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CBSE Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions The Story of Village Palampur Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur.

You can also practice NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 Questions and Answers on LearnInsta.com.

Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers The Story of Village Palampur

NCERT Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions SOLVED QUESTION BANK

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Question 1.
What is the main economic activity in Palampur? [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The main economic activity in Palampur is farming.

Question 2.
What was the status of upper caste families in Palampur?
Answer:
The 80 upper caste families owned majority of the land in Palampur. Some of their houses were quite large and made up of brick with cement plastering.

Question 3.
What was the benefit of electricity in Palampur?
Answer:
Most of the houses have electricity connections. Electricity is used to power the tubewells in the fields and also for many small businesses.

Question 4.
What facilities are available for education and health in Palampur?
Answer:
Palampur has two primary schools and one high school. There is a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where the sick are treated.

Question 5.
Define Production.
Answer:
Production is an activity that involves making of goods or services that a person needs.

Question 6.
Farmer’s plough is an example of which factor of production? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Farmer’s plough is an example of fixed capital.

Question 7.
What do you mean by physical capital?
Answer:
At every stage of production, we need a variety of inputs such as machines, raw materials and money. Together, these are called physical capital.

Question 8.
What is the first and foremost requirement for the production of goods and services?
Answer:
The first and foremost requirement for the production of goods and services is the land and other factors of production like labour and capital.

Question 9.
What do you mean by working capital?
                                  Or
Which capital is known as working capital? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Working capital refers to the variety of raw material and money in hand during the production, in order to make payments and buy other necessary items.

Question 10.
What is human capital?
Answer:
Human capital refers to knowledge and enterprise required to put tpgether land, labour and physical capital and produce an output for self-consumption or to sell in the market.

Question 11.
Name the kharif and rabi crops grown in Palampur.
Answer:
The kharif crops are jowar and bajra and rabi crops are wheat and sugarcane which are grown in Palampur. Potatoes are also grown in between these two seasons.

Question 12.
What was the main reason for the growth of three different crops in a year?
Answer:
The main reason for the growth of three different crops in a year was well-developed system of irrigation.

Question 13.
What is the impact of electricity on irrigation?
Answer:
Earlier, with the use of persian wheel, people used to irrigate small areas by using water from wells. But, now, with the use of electricity and tubewells, they can irrigate larger areas in lesser time.

Question 14.
What is multiple cropping? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Multiple cropping means to grow more than one crop on a same piece of land.

Question 15.
Define yield. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Yield means crop produced on a given piece of land during a single season.

Question 16.
How did the Indian farmers benefit from Green Revolution?
Answer:
The Green Revolution enabled the Indian farmers to cultivate wheat and rice using high yielding varieties of seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides etc.

Question 17.
Which modern implements were used by the Indian farmers?
Answer:
The modern implements used by the Indian farmers were tubewells, tractors, threshers and harvesters.

Question 18.
What is the impact of Green Revolution on soil and ground water table?
Answer:
Green Revolution is associated with the increased use of chemical fertilisers. The minerals of chemical fertilisers dissolve in water and contaminate it, thereby polluting both water and soil, thus, the continuous use of fertilisers makes the soil less fertile,

Question 19.
Who provides labour for medium and large farmers?
Answer:
Labour for medium and large farmers is provided by landless labourers or those who are cultivating small plots of land.

Question 20.
Which is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy? [CBSE 2012,11]
Answer:
Agriculture

Question 21.
How do farm labourers get wages in Palampur?
Answer:
In Palampur, the farm labourers get wages in the form of cash or kind, i.e., in terms of food grains.

Question 22.
What is the minimum wage per day for a farm labourer set by the government?
Answer:
? 300 per day.

Question 23.
How much Dala gets as a minimum wage?
Answer:
? 160.

Question 24.
What do the medium and large farmers do with the surplus from farm production?
Answer:
Medium and large farmers sell the surplus from farm production and a part of the earnings is saved and the other part of it, is used to buy cattle, trucks etc. for the next season.

Question 25.
Name any two non-farm activities in Palampur. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The non-farm activities in Palampur are:

1. Dairy farming
2. Small-scale manufacturing
3. Transport
4. Shopkeeping (any two)

Question 26.
In which type of activity is dairy farming included? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Dairy farming is included in non-farm activity.

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Question 27.
Highlight the basic constraints in raising production from a farm. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The basic constraints in raising production from a farm are:

1. The land area under cultivation is practically fixed.
2. There has been no expansion in land area under cultivation after 1960s. By then, some wastelands in the villages had been converted to cultivable land. .
3. There is no further scope to increase the farm production by bringing new land area under cultivation as no new land is available.

Question 28.
Explain the term physical capital. Mention its different types with examples. [CBSE 2012,11,10]
Answer:
Physical capital is the capital that is further used in the production of more goods such as tools,
equipments, machines and raw materials.
The two types physical capital are:

1. Fixed Capital. It is that capital which can be used over and over again. This capital lasts for a longer time such as machines and tools.
2. Working Capital. It consists of those goods that are used up in the process of production such as raw materials and money.

Question 29.
Give three reasons why small farmers have to arrange capital by borrowing. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The three reasons why small farmers have to arrange capital by borrowing are:

1. To buy seeds and water for irrigation.
2. To pay back the loan with high rate of interest.
3. To use the money for marriage or festivals.

Question 30.
Distinguish between Kharif and Rabi seasons.
Answer:

Question 31.
State the importance of growing more than one crop on a piece of land. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The importance of growing more than one crop on a piece of land is:

1. It retains the fertility of the soil.
2. It generates employment for many people throughout the year.
3. It benefits the farmers economically.

Question 32.
What is Multiple cropping? How does it help in farmer’s prosperity?
Answer:
When two or more crops are grown on a given piece of land during a year, it is known as multiple cropping. This is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land. Raising two or more crops from a given piece of land in a year translates into a corresponding increase in a farmer’s income and helps in the farmer’s prosperity.

Question 33.
‘Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry.’ Do you agree? [HOTS]
Answer:
Modern farming methods are the result of decades of scientific research. This research was in the form of high yielding varieties of seeds, irrigation equipments, tractors and other forms of machinery, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides, which are all produced in the industries. The result is that with greater adoption of modern farming methods inter-dependence of agriculture and industry has increased manifold.

Question 34.
What do you mean by Green Revolution? Why was it caused?
Answer:
Green Revolution means a rapid and sustained increase in the output of agriculture over a long period of time. This revolution took place in India in the late 1960s. The output of foodgrains increased manifold. Initially, the Green Revolution was limited only to wheat crop,, but lately, it spread to other crops like rice and oilseeds. It was caused by the use of modern methods like high yielding varieties of seeds, chemical fertilisers and insecticides.

Question 35.
Land being a natural resource, is necessary to be carefully used. Why?
Answer:
Land, a natural resource, is subject to degradation. Due to negligence and over-exploitation, highly fertile pieces of land are being degraded, i.e., they have become barren and uncultivable. This is due to over utilisation of fertilisers in order to increase the yield with higher cost of production. Ground water resources are also depleting faster. The farmers need to dig deeper in order to get water. Chemical fertilisers kill bacteria and other micro-organisms in the soil and make it unfit for cultivation.

All this indicates that land, a fixed asset, is under deep stress.

Question 36.
What can be done to increase the non-farm activities in the Indian Villages? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The things which can be done to increase the non-farm activities in the Indian villages are:

1. Banks should provide loans at low interest rates so that the poor villagers can start some small-scale businesses and can earn their livelihood.
2. Government should initiate effective employment generating schemes like small-scale industries, computer training centres, vocational courses etc.
3. Government should provide training to the villagers in different skills.
4. Government should provide facilities for transportation and selling of locally manufactured goods
   of the villagers in the cities. (any three)

Question 37.
Describe three features of small-scale manufacturing as non-farming activity in Palampur. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Small-scale manufacturing in Palampur is carried out to supplement the earnings of the people.
The features of small-scale manufacturing in Palampur are:

1. They are organised on very small scale and employ simple methods of production like simple machines, equipment and tools.
2. Raw materials used by small-scale manufacturing are generally locally available.
3. They are generally organised at home with family labour.
4. These industries sell their products locally or in nearby villages. (any three)

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Question 38.
What is the aim of production? State any four requirements for production. [CBSE 2016,15]
Answer:
The aim of production is to generate income for those people who are involved in the production of goods and services.
The four requirements for production are:

1. Land. It is a passive factor of production. It requires human effort to make it a productive resource. No activity can take place in the absence of land and it is the basis of all human activities.
2. Labour. The second requirement is labour, i.e., people who do the work. Some activities require educated and skilled labour to perform the necessary tasks and others require workers who can do the manual work.
3. Physical capital. The third requirement is physical capital. There are variety of inputs like machines,
   tools, raw materials and money required at every stage of production. It includes fixed capital and working capital. .
4. Human capital. It is the knowledge and enterprise to be able to put together land, labour and physical capital to produce an output either to use for themselves or to sell in the market.

