils :
(1) Features :

These soils develop reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks,
It looks yellow in a hydrated form.
They are highly porous and fertile when they are fine grained and deep.

(2) Places : Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau. They are also found in parts of Orissa, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.

Question 24.
Describe features of laterite soil. Mention the places where they are found in India.
Answer:
Laterite soil :
(1) Features :

Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which means brick. It develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall
Humus content of the soil is low.
They lack in elements of fertility and are of low value for crop production,
They are composed of little clay and much gravel of red sandstones,
They are suitable for cultivation with manures and fertilizers

(2) Places :

They are found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and hilly areas of Orissa and Assam,
After adopting appropriate soil conservation techniques particularly in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, this soil is very useful for growing tea and coffee,
Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for crops like cashew nut.

Question 25.
Describe the features of Arid soils and Forest soils. Mention the places where they are found in India.
Answer:
(1) Arid soils :

Features
1. They range from red to brown in colour.
2. They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature,
3. In some areas the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained by evaporating the water. Due to the dry climate, high temperature, evaporation is faster and the soil lacks humus and moisture,
4. The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by kankar because of increasing calcium content downward.
5. These soils can become cultivable if irrigation facilities are made available as has been in the case of western Rajasthan.
Places :
1. These soils are found in arid areas of Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana.

(2) Forest soils :

Features :
1. They are found in mountainous area,
2. They are loamy and silty in valley slides and coarse grained in the upper slopes,
3. In the snow covered areas of the Himalayas they are acidic with low humus content.
Places : They are found in the hilly and mountainous areas where sufficient rain forests are available. These places are Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir. The soils found in the lower parts of the valleys particularly on the river terraces and alluvial fans are fertile.

Question 26.
What is soil erosion ? Write human activities that lead to soil erosion.
Or
Describe the causes for soil erosion.
Answer:

Soil erosion : The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion.
Causes for soil erosion :
(1) Human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, constructon, mining and other activities are responsible for soil erosion.
(2) Natural forces like wind, glacier and water also cause erosion :
1. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In Chambal basin such lands are called ravines.
2. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope and washes away the top soil. It is known as sheet erosion.
3. When wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land, it is known as wind erosion.
4. Soil erosion is also caused by ploughing in a wrong way i.e., up and down the slope from channels for the quick flow of water leading is soil erosion.

Question 27.
Describe measures of soil conservation.
Answer:
The measures for soil conservation are as follows :

Contour ploughing i.e., ploughing along the contour lines decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
Terrace cultivation : Steps are cut on the slopes making terraces which restrict erosion. It is done in western and central Himalayas.
Strip cropping : It divides large fields into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops.
Planting of trees to create shelters are called shelter belts. These shelter belts help in stabilising the desert in western India.

Question 28.
What is the state of India’s environment as depicted by the village Sukhomajri and the district of
Jhabua ?
Or
Describe state of India’s environment with reference to village Sukhomajri and district Jhabua.
Answer:

The village of Sukhomajri and the district of Jhabua have shown that it is possible to reverse land degradation by plantation of trees. Tree density in Sukhomajri increased from 13 per hectare in 1976 to 1,272 per hectare in 1992.
Regeneration of the environment has led to economic well-being of the people. The annual average household income in Sukhomajri ranged from ? 10,000-15,000 between 1979 and 1984. This was due to greater resource availability, improved agriculture and animal care.
Madhya Pradesh government has made people the decision-makers because their participation is essential for ecological restoration. Thus, 2.9 million hectares or 1 per cent of India’s land area are being greened across the state through watershed management.

MAP QUESTION

Question 1.
On the map of India show the places where different types of soils are found.
Answer:
The different types of soils are found as mentioned below :

Alluvial soils : Entire northern plains, Rajasthan and Gujarat in a narrow corridor, eastern coastal plains in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
Black soils : Deccan trap (Basalt) region i.e., plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra,
Malwa, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and extend in the southeast direction along the Godavari and the Krishna valleys.
Red and yellow soils : Red soils are found in eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau. Yellow and red soils are found in parts of Orissa, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga Plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.
Laterite soils : Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Orissa and Assam.
Arid soils : Western Rajasthan.
Forest soils : Areas of Himalayas – the soils on lower parts of the valleys on the river terraces are fertile.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development 1

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Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

January 5, 2022September 4, 2021 by Murali

CBSE Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India.

Learnintsa.com Committed to provides Extensive NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India, Students can read and score more marks in your CBSE board examination.

Nationalism in India Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 3

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Answers should not exceed 30 words.

Question 1.
With which idea the modern nationalism in Europe is associated ?
Answer:
Modem nationalism in Europe was associated with the formation of nation-states.

Question 2.
In India what tied many different groups together against colonial power ?
Answer:
The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a shared bond that tied different groups together.

Question 3.
What was forced recruitment ?
Answer:
Forced recruitment was a process by which colonial state forced people to join the army.

Question 4.
Why did Gandhiji go to Champaran in 1916 ?
Answer:
In 1916 Mahatma Gandhi went to Champaran to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

Question 5.
Which Satyagraha movement was organised in Ahmedabad and when ?
Answer:
In 1918 Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad to organise satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers.

Question 6.
State one oppressive feature of Rowlatt Act ?
Answer:
It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.

Question 7.
When did Jallianwala Bagh massacre take place and where ?
Answer:
Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April, 1919 at Amritsar.

Question 8.
Which famous book was written by Mahatma Gandhi in 1909 ?
Answer:
Hind Swaraj.

Question 9.
For what the Congress session of December 1920 is known ?
Answer:
At Congress session (Nagpur) non-cooperation programme was adopted by the Congress.

Question 10.
Which party in the province of Madras did not boycott the council elections 9
Answer:
Justice Party.

Question 11.
Who was Khalifa ?
Answer:
The Ottoman Emperor was Khalifa or the spiritual head of the Islamic world.

Question 12.
What was picket ?
Answer:
Picket was a form of demonstration or a procession by which people block the entrance to shop, factory or office.

Question 13.
According to Gandhiji which were two stages of non-cooperation movement ?
Answer:

In the first stage, there should be surrender of titles that the government awarded and boycott of civil services, army, police, courts, legislative councils, schools and foreign goods.
In case of repressive policy by the government, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched in the second stage.

Question 14.
Why people could not afford Khadi ?
Answer:
Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it.

Question 15.
What was begar ?
Answer:
Begar was a labour that villagers were forced to contribute without any payment.

Question 16.
What happened at Chauri-Chaura in 1922 ?
Answer:
The movement turned violent and twenty two policemen were burnt to death.

Question 17.
Which party came to power in Britain in 1929 and appointed Simon Commission and why ?
Answer:
Tory Party came to power and appointed Simon Commission to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India.

Question 18.
When did Simon Commission arrive in India and why was it boycotted ?
Answer:
Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928. It was boycotted because no Indian was member of this Commission.

Question 19.
Who was the president of Congress at Lahore ? When was it held ?
Answer:
The 1929 session of Congress was held in Lahore under the presidentship of Jawahar Lai Nehru.

Question 20.
Why was the demand to abolish the salt tax selected ?
Answer:
The demand to abolish the salt tax was included in the demands because salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike and it was one of the most essential item of food.

Question 21.
What was the view of Mahatma Gandhi about salt tax and govt, monopoly lover it ?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi declared that the tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.

Question 22.
By which march the Civil Disobedience Movement started ?
Answer:
Dandi March.

Question 23.
State one difference between Non-cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
People were now asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British, as they had done in 1921-22, but also to break colonial law such as salt tax law.

Question 24.
When was a pact with Lord Irwin signed ? How is it known ?
Answer:
The pact known as Gandhi-Irwin Pact, was signed on 5th March, 1931.

Question 25.
What was main clause of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) ?
Answer:
Gandhiji consented to participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London and the government agreed to release the political prisoners.

Question 26.
Why the Congress was reluctant to include workers’ demands as part of its programme of Civil Disobedience Movement ?
Answer:
The Congress was reluctant to include workers’ demands as part of its programme because it was felt that this would alienate industrialists and divide the anti-imperial forces.

Question 27.
Who organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930 ?
Answer:
BR.Ambedkar.

Question 28.
What was the demand of BR Ambedkar for the dalits at the Second Round Table Conference ?
Answer:
BR Ambedkar demanded separate electorate for the dalits.

Question 29.
Which are the different factors in making of nationalism ?
Answer:
History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols all played a part in the making of nationalism.

Question 30.
Who wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ in 1870s ?
Answer:
In 1870s Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote “Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland.

Question 31.
During Swadeshi Movement who painted the image of Bharat Mata ?
Answer:
Moved by Swadeshi Movement Abanindranath Tagore painted image of Bharat Mata.

Question 32.
Who designed the Swaraj flag ? Which colours were included in it ?
Answer:Ans.
Gandhiji designed the swaraj flag. It was a tricolour – red, green and white and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help.

QUESTIONS OF 3/5 MARKS

Answers should he in about 80/100 words.

Question 1.
Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act 1919 ? [CBSE 2016]
Or
Who passed the Rowlatt Act and when ? Explain two major provisions of the Rowlatt Act.
Answer:
See Textbook Exercise Question 1(c).

Question 2.
Explain the reasons and effects of Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Or
Narrate the events leading to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre on 13 April, 1919. What were its effects ?
Answer:
(A) The reasons/events leading to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre were as mentioned below :

In March 1919, Rowlatt Act was passed despite the united opposition of the Indian members. It gave powers to the government to detain political prisoners without trial for two years.
Gandhiji decided to start non-violent civil disobedience against Rowlatt Act with a hartal on 6 April, 1919.
Activities under the movement were as given below :
(a) Rallies were organised in various cities.
(b) Workers went on strike in railway workshops.
(c) Shops were closed.
Policy of the government: The government was alarmed by the popular participation in the movement and was afraid that the lines of communications – railways and telegraph would be disrupted, it decided to follow a stric policy as given below :
(a) Local leaders in Amritsar were arrested.
(b) Mahatma Gandhi was barred from entering Delhi.
(c) On April 10,1919, the police in Amritsar fired upon a peaceful procession. As a result of firing people were provoked and attacked banks, post offices and railway stations.
(d) The government in order to control the situation, imposed Martial Law. General Dyer took command.
On 13 April, 1919, i.e., Baisakhi day, villagers gathered in a fair in Jallianwala Bagh. They were unaware of the Martial Law that had been imposed. Dyer entered the area and blocked the exit point. He opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds. He declared later that his object was to ‘produce a moral effect’, i.e., create in the minds of satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe.

(B) Effects :

After the Jallianwala Bagh massacre crowds took to the streets in many north Indian towns. There were strikes, clashes with the police and attacks on government buildings.
The government, on the other hand, followed a policy of repression.
(a) They humiliated and terrorised people.
(b) Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses on the ground.
(c) They were forced to crawl on the streets and salam all sahibs.
(d) People were flogged.
(e) Some villages around Gujranwala in Punjab were bombed. As the violence spread, Gandhiji called off the movement.

Question 3.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi feel the need to launch a more broad-hased movement in India ? How did he achieve this object ?
Answer:
(A) The reason for a more broad-based movement was that the Rowlatt Satyagraha had been a widespread movement but it was mostly limited to cities and towns.
(B) Gandhiji achieved his object in the way as mentioned below :

Gandhiji felt that a more broad-based movement could not be organised without bringing Hindu-Muslim unity.
(a) One way of achieving Hindu-Muslim unity was to take up the Khilafat issue.
(b) After the defeat of Turkey in World War I there were rumours that harsh terms would be imposed on the emperor of Turkey who was also the Khalifa or the spiritual head of the Muslims.
(c) The Indian Muslims decided to defend the temporal powers of the Khalifa.
id) Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali — two brothers, met Gandhiji who saw this as an opportunity to bring two communities closer and start a unified national movement.
Congress sessions at Calcutta and Nagpur:
(a) In the special session of the Congress at Calcutta in September 1920, inspite of opposition of some leaders, Gandhiji convinced leaders to start a Non-Cooperation Movement in support of Khilafat as well as for swaraj.
(b) However, many within the Congress were reluctant to boycott the council elections scheduled for November 1920, and they feared that the movement might lead to violence.
(c) But finally at Nagpur session in December 1920, a compromise between two Congress groups was worked out and the Non-Cooperation programme was adopted in support of Khilafat as well as for Swaraj.

