MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Coordination Compounds Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Coordination Compounds Class 12 MCQ Chapter 9 Question 1.

The oxidation of Ni in [Ni(CO)4] is ………….

(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer:
(A) 0

Explanation:
CO is a neutral ligand and ils oxidation state is zero Since the overall charge on the complex is zero too, hence oxidation State of Ni is 0.

Coordination Compounds MCQ Chapter 9 Question 2.

Which of the following will give a white precipitate upon reacting with AgNO3?

(A) K2[Pt(en)2Cl2]
(B) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(C) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(D) [Fe(H2O)3Cl3]

Answer:
(C) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3

Explanation:
AgNO3+ Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 → AgCl ppt should he below AgCl + NO3, Since Cl is outside the coordination sphere, it 1 scan read with AgNOj forming the while AgCl precipitate.

MCQ Of Coordination Compounds Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 3.

The formula of the complex triamminetri(nitrito – O) Cobalt (III) is

(A) [CO(ONO)3(NH3)3]
(B) [CO(NO2)3(NH3)3]
(C) [CO(ONO2)3(NH3)3]
(D) [CO(NO2)(NH3)3]
Answer:
(A) [CO(ONO)3(NH3)3]

Explanation:
[CO(ONO)3(NH3)3]

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

MCQ On Coordination Compounds Chapter 9 Question 4.

How many ions are produced from the complex [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2in solution?

(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
Answer:
(C) 3

Explanation:
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 → [CO(NH3)5Cl](aq) + 2Cl

Coordination Compounds MCQ With Answers Pdf Chapter 9 Question 5.

The pair [CO(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 and [CO(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 will show

(A) Linkage isomerism
(B) Hydrate isomerism
(C) Ionization isomerism
(D) Coordinate isomerism
Answer:
(C) Ionization isomerism

Explanation:
loni/ation isomer’, have identical central ion and the other ligands except lor a ligand that has exchanged places with an anion or neutral molecule lhat was originally outside the coordination complex.
[Co(NH3)4Cl]Br2 → [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ + 2Br
[Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 →[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ + 2Cl

Coordination Chemistry MCQ With Answers Chapter 9 Question 6.

The coordination number of ‘Co’ in the complex [Co(en)3]3+ is

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer:
(B) 6

Explanation:
Coordination number is the number of ligands joined to the central metal ion or atom. Since ethvlenediamine is a bidentate ligand, Co has coordination number of 6.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Coordination Compounds MCQ With Answers Chapter 9 Question 7.

Which of the following is the most stable complex?

(A) [Fe(CO)5]
(B) [Fe(H20)6]3+
(C) [Fe(C204)3]3
(D) [Fe(CN)6]3
Answer:
(C) [Fe(C204)3]3

Explanation:
[Fe(C204)3]3+ acts as the chelating ligands, because C2O4is a bidentate ligand.

MCQ On Coordination Compounds Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 8.

What type of isomerism is shown by the pair [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl] Cl2. H2O ?

(A) Ionisation isomerism
(B) Coordination isomerism
(C) Solvate isomerism
(D) Linkage isomerism
Answer:
(C) Solvate isomerism

Explanation:
Solvate / Hydrate isomerism Solvate or hvdrate isomers have the same ^composition but differ with respect to the number of solvent ligand molecules as well as the counter ion in the crystal lattice.

Coordination Compounds MCQs Chapter 9 Question 9.

Ambidentate ligands like NO2 and SCN are:

(a) unidentate
(b) didentate
(c) polydentate
(d) has variable denticity

OR

The formula of the coordination compound Tetraam mineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is

(A) [Co(NH3)4(H20)Cl]Cl2
(B) [Co(NH3)4(H20)Cl]Cl3
(C) [CO(NH3)2(H20)C1]Cl2
(D) [Co(NH3)4(H20)Cl]Cl
Answer:
(A) [Co(NH3)4(H20)Cl]Cl2

Explanation:
Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride is [C0(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2.
Central atom – Cobalt (III) Coordination sphere ligands – Tetraammince – 4 NH3 groups neutral ligand Aqua – 1 H2O groups neutral ligand Chlorido -1 Cl group, negatively charged ligand, one negative charge Counter ion- Chloride ions, 2 Since Cobalt is 3+, one valency is satisfied with , Cl in coordination sphere and 2 bv chlorine n counter ions. Hence, the formula of the coordination compound is [CO(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 MCQ Question 10.

The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral (∆0) and tetrahedral (∆t) complexes is related as

(A) \(\Delta_{t}=\frac{2}{9} \Delta_{0}\)
(B) \(\Delta_{t}=\frac{5}{9} \Delta_{o}\)
(C) \(\Delta t=\frac{4}{9} \Delta_{o}\)
(D) \(\Delta_{t}=2 \Delta_{o}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\Delta t=\frac{4}{9} \Delta_{o}\)

Explanation:
\(\Delta t=\frac{4}{9} \Delta_{o}\)

Coordination Compound MCQ Chapter 9 Question 11.

Atomic number of Mn, Fe and Co are 25, 26, 27 respectively. Which of the following inner orbital octahedral complex ions are diamagnetic?

(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(B) [Mn(CN)6]3-
(C) [Fe(CN)6]3-
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+

Explanation:
Molecular orbital electronic configuration of Co3+ in [Co(NH3)6]3+ is
Coordination Compounds Class 12 MCQ Chapter 9
Number of unpaired electron = 0
Magnetic property = Diamagnetic

MCQs On Coordination Compounds Chapter 9 Question 12.

The colour of the coordination compounds depends on the crystal field splitting. What will be the correct order of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region, for the complexes, [CO(NH3)6]3+, [CO(CN)6]3-, [CO(H20)6]3+

(A) [CO(CN)6]3- > [CO(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(H20)6]3+
(B) [CO(NH3)6]3+> [CO(H20)6]3+ > [CO(CN)6]3-
(C) [CO(H2O)6]3+ > [CO(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(CN)6]3+
(D) [CO(CN)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(H20)6]3+
Answer:
(C) [CO(H2O)6]3+ > [CO(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(CN)6]3+

Explanation:
0 values follow the order: [CO(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(CN)6]3- and therefore, absorption wavelength follows the order: [Co(NH3)6]3+ >[Co(NH3)6]3+ >[Co(CN)6]3-

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Coordination Chemistry MCQ Chapter 9 Question 13.

Which of the following complexes formed by Cu ions is most stable?

(A) Cu2+ + 4NH3 → [Cu(NH3)4]2+, log K = 11.6
(B) Cu2+ + 4CN → [Cu(CN4)]2-, logK = 27.3
(C) Cu2+ + 2en → [Cu(en)2]2+, log K = 15.4
(D) Cu2+ + 4H60 → [Cu(H2O)4]2+, log K = 8.9
Answer:
(D) Cu2+ + 4H60 → [Cu(H2O)4]2+, log K = 8.9

Explanation:
The greater the value of log K, the greater will be stability of complex compound formed. For reaction, log K has the highest value.
Cu2+ + 4CN0 → [CU(CN)4]2+ ;
K = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{Cu}(\mathrm{CN})_{4}\right]^{2+}}{\left[\mathrm{Cu}^{2+}\right]\left[\mathrm{CN}^{-}\right]^{4}}\) and log K = 27.3

MCQ On Coordination Chemistry Chapter 9 Question 14.

The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl6]4- is 18,000 cm-1 The CFSE for tetrahedral (CoCl4]2- will be

(A) 18,000 cm-1
(b) 16,000 cm-1
(C) 8,000 cm-1
(d) 20,000 cm-1
Answer:
(C) 8,000 cm-1

Explanation:
CFSE for tetrahedral complex is
\(\Delta_{1}=\frac{4}{9} \Delta_{0}\)
\(\frac{4}{9} \times 18,000\) = 8,000 cm-1

MCQ Questions On Coordination Compounds Chapter 9 Question 15.

Amongst the following, the most stable complex is

(A) [Fe(H4O)6]3
(B) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
(C) [Fe(C2O4)33-
(D) [FeCl6]3-
Answer:
(C) [Fe(C2O4)33-

Explanation:
We know that the stability of a complex increases by chelation. Therefore, the most stable complex is [Fe(C2O4)33-.
Coordination Compounds MCQ Chapter 9

Class 12 Coordination Compounds MCQ Chapter 9 Question 16.

How many ions are produced from the complex CO(NH3)6Cl2 in solution?