Question 39.
What is land? Suggest any three ways to sustain land. [CBSE 2011,10]
Answer:
Land is the basic natural resource required as an input in any production activity. It is fixed in nature.
The three ways to sustain land are: 

1. To use fertilizers in a judicious manner so as to maintain the soil fertility.
2. Not to overuse ground water, i.e., to maintain the ground water table.
3. To carry out crop rotation/multiple cropping to increase the production and maintain soil fertility.

Question 40.
How can you say that the distribution of land is unequal in Palampur? [HOTS]
                                                           Or
How is land distributed amongst the farmers of Palampur? Explain. [CBSE 2011]
                                                           Or
Describe the distribution of land among farmers in Palampur. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Land is very important for farming. Unfortunately, not all the people in Palampur have sufficient land for cultivation. Out of 450 families in Palampur, only 240 families cultivate plots less than 2 hectares in size and 150 dalit families are landless. The remaining 60 families of medium and large farmers cultivate more than 2 hectares of land. A few large farmers have land extending over 10 hectares or even more.

Cultivation from plots of land less than 2 hectares in size does not bring adequate income to the farmers family. On the other hand, half of the areas of the village is covered with plots quite large in size. Thus, land in Palampur is unevenly distributed.

Question 41.
Is it true that foodgrains output in India has increased significantly because of larger area under cultivation? Explain. [HOTS]
Answer:
It is not true that foodgrains output is India has increased because of larger area under cultivation. Foodgrain output in India has increased significantly because of Green Revolution in the late 1960s. At this time, farmers in Punjab, Haryana and later in Western Uttar Pradesh started using modern methods of farming like high yielding varieties of seeds, chemical fertilisers, modern implements, irrigation facilities, insecticides and pesticides. These methods enabled the farmers to increase the yield per hectare and their earnings from farming. They, after meeting their needs of foodgrains, had enough surplus to sell in the market. But as mentioned above, this was limited to mainly Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh initially. Although, later it was also copied in the case of rice cultivation in the delta regions of Tamil Nadu an$ some parts of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 42.
Distinguish between traditional farming methods and modern farming methods. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:

Question 43.
What is meant by Green Revolution? Mention some of its features.
Answer:
The introduction of high yielding varieties of seeds and the increased use of chemical fertilisers and irrigation are collectively known as Green Revolution.
The major features of Green Revolution are:

1. It was started in the late 1960s in the states of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh.
2. Use of high yielding varieties of seeds which promised to produce more of crops on a single piece of land.
3. Use of advanced technology, chemical fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides and a well-developed system of irrigation.
4. It solved the food crisis in India and made India self-sufficient in foodgrains.
5. It led to higher income growth and reduced poverty. (any four)

Question 44.
Explain two merits and three demerits of Green Revolution. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The two merits of Green Revolution are:

1. Higher yield per hectare, increased up to three times by the use of higher yielding varieties of seeds.
2. Greater use of machines like harvesters, tractors and threshers has made ploughing and harvesting much faster and easier.

The three demerits of Green Revolution are:

1. Loss of soil fertility due to excessive use of chemical fertilisers.
2. Continuous use of groundwater by means of tubewells in irrigation, the level of groundwater has declined.
3. The chemical fertilisers easily soluble in water can dissolve in the groundwater and pollute it.

Question 45.
Green Revolution is associated with loss of soil fertility. In the light of the statement, mention five problems caused by modern farming. [CBSE 2014; HOTS]
Answer:
The problems caused by modern farming are:

1. In many areas, it is associated with loss of soil fertility due to excessive use of chemical fertilisers.
2. Continuous use of groundwater for tubewell irrigation has reduced the water table below the ground level.
3. Pesticides and insecticides pollute surface water as well as air.
4. Chemical fertilisers kill some necessary bacteria as well such as nitrogen fixing bacteria that add up to soil fertility. Thus, the cost of farming has gone up.
5. It has adverse effect on environment as well as natural resources. Thus, creating pollution of
   soil and water due to excessive use of fertilisers.

Question 46.
Name any four non-farm production activities practised in Palampur. Give brief descriptions of any three. [CBSE 2015]
                                                                                     Or
Mention any four non-farm production activities of village Palampur. Which activity do you feel most useful for the villagers? Give any two reasons. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The non-farm activities practised in Palampur are:

1. Dairy farming. People in Palampur rear buffaloes. They feed them on different types of grass, jowar and bajra. Milk is sold in nearby villages. Some people also set up collection and chilling centres from where milk is transported to the nearby cities and towns.
2. Small-scale manufacturing. This involves simple production methods and are done on small scale. These are carried out at home with family members as labourers. The labourers are rarely hired for these activities.
3. Shopkeeping. Shopkeepers in Palampur buy goods from wholesale markets in the cities and sell them in the village. Small stores sell a wide range of products like rice, wheat, sugar, oil and some clothes. Some people who have shops near the bus stop use them to sell eatables.
4. Transport. There are different means of transport in Palampur like rickshaws, tongas, trucks, jeeps and tractors. These means of transport are used to transport goods and people from village to cities and the people get paid for this.
5. Self-employed. Some people have opened computer training centres, stitching centres etc. to obtain more profits and to train more people for better opportunities in life. (any four)

I think computer education is most useful for the villagers because:

1. It generates employment for the people being educated.
2. It employs skilled persons in the village to teach so that they would not go to other cities and towns in search of employment opportunities.

Hope given Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 are helpful to complete your homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online tutoring for you.

CBSE Class 9 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions Democratic Rights Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Civics Chapter 6 Democratic Rights.

You can also practice NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 6 Questions and Answers on LearnInsta.com.

NCERT Class 9 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Democratic Rights

SOLVED QUESTION BANK

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Question 1.
What is Guantanamo Bay? What is it known for?
Answer:
Guantanamo Bay is an area near Cuba controlled by the American Navy. It was known as a prison where the Americans kept 600 people without trail on suspicion of taking part in attack on New York on September 11, 2011.

Question 2.
Which organisation reported about human rights violation in Guantanamo Bay?
Answer:
Amnesty International, an International human rights organisation tried to expose the violation of human rights.

Question 3.
Mention one charge of human rights violation made by Amnesty International against the USA.
Answer:

1. The prisoners were tortured and denied the treatment that is given to even prisoners of war as per international treaties.
2. Prisoners were not released even after they were officially declared non-guilty. (any one)

Question 4.
Mention one fundamental rights which the Saudi Arabia denies to its citizens.
Answer:

1. Citizens cannot form any political parties. Media cannot write anything that the king does not like. So freedom of speech and expression is denied.
2. There is no freedom of religion. Every citizen has to be a Muslim. Non-Muslim residents can follow their religion in private but not in public. (any one)

Question 5.
How are the rulers of Saudi Arabia elected?
Answer:
The country is ruled by a hereditary King and the people have no role in electing or changing their rulers.

Question 6.
Why did ethnic massacre take place in Kosovo?
Answer:
Kosovo, a province of Yugoslavia, had majority population of Albanians. But Serbs were in majority in the entire country. The government of Milosevic was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians. He ordered the massacre of Albanians who did not leave the country.

Question 7.
How was an ethnic massacre in Kosovo put to end?
Answer:
The intervention of many countries led to Milosevic’s loss of power and he was tried by the International Court of Justice.

Question 8.
What can be done in a democratic country to avoid the examples of Saudi Arabia, Kosovo and Guantanamo Bay?
Answer:
To have a system where minimum freedom is granted to its citizens—powerful or weak, rich or poor, majority or minority and this freedom can be enforced also.

Question 9.
What are rights? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Rights are reasonable claims of a person recognised by society and sanctioned by law.

Question 10.
How can we practice our rights?
Answer:
A right is possible when we make a claim that is equally possible for others. We cannot have a right that harms or hurts others.

Question 11.
When do the rights become enforceable?
Answer:
Rights become enforceable when they are recognised by the society and the law.

Question 12.
What happen if rights are not written into laws?
Answer:
The remain only natural or moral rights if not recognised by laws. They can not be enforced and citizens can not approach courts for their application.

Question 13.
Give one reason why rights are necessary in a democracy.
Answer:
Citizens can express their opinion, form political parties and take part in political activities.

Question 14.
Why are some rights placed higher than the government? How?
Answer:
Some rights are placed higher than the government so that it cannot violate them. They are written in constitution and are enforceable.

Question 15.
What are fundamental rights? How many fundamental rights are granted by our constitution?
Answer:
Some rights are given special status as they are essential or fundamental or basic to our life. These rights are called fundamental rights and every citizen is given these rights. Six fundamental rights are granted by our constitution.

Question 16.
Name the six fundamental rights provided by the Indian Constitution to Indian citizens.
Answer:
The fundamental rights are:

1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom of Religion
3. Right to Freedom
4. Cultural and Educational Rights
5. Right against Exploitation
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 17.
What does ‘rule of law’ mean?
Answer:
It means that no person is above the law and the laws apply to all in the same manner regardless of a person’s position, caste, creed, religion or gender.