Question 4.
How had non-cooperation spread in cities ? Explain. Why did it gradually slow down ? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
(a) In the towns, middle classes participated in the movement in the following ways :

Students left the schools and colleges. Headmasters and teachers resigned. Lawyers gave up their practice.
Elections were boycotted except in Madras, where Justice Party, took part in elections because it was a party of non-Brahmans and felt that entering the Council was one way of gaining some power – something that usually only Brahmans had access to.
Foreign goods were boycotted.
Liquor shops were picketed.
Foreign clothes were burnt in huge bonfires.
Many traders refused to import foreign cloth or trade in foreign goods.

(b) Economic effects of Non-Cooperation Movement were as given below :

The import of foreign cloth decreased from ? 102 crore to K 57 crore between 1921 and
In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
People discarded foreign clothes and started wearing only Indian clothes. This led to increased production by the Indian textile mills and handlooms.

(c) The movement in the cities gradually slowed down for the reasons as given below :

Khadi was often more expensive than mass produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it.
Similarly the boycott of British institutions failed because to be successful alternative Indian institutions could not be set up in place of the British ones. As a result of it, students and teachers began to go back to government schools.
The lawyers too joined back work in government courts.

Question 5.
Describe the causes, events and results of peasants movement of Awadh during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Answer:
During the Non-Cooperation Movement, the peasants of Awadh under the leadership of Baba Ramchandra – a sanyasi, participated.

Causes :
(a) The talukdars and landlords demanded high rents and other cesses from the peasants who had to do begar and work at landlord’s farms without payment.
(b) As tenants, there was no security of tenure and no right over the leased land.
Object and demands : The demands included reduction of revenue, abolition of begar, and social boycott of oppressive landlords.
Activities during the movement:
(a) In many places, nai-dhobi bandhs were organised by panchayats to deprive landlords of the services of even barbers and washermen.
(b) By October 1920 Oudh Kisan Sabha was formed. It was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru who had gone there, talked to the villagers to understand their grievances.
(c) Within a month over 300 branches had been setup in the villages around this region.
(d) After the start of non-cooperation movement Congress tried to integrate the Awadh peasants struggle into a wider struggle.
(e) The peasant movement, however, developed in forms that the Congress leadership was unhappy with because in 1921 the houses of talukdars and merchants were attacked, bazars were looted, and grain hoards were taken over.
1. The local leaders told peasants that Gandhiji had declared that no taxes were to be paid and land was to be redistributed among the poor. The name of Gandhiji was used to sanction all actions and aspirations.
Results : As the peasants struggle had turned violent, the Congress was unhappy.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the participation of tribal peasants in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Answer:

Causes for participation :
(a) The colonial government had closed large forest areas, preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits.
(b) These restrictions had affected their livelihoods as well as their traditional rights.
(c) They were forced to contribute begar for road building.
Activities : They attacked police stations and attempted to kill British officials and carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj.
Their leader and his views : Alluri Sitaram Raju led them in the militant guerrilla movement. He was influenced by Gandhiji and persuaded them to wear khadi and give up drinking. He believed in the use of force for liberation of the country. He was captured and executed in 1924 and became a folk hero.
Importance : This shows that tribal people were also influenced by Non-Cooperation Movement and took part in it in their own way. Tribal peasants, however, could not achieve their objects because such activities were not approved by the Congress.

Question 7.
“The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the nation of Swaraj.” Support the statement with arguments. [CBSE2016]
Or
Describe why did the plantation workers of Assam join the Non-Cooperation Movement. What were its results ? What was the importance of movement of plantation workers and other such movements ?
Answer:
(a) Object : Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers in Assam were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission. In practice they were rarely given such permission. For them freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the Confined space in which they were enclosed and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come. They believed that under Gandhi Raj everyone would be given land in their own village.
(b) Events :

During the movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities.
They left the plantations and headed home.
They, however, never reached their destination. Stranded on the way by a railway and steamer strike, they were caught by the police and brutally beaten up.

(c) Importance :

The objects of movement of plantation workers and other such movements (of tribal people in Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh) were not defined by the Congress programme. They interpreted the term Swaraj in their own ways. They hoped that time will come when their all miseries would come to an end.
The tribals chanted Gandhiji’s name and raised slogans demanding ‘Swatantra Bharat This way they were also emotionally relating to an all India agitation.
When they acted in the name of Mahatma Gandhi or linked their movement with Congress, they were identifying with a movement which went beyond the limits of their immediate locality.

Question 8.
Write a short note on Swaraj Party.
Answer:
After the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922, there were two groups in the Congress. Some leaders were tired of mass struggles and wanted to participate in the council elections. They were of the opinion that the British policies should be opposed within the councils. They should ask for more reforms and demonstrate that these councils were not truly democratic. These leaders were C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru who formed Swaraj Party for fighting elections and to return to council politics.

The other group was led by younger elements like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose who were in favour of more radical mass agitation and for full independence. However, the swarajists were allowed to fight elections. They succeeded only to some extent in 1923. In 1926, elections they did not succeed due to death of C.R. Das.

Question 9.
Simon Commission was greeted with slogan “Go Back Simon” at arrival in India. Support this reaction of Indians with arguments. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
(a) In 1928, Simon Commission was constituted by the Tory government in Britain in response to the nationalist movement.
(b) The object of the Commission under Sir John Simon, was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest changes. But the problem was that the commission did not have a single Indian member. All the members were British.
It was under these circumstances that the Indians decided to boycott the commission. So when the commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’. All parties including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in the demonstrations.
(c) The demonstration by all parties against the Simon Commission was justified on the following grounds :

Under the Government of India Act of 1919, the provincial councils set up were not truly democratic.
The powers were still in the hands of the Governor General of India.
In response to the demands of the Indians, Simon Commission was appointed to look into the constitutional reforms in India but it was strange that no Indian was appointed as a member. This was an insult for the Indians.
Not to include an Indian was against the spirit of nationalists in India. Hence
demonstration against Simon Commission. .

Question 10.
Describe the main events leading to Civil Disobedience Movement or Salt- Satyagraha in 1930. .
Or
Describe the different factors that shaped the political situations in the late 1920s.
Answer:
The main events/factors that led to start of Salt Satyagraha were as mentioned below :

Boycott of Simon Commission.
Announcement of Lord Irwin in October 1929.
(a) In October 1929 in order to win over Congress and the Muslim League, Lord Irwin Viceroy made an offer of ‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future.
(b) He also stated that a Round Table Conference would be held to discuss a future constitution for India.
These actions of Lord Irwin could not satisfy the radicals within the Congress.
Subash Chandra Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru became more assertive.
The liberals and moderats who were demanding constitutional system within the frame work of British dominion lost their influence.
Under these circumstances, Congress Session at Lahore was held in December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru.
At Lahore session Congress passed a resolution for ‘Purna Swaraj’ or full independence for India. It was declared that 26 January, 1930 would be celebrated as Independence Day and
people were to take a pledge to struggle for independence. Thus the stage was ready for next
part of struggle against the British government.

Question 11.
What were the main demands put forward by Gandhiji in his letter dated 31st January 1930 to Viceroy ? What was the object and importance of Salt Tax ?
Answer:
(a) After the Lahore session of Congress 26 January 1930 was celebrated as Independence Day. At Lahore resolution for ‘Purna Swaraj’ was passed. So in order to achieve this Gandhiji was authorised to start a movement. Before starting a movement, Gandhiji wrote a letter on
31st January 1930 stating the demands which were wide ranging to include all classes within Indian society.
(b) The abolition of Salt Tax was the most important demand because salt was consumed by the rich as well as poor. It was one of the most essential items of food. The monopoly of the government over its production revealed the most oppressive policy of the British government. , So to attract each and everyone into the movement, Gandhiji included abolition of salt tax in his
eleven demands. The demands were, however, not accepted by the Viceroy. The ground for the start of Civil Disobedience Movement or Salt Satyagraha was now ready.

Question 12.
Describe briefly the Salt March/Dandhi March undertaken by Mahatma Gandhi. What were its importance and effects ?
Answer:
(a)

As the demands were not fulfilled, Gandhiji started march from his ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarat coastal town of Dandi.
He was accompanied by his 78 trusted followers.
The march continued for 24 days about 10 miles a day.
During the march Gandhiji explained to the people, the meaning of swaraj and urged them to defy the British laws.
On reaching Dandi on 6 April, he ceremonially violated the salt law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.

(b) Importance :
Manufacturing salt by boiling sea water was the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement. It was different from Non-cooperation Movement of 1920-22 because people were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws such as Salt Law which was the most oppressive face of the British rule.

Question 13.
Describe the various activities that took place during the first phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Why was it withdrawn in March 1931 ? [CBSE 2016]
Or
Why did Gandhiji decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
Answer:
(a) The various activities that took place during the first phase of the movement were as mentioned below :

Violation of salt laws by manufacturing salt.
Boycott of foreign cloth.
Picketing of liquor shops.
Refusal of peasants to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes.
Resignation of village officials.
Violation of forest laws and going to Reserved forests to collect wood and grazing cattle.

(b) Policy of the government :

The government adopted a repressive policy.
It arrested the Congress leaders.
Abdul Gaffar Khan, a devout disciple of Gaiidhiji, was arrested in April 1930. It led to clashes in Peshawar.
In police firing many people were killed.
In Sholapur, people attacked lawcourts, railway stations and the structures that symbolised the British rule.
As a result of repressive policy about 100,000 people were arrested.

(c) As a result of government’s repressive policy in which children and women were beaten Gandhiji once again decided to call off the movement. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5th March 1931.

Question 14.
What were main features of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact ? How and when was the Civil Disobedience relaunched and lost its momentum ?
Answer:
(a) Gandhiji decided to call off the movement and entered into a Pact with Irwin on 5 March 1931.

The main feature of the agreement was that Gandhiji consented to participate in a Round Table Conference in London.
The government agreed to release the political prisoners.

(b) Gandhiji went to London to attend the Second Round Table Conference as the sole representative of the Congress. The Round Table Conference, however, failed. Gandhiji re¬turned empty handed. On his return, he found that the government was following a repressive policy. Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru had already been arrested. Congress had been declared illegal. The government had taken many steps to prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts. Gandhiji restarted the movement again on 1 January, 1932. It continued but soon lost its momentum and was withdrawn in 1934.

Question 15.
Why did the different social groups join the Civil Disobedience Movement ?[CBSE2016]
Or
“The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial workers in its programme of struggle.” Analayse. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The different social groups joined the Civil Disobedience Movement for the reasons as mentioned
below :

(1) Rich peasant communities : The reasons for the rich peasant communities for taking part ire the movement were as given below :

The rich communities like the Patidars of Gujarat and the Jats of Uttar Pradesh were producers of commercial crops. They were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices.
They were not in a position to pay revenue to the government. They joined the movement in order to get the revenue reduced. They even forced reluctant members to participate in the boycott programmes. For them the fight for swaraj was a struggle against high revenues.
The refusal of the government to reduce the revenue demand had led to widespread
resentment among the rich peasants.