(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
Answer:
(D) 2

Explanation:
The given complex can be written as CO(NH3)6Cl2
Thus,
[CO(NH3)6]+ along o Cl ions are produced.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Assertion And Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is true

Coordination Compounds MCQ Pdf Chapter 9 Question 1.

Assertion (A): Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands.
Reason (R): Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
When a solution of chelating ligand is added lo solution containing toxic metal ligands chelates the metal ions bv formation of I, stable complex.

Chapter 9 Chemistry Class 12 MCQs Question 2.

Assertion (A): Linkage isomerism arises in coordi-nation compounds containing ambidentate ligand.
Reason (R): Ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Linkage isomerism arises due to two different donor atoms in ambidentate ligand.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 3.

Assertion: Among [CO(NH3)6]3+ and [CO(en)3]3+, coordination compound [CO(en)3]3+ is a more stable complex.
Reason: Because (en) is a chelating ligand/bidentate ligand.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Since (ethylene diamine-en) is a chelating ligand/bidentate ligand, [CO(en3)]3+ is a more stable complex as compared to the other one.
MCQ Of Coordination Compounds Class 12 Chapter 9

Question 4.

Assertion (A): [Fe(CN)6]3- ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to two unpaired electrons.
Reason (R): Because it has d2sp3 type hybridisation.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true

Explanation:
[Fe(CN)6]3- ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to two unpaired electrons.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): [Cr(H20)6]Cl2 and [Fe(H20)6]Cl2 are reducing in nature.
Reason (R): Unpaired electrons are present in their d-orbitals.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
In the complexes, Co exists as Co2+ and Fe as Fe2+. Both of the complexes become Stable by oxidation of metal ion to Co3+ and Fe3+

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Complexes of MX6 and MX5L type (X and L are unidentate) do not show geometrical isomerism.
Reason (R): Geometrical isomerism is not shown by complexes of coordination number 6.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
For complexes of MX6 and MX5L Type, different geometric arrangements of the ligands are not possible due to presence of plane of symmetry.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Low spin tetrahedral complexes are rarely observed.
Reason (R): Crystal field splitting is less than pairing energy for tetrahedral complexes.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
In tetrahedral complexes, the splitting of the d-orbitals is inverted and is smaller in comparison to octahedral complexes. The Crystal field splitting energy is not large enough to force pairing and hence, low spin complexes are rarely observed.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The crystal field theory (CFT) is an electrostatic model which considers the metal-ligand bond to be ionic arising purely from electrostatic interactions between the metal ion and the ligand. Ligands are treated as point charges in case of anions or dipoles in case of neutral molecules.

The five d orbitals in an isolated gaseous metal atom ion have same energy, i.e., they are degenerate. This degeneracy is maintained if a spherically symmetrical field of negative charges surrounds the metal atom/ ion. However, when this negative field is due to ligands (either anions or the negative ends of dipolar molecules like NH3 and H20) in a complex, it becomes asymmetrical and the degeneracy of the d orbitals is lifted. It results in splitting of the d orbitals.

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Question 1.

The colour of the coordination compounds depends on the crystal field splitting. What will be the correct order of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region, for the complexes, [CO(NH3)6]3+, [CO(CN)6]3-, [CO(H20)6]3+

(A) [CO(CN)6]3- > [CO(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(H2O)6]3+
(B) [CO(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(H2O)6]3+ > [CO(CN)6]3-
(C) [CO(H2O)6]3+ > [CO(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(CN)6]3-
(D) [CO(CN)6]3-> [CO(NH3)6]3+> [CO(H2O)6]3+
Answer:
(C) [CO(H2O)6]3+ > [CO(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(CN)6]3-

Explanation:
(C) [CO(H2O)6]3+ > [CO(NH3)6]3+ > [CO(CN)6]3-

Question 2.

The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl6]4- is 18,000 cm-1. The CFSE for tetrahedral [CoCl4]2- will be

(A) 18,000 cm-1
(B) 16,000 cm-1
(C) 8,000 cm-1
(D) 20,000 cm-1
Answer:
(C) 8,000 cm-1

Explanation:
8,000 cm-1

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 3.

An aqueous pink solution of cobalt(II) chloride changes to deep blue on addition of excess of HCl. This is because .

(A) [Co(H20)6]2+ is transformed into [CoCl6]4
(B) [Co(H20)6]2+ is transformed into [CoCl4]2-
(C) tetrahedral complexes have larger crystal field splitting than octahedral complex.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) [Co(H20)6]2+ is transformed into [CoCl4]2-

Explanation:
[Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into [CoCl4]2-.

Question 4.

A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind to a single metal ion. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?

(A) thiosulphato
(B) oxalato
(C) glycinato
(D) ethane-1,2-diamine
Answer:
(A) thiosulphato

Explanation:
Thiosulphato is a mnnodentate ligand whereas Oxalato, glycinaLo and elhvlene diamine are bidentate ligands and can form rings with the central metal ion. So, they are also chelating ligands. Thiosulphato is a monodentale ligand and hence, cannot form chelate rings. Hence, it is not a chelating ligand

II. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
According to Valence Bond Theory, the metal atom or ion under the influence of ligands can use its (n – l)d, ns, np or ns, np, nd orbitals for hybridisation to yield a set of equivalent orbitals of definite geometry such as octahedral, tetrahedral, square planar and so on. These hybridised orbitals are allowed to overlap with ligand orbitals that can donate electron pairs for bonding.

In these questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): In the diamagnetic octahedral complex, [CO(NH3)6]2+, the cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state.
Reason (R): Six pairs of electrons, one from each NH3 molecule, occupy the six hybrid orbitals.

Answer:
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

Explanation:
In the diamagnetic octahedral complex, [Co(NH3)6]3+, the cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state and has the electronic configuration 36.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Question 2.

Assertion (A): [NiCl4]2-is an inner orbital complex.
Reason (R): An inner orbital or low spin or spin paired complex uses inner d orbitals of the metal ion for hybridisation.

Answer:
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Explanation:
[NiCl4]2- is high spin complex.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): In the square planar complexes, the hybridisation involved is dsp .
Reason (R): In [Ni(CN)4]2- Here nickel is in +2 oxidation state and has the electronic configuration 3d8.

Answer:
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): The paramagnetic octahedral complex, [COF6]3- uses outer orbital (4d) in hybridisation (sp3d2).
Reason (R): It is a high spin complex.

Answer:
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement

Explanation:
The paramagnetic octahedral complex, [COF6]3- uses outer orbital (4d) in hybridisation (sp3d2). It is a low spin complex.

II. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The existence of coordination compounds with the same formula but different arrangements of the ligands was crucial in the development of coordination chemistry. Two or more compounds with the same formula but different arrangements of the atoms are called isomers. Isomers are compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural formulas and do not necessarily share similar properties.

There are many different classes of isomers, like stereoisomers, enantiomers, and geometrical isomers. There are two main forms of isomerism: structural isomerism and stereoisomerism. The different chemical formulas in structural isomers are caused either by a difference in what ligands are bonded to the central atoms or how the individual ligands are bonded to the central atoms.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Question 1.

What kind of isomerism exists between [Cr(H40)6] Cl3 (violet) and [Cr(H40)5Cl]Cl2.H20 (greyish- green)?

(A) linkage isomerism
(B) solvate isomerism
(C) ionisation isomerism
(D) coordination isomerism
Answer:
(B) solvate isomerism

Question 2.

Which of the following complexes show linkage isomerism?

(A) [CO(H20)5CO]3+
(B) [Cr(NH3)5SCN]2+
(C) [Fe(en)2Cl2]+
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) [Cr(NH3)5SCN]2+

Explanation:
Linkage isomerium is the existence of coordination compounds that have the same composition differing with the connectivity of the metal to a ligand. Typical ligands that give rise to linkage isomers are: thiocyanate, SCN – isothiocvanate, .NCS –

Question 3.

Due to the presence of ambidentate ligands coordination compounds show isomerism. Palladium complexes of the type [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2] and [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2are

(A) linkage isomers
(B) coordination isomers
(C) ionisation isomers
(D) geometrical isomers
Answer:
(A) linkage isomers

Explanation:
Same as above

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

The d-and f-Block Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

d And f Block Elements Class 12 MCQ Question 1.

Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d5. What is its atomic number?

(A) 25
(B) 26
(C) 27
(D) 24
Answer:
(B) 26

Explanation:
It is formed by the loss of 3 electrons, S the configuration of element X is [4r] 3d64s2. Therefore, Atomic number = 26.

d And f Block Elements MCQ Chapter 8 Question 2.

The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d9 whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d10 Which of the following is correct?