Question 18.
Why is the rule of law considered the foundation of any democracy?
Answer:
It means that no person is above the law. There cannot be any distinction between a political leader, government official and an ordinary citizen. The laws apply in the same manner to all.

Question 19.
To which sections of society government of India give reservations?
Answer:
The government of India give reservations to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.

Question 20.
What do you mean by equality?
Answer:
Equality means that all citizens are treated equally and there should be no discrimination on basis of caste, colour, creed, gender, and giving everyone an equal opportunity to achieve whatever one is capable of.

Question 21.
What do you mean by untouchability?
Answer:
It is the refusal to touch people belonging to certain castes as well as any belief or social practice which looks down upon people on account of their birth with certain caste labels.

Question 22.
What do job reservation mean?
Answer:
Job reservation means giving special treatment to someone in order to ensure equal opportunity.

Question 23.
What does Right to Freedom mean?
Answer:
It means living without interference by others in one’s affairs. Others should not dictate us what we should do. It means that citizens are free to do everything but do not violates other’s right to freedom.

Question 24.
Name the freedoms allowed to Indian citizens under the Right to Freedom.
Answer:

1. Freedom of speech and expression.
2. Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner.
3. Freedom to form associations and unions.
4. Freedom to move freely throughout the country.
5. Freedom to reside in any part of the country.
6. Freedom to practice any profession or carry out any occupation, trade or business.

Question 25.
What is meant by freedom of speech and expression?
Answer:
It means that people are free to think differently, express their views accordingly, criticise the government or activities of an association, publicise our views through magazine or newspaper.

Question 26.
How does the government restricted freedom to speech?
Answer:
This freedom can not be used to instigate violence against others. Someone can’t be defamed by false and mean things.

Question 27.
“Workers in a factory can form a worker’s union.” Which right of freedom is represented by the statement?
Answer:
Right to form associations and unions.

Question 28.
How do citizens of India exercise freedom to travel to any part of the country?
Answer:
The citizens of India have single citizenship and are free to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India. This allows lakhs of citizens to migrate villages to towns and poorer regions to more prosperous regions.

Question 29.
Which fundamental right says that no person can be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Right to freedom.

Question 30.
What action is mandatory after arresting or detaining a person?
Answer:
The person shall be produced before nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of arrest.

Question 31.
Which three evils have been declared illegal by the constitution?
Answer:
The evils are:

1. Traffic in human beings especially women for immoral purposes.
2. Forced labour or begar in any form.
3. Child labour

Question 32.
What do you mean by ‘traffic in human beings’?
Answer:
Traffic means buying and selling of human being for immoral purposes.

Question 33.
What is Begar?
Answer:
Begar is practice where the worker is forced to render service to the master free of charge or at a nominal remuneration.

Question 34.
What is bonded labour?
Answer:
When the practice of begar takes place on a life-long basis, it is called the practice of bonded labour.

Question 35.
In what way is child labour prohibited by the Indian constitution?
Answer:
The constitution prohibits child labour, i.e., no one can employ a child below the age of fourteen to work in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous work such as railways and ports.

Question 36.
In which industries children prohibited from working?
Answer:
Children were prohibited from working in industries such as beedkmaking, fire crackers and matches, printing and dyeing.

Question 37.
What is a secularism?
Answer:
Secularism means that the state is concerned only with relations among human beings and not with the relation between human beings .and the God. Indian secularism practices an attitude of a principled and equal distance from all religions.

Question 38.
What is meant by a ‘secular state’? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
It is a state which does not have an official religion. All religions are given equal status and respect.

Question 39.
What does right to freedom of religion mean?
Answer:
It means that every person has the right to choose, practice and propagate any religion he or she believes in. Every religious group is free to manage its religious affairs. –

Question 40.
Why are there no special guarantees for the majority?
Answer:
The reason is that the working of democracy gives power to the majority.

Question 41.
The cultural and educational rights of the minorities need special protection. What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
These rights of the minorities may get neglected or undermined under the impact of the languages, culture and religion of the majority.

Question 42.
What does Right to Constitutional Remedies imply?
Answer:
In case of violation of our rights by fellow citizens, private bodies or by the government, we can approach the courts and seek remedy.

Question 43.
What is writ?
Answer:
It is a formal document containing an order of the court to the government issued only by High Court or the Supreme Court.

Question 44.
What is PIL?
Answer:
The expanded form of PIL is Public Interest Litigation. It a right under which, citizen or group of citizens can approach the Supreme Court or High Court for the protection of public interest against a particular law or action of the government.

Question 45.
In which year the National Human Rights Commission was set up by law?
Answer:
1993.

Question 46.
What is the main focus of NHRC?
Answer:
Helping the victims secure their human rights.

Question 47.
Who appoint the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
Answer:
The President of India appoints the NHRC.

Question 48.
How many states in our country have State Human Right Commission?
Answer:
26 states (as on 10 December 2017).

Question 49.
Mention certain rights derived from the fundamental rights.
Answer:
Freedom of press, right to information and right to education are derived from fundamental rights.

Question 50.
What does the right to education mean?
Answer:
According to this right, children up to the age of 14 years are entitled for free and compulsory education under this law.

Question 51.
What is RTI?
Answer:
Right to Information is the expanded form of RTI. RTI is the right to seek information from government offices regarding public work. This right comes under the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression.

Question 52.
What are Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are universal moral claims that may or may not have been recognised by law. But there rights give a right to be treated as equal by law. Every human being born anywhere has the right to live and enjoy his life and should not be tortured by any means.

Question 53.
What is the International Covenant on economic, social and cultural rights?
                                                         Or
How has the International Covenant contributed to the expansion of rights?
Answer:
It is an international agreement which recognises many rights that are not directly part of the fundamental rights but are considered as a standard of human rights. For example, right to adequate food, clothing and housing.

Question 54.
Mention any one right granted to its people by the constitution of South Africa.
Answer:

1. Right to privacy, so that citizens or their homes cannot be searched, their phones cannot be tapped, their communication cannot be opened.
2. Right to environment that is not harmful to their health or well being. (any one)

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Question 55.
How were prisoners tortured by the US Army in Guantanamo Bay prison?
Answer:
The prisoners were being tortured in the following ways that violated the US laws.

1. They were being denied the treatment that even prisoners of war must get as per the institutional treaties.
2. Prisoners were not released even after they were officially declared not guilty.
3. Prisoners have no trial before any magistrate in the US, nor could these prisoners approach courts in their own country.

Question 56.
Describe the ethnic massacre in Kosovo. [CBSE 2016]
                                             Or
What was the background of the ethnic massacre that took place in Kosovo?
Answer:

1. Kosovo was a province of Yugoslavia before it split. In this province, the Serbs were in minority and Albanians were in majority while it was the other way round in the rest of the country.
2. A narrow-minded Serb nationalist Milosevic had won the elections. His government was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians.
3. He wanted the Serbs to dominate the country. According to many Serbs leaders, ethnic minorities like the Albanians should either leave the country or accept the dominance of the Serbs.

Question 57.
Which three qualities are required for calling any claim a right?
Answer:
The three qualities which are required for calling any claim a right are as follows.

1. The claims should be reasonable.
2. It has to be recognised by the society
3. It has to be sanctioned by the law.

Question 58.
What are rights? Why are they essential in a democracy? Give two reasons. [HOTS]
Answer:
Rights are claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law. Rights are necessary for the very sustainance of a democracy in the following manner.

1. Rights protect minorities from the oppression of majority. They ensure that the majority cannot do whatever it likes. Rights are guarantees which can be used when things go wrong, when some citizens may wish to take away the rights of others. This happens when those in majority want to dominate those in minority. In such a situation, the government should protect the citizen’s rights.
2. Rights are necessary so that citizens can express their opinion, form political parties and take political activities.
3. Sometimes the elected governments may not protect or may’attack the rights of their citizens. That is why some rights need to the placed at higher than the government, so that the government cannot violate them. (any two)

Question 59.
What are the main features of ‘Right to Equality’?
Answer:
The main features of ‘Right to Equality’ are:

1. The constitution says that the government shall not deny to any person in India equality before law or the equal protection of the laws. This means that the laws apply in the same manner to all, regardless of a person’s status, i.e., every citizen of India is subjected to the same law e.g. from the Prime Minister to a villager. This is known as the rule of law.
2. The government shall not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, ethnicity, gender or place of birth. Every citizen shall have equal access to public-places like shops, restaurants, hotels and cinema halls etc.
3. All citizens get equal opportunity in matters relating to employment or appointment to any position in the government. No citizen shall be discriminated against or made uneligible for employment on these grounds.

Question 60.
The Government of India has provided reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. Are these reservations against the right to equality? Explain. [HOTS]
Answer:

1. Such reservations are not against the right to equality. Equality does not mean giving everyone the same treatment, no matter what they need. Equality in real sense means giving everyone an equal opportunity to achieve whatever one is capable of.
2. Sometimes, it is necessary to give special treatment to someone in order to ensure equal opportunity.
3. This is what job reservations do. To clarify this, the constitution says that reservations of this kind are not violation of the right to equality.