(2) Poor peasantry :

Poor peasantry joined the movement in the hope that their unpaid rent to the landlord would be remitted because due to depression they were not in a position to
pay the rent. Many of them were small tenants cultivating land they had rented from landlords. Their cash income had dwindled due to depression.
The Congress was apprehensive of raising isshes because that might upset the rich peasants and landlords. So, Congress did not support ‘no rent’ campaigns. Thus, the relationship between the poor peasants and the Congress remained uncertain.

(3) Business classes :

They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
They formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
Prominent industrialists Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla attacked the colonial control over the Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement.
They refused to sell or buy imported goods. Most businessmen came to see swaraj as a time when colonial restrictions on business would no longer exist and trade and industry would flourish without constraints. But after the failure of the Round Table Conference, business groups were no longer uniformly enthusiastic. They were apprehensive of the spread of militant activities. They were also worried about prolonged disruption of business, as well as of the growing influence of socialism amongst the younger members of the Congress.

(4) Industrial working class :

They did not participate in the movement in large numbers except in the Nagpur region.
As the industrialists came closer to Congress, the workers stayed aloof.
Some workers did participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement selectively as mentioned below :
(a) Boycott of foreign goods as part of their own movements against low wages and poor working conditions.
(b) There were strikes by railway workers in 1930.
(c) Dockworkers’ strike in 1932.
(d) In 1930 thousands of workers in Chotanagpur in mines wore Gandhi caps and participated in protest rallies and boycott campaign.It may be mentioned that the Congress was reluctant to include workers’ demands because that would alienate industrialists and divide anti-imperial forces.

Question 16.
What was the role of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
Answer:
There was large-scale participation of women as mentioned below :

During salt march, thousands of women came out of their homes to listen him (Gandhiji).
Women participated in protest marches, manufactured salt and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops.
Many went to jail: In urban areas these women were from high caste families; in rural areas they came from rich peasant households.
They were moved by the call of Gandhiji and began to see service to the nation as a sacred duty of women.The participation, however, did not change their status because Gandhiji was convinced that it was the duty of the women to look after home and hearth to be good mothers and good wives.

Question 17.
Not all social groups were moved by the abstract concept of Swaraj. Support the statement in the light of Civil Disobedience Movement.
Or
Describe the limits of Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
Thousands of people in different parts of the country broke the salt laws and boycotted foreign cloth. Liquor shops were picketed by women who participated in protest marches and manufactured salt. But there were many social groups that? did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement. These were as given below:

Untouchables : Untouchables or dalits or oppressed for long had been ignored by the Congress because of the fear of offending the sanatanis, the conservative high caste Hindus. The result was that the dalit leaders organised themselves and demanded reserved seats in educational institutions and separate electorates for legislature councils. They thought that political empowerment would solve their problems. Dalit participation, was, therefore limited particularly in Maharashtra and Nagpur region where their organisation was strong.
Muslim participation : After the Non-Cooperation Movement, a large section of Muslim felt alienated from the Congress. Relations between Hindus and Muslims had wors-ened. There were communal riots in various cities. However, efforts were made to bring two communities closer by solving the question of representation. But due to failure of these efforts, there was an atmosphere of suspicion and distrust between these two communities. Thus, large sections of Muslims remained alienated from the Congress and did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement. They feared that the culture and identity of minorities would be in danger under the domination of a Hindu majority.

Question 18.
Describe the views of Mahatma Gandhi on untouchability and efforts made by him to get Harijans their rights.
Answer:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi was against untouchability. He declared that swaraj would not come for a hundred years if untouchability was not eliminated. He called the ‘untouchables’ harijan or the children of God.
(b)

He organised Satyagraha to secure them entry into temples, and access to public wells, tanks, roads and schools.
He himself cleaned toilets to dignify the work of the bhangi (sweepers).
He persuaded upper caste to change their heart and give up ‘the sin of untouchability’.

Question 19.
Describe Poona Pact of September 1932.
Answer:
After the announcement of Communal Award in August 1932 which gave separate electorate to dalits, Gandhiji began a fast unto death. Gandhiji believed that separate elector¬ates for dalit would slow down the process of their integration into society. Ultimately, Poona Pact was signed in September 1932. This gave the Depressed Classes reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils. They were, however, to be voted in by the general electorate be., by all the voters in a constituency.

Question 20.
“Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation.” Support the statement. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
It is true to say that nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of^the same nation, when they discover some unity that binds them together. In India such sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggles. But there were also a variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured people’s imagination. Thus nationalism spreads in the ways as mentioned below :

Symbol of a figure or image : The identity of India was visualised with the image of Bharat Mata. The image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. Devotion to mother figure was treated as evidence of one’s nationalism.
Revival of Indian folklore : In the late nineteenth century, revival of folklore helped in the development of nationalism. Folk songs and legends, gave a true picture of traditional culture. It helped in discovering national identity and restoring a sense of pride.
Icons and symbols : More icons and symbols helped in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism. The examples are designing of a tricolour flag during Swadeshi movement, Swaraj flag by Gandhiji in 1921. The carrying, of Swaraj flag during marches and demonstrations became a symbol of defiance.
Interpretation of history : The interpretation of history also helped in raising the sense of nationalism among the Indians. Nationalist history drew the attention of the Indians to the great achievements of the past as was done by the extremists like Lok Manya Tilak.
The sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggles such as Non-Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement and Quit India Movement.
There were also variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured people’s imagination. History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols, all played a part in the making of nationalism.

MAP QUESTION

On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following places of national movement:

Champaran
Kheda
Amritsar
Chauri-Chaura
Lahore
Bardoli

Answer:
The places have been located and labelled. See the map given below :

Hope given Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 3 are helpful to complete your homework.

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Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Manufacturing Industries

January 5, 2022September 4, 2021 by Murali

CBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Manufacturing Industries Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries.

Learnintsa.com Committed to provides Extensive NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Lifelines of National Economy, Students can read and score more marks in your CBSE board examination.

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Answers should not exceed 30 words.

Question 1.
How is economic strength of a country-measured ?
Answer:
The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Question 2.
What is NMCC ?
Answer:
National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.

Question 3.
What are the benefits of cities in industrialisation ?
Answer:
Cities provide markets and provide services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice etc. to the industry.

Question 4.
Name the places where most manufacturing units were located before independence.
Answer:
Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai.

Question 5.
Which are the factors for the ideal location of industry ? Mention any one.
Answer:
Availability of raw material.

Question 6.
Mention any two agro-based industries.
Answer:
Cotton and woolen textile industry.

Question 7.
How industries are divided on the basis of capital investment ?
Answer:

Small scale industry.
Large scale industry.

Question 8.
Mention the industries on the basis of ownership.
Answer:

Public sector owned and operated by the government agencies – BHEL.
Private sector owned and operated by individuals – TISCO.
Joint sector which are owned and run jointly by the state and individuals – Oil India Ltd.
Cooperative sector industries owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw material, workers or both g. sugar industry in Maharashtra.

Question 9.
In which state spinning continues to be centralised ?
Answer:
Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.

Question 10.
Mention two places of silk textile industries.
Answer:
Srinagar, Anantnag and Baramula in Jammu & Kashmir.

Question 11.
Where most of the jute mills are located ?
Answer:
Most of the jute mills are located in West Bengal mainly along the banks of the Hugh river.

Question 12.
State one reason for increase in internal demand for jute products.
Answer:
The internal demand has been on the increase due to government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging.

Question 13.
In which year the National Jute Policy was formulated ?
Answer:
2005.

Question 14.
What is the position of India in the production of sugar, gur and khandsari ?
Answer:
India stands second as a world producer of sugar but occupies the first place in the production of gur and khandsari.

Question 15.
In recent years why is there a tendency for the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in the Southern and Western states ? State any one reason.
Answer:
The sugarcane produced there has a higher sucrose content.

Question 16.
What are the challenges before sugar industry ? Mention any one.
Answer:
Old and inefficient methods of production.

Question 17.
What do you mean by mineral based industries ? Give one example.
Answer:

Industries that use minerals and metals as raw materials are called mineral based industries.
- Iron and steel
- cement.

Question 18.
State any one feature of iron and steel industry.
Answer:
Iron and steel is a heavy industry because all the raw materials as well as finished goods are heavy and bulky entailing heavy transportation costs.

Question 19.
Name any one integrated steel plant.
Answer:
TISCO.

Question 20.
By which authority, the steel of all public sector undertaking is marketed ?
Answer:
All public sector undertaking market their steel through, Steel Authority of India Ltd.

Question 21.
Why the Chhotanagpur region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries ?
Answer:
The Chhotanagpur region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries due to low cost of iron ore, high grade raw material in proximity, cheap labour and vast growth potential in the home market.

Question 22.
State any one feature of aluminium smelting industry.
Answer:
Aluminium is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable and becomes strong when it is mixed with other metals.

Question 23.
What is the contribution of chemical industry in the GDP ?
Answer:
The chemical industry contributes approximately 3 per cent of the GDP.

Question 24.
Which are organic chemicals ? How are they used ?
Answer:
Organic chemicals include petrochemicals which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibres, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs, and pharmaceuticals.

Question 25.
When the fertiliser industry has expanded significantly ?
Answer:
After the Green Revolution the fertiliser industry has expanded significantly to many parts of the country.

Question 26.
Which materials are required by the cement industry ?
Answer:
The cement industry requires bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum.

Question 27.
What is the main cause for rapid strides in the cement industry in 1980s and 1990s ?
Answer:
Decontrol of price and distribution since 1989 and other policy reforms led the cement industry to make rapid strides in capacity, process, technology and production.

Question 28.
What is the use of automobiles ?
Answer:
Automobiles provide vehicle for quick transport of good services and passengers.

Question 29.
Which city has emerged as the electronic capital of India ?
Answer:
Bangalore. ,

Question 31.
What does the software technology park provide ?
Answer:
The software technology parks provide single window service and high data communication facility to software experts.

Question 32.
Which machine helps in reducing noise pollution ?
Answer:
Silencers.

Question 33.
Name any two industries that are responsible for water pollution.
Answer:
Chemical, textile, dying and petroleum refineries.

QUESTIONS OF 3/5 MARKS

Answers should he in about 80/100 words.

Question 1.
How is manufacturing sector considered the backbone of economic development of the country ? Explain any three points in this regard. [CBSE 2015]
Or
The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries. Explain. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The economic strength of a country lies in the development of manufacturing industries. It is the backbone of development in general and economic development in particular due to the following reasons :

Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture.
It reduces the heavy dependence of people on agricultural sector. At present more than half of the workers in the country are still working in the primary sector, mainly in agricultural activities. The workers in this sector are under employed.
It provides jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Industrial development or manufacturing industries are necessary for the removal of unemployment and poverty in a country like India. This was the main philosophy behind public sector ventures in India.
It brings down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
The industries make a country rich and prosperous because raw materials are transformed into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value which increases the income.

Question 2.
“Agriculture and industry are complementary to each other.” Explain with examples.
Or
How do industries give boost to the agriculture sector ? [CBSE 2015]

Answer:
It is true that agriculture and industry move hand in hand.

There are agro-based industries such as cotton, woollen, jute, edible oil that get their raw materials from agriculture.
In return, these industries sell their products such as irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, PVC pipes and many other things to the farmers.
Thus agro-industries has given boost to agriculture by raising its productivity and has made the production processes very efficient as well.

Question 3.
What is the contribution of industry to national economy in India ? Compare it with the East Asian Countries. What is the desired growth and present position of industry in GDP ?
Answer:

The contribution of industry to national economy has not been satisfactory for the last two decades. It has stagnated at 17 per cent of GDP — out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 per cent for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas.
In comparison to India’s 17 per cent share in the GDP, the East Asian Countries have contributed 25 to 35 per cent to their GDP.
The trend of growth rate in manufacturing over the last decade has been around 7 per cent per annum.
The desired growth over the next decade is 12 percent.
At present growth rate is about 9 to 10 per cent and it is expected that we can achieve the growth rate of 12 per cent by some efforts like setting up of the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC).