(A) Cu (II) is more stable.
(B) Cu (II) is less stable.
(C) Cu (I) and Cu(II) are equally stable.
(D) Stability of Cu(I) and Cu(II) depends on nature of copper salts.
Answer:
(A) Cu (II) is more stable.

Explanation:
Cu(II) is more stable due to nuclear charge of Cu.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

MCQ On d And f Block Elements Chapter 8 Question 3.

When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, the de colourisation is slow in the beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time because

(A) CO2 is formed as the product.
(B) Reaction is exothermic.
(C) MnO2” catalyses the reaction.
(D) Mn2+ acts as auto-catalyst.
Answer:
(D) Mn2+ acts as auto-catalyst.

Explanation:
When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is slow in the beginning but becomes instantaneous after sometime because Mn acts as an auto-catalyst. Reduction half-reaction:
[MnO4 + 8H+ + 5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O] x 2

Oxidation half-reaction:
[C2O4 → 2CO2 + 2e] x 5

Overall equation:
2MnO4 + 16H+ + 5C2O2-4 → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
End point of this reaction: Colourless to light pink.

d And f Block MCQ Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 4.

The oxidation state of Ni in [Ni(CO)4] is

(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer:
(A) 0

Explanation:
I.ct oxidation stale of Ni = x
x + 0 = 0 (CO is neutral ligand)
x = 0

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

MCQ Of d And f Block Elements Chapter 8 Question 5.

Which of the following is the reason for Zinc not exhibiting variable oxidation state ?

(A) inert pair effect
(B) completely filled 3d subshell
(C) completely filled 4s subshell
(D) common ion effect
Answer:
(B) completely filled 3d subshell

Explanation:
Zinc doc- not exhibit a variable oxidation state as it has completely filled 3d subshell.
Zn → [Ar] 3d10 4s2 (Atomic number 30)

d And f Block Elements MCQ Pdf Chapter 8 Question 6.

Which of the following is a diamagnetic ion ? (Atomic numbers of Sc, V, Mn and Cu are 21, 23,25 and 29 respectively)

(A) V2+
(B) Sc3+
(C) Cu2+
(D) Mn3+
Answer:
(B) Sc3+

Explanation:
SC3+ is a diamagnetic ion. Atomic number is 21.
[Ar]3d0 is Sc3+ electronic configuration. Since its d subshell is empty it is diamagnetic as it has noble gas configuration. :

d Block MCQ Class 12 Chapter 8 Question 7.

Which set of ions exhibit specific colours? (Atomic number of Sc = 21, Ti = 22, V=23, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28 Cu = 29 and Zn =30)

(A) Sc3+, Ti4+, Mn3+
(B) Sc3+, Zn2+, Ni2+
(C) V 3+, V2+, Fe3+
(D)Ti3+,Ti4+,Ni2+

Answer:
(C) V 3+, V2+, Fe3+

Explanation:
V 3+, V2+, Fe3+ ions exhibit specific colours.

Atomic number of V = 23,
Electronic configuration of V – [Ar]3d3 4s2
Electronic configuration of V2t – |Ar]3d3
Electronic configuration of V3+ – [Ar] 3d2

Atomic number of Fe = 26
Electronic configuration of Fe – [Ar]3d6 4s2
Electronic configuration of Fe3+ – [Ar]6d5
Since these ions have partially filled d- subshells, they exhibit colour. Most transition-metal ions have a partially filled d subshell.
As for other ions,

Atomic number of Sc = 21
Electronic configuration of Sc – [Ar]3d 4s2
Electronic configuration of Sc3+ – [Ar]3d10
Since d subshell is empty, it shows no colour.

Atomic number of Ti = 22
Electronic configuration of Ti- [Ar]3d2 4s2
Electronic configuration of Ti4+ – [Ar]3d0
Since d subshell is empty, it shows no colour.

Atomic number of Mn = 25
Electronic configuration of Mn- [Ar]Sd3 4s2Electronic configuration of Mn2+ [Ar]3d5 Since d subshell is partially filled, it shows colour.

Atomic number of Ni = 28
Electronic configuration of Ni- [Ar]3d8 4s2
Electronic configuration of Ni2+ [Ar]3d8
Since d subshell is partially filled, it shows colour.

Atomic number of Zn =30
Electronic configuration of Zn – [Ar]3d10 4s2
Electronic configuration of Zn2+ – [Ar]3d10
Since d subshell is full, it shows no colour.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

d Block Elements MCQ Questions Chapter 8 Question 8.

Which of the following oxidation state is common for all lanthanoids?

(A) +2
(B) +3
(C) +4
(D) +5
Answer:
(B) +3

Explanation:
Most common oxidation state fori lanthanoids is +3.

MCQ Questions On d And f Block Elements Question 9.

There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the following element does not belong to this series?

(A) U
(B) Np
(C) Tm
(D) Fm
Answer:
(C) Tm

Explanation:
Tm (Thulium) is a lanthanoid.

MCQs On d And f Block Elements Chapter 8 Question 10.

Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of Gadolinium?

(A) [Xe]4f75d16s2
(B) [Xe] 4f65d26s2
(C) [Xe] 4f86d2
(D) [Xe] 4f95s1
Answer:
(A) [Xe]4f75d16s2

Explanation:
64Gd : [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

d Block Elements MCQ Chapter 8 Question 11.

Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds?

(A) They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals.
(B) They are very hard.
(C) They retain metallic conductivity.
(D) They are chemically very reactive.
Answer:
(D) They are chemically very reactive.

Explanation:
Interstitial compounds are chemically inert.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 MCQ Question 12.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) La is actually transition element.
(B) In Lanthanide series, Ionic radii decrease from La3+ toLu3+.
(C) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(D) Ionic radii of Zr and Hf are almost similar due to Lanthanoid contraction.
Answer:
(C) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3

Explanation:
La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3. It is because of the fact that Due to lanthanoid contraction the size of lanthanoid ion decreases regularly with increase in atomic size. Thus covalent character between lanthanoid ion and OH increases from La3+ to Lu3+. Thus the basic character of hydroxides decreases from La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Class 12 Chemistry d And f Block Elements MCQ Question 13.

Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to –

(A) Atomic number
(B) Size of 4f orbitals
(C) Effective nuclear charge
(D) Poor shielding effect of 4f electrons
Answer:
(D) Poor shielding effect of 4f electrons

Explanation:
The Lmlhanoid contraction is due to poor shielding effect of 4f electrons.

d And f Block Elements Class 12 MCQs Chapter 8 Question 14.

In which of the following elements, 5f orbitals are progressively filled?

(A) Alkaline earth metals
(B) Actinoids
(C) Lanthanoids
(D) Transition elements
Answer:
(B) Actinoids

Explanation:
Actinoids are 5f block elements so in actinoids, 5f orbitals are progressively filled.

Assertion And Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is True.

MCQ On d Block Elements Class 12 Chapter 8 Question 1.

Assertion (A): Cu2+iodide is not known.
Reason (R): Cu2+ oxidises I to iodine.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Cu2+ oxidises iodide to iodine hence cupric iodide is converted to cuprous iodide.

MCQ On d And f Block Elements Class 12 Chapter 8 Question 2.

Assertion (A): The highest oxidation state of osmium is +8.
Reason (R): Osmium is a 5d-block element.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The highest oxidation state of osmium (Os) is 18. It is due to its ability to expand octet by using its all 8 electrons.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

d-Block Elements MCQs With Answers Chapter 8 Question 3.

Assertion (A): Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult.
Reason (R): Because Zr and Hf lie in the same group of the periodic table.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult as both have same size.

f Block Elements MCQs With Answers Chapter 8 Question 4.

Assertion (A): Cu cannot liberate hydrogen from adds.
Reason (R): Because it has positive electrode potential.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Copper (Cu) does not liberate hydrogen from acids due to the presence of positive electrode potential.

MCQ Of d Block Elements Class 12 Question 5.

Assertion (A): Transition metals have low melting points.
Reason (R): The involvement of greater number of (n – 1 )d and ns electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
Transition melels have high melting points because of the involvement of greater number of (π – 1) and us electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Transition metals have high melting point.
Reason (R): Transition metals have completely filled d-orbitals.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Transition metals have high melting points because of the involvement ot greater number of (π – 1)i1 and ns electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.

Question 7.

Assertion: Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult.
Reason: Because Zr and Hf lie in the same group of the periodic table.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult as both have same size.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Chromium is an actinoid.
Reason (R): In Chromium, 3d orbitals are filled.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True.