Question 61.
Why has constitution made untouchability a punishable offence? [HOTS]
Answer:
Untouchability has been made a punishable offence by the constitution because:

1. The constitution mentions untouchability as an extreme form of social discrimination and clearly directs the government to put an end to it.
2. It does not only mean refusal to touch a person belonging to certain castes. It is a belief or social practice which looks down upon certain castes on account of their birth with certain caste labels.
3. Such a practice denies such people interaction with others or access to public places as equal citizens. So constitution has declared untouchability as a punishable offence.

Question 62
How can citizens exercise their freedom to hold rallies and demonstrations?
Answer:
Citizens have the freedom to hold rallies and demonstrations in our country guaranteed by the constitution. But they can excise the right in following manners.

1. Such meetings have to be peaceful.
2. They should not lead to public disorder or breach of peace in society.
3. Those who participate in these activities should not carry weapons and arms.
4. Citizens can also form associations like doctors, traders etc. But these cannot provoke others. (any three)

Question 63.
What legal procedures have to be followed by a police officer if he arrest or detain any citizen?
Answer:

1. A person who is arrested and detained will have to be informed the reasons for such arrest and detention.
2. A person who is detained and arrested shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of arrest. .
3. Such person have the right to enage a lawyer for his/her defence.

Question 64.
Explain the three evils declared illegal under the Right against Exploitation.
Answer:
The constitution mentions three evils and declares them illegal.

1. Traffic in human beings. Traffic here means selling and buying of human beings, usually women for immoral purposes.
2. Begar. Our constitution also prohibits forced labour or begar in any form. It is a pratice where the worker is forced to render service to the master, free of cost/charge or at nominal salary. When this takes place on life-long basis, it is called bonded labour.
3. Child labour. The constitution also prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of 14 years to work in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous work such as in the railways and at ports. Many laws have been made to prohibits children from working in industries such as beedi making, fire crackers and matchbox, printing and dyeing.

Question 65.
How is the Right to Equality exercised?
Answer:
The Right to Equality exercised in the following manner.

1. By prohibiting discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, ethnicity, gender or place of birth.
2. Every citizen shall have access to public places likes shops, restaurants, hotels and cinema halls.
3. Giving equal opportunity to all citizens.
4. Provide reservations for SCs, STs, OBCs, women, poor or physically handicapped in some kinds of jobs to ensure equal opportunity.

Question 66.
Mention any three constitutional provisions that make India a secular state.
Answer:
In India, people follow different religions. So the constitution makers made provisions for India to be a secular country.
The constitutional provisions that make India secular are:

1. The constitution provides to all its citizens the freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice.
2. There is no official religion for India. Unlike Srilanka, where Buddhism is state religion and Pakistan which has Islam as state religion.
3. There shall be no religious instruction in the government educational institutions.

Question 67.
Why have new rights been added to fundamental rights from time to time? Give a few examples.
Answer:
New rights been added to fundamental rights because as time moves, societies develop or new
constitution is made. So to accommodate the needs of the present generation the scope of rights has been expanded over the years.
For example:

1. Right to education has become a fundamental right for Indian citizens.
2. Right to property is not a fundamental right but it is a legal or constitutional right.
3. Right to freedom of press is also another right which is an expansion of the right to freedom.

Question 68.
What does the constitution specify about the cultural and educational rights of the minorities?
Answer:
The constitution specifies the cultural and educational rights of the minorities in the following ways:

1. Any section of the citizens with a distinct language or culture have a right to conserve it.
2. Admission to any educational institution maintained by government or receiving government aid can not be denied to any citizen on the ground of religion or language.
3. All minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Question 69.
How does PIL work? Mention the importance of PIL.
Answer:
Under this (PIL), any citizen or group of citizens can approach tfye supreme court or high court for the protection of public interest against a particular law or action of the government.

Public Interest Litigation is use of litigation or legal action, which seeks to advance the cause of minority or disadvantaged groups or individuals. It raises issues of broad public cancern. It is a way of using the law strategically to effect social change.

Question 70.
Mention the powers/functions of the NHRC.
Answer:
The NHRC has the following powers/functions:

1. To make independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights.
2. It inquires into any case of abetment of such violation or negligence in controlling it by any government officer and takes other general steps to promote human rights in the country.
3. It presents its findings and recommendations to the government or intervene in the. court on behalf of the victims.
4. It has wide ranging powers to carry out its inquiry. It can summon witnesses, question any government official, demand any official paper, visit any prison for inspection or send its own team for on-the-spot inquiry.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Question 71.
What type of government does Saudi Arabia have? What are its main features?
Answer:
Saudi Arabia is a monarchy, ruled by a hereditary king and the people have no role in electing or changing their rulers.
The main features of this type of government are:

1. The king selects the legislature, the executive and also appoints the judges and can change any of their decisions.
2. Citizens cannot form political parties or any political organization.
3. Media cannot report anything that the monarch does not like.
4. There is no freedom of religion. Every citizen is required to be a muslim. Non-muslim residents can follow their religion in private but not in public.
5. Women are subjected to many public restrictions. The testimony of one man is considered equal to that of two women. (any four)

Question 72.
What are fundamental rights? How many fundamental rights are mentioned in our constitution? Why are they important?
Answer:
In India, like in other democracies in the world, some rights are mentioned in the constitution. These rights are fundamental to our life and therefore they are given a special status. They are called fundamental rights.
Six fundamental rights are:

1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right to Freedom of Religion
4. Right against Exploitation
5. Right to Constitutional Remedies
6. Cultural and Educational Rights

The fundamental rights are important as:

1. Fundamental rights are an important basic feature of the Indian constitution.
2. The preamble of the constitution takes about securing for all its citizens equality, liberty and justice. Fundamental rights put these into effect.
3. They provide the security to the minorities in the country.
4. They keep a check on the government.

Question 73.
Describe any five Freedom granted to the citizens of India under the Right to Freedom. [CBSE 2016]
                                                          Or
What is rights to Freedom? Mention different rights that come under it.
Answer:
Everybody wants to live in freedom which means absence of constraints. We want to live in a society but we want to be free and do not want to be dictated by anyone. So the constitution of India has given to its citizens the following rights:

1. Right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. Right to assemble in a peaceful manner.
3. Right to form associations and unions.
4. Right to move freely throughout the country.
5. Right to reside in any part of the country.
6. Right to practice any profession or carry out any occupation, trade or business.

These freedoms are not unlimited licences to do anything we want. The government has/can impose certain restrictions on these freedoms of the citizens under certain conditions for the good of the society.

Question 74.
Explain briefly the Right to Constitutional remedies. How this right could be enforced?
Answer:

1. The fundamental rights in the constitution are important because they are enforceable. We have the right to seek the enforcement of their rights. This is called the Right to Constitutional . Remedies. This itself is a fundamental right. This right was rightly called the heart and soul of the constitution by Dr BR Ambedkar. It makes other rights effective.
2. Sometimes our rights may be violated by fellow citizens, private bodies or by the government. When any of our rights is violated we can seek remedy through the supreme court or high court of a state.
3. The supreme court and high court have the power to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights. They can also award compensation on the victims and punishment to the violators.

Question 75.
What is the role of International Covenant in the expansion of rights?
Answer:
International Covenant has also contributed to the expansion of rights. It binds the signatory countries to provide some rights to the citizens.

International Covenant on economic, social and cultural rights recognises many rights that are not directly a part of the fundamental rights in the India Constitution. This includes:

1. Right to work, opportunity to everyone to earn livelihood by working.
2. Right to safe and healthy working conditions with fair wages that can provide a decent standard of living for workers and their families.
3. Right to adequate standard of living including adequate food, clothing and housing.
4. Right to social security and insurance.
5. Right to health, medical care during illness, special care for women during childcare and prevention of epidemics.
6. Right to education, free and compulsory primary education, equal access to higher education. Thus International covenants play a significant role in expanding the scope of rights, {any five)

Question 76.
Explain how the scope of rights has expanded in recent times. [HOTS]
Answer:
The scope of rights has expanded in the following ways.

1. The court judgements have helped in expanding the scope of rights in the following ways.
   1. Certain rights like right to freedom of press, right to information and right to education are derived from the fundamental rights.
   2. The government is responsible for providing free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of 14 years.
   3. The Supreme Court has expanded the meaning of right to life to include the right to food also.
2. The Parliament has enacted a law giving the right to information to the citizens. This is under the freedom of thought and expression.
3. Constitution provides certain rights which are not fundamental e.g. right to property.
4. Right to vote is a constitutional right. .
5.  Human rights that are universal moral claims also help in expansion of rights.
6.  International movements also help in expansion of rights.
7. International covenants also contribute to expansion of rights.
8.  Last, but not the least sometimes new rights are guaranteed under the constitution as a result of the struggle of the people e.g. the constitution of South Africa guaranteed its citizens the following rights.
   1. Right to privacy.
   2. Right to environment that is not harmful to their health or well being.
   3. Right to have access to adequate housing.
   4. Right to access to health care services, sufficient food and water and medical treatment in an emergency. (any five)

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CBSE Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Security in India Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Economics Chapter 4 Security in India.