Question 4.
Why are industries located in or near the cities ?
Or
Why do the industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand ? Explain.
Answer:
Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand because sometimes industries are set up in or near the cities. The reasons for this are as mentioned below :

Industries need different types of services such as labour, banking, transport, insurance and financial consultants. Such services are available in cities.
In cities the manufactured products are sold. They become markets for these products and people are able to buy them according to their requirements.
Availability of products attracts people from other parts to settle there. Thus, industrialisation leads to urbanisation.
Sometimes many industries are set up together to make use of the advantage offered by the urban centres known as agglomeration economies. Gradually a large industrial agglomeration takes place. Thus, it is correct to state that the industries are located in or near the cities.

Question 5.
Where the most manufacturing units were located in the pre-independence period ? What were the results ?

In the pre-independence period, the manufacturing units were located in places keeping in view the overseas trade. These places were Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.
Result :
1. The result of locating the manufacturing industries at Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai and other places was the emergence of certain pockets of industrially developed urban centers surrounded by a huge agricultural rural hinterland.
2. First cotton textile mill was set up at Mumbai in 1854.
3. First jute mill was established at Rishra near Kolkata in 1859.

Question 6.
Classify industries on the basis of source of raw material. How are they different from each other ?
[CBSE 2016]
Answer:
(1) Industries on the basis of source of raw material are classified as given below :

Agro-based e., cotton, woolen, jute, silk, textile, rubber, sugar, tea, coffee, edible oil.
Mineral based e., iron and steel, cement, aluminium, machine tools and petrochemicals.

Agro-based industries

Mineral based industries

(1) These are not capital intensive and do not need large investment e.g., dairy products.

(2) Agro-based industries use plant and animal based products as their raw material. These are based on agricultural raw material.

(3) Cotton textiles, dairy products are example of agro-based industries.

(1) These are capital intensive industries as these involve large investments.

(2) These industries use any kind of mineral such as iron ore, aluminium. Example is iron and steel industry and chemical industry.

(3) These industries use raw material for the manufacture of a number of other products such as heavy machinery, building material and railway coaches.

Question 7.
Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How do they differ from each other ? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:

The industries on the basis of their role are classified into basic industries and consumer industries.
The difference between the two are as given below :

Basic Industries

Mineral based industries

(1) Basic industries produce primary raw materials for factories to work for instance steel and iron industries.

(2) Basic industries do not depend on other industries to exist. Their raw material is not the output of another industry but rather their raw material is the stuff of nature itself.

(3) The basic industries are iron and steel, copper smelting etc.

(1) These are capital intensive industries as these involve large investments.

(2) These industries use any kind of mineral such as iron ore, aluminium. Example is iron and steel industry and chemical industry.

(3) These industries use raw material for the manufacture of a number of other products such as heavy machinery, building material and railway coaches.

Question 8.
How industries are classified on the basis of ownership ? Explain.
Answer:
(1) Industries are classified on the basis of ownership into various categories as
mentioned below :

Public sector
Private sector
Joint sector
Cooperative sector.

(2) These are explained below :

Public sector : These are owned and operated by the government agencies. Examples are BHEL, SAIL etc.
Private sector : These industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals. Their main object is to earn profit. Examples are TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd., Dabur Industries.
Joint sector : These industries are jointly run by the state and individual or a group of individuals. Examples Oil India Ltd. which is jointly owned by private and pubic sector.
Cooperative sector : These industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both. They pool in the resources and share the profits or losses proportionately such as the sugar industry in Maharashtra, the coir industry in Kerala.

Question 9.
Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one another ? Explain with examples. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:

On the basis of capital investment, industries are classified into small scale and large scale industry.
Small scale and large scale industries differ from each other as mentioned below :

Small scale industry

Large scale industry

(1) A small scale industry is that in which maximum investment is ? one crore.

(2) These industries employ less number of persons.

(3) Most of the work is done by man power, small machines and tools.

(4) Raw material used are less and therefore, production is also less. These are generally more labour intensive.

(1) In large scale industry the investment is more than X one crore.

(2) These industries employ a large number of persons.

(3) Most of the work is done by machines.

(4) The production is on large scale as the raw materials used is more.

Question 10.
Classify industry on the basis of the bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods.
Answer:
On the basis of bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods the industries are classified into heavy and light industries.

Heavy industries are such as iron and steel.
Light industries that use light raw materials and produce light goods such as electrical industries.

Question 11.
“The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self reliant and complete in the value chain.” Justify the statement. [CBSE 2016]
Or
“The textile industry occupies unique position in the Indian economy.” Explain with examples.
Answer:
The textile industry occupies unique position in the Indian economy due to the facts mentioned below :

It contributes 14 per cent to industrial production.
It generates employment for 35 million persons.
It earns foreign exchange which is 24.6 per cent of the total earnings.
It contributes 4 per cent towards GDP.
It is self-reliant and complete in the value chain e., raw material to the highest value added products as shown in figure given below :

Figure showing value addition in the textile industry :

From above it is clear that value at each step is added in the textile industry and one has to go step by step.

Question 12.
Describe the condition of cotton textile industry in India before and after independence.
Answer:
(1) Before independence :

In ancient India and even during the British rule our textiles were produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques.
India remained the world’s main producer of cotton textiles.
Indian textiles were of top quality and other countries could not compete with it.
There was great demand for Indian textiles and India had a substantial export trade to Britain as well.

(2) During British period after 18th century textile industry suffered a set back due to coming of Manchester goods in India. The Indian weavers could not compete due to various reasons.
(3) At present the condition of cotton textile industry in India is as mentioned below :

There are 1600 cotton and human made fibre textile mills in the country.
About 80 per cent are in the private sector and the rest in public and cooperative sectors.
There are thousands of small factories with four to ten looms.
In the early years, cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat due to availability of raw cotton, market, transport, labour and port facilities. But now spinning is centralised in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu but weaving is highly decentralised to provide scope for incorporating traditional skills and designs of weaving in cotton, silk, zari and embroidery.
Cotton textiles industry is closely related to agriculture. It provides a living to farmers, cotton boll pluckers and workers engaged in ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, designing, packaging, tailoring and sewing.
It supports many other industries, such as, chemicals and dyes, mill stores, packaging materials and engineering works by creating various types of demands.
India has world class production in spinning, but weaving supplies low quality of fabric.
The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry.
India exports yam to Japan and cotton goods to USA, UK, Russia, France, East European countries, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka and African countries.

Question 13.
Describe the production of fabric in India by various sectors. Why is it important for us to keep the mill sector loomage lower than the power loom and handloom.
Answer:
(1) The production of fabric in India by various sectors is as mentioned below :

Sector

Share of production

Loomage

Mills

Powerloom

Handloom

G.OCUper cent

54.17 per cent

23.00 per cent

1.33 lakh

14 lakh

From above figure it is clear that 90 percent of the weaving, cutting and processing is in decentralised sector.

(2) It is important for us to keep the mill/sector loomage lower than power loom and handloom due to facts as mentioned below :

In our country many artisans and weavers work independently along with the familly on handloom and powerlooms.
Most of these people working on handlooms and power looms are poor. It is the only source of income for them.
If the mill production is increased to meet the demands of the people then these weavers and artisans will suffer as their sales will be affected.
Increase in mill production will lead largely to rural unemployment and decline in standard of living.
Thus in order to provide more employment opportunities and regular income to these weavers, the loomage or the production of the mills must be kept lower than power loom and handloom.

Question 14.
Why is it important for us to improve our weaving sector instead of exporting yam in large quantities ?
Answer:
We need to make improvement in the weaving sector for the reasons as mentioned below :

Weaving machinery is old and needs to be upgraded to give more output.
Power supply to powerlooms is erratic and power needs to be available on continuous basis.
Weavers can directly supply cloth to garment manufacturers instead of garment makers importing the fabric.
This will also increase employment and incomes of the weavers.
Increasing the weaving capacity will increase the GDP of country and create opportunity for development of ancillary industries like dyeing, processing and printing of woven fabrics, production of stitched garments.
This could also mean reduction in imports of fabrics and ready made garments thus saving foreign exchange reserves and using it for other important products.

Question 15.
Explain why many of our spinners export cotton yam while apparel/garment manufacturers have to import fabric.
Answer:
India’s share in the world trade of cotton yarn accounts for one-fourth of the total trade. However, our trade in garments is only 4 per cent of the world’s total but in spite of these facts many of our spinners export cotton yarn while apparel/garment manufacturers have to import fabric. The reasons for this state of affairs are as mentioned below :

The weaving, knitting and processing units cannot use much of the high quality yam that we produce.
There are some large and modern factories but most of the production is done in fragmented small units. These units cater to the needs of loqal market. This mismatch is a major drawback for the industry.
Production of good quality long staple cotton has increased but India still imports due to the following reasons :
1. Erratic power supply.
2. Old machinery that needs upgradation.
3. Low output of labour.
4. Stiff competition with the synthetic fiber industry.

Question 16.
Describe the factors responsible for the location of most of the jute mills along the banks of the Hugli river in West Bengal.
Answer:
The factors for the location of most of the jute mills along the banks of the Hugli river in a narrow belt i.e., 98 km long and 3 km wide in West Bengal are as given below :

Proximity of the jute producing areas.
Inexpensive water transport.
Good network of railways, roadways and waterways to facilitate movement of raw material to the mills.
Abundant water for processing raw jute.
Cheap labour from West Bengal and adjoining states of Bihar, Orissa and Uttar Pradesh.
Availability of facilities such as banking, insurance and port facilities for export of jute goods at Kolkata which is a large urban center.

Question 17.
What are the challenges faced by the jute industry ? How the internal demand has been on the increase ? Which are the main markets for jute products ?
Answer:
(1) The challenges faced by the jute industry are as mentioned below :

Stiff competition in the international market from synthetic substitutes.
Competition with other countries like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand.

(2) However inspite of the challenges, there is increase in the internal demand due to factors as mentioned below :

The government has made mandatory use of jute packaging.
The growing global concern for environment friendly biodegradable materials has also increased the use of jute products.
In 2005 National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare.
The growing global concern for environment friendly biodegradable materials has also helped in use of more jute products.

(3) The main markets are USA, Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, UK and Australia.

Question 18.
Give a brief description of sugar industry with special reference to its raw material, its nature, location of sugar mills and place in the world.
Answer:
(1) Raw material : The raw material, i.e., sugarcane, is bulky and in haulage, its sucrose content reduces. It is weight losing and perishable.
(2) Nature : This industry is seasonal in nature and, therefore, it is ideally suited to the cooperative sector because it needs large manual labour in various processes of cultivation and production of sugar and other products that can be provided by the cooperatives.
(3)

Location of sugar mills : There are about 460 sugar mills which are located in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh. Sixty per cent mills are in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
In recent years there has been a tendency for the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states due to following reasons :
- The sugarcane produced in the southern and western states has a higher sucrose content.
- The cooler climate also ensures a longer crushing season.
- The industry is ideally suited to the cooperative sector and this sector has been more successful in these states.
- Place in the world : India stands second as a producer of sugar. It, however, occupies the first place in the production of gurand
- The challenges before the sugar industry are its seasonal nature, old and inefficient methods of production, transport delay in reaching sugarcane to factories, need to maximise the use of baggase.

Question 19.
Describe iron and steel industry with reference to its features, uses and method of production.
Ans.
(1) Basic industry : Iron and steel industry is the basic industry because all the other industries depend on it for their machinery.
(2) Production and heavy industry :

It is a heavy industry because all the raw materials as well as finished goods are heavy and bulky entailing heavy transportation costs.
Iron ore, coking coal and limestone are required in the ratio of approximately 4:2:1. f (3) Some quantities of manganese are also required to harden the steel.
Uses : Steel is used to manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction material, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipment and consumer goods.