Explanation:
Chromium is a transition element and it belongs to 3d series because in chromium, 3d orbitals are filled.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Chemistry of Actinoids is more complicated than Lanthanoids.
Reason (R): Actinoid elements are radioactive in nature.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Chemistry of actinoids is more complicated than l anthanoids because actinoids are radioactive elements having relati\ ely short half-lives.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Cerium (Ce) exhibits +4 oxidation state.
Reason (R): Ce4+ has 4f4 electronic configuration which is less stable.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Cerium exhibits 4+ oxidation state because Ce4+ has 4f0 electronic configuration which is most stable.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Within the 3d series, manganese exhibits oxidation states in aqueous solution from +2 to +7, ranging from Mn2+(aq) to MnO (aq). Likewise, iron forms both Fe2+(aq) and Fe3+(aq) as well as the FeO2- ion. Cr and Mn form oxyions CrO2-4, MnO4, owing to their willingness to form multiple bonds. The pattern with the early transition metals – in the 3d series up to Mn, and for the 4d, 5d metals up to Ru and Os – is that the maximum oxidation state corresponds to the number of “outer shell” electrons.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

The highest oxidation states of the 3d metals may depend upon complex formation (e.g., the stabilization of CO3+ by ammonia) or upon the pH (thus Mn02-4 (aq) is prone to disproportionation in acidic solution). Within the 3d series, there is considerable variation in relative stability of oxidation states, sometimes on moving from one metal to a neighbour; thus, for iron, Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+, especially in alkaline conditions, while the reverse is true for cobalt. The ability of transition metals to exhibit a wide range of oxidation states is marked with metals such as vanadium, where the standard potentials can be rather small, making a switch between states relatively easy.

In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Highest oxidation state is exhibited by transition metal lying in the middle of the series.
Reason (R): The highest oxidation state exhibited corresponds to number of (n-1)d electrons.

Answer:
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+.
Reason (R): Fe3+ has 3d5configuration while Fe2+ has 3d6 configuration.

Answer:
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Vanadium had the ability to exhibit a wide range of oxidation states.
Reason (R): The standard potentials Vanadium are rather small, making a switch between oxidation states relatively easy.

Answer:
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Transition metals like Fe, Cr and Mn form oxyions.
Reason (R): Oxygen is highly electronegative and has a tendency to form multiple bonds.

Answer:
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): The highest oxidation states of the 3d metals depends only on electronic configuration of the metal.
Reason (R): The number of electrons in the (n-1) d and ns subshells determine the oxidation states exhibited by the metal.

Answer:
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

II. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The transition metals when exposed to oxygen at low and intermediate temperatures form thin, protective oxide films of up to some thousands of Angstroms in thickness. Transition metal oxides lie between the extremes of ionic and covalent binary compounds formed by elements from the left or right side of the periodic table. They range from metallic to semiconducting and deviate by both large and small degrees from stoichiometry.

Since d-electron bonding levels are involved, the cations-exist in various valence states and hence give rise to a large number of oxides. The crystal structures are often classified by considering a cubic or hexagonal close-packed lattice of one set of ions with the other set of ions filling the octahedral or tetrahedral interstices.

The actual oxide structures, however, generally show departures from such regular arrays due in part to distortions caused by packing of ions of different size and to ligand field effects. These distortions depend not only on the number of d-electrons but also on the valence and the position of the transition metal in a period or group.

In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Cations of transition elements occur in various valence states
Reason (R): Large number of oxides of transition elements are possible.

Answer:
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Crystal structure of oxides of transition metals often show defects.
Reason (R): Ligand field effect cause distortions in crystal structures.

Answer:
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Transition metals form protective oxide films.
Reason (R): Oxides of transition metals are always stoichiometric.

Answer:
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 4.

Assertion (A): CrO crystallises in a hexagonal close- packed array of oxide ions with two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by chromium ions.
Reason (R): Transition metal oxide may be hexagonal close-packed lattice of oxide ions with metal ions filling the octahedral voids.

Answer:
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

III. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The d block elements are the 40 elements contained in the four rows of ten columns (3 – 12) in the periodic table. As all the d block elements are metallic, the term d-block metals is synonymous. This set of d-block elements is also often identified as the transition metals, but sometimes the group 12 elements (zinc, cadmium, mercury) are excluded from the transition metals as the transition elements are defined as those with partly filled d or f shells in their compounds. Inclusion of the elements zinc, cadmium and mercury is necessary as some properties of the group 12 elements are appropriate logically to include with a discussion of transition metal chemistry.

The term transition element or transition metal appeared to derive from early studies of periodicity such as the Mendeleev periodic table of the elements. His horizontal table of the elements was an attempt to group the elements together so that the chemistry of elements might be explained and predicted.

In this table there are eight groups labeled I – VIII with each subdivided into A and B subgroups. Mendeleev recognized that certain properties of elements in Group VHI are related to those of some of the elements in Group VII and those at the start of the next row Group I. In that sense, these elements might be described as possessing properties transitional from one row of the table to the next.

In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.

(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Group 12 elements are not considered as transition metals.
Reason (R): Transition metals are those which have incompletely filled d shell in their compounds.

Answer:
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): All d block elements are metallic in nature.
Reason (R): The d – block elements belong to Group 3 – 12 of the periodic table.

Answer:
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Group VII elements of Mendeleev periodic table are transition elements.
Reason (R): Group I -VIII in Mendeleev periodic table is divided into two subgroups, A and B.

Answer:
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Nickel is a transition element that belongs to group 10 and period 4 of the modern periodic table.
Reason (R): Electronic configuration of Nickel is [Ar]18 3d8 4s2

Answer:
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.

IV. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
In transition elements, generally, ions of the same ‘ charge in a given series show progressive decrease in-radius with increasing atomic number. This is because the new electron enters a d orbital each time the nuclear charge increases by unity. But the radii of the third (5d) series are virtually the same as those of the corresponding members of the second series. This phenomenon is associated with the intervention of the 4f orbitals which must be filled before the 5d series of elements begin. The filling of 4f before 5d orbital results in a regular decrease in atomic radii called Lanthanoid contraction.

In these questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Following are the transition metal ions of 3d series: Ti4+, V2+, Mn3+, Cr3+ (Atomic number: Ti = 22, V = 23, Mn = 25, Cr = 24)

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Among the given ions, Cr3+ is the most stable in an aqueous environment.
Reason (R): Cr3+ has half filled t32g.

Answer:
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Explanation:
Cr3+, half filled t32g.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Among the given ions, Mn3+ is the most strong oxidizing agent.
Reason (R): Mn3+ has an unstable configuration.

Answer:
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

Explanation:
Mn3+ is the strong oxidising agent because it has 4 electrons in its valence shell and when it gains one electron than it forms Mn2+, it results in the half-filled (d5) configuration that provides extra stability.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Ti4+ ion is colourless.
Reason (R): All valence electrons are unpaired in Ti4+ ion.

Answer:
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.

Explanation:
Ti4+, No unpaired electrons.

V. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Although actinoids are similar to lanthanoids in that their electrons fill the 5f orbitals in order, their chemical properties are not uniform and each element has characteristic properties. Promotion of 5f – 6d electrons does not require a large amount of energy and examples of compounds with ππ – acid ligands are known in which all the 5f, 6d, 7s, and 7p orbitals participate in bonding. Trivalent compounds are the most common, but other oxidation states are not uncommon. Especially thorium, protactinium, uranium, and neptunium tend to assume the +4 or higher oxidation state. The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Question 1.

Which of the following oxidation state is common for all lanthanoids?

(A) +2
(B) +3
(C) +4
(D) +5
Answer:
(B) +3

Explanation:
All of the lanthanide elements are 5 commonly known to have the +3 oxidation stale,

Question 2.

There are 14 elements in actinoid series. Which of the following element does not belong to this series?

(A) U
(B) Np
(C) Tm
(D) Fm
Answer:
(C) Tm

Explanation:
Tm is Thulium which belongs to Lanthanoids: Uranium(U), Neptunium(Np), Fermium(Fm) belong to Actinoid series.

Question 3.

General electronic configuration of actinoids is (n – 2)f1 – 14 (n – l)d0 – 2 ns2 . Which of the following actinoids have one electron in 6d orbital?

(A) U (Atomic no. 92)
(B) Np (Atomic no.93)
(C) Pu (Atomic no. 94)
(D) Bk (Atomic no. 97)
Answer:
(A) U (Atomic no. 92)

Explanation:
Uranium has an electronic configuration of 5f 6d1 7s2.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d-and f-Block Elements

Question 4.

Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of Gadolinium?

(A) [Xe]4f75d16s2
(B) [Xe] 4f65d26s2
(C) [Xe]4f86d2
(D) [Xe] 4f95S1
Answer:
(A) [Xe]4f75d16s2

Explanation:
Gadolinium has an electronic configuration of [Xe]4f86d2

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 16 Question 1.
The use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is called
(a) chemotherapy
(b) physiotherapy
(c) angiotherapy
(d) polytherapy

Answer

Answer: (a) chemotherapy


Question 2.
Some drugs do not bind to the enzyme’s artive site, instead bind to a different site of enzyme. This site is called
(a) allosteric site
(b) substrate site
(c) ionic site
(d) competitive site

Answer

Answer: (a) allosteric site


Question 3.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
(a) agonistic drugs
(b) antagonists drugs
(c) antimicrobial drugs
(d) allosteric drugs

Answer

Answer: (b) antagonists drugs


Question 4.
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known as
(a) tranquilizers
(b) antiseptics
(c) analgesics
(d) antipyretics

Answer

Answer: (a) tranquilizers


Question 5.
A drug which acts as antipyretic as analgesic is
(a) chloroquin
(b) penicillin
(c) chlorodiazeposide
(d) 4-acetamidophenol

Answer

Answer: (d) 4-acetamidophenol


Question 6.
The drugs which are given to the patients suffering from anxiety and metnal tension are known as
(a) tranquilizers
(b) analgesics
(c) antimicrobials
(d) antibiotics

Answer

Answer: (a) tranquilizers


Question 7.
Which of the following can be used as an analgesic without causing addiction?
(a) Morphine
(b) Aspirin
(c) Heroin
(d) Codeine

Answer

Answer: (b) Aspirin


Question 8.
Which of the following will not act as a tranquilizer?
(a) Equanil
(b) Analgin
(c) Meprobamate
(d) Chlordiazepoxide

Answer

Answer: (b) Analgin


Question 9.
Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic?
(a)Ibuprofen
(b) Aspirin
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Morphine

Answer

Answer: (d) Morphine


Question 10.
Antihistamines are not helpful
(a) in curing nasal allergies
(b) in treating rashes caused by itching
(c) in bringing down acute fever
(d) in vasodilation

Answer

Answer: (c) in bringing down acute fever


Question 11.
The main cause of acidity in the stomach is
(a) release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level
(b) indigestion and pain in large intestine
(c) increase the pH level in the stomach
(d) release of extra bile juice which increases alkaline medium in stomach

Answer

Answer: (a) release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level


Question 12.
The chemical substances used to bring down body temperature in high fever are known as
(a) analgesics
(b) antipyretics
(c) antihistamines
(d) tranquilizers

Answer

Answer: (b) antipyretics


Question 13.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptic at low concehtration
(b) Aspirin is analgesic and natipyretic
(c) Norethindrone is an antihistamines
(d) Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic

Answer

Answer: (c) Norethindrone is an antihistamines


Question 14.
Terfenadine is commonly used as
(a) antihistamine
(b) antibiotic
(c) antimicrobial
(d) antifertility drug

Answer

Answer: (a) antihistamine


Question 15.
Which of the following statements is not correct about penicillin?
(a) Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum
(b) It is extracted from antibacterial fungus Penicillium
(c) Ampicillin and Amoxycilin are synthetic modification of penicillins
(d) It has bacteriostatic effect

Answer

Answer: (d) It has bacteriostatic effect


Question 16.
Which of the following will not act as antacid?
(a) Sodium hydrogencarbonate
(b) Magnesium hydroxide
(c) Sodium carbonate
(d) Aluminium hydroxide

Answer

Answer: (c) Sodium carbonate


Question 17.
Barbiturates acts as
(a) hypnotic i.e., sleep producing agents
(b) non-narcotic analesics
(c) activator of neurotransmitters
(d) antilallergic drugs

Answer

Answer: (a) hypnotic i.e. sleep producing agents


Question 18.
The structure given below is known as
MCQ On Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 16
(a) pronstosil
(b) sulphapyridine
(c) chloramphenicol
(d) chloroxylenol

Answer

Answer: (c) chloramphenicol


Question 19.
Antimicrobial drugs include
(i) antiseptics
(ii) antibiotics
(iii) disinfectants
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)


Question 20.
The term ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’ means
(a) bacterial antibiotics
(b) bacteriostatic antibiotics
(c) which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria
(d) which kill or inhibit all types of gram +ve bacteria

Answer

Answer: (c) which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria


Question 21.
The main constituents of dettol are
(a) chloramphenicol + glycerol
(b) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol
(c) 0.2% solution of phenol
(d) chloroxylenol and terpineol

Answer

Answer: (d) chloroxylenol and terpineol


Question 22.
A drug which is effective in curring malaria is
(a) aspirin
(b) quinine
(c) morphine
(d) analgin

Answer

Answer: (b) quinine


Question 23.
An ester which is used as a medicine
(a) ethyl acetate
(b) methyl acetate
(c) methyl salicylate
(d) ethyl benzoate

Answer

Answer: (c) methyl salicylate


Question 24.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Aspirin is both analgesic and antipyretic
(b) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic
(c) Salvarsan is toxic to human beings
(d) Some disinfectants are used as antiseptics in lower concentrations

Answer

Answer: (b) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic


Question 25.
Which ofthe following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Ofloxacin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Prontosil

Answer

Answer: (d) Prontosil


Question 26.
Which of the following antibiotic is bactericidal?
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Penicillin
(d) Chloramphenicol

Answer

Answer: (c) Penicillin


Question 27.
The antibiotic which is effective against certain strain of cancer cells
(a) dysidazirine
(b) sulphanilamide
(c) vancomycin
(d) ofloxacin

Answer

Answer: (a) dysidazirine


Question 28.
Which of the following compounds represents an analgesic?
MCQ On Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 16

Answer

Answer: (a)


Question 29.
Which of the following is not an antidepressants?
(a) Ipronizaid
(b) Phenelzine
(c) Equanil
(d) Salvarsan

Answer

Answer: (d) Salvarsan


Question 30.
Which among the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Penicillin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Tetracyclin

Answer

Answer: (b) Oxytocin


Question 31.
Which one is a broad spectrum antibiotic?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Plasmoquin
(c) Xylocaine
(d) Antiseptic

Answer

Answer: (a) Chloramphenicol


Question 32.
What is tincture of iodine?
(a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture
(b) A mixture of iodine in chloroxylenol
(c) A mixture of 0.2% phenol and 2-3% iodine in water
(d) 2-3% solution of iodine in potassium iodide

Answer

Answer: (a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture


Question 33.
The use of aspartame is limited to cold foods and drinks because
(a) it is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature
(b) it is 500 times sweeter than cane sugar
(c) it becomes bitter at cooking temperature
(d) it reacts with the food at cooking temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) it is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature


Question 34.
What is the problem faced while using alitame as artificial sweetener?
(a) It decomposes when added to the food items
(b) It provides a huge number of calories to the food
(c) It is difficult to control the sweetness of food while using it
(d) It increases the volume of the contents to a large extent

Answer

Answer: (c) It is difficult to control the sweetness of food while using it


Question 35.
Name an artificial sweetner which is derivative of sucrose
(a) Saccharine
(b) Sucrolose
(c) Sucrobenzamide
(d) Aspartame

Answer

Answer: (b) Sucrolose


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

The p-Block Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

P Block Elements Class 12 MCQ Chapter 7 Question 1.

Which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Single N-N bond is stronger than the single P-P bond.
(B) PH3 can act as a ligand in the formation of coor-dination compound with transition elements.
(C) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature.
(D) Covalency of nitrogen in N2O5 is four.
Answer:
(A) Single N-N bond is stronger than the single P-P bond.

Explanation:
N-N single bond is weaker than P-P bond due to smaller size of N as compared to P. Smaller size of N leads to smaller N-N bond length. Because of larger size of P atom, P-P bond length is more and lone pair-lone pair repulsion between P atoms is less which makes the P-P bond stronger than N-N bond.

P Block MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 2.

Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ-dπ bonding?

(A) Carbon
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Boron
Answer:
(C) Phosphorus

Explanation:
pπ-dπ bonding is present in phosphorus due to the presence of vacant d-orbitals and in carbon (C), nitrogen (N) and boron (B) do not have d orbitals.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

P Block MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 3.

Bond dissociation enthalpy of E-H (E = element) bond is given below. Which of the compounds will act as strongest reducing agent?