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Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Food Security in India

SOLVED QUESTION BANK

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Question 1.
What do you mean by food security?
Answer:
Food security means availability, accessibility and affordability of food to all people at all times.

Question 2.
Why is food security needed?
Answer:
Food security is needed to meet emergencies, shortage of food grains, prevent starvation and famines.

Question 3.
Which was the most devastating famine that occurred in India during the 20th century?
Answer:
Famine of Bengal in 1943

Question 4.
Who were the most affected by the famine of Bengal?
Answer:
The agricultural labourers, fishermen, transport workers and other casual labourers were most affected by the dramatic increase in the price of rice.

Question 5.
Which are the food insecure families in the urban area?
Answer:
The food insecure families in the urban areas are those whose working members are generally employed in ill-paid occupations and casual labour market.

Question 6.
State the full form of NHFS.
Answer:
NHFS stands for National Health and Family Survey.

Question 7.
What do you mean by hunger?
Answer:
It is an another aspect of indicating food security. It is not just an expression of poverty, it brings poverty.

Question 8.
State the dimensions of hunger.
Answer:
Chronic hunger and seasonal hunger are the two dimensions of hunger.

Question 9.
What do you mean by chronic hunger?
Answer:
Chronic hunger is a consequence of diet persistently inadequate in terms of quantity or quality.

Question 10.
What do you mean by seasonal hunger?
Answer:
Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. It is prevalent more in rural areas.

Question 11.
Name the new strategy adopted in agriculture in India after independence to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
Answer:
Green Revolution

Question 12.
Define Green Revolution.
Answer:
Green Revolution implies large increase in agricultural production due to use of high yielding varieties of seeds and other inputs such as manure and fertilisers.

Question 13.
Which states achieved the highest rate of growth in food grains production in 2015-16?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 14.
What was the total foodgrain production in India in 201516?
Answer:
252.22 million tonnes.

Question 15.
State the two components of food security system.
Answer:
Buffer Stock and Public Distribution System

Question 16.
What do you mean by Buffer Stock?
                       Or
Define Buffer Stock. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Buffer Stock is the stock of food grains, particularly wheat and rice, procured by the government through the Food Corporation of India (FCI).

Question 17.
What does the Food Corporation of India do?
Answer:
The Food Corporation of India is a government agency which purchases food grains from the farmers wherever they are in surplus.

Question 18.
What do you mean by minimum support price?
Answer:
Minimum support price is the minimum price of food grains which is declared by the government every year before the sowing season, to provide incentives to the farmers for raising the production of crops.

Question 19.
Define issue price.
Answer:
Issue price is the price at which the government provides food grains to the poorer strata of the society through Public Distribution System.

Question 20.
What do you mean by Public Distribution System?
Answer:
The food procured by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is distributed through government regulated ration shops among the poorer sections of the society. This system is known as Public Distribution System.

Question 21.
What are Fair Price Shops?
Answer:
Fair Price Shops are the ration shops which have been opened by the government to provide food grains to the poorer strata of the society.

Question 22.
Which items are commonly sold at Fair Price Shops?
Answer:
Items such as food grains, sugar and kerosene oil for cooking are commonly sold at Fair Price Shops.

Question 23.
Which kind of ration cards are for the poorest of the poor?
Answer:
Antyodaya Cards

Question 24.
Name the ration card used for the people living below the poverty line and for all others.
Answer:
BPL cards are used for people living below the poverty line and APL cards are used for all others.

Question 25.
When was rationing system introduced in India?
Answer:
The rationing system was introduced in India in 1940s after the disastrous ‘Famine of Bengal’.

Question 26.
Which important food intervention programmes were introduced by the Indian government after NS SO report?
Answer:
The programmes which were introduced are:

1. Public Distribution System
2. Integrated Child Development Services
3. Food For Work Programme

Question 27.
Mention any two programmes initiated by the government having food component in them.
Answer:
Mid-day Meal and Integerated Child Development Services

Question 28.
What is the National Food Security Act 2013?
Answer:
This Act provides for food and nutritional security life at affordable prices and enables people to live a life with dignity.

Question 29.
Which is the most important step taken by the government of India to ensure food security?
Answer:
Public Distribution System (PDS)

Question 30.
Define subsidy.
Answer:
Subsidy is a payment that a government makes to a producer to supplement the market price of a commodity.

Question 31.
What is the status of per capita consumption of PDS rice and wheat in rural and urban India since 2004-05?
Answer:
Per capita consumption of PDS rice has doubled in rural India and increased by 66% in urban India since 2004-05. The per capita consumption of PDS wheat has doubled since 2004-05 in both rural and urban India.

Question 32.
What are cooperative societies?
Answer:
The cooperative societies are the societies which are run by local people. They provide public with the basic necessities of life such as foodgrains, milk and vegetables at reasonable rates.

Question 33.
Name the revolution brought about by Amul.
Answer:
White Revolution

Question 34.
Where is the Academy of Development Science located?
Answer:
Maharashtra

Question 35.
Which programme is acknowledged as the successful and innovative food security intervention?
Answer:
The Academy of Development Science’s ‘Grain Bank Programme’ is the successful and innovative food security intervention programme.

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Question 36.
Explain the major dimensions of food security. [CBSE 2015,13,12, ll]
Answer:
The major dimensions of food security are:

1. Availability of food. It means food production within the country, food imports, along with previous years’ stock stored in government granaries.
2. Accessibility. It means food is within the reach of every person.
3. Affordability. It implies having enough money to buy sufficient safe and nutritious food to meet one’s dietary needs.

Question 37.
How is food security ensured in a country?
Answer:
Food security is ensured in a country when:

1. Enough food is available for all.
2. All persons have the capacity to buy food of acceptable quality.
3. There is no barrier to access of food.

Question 38.
How is food security affected during a calamity?
Answer:
During a calamity, the total production of food grains decreases. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas. Due to shortage of food, the prices of commodities go up. At higher prices, some people cannot afford to buy the food. If such a calamity happens in a very wide area or is stretched over a long time, it may lead to a situation of starvation.

Question 39.
‘Food security is essential in India.’ Justify the statement. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Food security is essential in India in the wake of national disasters or calamities like floods, tsunami, earthquakes and famines. Due to natural and national calamities, the total production of food grains decreases which creates a food shortage. As a result of food shortage, the price of food grains goes up. It affects the population of the country, which may suffer from starvation. Massive starvation might take the form of a famine like the Famine of Bengal in 1943 But even today, famine like . conditions exist in Odisha. Starvation deaths are reported from states like Rajasthan, Jharkhand and some remote areas.

All this calls for essential food security in the country to ensure food availability at all times without interruption.

Question 40.
What is a famine? Who were the most affected by the famine of Bengal?
Answer:
A famine is characterised by widespread deaths due to starvation and epidemics caused by forced use of contaminated water or decaying food and loss of body resistance due to weakening from starvation. The people who were the most affected by the famine of Bengal were agricultural labourers, fishermen, transport workers and other casual labourers.

Question 41.
‘The food insecure people are disproportionately large in some regions of the country.’ Explain. [HOTS]
Answer:
The economically backward states such as Uttar Pradesh (eastern and south-eastern parts), Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and some parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra account for largest number of food insecure people in the country. The tribal and remote areas are highly prone to poverty whereas regions more prone to natural disasters are vulnerable to poverty.

Question 42.
Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger.
Answer:
Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting whereas chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity or quality.
People suffer from seasonal hunger in rural areas because of seasonal nature of agricultural activities and because of causal labour in the urban areas whereas poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of very low income and thereby inability to buy food even for survival.

Question 43.
What are the functions of the Food Corporation of India?
                                          Or
Mention the activities of the Food Corporation of India. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The functions/activities of the Food Corporation of India are:

1. It safeguards the interests of the farmers by providing them remunerative prices for their foodgrain.
2. It maintains an adequate level of foodgrains to ensure stocks are available on any mishappening or calamity.
3. It allows the government to intervene in the food grains market for price stabilisation.

Question 44.
How does Public Distribution System ensure food security in India? Explain.
Answer:
The Public Distribution System ensures food security in India through government regulated ration shops among the poorer sections of the society. These ration shops, known as ‘Fair Price Shops’, are present in most localities, villages, towns and cities. They keep stocks of food grains, sugar and kerosene oil for cooking purposes. These items are sold to public at a price lower than the market price. Any family with a ration card can buy a stipulated amount of these items like thirty-five kg of grains, five litres of kerosene, five kg of sugar etc. every month from the nearby ration shops.

Question 45.
Examine the activities of ration shops. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The activities performed by the ration shops are:

1. They distribute the items like food grains, sugar, kerosene and edible oil to the holders of the ration cards.
2. They maintain a stock register of the items which they receive and distribute.
3. They keep a check on the quality of the items to be distributed to the cardholders.

Question 46.
Explain the role of co-operatives in providing food and related items in different parts of the country. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people, such as Mother Dairy in Delhi is rapidly growing in providing milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled prices, announced by the government of Delhi.