Question 20.
Which mineral’s production and consumption is regarded as the index of a country’s development ? What is the rank of India among the world crude steel producers ? Why is the per capital consumption of steel so low in India ?
Answer:
(1) Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s development.
(2)

India produces 32.8 millon tons of steel.
It ranks ninth among the world crude steel producers.
It is the largest producer of sponge iron.

(3) In spite of large quantity of production of steel, per capital consumption per anum is only 32 kg. The reasons for the low consumption of steel are as mentioned below :

Lack of domestic market for steel in India.
Most of the steel is produced for international market.
High costs of steel because modern and cost effective technologies for steel production are not utilised due to lack of infrastructure.
Nearly % of Indian population live in villages which require very small quantities of steel.
To carry steel to some areas is difficult because of improper means of transport.
Low developed remote areas are not in need of steel.

Question 21.
Why the Chhotanagpur plateau region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries ? Give reasons. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The Chhotanagpur plateau region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries due to the following reasons :

Low cost of iron.
High grade raw materials are available in proximity.
Cheap labour is available.
There is vast growth potential in the home market.

Question 22.
Which are the factors responsible for not performing to our full potential ? What is its present position ? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
(1) We are not able to perform to our full potential energy due to the reasons as mentioned below :

High costs and limited availability of coking coal.
Lower productivity of labour.
Irregular supply of energy.
Poor infrastructure.

(2) The present position is as mentioned below :

The overall production of steel is sufficient to meet our domestic demand.
Liberalisation and Foreign Direct Investment have given a boost to the industry with the efforts of private entrepreneurs.
There is need to allocate resources for research and development to produce steel more competitively.

Question 23.
Write a brief note on Aluminium smelting industry in India.
Answer:
(1) Qualities : It is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat and malleable. It becomes strong when it is mixed with other metals.
(2) Uses : It is used to manufacture aircraft, utensils and wires. It is also used as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries.
(3)Position of Aluminium :

Aluminium smelting is the second important metallurgical industry in India. There are eight aluminium smelting plants in India. These are located in Orissa (Nalco and Balco), West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
In 2004, India produced over 600 million tons of aluminium.
Factors for the location of the industry are regular supply of electricity and an assured source of raw materials e., bauxite at the minimum cost.

Question 24.
Describe the main features of chemical industry in India.
Ans.
The main features are as follows :

It is fast growing and diversifying industry.
Its contribution to GDP is approximately 3 per cent.
It is the third largest in Asia and twelfth in the world in size.
It has both large and small scale manufacturing units.
Rapid growth in both organic and inorganic sectors.
It has its own consumer market because basic chemicals are used for producing other chemicals that are used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets.
Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibres, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals.
Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries and petrochemical plants because petrochemicals are heavy organic chemicals which are difficult to transport to other places.
The inorganic chemical industry manufactures fertilisers, plastics, paints, adhesives, soaps, detergents and paper etc. These products are used by people all over the country and can ¹ be produced by small inorganic chemical industries spread all over the country.

Question 25.
Write a short note on the main features of the fertiliser industry in India.
Answer:
Main features are :

It produces nitrogenous fertilisers (mainly urea), phosphatic fertilisers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and complex fertilisers i.e., combination of nitrogen (N), phosphate (P) | and potash (K).
India is the third largest producer of nitrogenous fertilisers.
Number of fertiliser units in the country are as follows :
- Nitrogenous and complex nitrogenous fertiliser — 57
- Urea – 29
- Ammonium sulphate – 09
- Single superphosphate – 68
There are 10 public sector undertakings and one in cooperative sector at Hazira in Gujarat under the Fertiliser Corporation of India.
Main fertiliser producing states are Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Kerala where half of the fertiliser is produced. Other states are Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan, Bihar, Maharashtra, Assam, West Bengal, Goa, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka.

Question 26.
Describe the cement industry in India with special reference to the uses of element and its expansion.
Answer:
The main facts about the cement industry in India are as given below :

Uses : Cement is used for construction of buildings, factories, dams, airports, roads and other commercial complexes.
Raw materials : Bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum are used in it. Besides this, it needs coal, electric power and rail transportation.
Location of plants :
1. First cement plant was set up in Chennai in 1904. However,decontrol of price and distribution and policy reforms since 1989 led to its expansion.
2. There are 128 large plants and 332 mini-cement plants in the country.
3. Some plants have been strategically located in Gujarat. These plants have suitable access to the market in the Gulf countries.
4. Present position of the industry : Good quality of cement of India has great demand in Last Asia, Middle East, Africa and South Asia as well as in the country. At present the cement industry is doing well in terms of production as well as export. Efforts are being made
  togenerate adequate domestic demand and supply in order to sustain the industry.

Question 27.
What are the advantages of automobiles ? What are the factors responsible or the healthy growth of automobile industry ? Which are the main centers of automobile industry ?
Answer:

Advantages : Automobiles provide vehicles for quick transport of good services and passengers.
Liberalisation, foreign direct investment, new and contemporary models are factors responsible for the healthy growth of the industry including passenger cars, two and three- wheelers.
Manufacturing : Trucks, buses, cars, motor cycles, scooters, three-wheelers and multiutility vehicles are manufactured in India at various centers.
Location of industry : Around Delhi, Gurgaon, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow, Indore, Hyderabad, Jamshedpur and Bangalore.
Number of manufacturers : At present, the number of manufacturers are as given below :
1. Passenger cars and multi-utility vehicles – 15
2. Commercial vehicles – 09
3. Two and three-wheelers – 14

Question 28.
Name the electronic capital of India. Write characteristics of IT and electronic industry of India.
Answer:

Bangalore is the electronic capital of India.
The main characteristics of the electronic industry are as mentioned below :
1. Products of electronics industry : Transistor sets, television, telephones, cellular telecom, pagers, radars, computers and many other equipment required by the telecommunication industry.
2. Centers : Bangalore, Mumbai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow and Coimbatore.
3. Software Technology Parks : 18 parks which provide single window service and high data communication facility to software experts.
4. Employment : Up to 31st March, 2005, the IT industry employed over one million persons. It is likely to increase to 8 million in next three to four years. 30 per cent employees are women in this industry.
5. Foreign exchange : It earns lot of foreign exchange due to fast growing Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) sector.

Question 29.
Describe the method of treatment of industrial effluents.
Answer:
Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases as given below :

Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
Secondary treatment by biological process.
Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes. This involves recycling of wastewater.

Question 30.
Describe the ways by which the NTPC has preserved the natural environment and other resources like water.
Answer:
NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environment Management System) 14001. The Corporation has taken following steps for preserving the natural environment and resources like water :

Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.
Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.
Ecological monitoring, reviews and online database management for all its power stations.
Thus, by taking above steps, the NTPC has shown the was to the people for preserving the natural environment.

MAP QUESTIONS

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, show major places of following industries :

Cotton textile
Woollen textile
Silk textile
Synthetic textile.

Answer:
Major places of above industries are given below :

Cotton Textile : Ahmedabad, Rajkot, Porbandar, Vadodara, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai, Moradabad, Agra, Kanpur, Murshidabad, Haora and Hugli.
Woollen Textile : Ahmedabad, Jamnagar, Mumbai, Bangalore, Bikaner, Panipat, Gurgaon, Jaipur, Shahjahanpur, Gwalior, Kanpur, Srinagar, Amritsar and Ludhiana.
Silk Textile : Kolar, Bangalore, Mysore, Belgaon, Murshidabad, Varanasi, Baramulla, Srinagar and Anantnag.
Synthetic Textile : Amritsar, Gwalior, Ahmedabad, Surat, and Murshidabad.

Question 2.
On the outline map of India show the major iron and steel plants.
Answer:
The major iron and steel plants are shown as given below :

Bokaro
Jamshedpur
Raurkela
Bhilai
Durgapur
Vijaynagar
Bhadravati
Salem
Vishakhapatnam
Burnpur

Question 3.
On the outline map of India show the major Software Technology Parks.
Answer:
There are 18 Software Technology Parks that provide single window service and high data communication facility to software experts. They are at Mohali, Srinagar, Noida, Jaipur, Gandhinagar, Indore, Mumbai, Pune, Mysore, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Chennai, Coimbatore, Hyderabad, Vishakhapatnam, Bhubaneshwar, Kolkata and Guwahati.See map given below :
Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Manufacturing Industries 4

Question 4.
Six features with serial numbers (1) to (6) are marked in the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.

Woollen textile
Silk textile
Cotton textile
Iron and steel plant
Software technology park
Iron and steel plant.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Manufacturing Industries 5
Answer:

Woollen textile — Ludhiana
Silk textile — Srinagar
Cotton textile — Ahmedabad
Iron and steel plant — Salem
Software technology park — Noida
Iron and steel plant — Bumpur
See map given below:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Manufacturing Industries 6

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Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work, Life and Leisure

January 5, 2022September 4, 2021 by Murali

CBSE Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions Work, Life and Leisure Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure.

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Work, Life and Leisure Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 6

QUESTIONS OF 1 MARK

Answers should not exceed 30 words.

Question 1.
Who wrote the novel, Debganer Martye Aagaman (The Gods Visit Earth) ?
Answer:
Durgacharan Ray.

Question 2.
What type of opportunities were available in the city of Calcutta in the nineteenth century ?
Answer:
For trade and commerce, education and jobs.

Question 3.
Which Gods visited Calcutta ?
Answer:
Brahma with some other gods.

Question 4.
Why the gods were disturbed on their visit to Calcutta ?
Answer:
They were disturbed on seeing cheats, thieves, poverty and poor quality of housing.

Question 5.
Name any two ancient cities along the river valleys.
Answer:
Nippur and Mohenjodaro.

Question 6.
Which three historical processes have shaped modern cities in decisive ways ?
Answer:

Rise of industrial capitalism.
The establishment of colonial rule over large parts of the world.
The development of democratic ideals.

Question 7.
What do you understand by metropolis ?
Answer:
A metropolis is a large densely populated city of a country or state, often the capital of the Regine.

Question 8.
What is urbanisation ?
Answer:
Urbanisation implies development of a city or town.

Question 9.
Which is the largest city in the world ?
Answer:
London

Question 10.
State any one factor that changed the form of urbanisation in the modem period.
Answer:
Industrialisation.

Question 11.
Why did the women loose their industrial jobs and were forced to work within household in the late 18th century and early 19th century ?
Answer:
With technological developments, women lost their industrial jobs, and were forced to work within households. The 1861 census recorded that of a quarter of a million domestic servants in London, majority were women.

Question 12.
Which book was written by clergyman Andrew Meams ?
Answer:
The Bitter Cry of Outcast London.

Question 13.
What was importance of the Compulsory Elementary Education Act of 1870 and factory acts ?
Answer:
These acts kept children out of industrial work. The children could not be employed in factories/industries.

Question 14.
Who was Charles Booth and what did he do in 1887 ?
Answer:
Charles Booth was a Liverpool shipowner. In 1887, he conducted the first social survey of low-skilled London workers in the East End of London.

Question 15.
Why did larger number of people begin to recognise the need for housing for the poor in London ? State any one reason.
Answer:
One room houses occupied by the poor were overcrowded, badly ventilated and lacked sanitation. As such these houses were seen as a serious threat to public health.

Question 16.
What was a tenement ?
Answer:
It was a overcrowded apartment house in a poor section of a large city.

Question 17.
Where was the first section of the underground railway opened in the world ?
Answer:
The first section of the underground railway was opened on 10 January 1863 between Paddington and Farrington Street in London.

Question 18.
What was Temperance Movement ?
Answer:
It was a largely middle class-led social reform movement which emerged in Britain and America from the nineteenth century onwards. It identified alcoholism as the cause of the ruin of families and society. It aimed at reducing the consumption of alcoholic drinks particularly among st the working classes.