P Block Elements Class 12 MCQ Chapter 7
(A) NH3
(B) PH3
(C) AsH2
(D) SbH3
Answer:
(D) SbH3

Explanation:
The strongest reducing agent is SbH3 due to the presence of minimum bond enthalpy.

MCQ On P Block Elements Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 4.

On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2 white phosphorus gives a gas. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the gas?

(A) It is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish.
(B) It’s solution in water decomposes in the pres¬ence of light.
(C) It is more basic than NH3.
(D) It is less basic than NH3.
Answer:
(C) It is more basic than NH3.

Explanation:
PH3 is less basic than NH3
P4+ 3NaOH + 3H20 → PH3 + 3NaH2PO2(Phosphine)

MCQ Of P Block Elements Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 5.

A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3 ion. It is due to the formation of:

(A) [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+
(B) FeSO4 NO2.
(C) [Fe(H2O)4(NO)2]2+
(D) FeSO4.HNO3.
Answer:
(A) [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+

Explanation:
When freshly prepared solution of ferrous sulphate (FeSO4) is added in a solution containing NO3 ion, formation of a brown- coloured complex will take place. This is called as brown ring test of nitrate. Hence, two moles of ammonia will produce two moles of NO.
NO3 + 3Fe2+ + 4H+ → NO + 3Fe3+ + 2H2O
[Fe(H2O)6]2+ + NO → [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+(Brown ring) + H2O

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

P Block Elements MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 6.

Hot cone. H2SO4 acts as moderately strong oxidising agent. It oxidises both metals and non-metals. Which of the following element is oxidised by cone. H2S04 into two gaseous products?

(A) Cu
(B) S
(C) C
(D) Zn
Answer:
(C) C

Explanation:
C + 2H2SO4 → CO2+ 2SO2 + 2H2O Hot concentrated sulphuric acid should be used to oxidise carbon to carbon dioxide.

P Block Class 12 MCQ Chapter 7 Question 7.

Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur?

(A) H2SO5 and H2S2O8
(B) H2SO5 and H2S2O7
(C) H2S2O7 and H2S2O8
(D) H2S2O6 and H2S2O7
Answer:
(A) H2SO5 and H2S2O8

Explanation:
H2SO5 and H2S2O5 Peroxymonosulphuric acid and Peroxydis sulphuric acid are peroxoacids of sulphur.
P Block MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7

Class 12 P Block MCQ Chapter 7 Question 8.

Which of the following statements are correct for SO2 gas?

(A) It acts as bleaching agent in moist conditions.
(B) Its molecule has linear geometry.
(C) It can be prepared by the reaction of dilute H2SO4 with metal sulphide.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) It acts as bleaching agent in moist conditions.

Explanation:
SO2 acts as a bleaching agent under moist conditions. SO2(g) + 2H2O → H2SO2 + 2[H] SO2 is oxidized to sulphuric acid and releases nascent hydrogen which bleaches the material. But this is a temporary as atmospheric oxygen reoxides the bleached matter after some time.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

P Block Elements MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 9.

Which of the following orders are correct as per the properties mentioned against each?

MCQ On P Block Elements Class 12 Chapter 7
Answer:
Option (A, D) is correct.

Explanation:
Acidic strength of oxides in group: Decreases down the group and increases along a period from left to right. Thermal stability of hydrides of group 16 decreases down the group.

Class 12 Chemistry P Block MCQ Chapter 7 Question 10.

Which, of the following statements are correct?

(A) S – S bond is present in H2S2O8.
(B) In peroxosulphuric acid (H2SO5) sulphur is in +6 oxidation state.
(C) Iron powder along with Al2O3 and K2O is used as a catalyst in the preparation of NH3 by Haber’s process.
(D) Change in enthalpy is positive for the prepara-tion of SO3 by catalytic oxidation of S02.
Answer:
(B) In peroxosulphuric acid (H2SO5) sulphur is in +6 oxidation state.

Explanation:
In H2SO5, there is a peroxo-linkage:
P Block Elements MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7
(O in peroxide linkage has oxidation state -1)

P Block Elements Class 12 MCQs Chapter 7 Question 11.

In which of the following reactions cone. H2SO4 is used as an oxidising reagent?

(A) CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
(B) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2 +SO2 + 2H2O
(C) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2+ 2H2O
(D) NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl
Answer:
(B) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2 +SO2 + 2H2O
(C) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2+ 2H2O

Explanation:
In given four reactions, option (B) and (C) represent oxidising behaviour of H2SO4 that oxidising agent reduces itself as oxidation state of central atom decreases. The reaction is given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements - 5

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 MCQ Question 12.

Which of the following is not tetrahedral in shape?

(A) NH4+
(B) SiCl4
(C) SF4
(D) SO42-
Answer:
(C) SF4

Explanation:
SF4 has trigonalbi-pyramidal structure.

MCQs On P Block Elements Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 13.

Which of the following does not react with oxygen directly?

(A) Zn
(B) Ti
(C) Pt
(D) Fe
Answer:
(C) Pt

Explanation:
Platinum (Pt) is an inert metal and does not react very easily. All other elements, Zn, Ti and Fe, are quite reactive. Flence, Pt does not react with oxygen directly.

P Block Elements MCQs Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 14.

Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?

(A) H-F
(B) HC1
(C) HBr
(D) HI
Answer:
(A) H-F

Explanation:
F being smallest has the shortest H – F bond and therefore HF has the highest bond dissociation energy.

The P Block Elements Class 12 MCQ Chapter 7 Question 15.

Reduction potentials of some ions are given below. Arrange them in decreasing order of oxidising power.

P Block Class 12 MCQ Chapter 7
(A)ClO4>IO4> BrO4
(B) IO4>BrO4>CIO4
(C) BrO4> IO4> CIO4
(D) BrO4> CIO4> IO4
Answer:
(C) BrO4> IO4> CIO4

Explanation:
The higher the reduction potential, the higher is its tendency to get reduced. Hence, the order of their oxidising power is:
BrO4> IO4> CIO4

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Class 12 P Block Elements MCQ Chapter 7 Question 16.

Which of the following is iso-electronic pair?

(A) ICl2,CIO2
(B) BrO4, BrF+2
(C) CIO2, BrF
(D) CN, O3
Answer:
(B) BrO4, BrF+2

Explanation:
(A) ICl2 = 53 + 2 x 17 = 87
ClO2 = 17 + 16 = 33
(B) BrO2 = 35+ 2×8 + 1= 52
BrF+2 = 35 +9 x 2 – 1 = 52
(C) ClO = 17 + 16 = 33
BrF = 35 + 9 = 44
(D) CN = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14
O3 = 8 x 3 = 24

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter P Block MCQ Question 17.

A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When excess of this gas reacts with NH3 an unstable trihalide is formed. In this process the oxidation state of nitro-gen changes from:

(A) -3 to +3.
(B) -3 to 0
(C) – 3 to +5.
(D) 0 to – 3.
Answer:
(A) -3 to +3.

Explanation:
MnO3 + 4HCl + MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 (Greenish yellow gas)
NH3 + 3Cl2 → NCl3 + 3HCl
When excess of chlorine reacts with ammonia then NCl2 and HCl will form. In this reaction on left-hand side chlorine has (-3) oxidation state and on the right-hand chlorine has (+3) oxidation state.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

P-Block Elements Class 12 MCQ Chapter 7 Question 18.

Which of the following statements are true?

(A) Only types of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces.
(B) Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close to that of xenon.
(C) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.
(D) Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
Answer:
(A) Only types of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces.

Explanation:
Weak dispersion forces are present between particles of noble gases. Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close to that of xenon.

P Block Elements Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 19.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and fluorine is maximum.
(B) Leaving F – F bond, all halogens have weaker X – X bond than X – X’ bond in inter-halogens.
(C) Among inter-halogen compounds maximum number of atoms ate present in iodine fluoride.
(D) Inter-halogen compounds are more reactive than halogen compounds.
Answer:
(B) Leaving F – F bond, all halogens have weaker X – X bond than X – X’ bond in inter-halogens.

Explanation:
In case of halogens radius ratio between iodine and fluorine is maximum radius because iodine has maximum radius while fluorine has minimum radius. Also, due to highest ratio maximum numbers oi atom”, are present in iodine fluoride. Inter-halogen compounds are more reactive than halogen compounds because A-B bond of dissimilar halogen is weaker than A-A or B-B bond of halogens.

Chemistry Class 12 P Block Elements MCQ Question 20.