Another success story of cooperatives lies in Amul, a cooperative, dealing with milk and milk products from Gujarat. It has brought about ‘White Revolution’ in the country.

These cooperatives are functioning in various parts of the country to ensure food security to various sections of the society.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Question 47.
Explain about the people who are food insecure in India.
Answer:

1. In rural areas, the people more prone to food insecurity are:
   1.  Landless farmers
   2.  Traditional artisans,
   3. Petty self-employed workers
   4. Destitutes including beggars
2. In urban areas, the people more prone to food insecurity are:
   1. Casual labourers
   2. Workers employed in low-paid occupations
   3. Workers employed in seasonal activities
3. Food insecure people also include SCs, STs and some sections of OBCs (lower castes among them).
4. The people who are living in economically backward states with high poverty, tribal, remote areas and regions more prone to natural disasters also fall under the food insecure.

Question 48.
How does social inability to buy food also play a critical role in food insecurity?
Answer:
Indian social composition is very complex such as.

1. There are sections in the society which face the problem of low productivity like small land owners, traditional artisans, destitutes etc. and hence are not able to access food security.
2. Some sections of people live in absolute poverty due to their low social status in the society like SCs, STs and OBCs. Food for such sections is a luxury.
3. At the same time, pregnant and nursing mothers and children below the age of five years are more vulnerable to food access.
4. Those employed in ill-paid jobs, casual labour market are also unable to procure food for themselves and their family.
5. People affected by natural disasters and who migrate in search of work are also food insecure.
   (any three)

Question 49.
Explain the impact of the Green Revolution. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The Green Revolution has led to:

1. Increase in agricultural products. Green Revolution has resulted in phenomenal increase in the production of agricultural crops especially in foodgrains.
2. Rural employment. While on one hand, large scale unemployment was feared due to mechanisation of farming with the introduction of Green Revolution technology in India, there was an appreciable increase in the demand for labour force due to multiple croppirfg and use of fertilisers.
3. Industrial growth. Green Revolution brought about large scale farm mechanisation which created demand for different types of machines like tractors, harvesters, threshers, electric motors, pump-sets etc. Besides, demand for chemical fertilisers, pesticides, insecticides etc. has also increased considerably. Consequently, industries producing these items have progressed by leaps and bound.
4. Prosperity of farmers. With the increase in farm production, the earnings of the farmers also increased and they have become prosperous. This has, especially, been the case with big farmers having more than 10 hectares of land.
5. Reduction in import of food grains. The main benefit of Green Revolution was the increase in the production of food grains, as a result of which there was a drastic reduction in the Indian imports. India is now self-sufficient in food grains and has sufficient stock in the central pool.
   (any three)

Question 50.
What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss two schemes launched by the government. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The government has designed the food security system carefully to ensure availability of food to all sections of the society. The system is composed of two componfents, i.e.,

1. Buffer Stock
2. Public Distribution System (PDS)

In addition to the above, the government has launched several Poverty Alleviation Programmes (PAPs) that comprise a component of food security. Some of these programmes are Mid-day Meals, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and Food For Work (FFW).
The two schemes launched by the government in this direction are:

1. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). This scheme was launched in December 2000. Under this scheme, one crore of the poorer among the BPL families, to be covered by the Public Distribution System, were identified. Twenty-five kilograms of food grains were made available to each of the – eligible family at a highly subsidised rate. After about two years, the quantity was enhanced from
   twenty-five kg to thirty-five kg. In June 2003 and August 2004, an additional fifty lakh families were added to this scheme twice. In this way, about two crore families have been brought under the AAY.
2. Annapurna Scheme (APS). It was launched in 2,000 with special target group of ‘indigent senior citizens’. The functioning of scheme was linked with existing network of the PDS. Under this scheme, 10 kg of food grains were made available to them free of cost.

Question 51.
Why is the buffer stock created by the government? [CBSE 2013, 11, 10]
Answer:
Buffer stock is created by the government to ensure availability of food to all the sections of the society. It helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.

Question 52.
Explain Buffer Stock and activities related to the creation of Buffer Stock. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains like wheat and rice that is procured by the government
through Food Corporation of India to resolve the problem of shortage of food grains because of adverse weather conditions or periods of calamity.
The activities related to the creation of buffer stocks are:

1. The government procures food grains through the Food Corporation of India from the farmers producing surplus.
2. Pre-announced price called the Minimum Support Price is paid to the farmers.
3. The purchased food grains are stored in the granaries maintained by the Food Corporation of Cwdiw.

Question 53.
What is the rationing system?
Answer:
The rationing system is a system of distribution of scarce resources in a controlled way. This system began in India in 1940s against the backdrop of Bengal famine. In India, certain food grains, sugar, kerosene and cereals are distributed through a network of fair price shops to those living under or above the poverty line at subsidised rates to ensure food security. Any family with a ration card can buy a stipulated amount of these items every month at a price lower than the market price. The main objective of the rationing system is the eradication of poverty and making availability of desired quantity of food to every household, who cannot afford it.

Hope given Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 are helpful to complete your homework.

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CBSE Class 9 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions Democracy in the Contemporary Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Civics Chapter 6 Democracy in the Contemporary.

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Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Question 1.
In which continent is Chile located?
Answer:
Chile is located in South America.

Question 2
Who was the President of Chile before the military coup was staged?
Answer:
Salvador Allende was the President of Chile before the miltary coup was staged.

Question 3
Name the party founded by Salvador Allende in Chile?
Answer:
The Socialist Party of Chile was founded by Salvador Allende.

Question 4.
When did Allende become the President of Chile?
Answer:
Allende became the President of Chile in 1970.

Question 5.
What were the policy decisions of President Allende other than works for poors and workers?
Answer:
Other decisions were:

(a) Reform of the educational system.
(b) He was opposed to foreign companies taking away natural resources like copper from the country.

Question 6.
Name the sections of society who were opposed to Allende’s policy?
Answer:
The landlords, the rich and the Church were opposed to Allende’s policies.

Question 7.
What is meant by coup?
Answer:
A coup is the sudden overthrow of the government illegally. It may be violent in nature.

Question 8.
When did the coup against the President of Chile take place?
Answer:
The coup against the President of Chile took place on 11th September 1973.

Question 9.
What was the fate of President Allende?
Answer:
The military surrounded the Presidents house and started bombing it. President Allende died in the military attack.

Question 10.
What happened to the Allende’s government? ‘ ‘
Answer:
Allende’s government, which was elected by people was overthrown by the military through conspiracy and violence.

Question 11.
Who overthrew President Allende’s government?
Answer:
General Augusto Pinochet overthrew President Allende’s government.

Question 12.
For how many years did Pinochet rule Chile?
Answer:
Augusto Pinochet ruled Chile for 17 years.

Question 13.
What do you mean by military dictatorship in Chile?
Answer:
From an elected government power was shifted to officers of military. Military dictatorship means military could do what they wanted. No one could question their action.

Question 14.
How did Pinochet’s government treat the supporters of Salvador Allende?
Answer:
Pinochet’s government tortured and killed several of those who supported Allende and those who wanted democracy to be restored.

Question 15.
What was the result of the referendum held in 1988?
Answer:
As a result of referendum held in 1988, Pinochet lost his political and military powers.

Question 16.
Which hope was expressed by Allende in his last address?
Answer:
Allende expressed that felony, cowardice and treason were finally punished. His hope was realised after referendum.

Question 17.
Who was Michelle Bachelet?
Answer:
Michelle Bachelet was the daughter of General Alberto Bachelet, the Chilean Air Force officer, who was tortured and killed by Pinochet’s government. She was a moderate socialist who became the President of Chile in 2006.

Question 18.
What was the significance of Polish United Workers’ Party?
Answer:
The party was one of the many communist parties that ruled in several countries of East Europe.

Question 19.
How was the USSR government assossiated with government of Poland?
Answer:
Soviet Union (USSR) government, which was a vast and powerful communist state, was supporting and controlling the government of Poland.

Question 20.
When did and by whom a strike happened in the city of Gdansk, Poland?
Answer:
On 14 August 1980, the workers of Lenin shipyard in the city of Gdansk, Poland went on a strike.

Question 21.
What was the first demand of the striking workers in Poland?
Answer:
The first demand was to take back a crane operator, a woman, who was unjustly dismissed from service.

Question 22.
Why was the strike illegal?
Answer:
The strike was illegal because in Poland, as being a communist state trade unions independent of the ruling party were not allowed.

Question 23.
Who was the leader of the striking workers? Why was he dismissed?
Answer:
Lech Walesa, was the leader of the striking workers. He was dismissed for demanding higher pay in 1976.

Question 24.
What were the demands of the striking workers?
Answer:
The demands were-right to form independent trade unions, release of political prisoners, end of press censorship.

Question 25.
How did the strike end in Poland?
Answer:
The strike ended when the workers led by Walesa signed a 21-point agreement with the government.

Question 26.
Name the first independent trade union formed in a communist country?
Answer:
The first independent trade union in any communist country was Solidarity.