Question 19.
What was the concept of the Garden City ? Who developed it ?
Answer:

Architect and planner Ebeneezer Howard developed the principle of the Garden City.
It was a pleasant space full of plants and trees where people would both live and work.

Question 20.
State one bad effect of construction of the London tube railway.
Answer:
To make approximately two miles of railway, 900 houses had to be destroyed. Thus it led to massive displacement of London poor.

Question 21.
State any one feature in the shape of the family that took place in the industrial city of London.
Answer:
Ties between members of households loosened, and among the working class the institution of marriage tended to break down. On the other hand, the lives of women of the upper and middle classes were made easier by domestic maids who cooked, cleaned and cared for young children on low wages.

Question 22.
What do you understand by individualism ?
Answer:
Individualism implies a theory which promotes the liberty, rights or independent action of the individual, rather than of the community.

Question 23.
In the 19th century Britain what were the new types of large scale entertainment for the common people ? Mention any two.
Answer:

Libraries
Art galleries
Museums.

Question 24.
What were presidency cities ?
Answer:
Presidency cities were the capitals of the Bombay, Bengal and Madras Presidencies in British India.

Question 25.
When did Bombay come under the control of the British and how ?
Answer:
In 1661, control of the islands (Bombay was a group of seven islands) passed into British hands after the marriage of Britain’s King Charles II to the Portuguese princess.

Question 26.
Describe the causes that were responsible for the surge in migration in the 19th century. Mention any two.
Answer:

Growth of trade in cotton and opium.
Establishment of textile mills.

Question 27.
What were chawls ?
Answer:
Chawls were multi-storeyed structures which had been built from atleast the 1860s in the ‘native’ parts of the town.

Question 28.
Describe any two functions of the jobber ?
Answer:

He settled disputes.
He organised food supplies or arranged informal credit.

Question 29.
State any one cause of planning in Bombay at the end of 19th century.
Answer:
Fears of plague epidemic.

Question 30.
What were Akharas ?
Answer:
These were traditional wrestling schools, generally located in every neighbourhood, where young people were trained to ensure both physical and moral fitness.

Question 31.
What do you understand by the depressed classes ?
Answer:
A term often used to denote those who were seen within the caste order as ‘lower castes’ and ‘untouchables’.

Question 32.
What is reclamation ?
Answer:
The reclaiming of marshy or submerged areas or other wasteland for settelments, cultivation or other use.

Question 33.
Which part of Bombay was known as ‘mill village’ ?
Answer:
Girangaon.

Question 34.
How city of Bombay has been described ?
Answer:
Mayapuri—a city of dreams.

Question 35.
Who made ‘Raja Harishchandra’ and when ?
Answer:
Dadasaheb Phalke in 1913.

Question 36.
Which city is considered to be India’s film capital ?
Answer:
Bombay (Mumbai).

Question 37.
Name two industrial cities of England.
Answer:
Leeds and Manchaster.

Question 38.
Which city in India has a long history of pollution ?
Answer:
Calcutta (Kolkata).

QUESTIONS OF 3/4 MARKS

Answers should he in about 80/100 words.

Question 1.
“City of Calcutta fascinated the Gods as described in the novel written by Durgacharan Ray.” Explain.
Answer:
In the novel, ‘The Gods Visit Earth’ Durgacharan Ray writes that when Gods – Brahma, the creator in Hindu mythology along with other Gods, Varuna, the Rain God etc., visited Calcutta, they were fascinated by the big, modern city’s marvels as mentioned below :

Train
The large ships on the river Ganges
Factories belching smoke
Bridges and monuments
A dazzling array of shops selling a wide range of commodities. The gods were so impressed that they decided to build a Museum and a High Court in Heaven.

Question 2.
According to Durgacharan Ray, in what three ways did the city life of Calcutta present contrasting images of opportunities ?
Or
How does Durgacharan Ray describe two faces of Calcutta in his novel *Dehganer Marty e Aagaman’ ?
Or
“Calcutta in the nineteenth century was a city of contrasts.” How far this reflected in Durgacharan Ray’s novel, Dehganer Martye Aagaman ?
Answer:
The city life of Calcutta presented contrasting images of opportunities as mentioned below :

Wealth and poverty : People were wealthy as well as poor. There was grinding poverty and the poor quality of housing.
Splendour and dirt: There were bridges and monuments and a dazzling array of shops selling wide range of commodities. On the other hand, large quantities of refuse and waste products polluted air and water.
Opportunities and disappointments : There were beaming opportunities for trade and commerce, education and jobs. But there was another aspect of life – its cheats, thieves, its grinding poverty and the poor quality of housing for many. Brahma himself was cheated by shopkeepers when he was buying a pair of shoes.
Similarly the gods were disappointed due to caste and religious identities in the city.
Thus, the city offered a series of contrasting images and experiences.

Question 3.
Which historical processes have shaped the modern cities in decisive ways ?
Answer:
Three historical processes have shaped the modern cities in decisive ways. These are as mentioned below :

Rise of industrial captialism.
The establishment of colonial rule over large parts of the world.
The development of democractic ideals.

Question 4.
Enumerate the major characteristics of an ancient town.
Answer:
The major characteristics of an ancient town were as given below :

The ancient towns and cities such as Ur, Nippur and Mohenjodaro appeared along river valleys.
They were larger in scale than the other human settlements.
The development of ancient cities was based on increase in food supplies to support a wide range of non-food producers.
Cities were often the centers of political power, administrative network, trade and industry, religious institutions, and intellectual activities.
The cities supported artisans, merchants, priests and other social groups.

Question 5.
Explain, how is industrialisation responsible for the rise of the modern cities in England.
Answer:
Industrialisation is responsible for the rise of modem cities in England in the following ways :

The textile mills of the early industrial cities such as Leeds, Manchester attracted rural people. In 1851, most of the adults living in Manchester were migrants from rural areas.
London had no large factories but it attracted people from other areas. In 1750s, the population of this city was 675,000 and by 1880, it had increased to 4 million. The reasons for this increase were as mentioned below :
- There were only five major types of industries i.e., clothing and footwear, wood and furniture, metals and engineering, printing and stationery, and precision products which employed large number of people.
- London dockyards too employed a large number of people.
- During the First World War, London began manufacturing cars and electrical goods and this led to further increase in jobs in the city. Thus, industrialisation led to the rise of the modern cities in England.

Question 6.
‘During the 19th century, the city of London was a powerful magnet for migrant population.’ Support the statement with examples. [CBSE 2016-17]
Answer:
It is true that the city of London was a powerful magnet for migrant populations, even though it did not have large factories. It is clear from the facts given below :

Its population multiplied four-fold between 1810 and 1880 from 1 million to 4 million.
Its population consisted of clerks, shopkeepers, skilled artisans, semi-skilled and sweated out workers, soldiers and servants, casual labourers, street sellers and beggars.
Dockyard and industries – See Textbook Question 1.

Question 7.
Describe the various marginal groups in London in the later half of the 19th century. What steps were taken by the government towards them ?
Answer:
(1) As London grew, crime flourished. The marginal groups were as mentioned below :

Criminals : There were about 20,000 criminals living in London in the 1870s. Crime had become an object of widespread concern. The police were worried about law and order. Philanthropists were anxious about public morality and industrialists wanted hard-working and orderly labour force.
Poor people : In his writing on London labour Henry Mayhew listed that ‘criminals’ were in fact poor people who lived by stealing lead from roofs, food from shops, lumps of coal and clothes drying on hedges. There were others who were cheats and tricksters, pickpockets and petty thieves crowding the streets of London.
Women : A large number of women worked in factories in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries. With technological developments they, however, lost their jobs and shifted to work within households as domestic servants. Some started other works like
tailoring, washing or match-box making.
Children : Large number of children worked in the factories. They were, however, paid low wages. Under such circumstances, many children turned to criminal activities because they could earn more from thieving. Andrew Means, a clergy man in his book The Bitter Cry of Outcast London in the 1880, wrote that crime’was more profitable than labouring in small underpaid factories.

(2) Steps taken by the government :

Population of criminals was counted. Their activities were watched and their ways of life were investigated.
In an attempt to discipline the population, the authorities imposed high penalties for crime and offered work to those who were considered the ‘deserving poor’.
So far women were concerned, as they got employment in wartime industries and offices they withdrew from domestic service.
In 1870 the Compulsory Elementary Education Act was passed. Factory acts were passed from 1902 onwards. As a result of these acts, children were kept out of industrial work.
Housing Schemes for the marginal groups were planned due to fear of revolt by them.

Question 8.
Why Charles Booth, a Liverpool shipowner stated, “London needed there building of at least 400,000 rooms to house its poorest citizens” ?
Answer:
The reasons for the statement by Charles Booth that London needed the rebuilding at least 400,000 rooms to house its poorest citizens were as follows :

One million Londoners (about one-fifth of the population of London at that time) were very poor.
Their average life expectancy was 29 years as against the life expectancy of 55 among the gentry and the middle class.
The poor had no houses. These people were more than likely to die in a ‘work house, hospital or lunatic asylum’.

Question 9.
Explain any three reasons for the increasing concern for the London poor during the 19th century.
Or
Why well-off Londoners supported the need to build housing for the poor in the 19th century ?
[CBSE 2016-17]
Answer:
See Textbook Question 4(a).

Question 10.
Explain three steps taken to clean up London in the 19th century. [CBSE 2016-17]
Or
Mention the various measures which were taken to decongest London in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.
Answer:
The following steps were taken to decongest localities, green the open spaces, reduce pollution and landscape the city :

Large blocks of apartments were built just like those in Berlin and New York, the cities which had similar housing problems.
The congestion in the nineteenth century industrial city also led to a yearning for clean country air. Many wealthy residents of London constructed holiday homes in the country¬side.
Demands were made for new ‘lungs’ for the city and attempts were made to bridge the difference between city and countryside through such ideas as the Green Belt around London.
Architect and planner Ebenezer Howard developed the principle of the Garden City, a pleasant space full of plants and trees, where people would both live and work. He also believed that this would also produce better quality citizens,
Raymond Unwin and Barry Parker designed the Garden City of New Earswick. There were common garden spaces and beautiful views in this city. However, only rich people could afford houses in the Garden City.
Rent control was introduced in Britain during the First World War to ease the impact of a severe housing shortage.
Between the World Wars (1914-1939), the responsibility for housing working classes was accepted by the British state. A million houses, most of them single family cottages, were built by local authorities.
Thus the city of London was cleaned and decongested.

Question 11.
Describe the causes that led to the need for the underground railway. Why was the construction of underground railway criticised ?
Or
Why did people of London talk of underground railway ‘the iron monster’ ? Give three reasons.
[CBSE 2016-17]
Answer:
(1) The factors which were responsible for the construction of underground railway were as mentioned below :

The city had extended beyond the range where people could walk to work.
Development of suburbs made new forms of mass transport absolutely necessary.
People could also be persuaded to leave the city and live in garden suburbs unless there was some means of travelling to the city for work.

(2) The development of the underground railway was criticised on the following grounds :

People were afraid to travel in underground railway as passengers used to smoke. As a result the atmosphere was a mixture of sulphur, coal dust and foul fumes which was a menace to health.
Some called the underground railways as ‘iron monsters’ that added to the mess and unhealthiness of the city.
The construction of underground railway had led to massive destruction. It was estimated that about 900 houses were destroyed for construction of two miles of railway.
Generally, massive displacement of the poor took place. Charles Dickens wrote in Dombey and Son (1848) about the massive destruction in the process of construction :
“Houses were knocked down; streets broken through and stopped; deep pits and trenches dug iij the ground; enormous heaps of earth and clay thrown up; …. there were a hundred thousand shapes and substances of incompleteness, wildly mingled out their places, upside down, burrowing in the earth.”
But in spite of all the criticism, the Underground eventually became a huge success.