Which one of the following does not exist?

(A) XeOF4
(B) NeF2
(C) XeF2
(D) XeF6
Answer:
(B) NeF2

Explanation:
Xe has least ionisation energy among the noble gases and hence it forms chemical compounds with oxygen and fluorine, however, Ne cannot form compounds with oxygen and fluorine so NeF2 does not exist

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 21.

In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2 + PtF+6 as a base compound. This is because

(A) both O2 and Xe have same size.
(B) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy.
(C) both O2 and Xe have same ionisation enthalpy.
(D) both Xe and O2 are gases.
Answer:
(C) both O2 and Xe have same ionisation enthalpy.

Explanation:
In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2 + PlF6 as a base compound. This is because both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy.

Question 22.

Which of the following statements are true?

(A) Only types of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces.
(B) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.
(C) Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.

Explanation:
Only types of interactions between particles of noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces.

Question 23.

When XeF4 is partially hydrolysed, it yields

(A) XeSO3
(B) XeOF2
(C) XeOF4
(D) XeF2
Answer:
(B) XeOF2

Explanation:
Partial hydrolysis of XeF4gives oxyfluorides, XeOF4 and XeO2F2.
XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF (Xenon oxytotrafluoride)
XeF6+ 2H2O → Xe02F2 + 4HF ? (Xenon dioxvdiflnoride)

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 24.

Which of the following reactions is an example of redox reaction?

(A) XeF4 + O2F2 → XeF6 + O2
(B) XeF2 + PF5 → [XeF] + [PF6]
(C) XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF
(D) XeF6 + 2H2O → XeO2F2 + 2HF
Answer:
(A) XeF4 + O2F2 → XeF6 + O2

Explanation:
XeF4 + O2F2 → XeF6 + O2

Question 25.

Complete the following reaction: Xe + PtF6

(A) Xe + PtF6 → XeF4 + PtF2
(B) Xe + PtF6 → XeF6 + Pt
(C) Xe + PtF6 → Xe+ + [PtF6]
(D) Xe + PtF6 → Xe02F4 + Pt
Answer:
(C) Xe + PtF6 → Xe+ + [PtF6]

Explanation:
Xe + PtF6 → Xe+ + [PtF6]

Question 26.

The shape of XeF4 is

(A) tetr&hedral
(B) square planar
(C) pyramidal
(D) linear
Answer:
(B) square planar

Explanation:
XeF4 is square planar in structure.
P Block Elements MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7

Question 27.

Main source of helium is

(A) Air
(B) Radium
(C) Monazite
(D) Water
Answer:
(C) Monazite

Explanation:
Monazite is the main source of Helium

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Assertion And Reason Based MCQs

Directions:
In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A): N2 is less reactive than P4.
Reason (R): Nitrogen has more electron gain en¬thalpy than phosphorus.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Due to high bond dissociation energy of triple bond between the two N atoms, nitrogen (N) is less reactive than P4 and its electron gain enthalpy is less than phosphorus.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): HNO3 makes iron passive.
Reason (R): HNO3 forms a protective layer of ferric nitrate on the surface of iron.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
HNO3 makes iron passive and its passivity is attained by formation of a thin film of oxide on iron.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Bismuth forms only one well char-acterised compound in +5 oxidation state.
Reason (R): Elements of group-15 form compounds in +5 oxidation state.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Elements of group-15 form; compounds in +5 oxidation stale. Bismuth forms f: only one well characterised compound in +5| oxidation state which is BiF3. Due to inert pair effect bismuth exhibit +3 oxidation state and only forms trihalides. But due to small size and high electronegativity of fluorine, Bismuth forms BiF5

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 4.

Assertion (A): NaCl reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give colourless fumes with pungent smell. But on adding MnO2 the fumes become greenish yellow.
Reason (R): MnO2 oxidises HCl to chlorine gas which is greenish yellow.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Colourless fumes of hydrochloric acid (HCl) become greenish yellow because MnO2 oxidises HCl to chlorine gas.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as Sg but oxygen exists as O2.
Reason (R): Oxygen forms pπ-pπ multiple bond due to small size and small bond length but pπ-pπ bonding is not possible in sulphur.

Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Sulphur (S) exists as S8 but oxygen forms pπ-pπ multiple bonds which is not present in S.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): NaCl reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give colourless fumes with pungent smell. But on adding MnOz the fumes become greenish yellow.
Reason (R): MnO2 oxidises HCl to chlorine gas which is greenish yellow

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Colourless fumes of hydrochloric acid(HCl) because greenish yellow because MnO2 oxidises HCl to chlorine gas.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 7.

Assertion (A): SF6 cannot be hydrolysed but SF4 can be.
Reason (R): Six atoms in SF6 prevent the attack of H2O on sulphur atom of SF6.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
SF6 is sterically protected due to presence of six atoms around S atom which prevents the attack of H2O on SF4 can be

Question 8.

Assertion (A): H2O a liquid and H2S a gas.
Reason (R): Water molecules are held by H-bonds while in H2S molecules no such interactions are present between molecules.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Due to small size and high electronegativilv of oxygen, water is highly associated with inlertnolecular hydrogen bonding but molecules of H2S are held together by van der Waal’s Ibices of attraction. Hence, H2O is a liquid and GS gas.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): HI cannot be prepared by the reaction of KI with concentrated H2SO4.
Reason (R): HI has lowest H – X bond strength among halogen acids.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Both statements are correct but are independent of each other. HI cannot be prepared by the reaction of KI with ? concentrated H2SO4 as it results in the formation – of HI which further oxidizes to I2 as H2SO4 is a strong oxidizing agent.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 10.

Assertion (A): F2 is a strong oxidizing agent.
Reason (R): Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Fluorine is the best oxidising agent, because it has more reduction potential (more ability to lose the electrons) which is attributed to its high electro negativity.

Question 11.

Assertion (A): F2 has lower bond dissociation energy than Cl2.
Reason (R): Flourine is more electronegative than chlorine.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
F2 has higher bond dissociation enthalpy than Cl2.

Question 12.

Assertion (A): F2 has lower reactivity.
Reason (R): F – F bond has low Abond H°.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
Fluorine is the maximum reactive because of low bond dissociation enthalpy.

Question 13.

Assertion(A): Group 18 gases exhibit very high ionisation enthalpy.
Reason (R): They have a stable electronic configuration.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Group 18 gases exhibit very high; ionisation enthalpv because they have a stable; electronic configuration.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 14.

Assertion(A): The noble gases are inactive.
Reason(R): These gases have a closed shell structure.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The noble gases are inactive as they have a closed shell structure.

Question 15.

Assertion(A): Helium diffuses through most commonly used laboratory materials.
Reason(R): This gas has a very low melting point.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Helium diffuses through most commonly used laboratory materials which is an unusual property of this gas.

Question 16.

Assertion (A): Helium used in diving apparatus.
Reason (R): Helium is very less soluble in blood.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Helium used in diving apparatus 1 because of its low solubility in blood.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
In spite of the predictions of stable noble gas compounds since at least 1902, unsuccessful attempts at their synthesis gave rise to the widely held opinion that noble gases are not only noble but also inert. It was not until 1962 that this dogma was shattered when Bartlett in Canada published the first stable noble gas compound Xe PtF6.

This discovery triggered a worldwide frenzy in this area, and within a short time span many new xenon, radon, and krypton compounds were prepared and characterized. The recent discoveries show the ability of xenon to act as a ligand . The discovery by Seppelt’s group that more than one xenon atom can attach itself to a metal center which in the case of gold leads to surprisingly stable Au- Xe bonds. The bonding in [AuXe4]2+ involves 4 Xe ligands attached by relatively strong bonds to a single Au(II) center in a square planar arrangement with a Xe-Au bond length of about 274 pm This discovery provides not only the first example of multiple xenon ligands but also represents the first strong metal – xenon bond.

Question 1.

In the complex ion [AuXe4]2+, Xe acts as:

(A) central atom
(B) ligand
(C) chelating agent
(D) electrophile
Answer:
(A) central atom

Question 2.

Hybridisation shown by Au in [AuXe4]2+ is:

(A) sp3
(B) sp3d
(C) sp3d2
(D) sp2
Answer:
(B) sp3d

Question 3.

Compounds of noble gases except are known.

(A) Krypton
(B) Radon
(C) Helium
(D) Xenon
Answer:
(C) Helium

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 4.