Question 27.
What actions were taken by Jaruzelski government during martial lqw?
Answer:
During martial law, thousands of Solidarity workers were imprisoned and freedom to organise, protest and express opinion was taken away.

Question 28.
Why did Solidarity strike again?
Answer:
Solidarity organised the second strike in 1988 against revelations of widespread corruption, and mismanagement in the government under General Jaruzelski, and imposition of martial law.

Question 29.
What was the economic condition of Poland when second strike was organised by Solidarity?
Answer:
The Polish economy was on the decline, the government was weak and there was uncertainity in
support from the Soviet Union.

Question 30.
Who became the President of Poland in 1990?
Answer:
Lech Walesa became the President of Poland in 1990.

Question 31.
Which form of government is found in most countries of the world?
Answer:
Democracy is the form of government found in most countries of the world.

Question 32.
Mention a similarity between Pinochet’s rule in Chile and communist rule in Poland.
Answer:
These governments were non-democratic in nature.

Question 33.
What do you mean by democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.

Question 34.
List two features of democracy.
Answer:
The two features of democracy are:

1. Only representatives elected by the people should rule the country.
2. People have the freedom to express their views, to organise themselves and to protest.

Question 35.
Around what demands struggles for democracy centered during the nineteenth century?
Answer:
Political equality, freedom and justice were the demands.

Question 36.
What was the major demand of struggles in the nineteenth century.
Answer:
The major demand was the right for every adult citizen to vote.

Question 37.
What do you mean by Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Every citizen of 18 years and above has the right to vote under Universal Adult Franchise.

Question 38.
Name the only country to have granted Universal Adult Franchise till the year 1990.
Answer:
New Zealand was the first country which granted Universal Adult Franchise in 1893.

Question 39.
In which year was Universal Adult Franchise introduced in India?
Answer:
In India, Universal Adult Franchise was introduced in 1950, the year when the new Constitution was put into force.

Question 40.
Give an example of colonialism.
Answer:
Most Asian and African countries were colonised by European countries.

Question 41.
Which country was known as Gold Coast?
Answer:
Ghana in west Africa, a British colony, was known as Gold Coast.

Question 42.
Name the first African country to gain independence.
Answer:
The first African country to gain independence was Ghana.

Question 43.
Who was the First Prime Minister of Ghana after independence in 1957?
Answer:
Kwame Nkrumah became the first Prime Minister of Ghana after its independence.

Question 44.
Why was there a big push towards democracy after 1980?
Answer:
After 1980, there was a big push towards democracy because in several countries of Latin America democracy was revived and several countries after gaining independence chose to become democracies.

Question 45.
In which year did the Soviet Union disintegrate into 15 Republics?
Answer:
In 1991, Soviet Union disintegrated into 15 Republics,

Question 46.
What caused a big change in the political map of the world?
Answer:
The end of Soviet control on Eastern Europe and the break up of the Soviet Union led to a big change in the political map of the world.

Question 47.
Name the country which emerged as a democratic republic after abolishing monarchy.
Answer:
Nepal.

Question 48.
When and how did Myanmar become a democracy?
Answer:
Myanmar became a democracy in 1948 and it ended with a military rule.

Question 49.
Which leader of Myanmar got the Nobel Peace Prize?
Answer:
Aung San Suu Kyi got the Nobel Peace Prize.

Question 50.
What is the United Nations Organisation?
Answer:
United Nations Organisation is a global association of nations of the world to help cooperation in international law, security, economic development and social equity.

Question 51.
Who is the chief administrative officer of the UNO?
Answer:
The United Nations Secretary General is the chief administrative officer of the UNO.

Question 52.
Which organ of the UN is responsible for maintaining peace and security among countries?
Answer:
The UN Security Council is responsible for maintaining peace and security among countries.

Question 53.
Name the UN organ, which lends money to governments when they need.
Answer:
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) lends money to governments.

Question 54.
List the powers of UN Security Council.
Answer:
It can put together an international army and take action against the wrongdoers.

Question 55.
What is the limitation of the General Assembly?
Answer:
General Assembly cannot take any decision about what action should be taken to solve a conflict between different countries.

Question 56.
What is the term period of ten temperory member of UN security council? How are they elected?
Answer:
The term is 2 years and they are elected by General Assembly.

Question 57.
What is Veto power?
Answer:
When any of the five permanent members of the Security Council says no to the decision of the Security Council, the council cannot take the decision.

Question 58.
Name the leader of Iraq who became President after the success of a military coup.
Answer:
Saddam Hussein became the President of Iraq after the success of military rule.

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Question 59.
What steps were taken by Salvador Allende to help the poor and the workers? [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Salvador Allende was the founder leader of the Socialist Party of Chile. He led the Popular Unity
coalition to victory in the 1970 elections, was appointed the President.
The three reforms which he undertook to help the poor and the workers were:

1.  Reforming the education system.
2.  Free milk for children.
3.  Redistribution of land to landless farmers.

Question 60.
State any three major incidents which took place in Chile after the military coup of September
1973. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
On 11th September 1973, a military coup was established in Chile under the leadership of General Augusto Pinochet.
The major incidents took place in Chile under the leadership of General Augusto were:

1. A military dictatorship was established.
2. Pinochet’s government tortured and killed those who supported’democracy and opposed him.
3. More than 3,000 men were killed by military.
4. General Bachelet’s wife and daughter were imprisoned and tortured. (any three)

Question 61.
Can Chile under Pinochet’s rule be called a democracy? Support your answer with three arguments.
[CBSE 2012] [HOTS]
Answer:
General Augusto Pinochet’s rule in Chile cannot be called a democracy because of the following reasons.

1. There was no representation in the administration of those elected by the people. All were controled by Pinochet.
2. There was no election or Universal Adult Franchise. Chile was ruled by military for 17 years.
3. There was no real freedom to express one’s opinion—to form political associations, organise protests or undertake any political action in Chile. More than 3,000 men were killed, many more went missing.

Question 62.
Describe any three demands of the workers of Lenin shipyard during their strike which started in August 1980 in Poland. [CBSE 2012, 2014] [HOTS]
Answer:
On 14th August, 1980, the workers of Lenin shipyard in the city of Gdansk went on strike.
The following were their main demands:

1.  They wanted the crane operator, a woman worker who was unjustly dismissed from service, to be taken back.
2. They wanted to form independent trade unions.
3. They demanded the release of political prisoners.
4. They also demanded an end to press censorship. (any three)

Question 63.
Who was Lech Walesa? How did he become famous in Poland? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:

1. Lech Walesa was an electrician at the Lenin shipyard in the city of Gdansk in Poland. He
   became famous for his struggle against the ruling communist government. He dismissed from service in 1976, for demanding higher pay. Later he joined the strike of Lenin shipyard.
2. Very soon Walesa emerged as the leader of the striking workers. Initially, the strike was started with a demand to take back a crane operator, a women worker, who was unjustly dismissed.
3. Later, the strike to spread across the whole city. Now the workers wanted the right to form independent trade unions, release of political prisoners and an end to press censorship of the press. Later Walesa formed Solidarity, the first independent trade union in Poland.

Question 64.
What was the Gdansk agreement?
Answer:

1. The Gdansk agreement was a 21-point agreement that took place between the workers led by
   Lech Walesa and the government. The workers’ strike ended with this agreement.
2. The government agreed to recognise the workers’ right to form independent trade unions and the right to strike. worse for the rulers. The government under General Jaruzelski became anxious and imposed martial law
3. After this agreement was signed a new trade union called Solidarity was formed. It was the first time an independent trade union was formed in a communist country.

Question 65.
What were the reasons that led to the imposition of martial law in Poland under General Jaruzelski?
[CBSE 2011]
Answer:
The reasons which led to the imposition of martial law in Poland were:

1. The workers’ movement under Lech Walesa demanded release of political prisoners, they also demanded the right to form independent trade unions and end of the press censorship.
2. Solidarity, the first independent trade union, was formed in a communist state. Soon it swept across Poland and had about one crore members.
3. Revelations of widespread corruption and mismanagement in the government made matters

Question 66.
Distinguish between Pinochet’s rule in Chile and the Communist rule in Poland.
Answer:

Question 67.
Mention the main features of democracy. [HOTS]
Answer:
The main features of democracy are as follows:

1. Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.
2. Only elected leaders rule the country in a democracy. –
3. People have the freedom to express their views, form political associations and to organise protests and political action.

Question 68.
How did Britain progressed toward the democracy?
Answer:
Britain’s progress towards democracy was started earlier than that of France but it was very slow. The powers of monarchy were reduced. The right to vote was granted to more and more people. It granted right to vote on the basis of universal adult franchise in 1928.

Question 69.
Why did Kwame Nkrumah become unpopular? What was its consequence?
Answer:
Ghana was a British colony in West Africa named Gold Coast. It became independent in 1957. Kwame Nkrumah, was the son of a goldsmith. He was a teacher. But he got himself elected president for life. He was overthrown by military. Ghana thus came into the lap of undemocratic rule.