Question 12.
“The London underground railway eventually became a huge success.” Support the statement with example.
Answer:
It is true that the underground railway was criticised on many grounds as it displaced the poor people of London but ultimately it was a huge success as mentioned below :

By the twentieth century, most large metropolises such as New York, Tokyo and Chicago could not do without their well-functioning transit systems.
As a result of the railway, the population in the city became more dispersed.
Better planned suburbs and a good railway network enabled large numbers to live outside central London and travel to work.
The new conveniences wore down social distinctions and also created new ones.

Question 13.
Explain the social changes, ‘family as an institution underwent in Britain in the era of industrialisation.
Or
“The function and shape of the family were completely transformed by life in the industrial city of Britain in the 18th to 20th century.” Explain. [CBSE 2016-17]
Answer:
The function and the shape of family were completely transformed in the industrial city in the following ways :

Ties between members of a family loosened.
Among the working class the institution of marriage started breaking down.
Women of the upper and middle classes in Britain faced higher levels of isolation. Their lives had, however, become comfortable as domestic maids cooked, cleaned and cared for their young children on low wages.
Among the lower social classes, women who worked for wages had some control over their lives. However, many social reformers felt that the family as an institution had broken down, and needed to be saved or reconstructed by pushing these women back into the home.
The city encouraged a new spirit of individualism among both men and women and a freedom from the collective values.
Women gradually lost their industrial jobs and the domestic sphere became the proper place for women.
Political movements such as Chartism mobilised large number of men. Gradually women too participated in such movements for suffrage that demanded right to vote for women or for married women’s rights to property from 1870s.
By the 20th century, the urban family had been transformed yet again due to wartime work done by women who were employed in large numbers to meet war demands. The family now consisted of much smaller units.

Question 14.
What were the changes in the kind of work available to women in London between the 19th and the 20th centuries ?
Answer:
The different kinds of work available to women in London between the nineteenth and twentieth centuries were as mentioned below :

Factories employed large number of women in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.
With technological developments, women gradually lost their industrial jobs and were forced to work within households.
The 1861 census recorded a quarter of a million domestic servants in London, of whom the vast majority were women, many of them recent migrants.
A large number of women used their homes to increase family income by taking in lodgers or through such activities as tailoring, washing or matchbox making.
There was a change once again in the twentieth century. As women got employment in wartime industries and offices, they withdrew from domestic service.

Question 15.
What forms of entertainment came up in the 19th century in England to provide leisure activities for the people ?
Or
How did the people of all classes entertain themselves in their leisure time in urban Britain after industrialisation ?
Or
Explain any three sources of entertainment for the common people of London.
Or
What was the tradition of London season ? Explain different forms of entertainment that came up in nineteenth century England to provide leisure activities for the people.
Answer:
(1) For wealthy Britishers, in annual ‘London Season’, several cultural events, such as the opera, the theatre and classical music performances were organised for an elite group of 300-400 families in the late eighteenth century. Meanwhile, working classes met in pubs to have a drink, exchange news and sometimes also to organise for political action.

(2) The following forms of entertainment came up in the nineteenth century England to provide leisure activities for the common people :

Libraries, art galleries and museums were established to provide people with a sense of history and pride in the achievements of the British. These were possible with money from the state. At first, visitors to the British Museum in London numbered just about 15000 every year but when entry was made free in 1810, the number increased to 825,901 by 1846.
Music halls were popular among the lower classes.
By the early twentieth century, cinema became the great mass entertainment for mixed audiences.
Industrial workers were encouraged to spend their holidays by the sea, so as to derive the benefits of the sun and bracing winds. Over 1 million British people went to the seaside at Blackpool in 1883 and by 1939 their numbers had gone upto 7 million.
Pleasure gardens came up in the nineteenth century to provide facilities for sports, entertainment and refreshments for the well-to-do.
The working poor created spaces of entertainment wherever they lived such as Sailor’s Home in East London.

Question 16.
Give examples to prove that large masses of people could be drawn into political causes in the city or give some examples of politics in the cities.
Answer:
Sometimes people take part in rebellion or riot or strike to force the civic authorities to take action in a particular case such as to reduce poverty. Some incidents that took place in London are given below :

People’s march in winter of 1886 : About 10,000 poor of London took part in a march from Xleptford to London in the winter of 1886. They demanded relief from terrible conditions of poverty. Shopkeepers were alarmed and closed down their shops. Police dispersed the marchers.
Riot in 1887 : A riot took place in 1887. It was brutally suppressed by the police. This day of riot is known as the Bloody Sunday of November 1887.
London dockworkers’ strike : In 1889, thousands of London’s dockworkers remained on 12 days strike which was called to gain recognition for the dockworkers’ union.
These examples show that large masses of people could be drawn into political causes in the city like London. This also shows that a large city population was thus both a threat and an opportunity. To overcome such situations, state authorities went to great lengths to reduce the possibility of rebellion and enhance urban aesthetics, as the-example of Paris shows.

Question 17.
What was the position of urbanisation in India till the beginning of the 20th century ?
Answer:

Urbanisation in India was slow under the colonial rule. The number of cities was small.
In the early twentieth century, no more than 11 per cent of the Indians were living in cities.
A large proportion of these urban dwellers were residents of three Presidency cities.
The Presidency cities were multifunctional cities because they had major ports, warehouses, homes and offices, army camps as well as educational institutions, museums and libraries.

Question 18.
How did Bombay become a major industrial center ?
Or
Discuss five causes of the expansion of Bombay in the nineteenth century.
Answer:

In the seventeenth century, Bombay was a group of seven islands under the Portuguese control.
In 1661, control of islands passed into British hands after marriage of Britain’s King Charles II to the Portuguese princess. The East India Company quickly shifted its base from Surat to Bombay.
At first, Bombay was the major outlet for cotton textiles from Gujarat.
In the nineteenth century, it functioned as a port for export of raw materials such as cotton and opium.
Gradually, it became an important administrative center in western India.
By the end of the nineteenth century, it became a major industrial center.
After the Maratha defeat in the Anglo-Maratha war in 1819, it became the capital of Bombay Presidency.
The establishment of textile mills too increased its importance. By 1921, there were 85 cotton mills with about 146,000 workers, most of them had migrated from the nearby district of Ratnagiri.
Bombay dominated the maritime trade of India till well into the 20th century.
It was also at the junction head of two major railways and therefore attracted a large number of migrants.

Question 19.
What were effects of famine of 1888-89 and epidemic of plague 1898 on the ‘ population migration to Bombay ?
Answer:

Famine in the dry regions of Kutch drove large numbers of people into Bombay in 1888-89.
The flood of migrants in some years created panic and alarm in official circles.
Worried by the influx of population during plague epidemic of 1898, district authorities sent about 30,000 people back to their places of origin by 1901.

Question 20.
How did the development or expansion of Bombay differ or similar from London ? State any three points of difference between the two.
Answer:
Similarities and differences between the development of London and Bombay were as mentioned below :
(1) Similarities :

Both cities are capital modern cities – London in Britain and Bombay in India.
Industrialisation was responsible for the expansion of both cities.
Both cities faced housing, transport and other problems.
Like tenements in London, chaw Is were largely owned by private landlords such as merchants, bankers and building contractors looking for quick(ways of earning money.

(2) Differences :

Bombay was more crowded than London. While every Londoner in the 1840s enjoyed an average space of 155 square yards, Bombay had a mere 9.5 square yards.
By 1872 when London had an average of eight persons per house, the density in Bombay was as high as 20.
In London transport problem was solved by the first underground railway in the world but in Bombay there is local railway and no underground railway.
In London attempts were made to decongest localities, green the open spaces, reduce pollution and landscape the city. Large blocks of apartments, particularly single family cottages, to solve the housing problem suburbs were developed too. In Bombay with the rapid unplanned expansion of the city, crisis of housing and water supply became acute by the mid-1850s.
Town planning in London emerged from fears of social revolution, planning in Bombay came about as a result of fears about the plague epidemic (1898).
In Bombay land reclamation of more land from the sea took place. In London the suburbs were developed to decongest the city.
In London, rent control was introduced during the First World War to ease the impact of a severe housing shortage. In Bombay, high rents forced the workers to share homes either with relatives or caste fellows who were screaming into the city.

Question 21.
“From its earliest days Bombay did not grow according to any plan.” Explain. What were its effects ?
Answer:
(1) It is a fact that from its earliest days Bombay did not grow according to any plan and houses especially in the Fort area, were interspread with gardens. Its effects were as mentioned below :

Bombay Fort area was divided into two sections, namely, ‘native town’, where most of the Indians lived, and European or ‘white’ section.
A European suburb, and an industrial area developed to the north of the Fort settlement area, with a similar suburb and cantonment in the south.

(2) Effects : The effects of early development of Bombay are as given below :

It developed on the racial pattern where Europeans enjoyed more facilities than the Indians.
The rapid and unplanned expansion led to crisis of housing and water supply. The setting up of the textile mills increased the housing problem.
European elite, the richer Parsi, Muslim and upper caste traders and industrialists of Bombay-dived in sprawling, spacious bungalows while more than 70 per cent of the working people lived in chawls.
90 per cent of mill workers lived in Girangaon, a mill village, near the mills.

Question 22.
Describe the conditions of living of ordinary people or workers in Bombay in the early years of the twentieth century.
Or
What were the chawls ? Describe the living conditions in chawls.
Answer:
(1) Chawls were multistoried structures. These were largely owned by private landlords looking for quick ways of earning money from anxious migrants. Each chawl was divided into smaller one-room tenements which had no private toilets.
(2) The living conditions in chawls were as mentioned below :

The average number of occupants of a room were between 4 and 5.
High rents forced the workers to share their rooms with relatives or caste fellows.
People had to keep the windows of kilter rooms closed even in humid weather due to
the ‘close proximity’ of filthy gutters, privies, buffalo stables etc.
Water was scarce, and people often quarrelled every morning for a turn at the tap. The houses were, however, kept clean.
As the homes were small, the streets and neighbourhoods were used for cooking, washing and sleeping.
Liquor shops and akharas were opened in the empty spot.
The magicians, monkey players or acrobats used to perform their acts in the open space in the middle of chawls.
Chawls became the places where people exchanged news about jobs, strikes, riots or demonstrations.
Caste and family groups in the neighbourhood were headed by a person like a village headman.
The ‘depressed classes’ or the lower castes were not allowed to live in many chawls. They lived in shelters made of corrugated sheets, leaves or bamboo poles.

Question 23.
What is Land Reclamation ? What are its causes ? Describe land reclamation and other projects in Bombay.
Or
Describe any five features of land reclamation in Bombay.
Answer:
(1) Land Reclamation is the process of reclaiming of marshy or submerged area or other wasteland for settlements, cultivation or other use.
(2) Causes for land reclamation :

There was shortage of land.
It was a land of seven islands that were separated.
The population increased in the early 20th century.
The industrial development also required more land.

(3) Projects :

The earliest project began in 1784. The Bombay Governor William Horn by approved the building of the great sea wall which prevented the flooding of the low-lying areas of Bombay.
In 1864, the Back Bay Reclamation Company reclaimed the western foreshore from the tip of Malabar Hill to the end of Colaba. Reclamation often meant the leveling of the hills around Bombay.
The Bombay Port Trust built a dry dock between 1914 and 1918. It created the 22-acre Ballard Estate by using the excavated earth.
Later on Marine Drive of Bombay was developed. It was built on land reclaimed from the sea in the twentieth century.

Question 24.
Why is Bombay a city of dreams for some, while a city of hardship for others ? Explain.
Answer:
(1) City of dreams :

Bombay is rightly called a city of dreams because a number of people come from other places in search of jobs or to work in the film industry. It has become India’s film capital. In 1947, ? 756 million were invested in 50 films and by 1987 the film industry employed 520,000 people. The Bombay films have contributed in a big way to produce an image of the city.
Industries provide jobs to large number of people from the neighbouring areas.
It is a junction of two railways. That has increased its importance.