Question 70.
When did undemocratic rule end in Myanmar? What happened there in 1990? What were its results?
[HOTS]
Answer:
Myanmar gained freedom from colonial rule in 1948 and became a democracy. But the democratic rule could not last long. In 1962, it came to an end through a military coup. In 1990, elections were held and the National League for Democracy led by Aung San Suu Kyi won the elections. But the military leaders refused to step down. They did not recognise the election and put Aung San Suu Kyi and other pro-democracy leaders under house arrest. Political activists and others, who were caught giving their views or issuing statements against the military regime, were jailed and sentenced up to twenty years in prison.

Question 71.
Write a short note on Aung San Suu Kyi.
Answer:
Myanmar got independence in 1948 and became a democracy. But in 1962 there was a military coup. In 1990, elections were held in Myanmar after 30 years and National League for Democracy (NLD) led by Aung San Suu Kyi won the election. But the military leaders did not recognise the election results and refused to step down.

Aung San Suu Kyi was put under house arrest for many years. She has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for she continued her fight for democracy and human rights. Finally, under her leadership, the NLD fought the historic 2015 elections and a democratic republic was established.

Question 72.
What is International Monetary Fund? Is it based on democratic provisions?
Answer:
International Monetary Fund is one of the biggest moneylenders for any country in the world. This organisation with 189 members is not based on democratic provisions.

1. These countries did not have equal voting rights. More than 40% of voting power were given to only seven countries i.e. US, Japan, France, UK, Germany, Italy and Canada.
2. Rest of the 182 countries hardly have any say in its working.

Question 73.
Which country has recently taken the task of promotion of democracy in the rest of the world? Should existing democracies directly intervene in countries that are non-democratic to establish democracy there? Write your opinion in brief. .
Answer:
The United States of America has recently taken the task of promotion of democracy in the rest of the world.
Promoting the values of democracy in the world is a good thing. But it is not good to establish democracy in a non-democratic country by force. For example, in Iraq the same thing happened. The US and its allies invaded Iraq in 2003 for establishing democracy there. In my opinion such an intervention is not appreciated. External force does not help until and unless the people of the country themselves are engaged in a struggle against their government to make it democratic.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Question 74.
List down the contribution of Salvador Allende in Chile.
Answer:

1. Salvador Allende was the founder leader of Socialist Party of Chile who led the Popular Unity coalition in the Presidential elections of 1970.
2. After becoming the President, Aliende took several policy decisions to help the poor and the workers.
   (i) Reforms of educational system
   (ii) Free milk for children
   (iii) Redistribution of land to the landless farmers.
3. The rich, the landlords and the Church all were opposed to his policies as these did not favour them. He was against foreign companies who were taking away natural resources like copper from Chile.

Question 75.
Mention the major developments took place in India’s neighbour in recent years.
Answer:
Developments in Pakistan, Bangladesh and Nepal were:

1. In the 1990’s Pakistan and Bangladesh made a shift from army rule to democracy.
2. In Nepal the king gave up his powers to become a constitutional monarch who would be guided by elected representatives.
3. These changes were not permanent e.g.
   • In 1999, General Musharraf instilled military rule in Pakistan.
   • In 2005, the king dismissed the elected government and took back the political freedom and imposed his rule in Nepal.
4.  But, in 2008, Pakistan became democratic again and Nepal emerged as a democratic republic after abolishing the monarchy.

Question 76.
Democracy has expanded through the 20th century. Explain with examples. [CBSE 2010; HOTS]
Answer:
Democracy has expanded through the 20th century because people consider democracy as the best form of government.

The following examples support the above statement.

1. Chile, a country which was democratic till September 1973, was overthrown by a military dictator called Augusto Pinochet in a coup. After ruling for 17 years the military was overthrown in a referendum and democracy was restored.
2. In Poland, the situation was similar when the communist government was replaced by military rule with martial law in force. But in 1990, this was replaced by democratic rule.
3. In 1991, the Soviet Union broke down into 15 Republics which emerged as democracies.
4. At the beginning of the 20th century, only a handful of the governments were democratic. By 2016, about 140 governments were democratically elected.
5. More than 80 previously non-democratically countries have made significant advance towards democracy since 1980.

Question 77.
Why is there a demand that the UN should be more democratic? [HOTS]
Answer:
There is a demand that the UN should be more democratic because of the following reasons.

1. Even enough the total strength of the UN Security Council is 15, only 5 permanent members— US, Russia, UK, France and China—have the veto power, which means that the council cannot take any decision if any permanent member says ‘no’ to the decision.
2. More than 40% of the voting power in the International Monetary Fund is in the hands of only seven countries, which have contributed the most to the IMF. The remaining 182 countries hardly have any say in decision-making.
3. The President of the World Bank has always been a US citizen, conventionally nominated by the Finance Minister of the US.
4. The decisions of the UN reflect western values and culture. It should encourage representation
   from Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean islands.
5. The permanent members, especially the US, contribute most of its money needed for the maintenance of the UNO, thereby dominating the proceedings.

Hope given Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 are helpful to complete your homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online tutoring for you.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 7 The Duck and the Kangaroo are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 7 The Duck and the Kangaroo.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 7 The Duck and the Kangaroo

COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow each :

1. Said the Duck to the Kangaroo,
“Good gracious ! how you hop !
Over the fields and the water too,
As if you never would stop !
My life is a bore in this nasty pond,
And I long to go out in the world beyond !
I wish I could hop like you !”
Said the Duck to the Kangaroo. (Page 94)

Questions

(a) How does the Duck speak to the Kangaroo ?
(b) How does the Duck look at the Kangaroo’s jumping ?
(c) What is the Duck’s desire ?
(d) Give the meaning of‘hop’.

Answers

(а) The Duck speaks to the Kangaroo most respectfully.
(b) The Duck looks at the Kangaroo’s jumping over the fields and water as never-ending.
(c) The Duck wishes she could hop like him.
(d) It is ‘jump’.

2. “Please give me a ride on your back !”
Said the Duck to the Kangaroo.
“I would sit quite still, and say nothing but ‘Quack’,
The whole of the long day through !
And we’d go to the Dee, and the Jelly Bo Lee,
Over the land, and over the sea ;
Please take me a ride ! O do !”
Said the Duck to the Kangaroo. (Page 95) (Imp.)

Questions

(a) What did the Duck request the Kangaroo for ?
(b) What shall the Duck do the whole day ?
(c) How did the Duck request the Kangaroo ? How do you know ?
(d) Give the rhyme scheme used in this stanza.

Answers

(a) The Duck requested the Kangaroo for a ride.
(b) The Duck would quack the whole day.
(c) She requested the Kangaroo very much. It is seen in her repeating the request for a ride.
(d) It is ab ab cc dd.

3. Said the Kangaroo to the Duck,
“This requires some little reflection ;
Perhaps on the whole it might bring me luck,
And there seems but one objection,
Which is, if you’ll let me speak so bold,
Your feet are unpleasantly wet and cold,
And would probably give me the roo-
Matiz !” said the Kangaroo. (Page 95) (Imp.)

Questions

(a) What is ‘This’ in the second line here ?
(b) What is the objection ?
(c) How would the Kangaroo like to speak ?
(d) What will the Kangaroo have in the end ?

Answers

(a) This’ here means ‘giving the Duck a ride’.
(b) It is that the Duck’s feet are ‘wet and cold’.
(c) The Kangaroo would like to speak boldly.
(d) He will have cold.

4. Said the Duck. “As I sat on the rocks,
I have thought over that completely,
And I bought four pairs of worsted socks Which fit my web-feet neatly.
And to keep out the cold I’ve bought a cloak,
And every day a cigar I’ll smoke,
All to follow my own dear true
Love of a Kangaroo !” (Page 96) (V. Imp.)

Questions

(a) When did the Duck think over ‘that’ ? What is ‘that’ ?
(b) Why did the Duck buy socks ?
(c) What for did she buy a cloak and other things ?
(d) Give the meaning of‘neatly’.

Answers

(a) When the Duck sat on the rocks, she thought over ‘that’. That’ here is her request for a ride.
(b) She bought these to protect her feet from cold.
(c) She bought all these for the love of Kangaroo.
(d) It means ‘completely’.

5. Said the Kangaroo. “I’m ready !
All in the moonlight pale ;
But to balance me well, dear Duck, sit steady !
And quite at the end of my tail!”
So away they went with a hop and a bound,
And they hopped the whole world three times round ;
And who so happy—O who,
As the Duck and the Kangaroo ? (Page 96) (M. Imp.) (CBSE 2016)

Questions

(a) How djd the kangaroo react ?
(b) Where did the kangaroo ask the duck to sit ?
(c) What is the rhyme scheme of the stanza ?
(d) Give the meaning of ‘steady’.

Answers

(a) The kangaroo reacted saying that he was ready. But the duck should sit steady to balance him well.
(b) The kangaroo asked the duck to sit quietly at the end of his tail to balance him well.
(c) The rhyme scheme of the stanza is : ab ab cc dd.
(d) It means ‘still’ or ‘not moving’.

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