(2) City of hardships :

There is an acute housing problem.
A large number of migrants live in chaivls and slums.
It is a costly city. It makes the lives of the poor miserable.

Question 25.
How did pollution become a nuisance for the Londoners ? Write any two steps taken to solve the problems.
Answer:
(1) Pollution became a nuisance for the Londoners due to reasons as mentioned below :

In 1887, one-fifth of the population of London were poor. They were expected to live an average life of 29 compared to average expectancy of 55 years of middle class.
Poor lived in one room houses which were a serious threat to health because they were badly ventilated and lacked sanitation.
Congestion in the city was a factor for pollution. Demands were made for new ‘lungs’ for the city.

(2) Steps : See Textbook Question 4(a).

Question 26.
“Cities developed at the cost of ecology and environment.” Explain with examples.
Or
How did the development of cities influence the ecology and environment in late nineteenth century ? Explain by giving example of Calcutta (Kolkata).
Answer:
(1) City development everywhere occurred at the expense of ecology and environment as mentioned below :

Natural features were destroyed or transformed to meet the growing demand of land for factories, housing and other institutions.
Large quantities of refuse and waste products polluted air and water.
Excessive noise affected the hearings of the people.

(2) In Kolkata, the development of the city influenced the ecology and environment badly in the late nineteenth century. Kolkata had a long history of air pollution. The main reasons for air pollution were as given below :

Huge population depended on dung and wood as fuel in their daily life.
The industries and establishments that used steam engines ran on coal.
In 1855, the introduction of railways brought coal from Raniganj. The high content of ash in coal polluted the air. The high content of ash in Indian coal was a problem. Many pleas were made to banish the dirty mills from the city with no effect. However, in 1863, Calcutta became the first Indian city to get smoke nuisance legislation.
In 1920, the rice mills of Tollygunge began to burn rice husk instead of coal, leading residents to complain that “the air is filled up with black soot which falls like drizzling rain from morning till night and it has become impossible to live.”
As a result of above complaints, the inspectors of the Bengal Smoke Nuisance Commission finally managed to control industrial smoke. Controlling domestic smoke, however, was far more difficult.

Question 27.
How the use of coal in the factories in the industrial cities of England polluted the environment ? How was it controlled ?
Answer:
(1) The widespread use of coal in homes and industries in the 19th century England raised serious problems as mentioned below :

In industrial cities such as Leeds, Bradford and Manchester, hundreds of factory chimneys spewed black smoke into the skies.
People joked that most inhabitants of these cities grew up believing that the skies were grey and all vegetation was black.
Shopkeepers, homeowners and others complained about black fog that descended on
their towns, causing bad tempers, smoke-related illnesses and dirty clothes.

(2) How smoke was controlled : When people first joined campaigns for cleaner air, the goal was to control the nuisance through legislation. This was not at all easy since factory owners and steam engine owners did not want to spend on technologies that would improve their machines. By the 1840s, a few towns such as Derby, Leeds and Manchester had laws to ‘ control smoke in the city.

But the smoke was not easy to monitor or measure and owners got away with small adjustments to their machinery that did nothing to stop the smoke. Moreover, the Smoke Abatement Acts of 1847 and 1853, as they were called, did not always work to clear the air.

We hope the Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure help you. If you have any query regarding Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Consumer Rights

January 5, 2022September 4, 2021 by Murali

CBSE Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Consumer Rights Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights.

Learnintsa.com Committed to provides Extensive NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights, Students can read and score more marks in your CBSE board examination.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 5

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Answers should not exceed 30 words.

Question 1.
How do the shopkeepers exploit the consumers in the markets ?
Answer:

Less weight.
Defective product.
Duplicate product.
More price than MRP.
Adulterated products.

Question 2.
In India how the consumer movement originated ?
Answer:
In India, the consumer movement, as a social force, originated with the necessity of protecting and promoting the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices.

Question 3.
Which factors were responsible for the birth of consumer movement in an organised form in the 1960s ?
Answer:
The factors responsible for the birth of consumer movement in an organised forms were as mentioned below :

Rampant food shortages.
Black marketing.
Adulteration of food and edible oil.

Question 4.
Which act was passed in 1986 ?
Answer:
Consumer Protection Act 1986, popularly known as COPRA.

Question 5.
In the case of pressure cooker which safety rule should be observed by the producer ?
Answer:
Pressure cookers have a safety valve which, if it is defective, can cause a serious accident. The manufacturers of the safety valve have to ensure high quality.

Question 6.
What is MRP?
Answer:
MRP is maximum retail price. In fact consumers can bargain with the seller to sell at less than the MRP.

Question 7.
What is RTI ? When was it passed and what is its object ?
Answer:

RTI is Right to Information Act.
RTI was passed in October, 2005 by the Government of India.
It ensures citizens all the information about the functions of government departments.

Question 8.
What type of instructions are mentioned on medicines ? Mention any one.
Answer:
Directions for use or dosage.

Question 9.
Under COPRA which three-tier quasi-judicial machinery has been setup and with what jurisdiction ?
Answer:
Three-tier quasi-judiciary machinery is as given below :

District level – Cases involving claims upto ? 20 lakhs.
State level – Cases involving claims between ? 20 lakhs and ? 1 crore.
National level – Cases involving claims exceeding ?1 crore.

Question 10.
Name some products for which it is mandatory on the part of the producers to get certified by different organisations.
Answer:
For some products that affect the health and safety of consumers or of products of mass consumption like LPG cylinders, food colours and additives, cement, packaged drinking water, it is mandatory on the part of the producers to get certified by different organisations.

Question 11.
Which mark is used for spices ?
Answer:
Agmark.

Question 12.
What is the importance of buying products with the logo ISI, Agmark or Hallmark ?
Answer:
These logos and certification help consumers get assured of quality while purchasing the goods and services.

Question 13.
If any damage is done to a consumer by a trader, under which consumer right one can move to consumer court to get compensation ? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Right to seek redressal.

Question 14.
Which logo would you like to see for purchasing electrical goods ? [CBSE 2015]
Or
Which mark is used for Gas stove ?
Answer:
ISI mark.

Question 15.
Suppose your parents want to purchase gold jewellary along with you, then f which logo will you look for on the jewellery ? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Hallmark.

Question 16.
If you are not interested to buy a brush with toothpaste but shopkeeper denied to sell toothpaste only. In this case which consumer right is being violated by the seller
[CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Right to choose is being violated.

QUESTIONS OF 3/5 MARKS

Answers should be in about 80/100 words.

Question 1.
Rules and regulations are required for the protection of the consumers in the market place. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
See Textbook Question 1.

Question 2.
How do large companies manipulate the markets ? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The large companies with huge wealth, power and reach can manipulate the market in various ways. At times false information is passed on through media, and other sources to attract consumers.
For example a company for years sold powder milk for babies all over the world as the most scientific product claiming this to be better than mother’s milk. It took years of struggle before the company was forced to accept that it had been making false claims.
Similarly, a long battle had to be fought with chert cases to make cigarette manufacturing companies accept that their product could cause cancer.

Question 3.
What information should we look for while buying medicines ?
Answer:
While buying medicines we should look for the information as mentioned below :

Date of expiry because the use of medicines after its expiry date is harmful for the health of the person concerned.
Contents of the medicines : The contents of the medicines should be as prescribed by the doctor.
MRP : We should be careful about its price so that the shopkeeper may not charge more than MRP. Rather we should negotiate to pay less than the MRP.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Consumers International.
Or
UN role in the consumer movement.
Answer:
In 1985, United Nations adopted the UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection. This enabled the nations all over the world to adopt measures to protect consumers. It became basis for consumer advocacy groups to press their governments to accept their demands for protection of consumers against unscrupulous traders and shopkeepers. It laid the foundation for the consumer movement. Now Consumers International is an umbrella body of 240 organisations from over 100 countries.

Question 5.
Explain the redressal procedure if the consumer is denied justice.
Or
How does a consumer court compensate a consumer ? Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
Consumers have the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and exploitation. If any damage is done to a consumer, he has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of damage. Take the example of Prakash described in the book as mentioned below :

Prakash had sent a money order to his village for his daughter’s marriage.
The money did not reach in time when they needed it.
He filed a case in a district level consumer court in New Delhi because the post office had not responded to the query satisfactorily.
He himself pleaded the case in the court.
The court verified his documents.
The court announced the verdict in his favour and awarded compensation to Prakash.

Thus, under above procedure the court, after hearing arguments and verifying documents, announces the verdict.
However the consumer redressal process has shortcomings as mentioned below :

It has become cumbersome, expensive and time consuming. Consumers are required to engage lawyers.
In most cases cash memos are not issued hence evidence is not easy to gather.
Moreover most purchases are small retail sales.
The existing laws are not clear about compensation.
The consumer awareness is spreading slowly.

Question 6.
Write a note on ISI, Agmark or Hallmark logo used on various commodities.
Answer:
The Government of India has taken certain steps for standardisation of products through Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) and Agmark. BIS caters to the industrial and consumer goods, the Agmark for the agricultural products and the Hallmark is for gold jewellery. These logos and certification help consumers get an assured quality of the goods andservices. The producers can use these logos provided they follow certain quality standards.
These standards are not to be followed by all producers compulsorily. However, in cases of products of mass consumption like LPG cylinders, food colours and additives, cement, packaged drinking water, it is mandatory on the part of the producers to get them certified by these organisations.

Question 7.
Write a brief note on COPRA.
Answer:
The Consumer Protection Act or COPRA was enacted in 1986 to protect the interests of the consumers. The Act provides for establishment of Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies atDistrict, State and National levels for the protection and promotion of consumer interests and to redress their grievances in a speedy, simple and inexpensive manner. It is a quasi-judicial machinery. These are known as National Consumer Commission at Delhi, State Consumer Commission and District Forum. Various claims are dealt with by these courts as given below : District Level : Up to ? 20 lakhs.State Level: Between ? 20 lakhs and ? 1 crore.National Level : Exceeding ?1 crore.If a case is dismissed in District level court, the consumer can appeal in the State and then in the National level court.The Act has been amended in 1991 and 1993. It has enabled the consumers to have the right to represent in the consumer courts. The Act has also led to setting up of separate departmentsof Consumer Affairs in Central and State Governments which locus exclusively on the rights of the consumers. Thus, COPRA is an important step in the consumer movement in India.

Question 8.
The Consumer Protection Act 1986 ensures the following as rights which every consumer in India should possess :”

Right to choose.
Right to information
Right to redressal
Right to represent
Right to safety
Right to consumer education

Categorise the following cases under different heads and mark against each in :

Lata got an electric shock from a newly purchased iron. She complained to the shopkeeper immediately.
John is dissatisfied with the services provided by MTNL for the past few months. He files a case in the District Level Consumer Forum.
Your friend has been sold a medicine that has crossed the expiry date and you are advising her to lodge a complaint.
Iqbal makes it a point to scan through all the particulars given on the pack of any item that he buys.
You are not satisfied with the services of the cable operator catering to your locality but you are unable to switch over to anybody else.
You realise that you have received a defective camera from a dealer you are complaining to the head office persistently.

Answer:

(5) Right to safety.
(3) Right to redressal.
(6) Right to consumer education.
(2) Right to information.
(1) Right to choose.
(4) Right to represent.

Question 9.
How can we bring a positive change in the consumers so that they may not get exploited or cheated
Answer:
We can bring a positive change in the consumers so that they may not get exploited or cheated in the ways as mentioned below :

The consumers must realise their role and importance.
The consumers should be actively involved.
The consumers should make efforts and take part in struggle voluntarily.
There should be participation of one and all.
The consumers should take cash memos for all purchases, small or big.
Whenever necessary, they should file cases in the consumer courts so that guilty shopkeepers are punished.

We hope the Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights help you. If you have any query regarding Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.