Xe is a ligand

(A) ambidentate
(B) bidentate
(C) unidentate
(D) hexadentate
Answer:
(C) unidentate

II. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
In the last 10 years much has been learned about the molecular structure of elemental sulfur. It is now known that many different types of rings are sufficiently metastable to exist at room temperature for several days. It is known that at high temperature, the equilibrium composition allows for a variety of rings and chains to exist in comparable concentration, and it is known that at the boiling point and above, the vapour as well as the liquid contains small species with three, four, and five atoms.

The sulfur atom has the same number of valence electrons as oxygen. Thus, sulfur atoms S2 and S3 have physical and chemical properties analogous to those of oxygen and ozone. S2 has a ground state of 38 σ3S2 σ*3s2a3 pz2π3p x 2 = π3py2π*3px1 = π* 3py1. S3 , thiozone has a well known uv spectrum, and has a bent structure, analogous to its isovalent molecules O3, SO2, and S2O.

The chemistry of the two elements, sulphur and oxygen, differs because sulfur has a pronounced tendency for catenation. The most frequently quoted explanation is based on the electron structure of the atom. Sulfur has low-lying unoccupied 3d orbitals, and it is widely believed that the 4s and 3d orbitals of sulfur participate in bonding in a manner similar to the participation of 2s and 2p orbitals in carbon. In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices on the basis of the above passage.

(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Sulphur belongs to same group in the periodic table as oxygen.
Reason (R): S2 has properties analogous to O2.

Answer:
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Thiozone has bent structure like ozone.
Reason (R): Ozone has a lone pair which makes the molecule bent.

Answer:
(B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 3.

Assertion (A): S2 is paramagnetic in nature
Reason (R): The electrons in π*3px and π*3py orbitals in S2 are unpaired.

Answer:
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Sulphur has a greater tendency for catenation than oxygen.
Reason (R): 3d and 4s orbitals of Sulphur have same energy.

Answer:
(C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

III. Read the given passage and answer the questions (i) to (iv) that follow:

The halogens have the smallest atomic radii in their respective periods. The atomic radius of fluorine is extremely small. All halogens exhibit -1 oxidation state. They are strong oxidising agents and have maximum negative electron gain enthalpy. Among halogens, fluorine shows anomalous behaviour in many properties. For example electronegativity and ionisation enthalpy are higher for fluorine than expected whereas bond dissociation enthalpy, m.p. and b.p. and electron gain enthalpy are quite lower than expected. Halogens react with hydrogen to give hydrogen halides (HX) and combine amongst themselves to form a number of compounds of the type XX’, XX’3, XX’5and XX’7 called inter halogens.

Question 1.

Why halogens have maximum negative electron gain enthalpy?

Answer:
Halogens have only seven electrons in their valence shell. So they require only one electron to attain a noble gas configuration. Hence they have maximum electron gain enthalpy.

Question 2.

Why fluorine shows anomalous behaviour as compared to other halogens?

Answer:
(i) It has smallest in size.
(ii) Very high electronegativity.
(iii) Absence of d-orbitals.
(iv) dissociation enthalpy in molecular form is least. (Any one)

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Question 3.

Arrange the hydrogen halides (HF to HI) in the decreasing order of their reducing character.

Answer:
HI > HBr > HCl > HF

Question 4.

Why fluorine is a stronger oxidizing agent than chlorine?

Answer:
Because fluorine has greater E0 value (2.87V) than chlorine (1.36V).

Question 5.

What are the sizes of X and X’ in the interhalogen compounds?

Answer:
Size of X is greater than X’.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements MCQ Class 12 Question 1.
Concentration of sulphide ore is done by
(a) froth flotation process
(b) electrolysis
(c) roasting
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) froth flotation process


MCQ On General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements Class 12 Question 2.
Malachite is an ore of
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) zinc
(d) Sliver

Answer

Answer: (b) copper


General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
Formula of copper pyrite is
(a)Cu2S
(b) CuFeS
(c) CuFeS2
(d) Cu2Fe2S2

Answer

Answer: (c) CuFeS2


General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements MCQs Pdf Class 12 Question 4.
Ore of aluminium is
(a) bauxite
(b) hematite
(c) dolomite
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) bauxite


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 Question 5.
Removal of the unwanted materials like sand, clays, etc. from the ore is known as ………., …….. or ……….
(a) concentration, dressing, benefaction
(b) separation, refining, gangue
(c) magnetic separation, purification, gangue
(d) washing, refining, amalgamation

Answer

Answer: (a) concentration, dressing, benefaction


Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQ Question 6.
For which of the following ores froth floatation method is used for concentration?
(a) Haematite
(b) Zinc blende
(c) Magnetite
(d) Camallite

Answer

Answer: (b) Zinc blende


General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements MCQs Question 7.
The powdered ore is agitated with water or washed with running stream of water. The heavy ore particles and lighter impurities are separated. This method of concentration is known as
(a) metallurgy
(b) leaching
(c) froth floatation process
(d) gravity separation

Answer

Answer: (d) gravity separation


Ch 6 Chemistry Class 12 MCQ Question 8.
The oil used as frothing agent in froth floatation process is
(a) coconut oil
(b) castor oil
(c) palmitic oil
(d) pine oil

Answer

Answer: (d) pine oil


General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements MCQ Pdf Question 9.
Which of the following metals is not extracted by leaching?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Mercury
(c) Silver
(d) Gold

Answer

Answer: (b) Mercury


Chemistry Chapter 6 Class 12 MCQs Question 10.
Sulphide ore of zinc/copper is concentrated by
(a) floatation process
(b) electromagnetic process
(c) gravity separation
(d) distillation

Answer

Answer: (a) floatation process


Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 6 MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following ores is concentrated by chemical leaching method?
(a) Cinnabar
(b) Argentite
(c) Copper pyrites
(d) Galena

Answer

Answer: (b) Argentite


Chapter 6 Chemistry Class 12 MCQs Question 12.
How do we separate two sulphide ores by froth floatation method?
(a) By using excess of pine oil
(b) By adjusting proportion of oil to water or using depressant.
(c) By using some solvent in which one of the sulphides is soluble
(d) By using collectors and froth stabilisers like xanthates

Answer

Answer: (b) By adjusting proportion of oil to water or using depressant.


Question 13.
Common impurities present in bauxite are
(a) CuO
(b) ZnO
(c) CaO
(d) SiO2

Answer

Answer: (d) SiO2


Question 14.
An ore of tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by
(a) gravity separation
(b) magnetic separation
(c) froth floatation
(d) leaching

Answer

Answer: (b) magnetic separation


Question 15.
Which of the following ores cannot be concentrated by magnetic separation?
(a) Haematite
(b) Malachite
(c) Magnetite
(d) Siderite

Answer

Answer: (b) Malachite


Question 16.
The significance of leaching in the extraction of aluminium is
(a) it helps removing the impurities like SiO2, Fe2O3 etc. from the bauxite ore
(b) it converts the ore into oxide
(c) it reduces melting point of the ore
(d) it eliminates water from bauxite

Answer

Answer: (a) it helps removing the impurities like SiO2, Fe2O3 etc. from the bauxite ore


Question 17.
Which of the following metals is extracted using a silica lined convertor?
(a) Mg
(b) Al
(c) Cu
(d) Zn

Answer

Answer: (c) Cu


Question 18.
Which of the following sulphides when heated strongly in air gives the corresponding metal without undergoing separate reduction of oxide?
(a) Cu2S
(b) FeS
(c) HgS
(d) ZnS

Answer

Answer: (c) HgS


Question 19.
Which of the following metals cannot be obtained by reduction of its metal oxide bv aluminium ?
(a) Cr
(b) Mn
(c) Fe
(d) Mg

Answer

Answer: (d) Mg


Question 20.
Heating pyrites to remove sulphur is called
(a) smelting
(b) calcination
(c) liquation
(d) roasting

Answer

Answer: (d) roasting


Question 21.
Impurities of sulphur, silicon and phosphorus can be removed from cast iron by adding
(a) carbon which reduces the impurities
(b) water which dissolves the impurities
(c) limestone which changes impurities into oxides and pass into slag
(d) iron oxide which reacts with impurities by forming slag

Answer

Answer: (c) limestone which changes impurities into oxides and pass into slag


Question 22.
In metallurgical process, aluminium acts as
(a) an oxidising agent
(b) a reducing agent
(c) acidic flux
(d) basic flux

Answer

Answer: (b) a reducing agent


Question 23.
Ellingham diagram represents change of
(a) ΔG with temperature
(b) ΔH with temperature
(c) ΔG with pressure
(d) (ΔG – TΔS) with temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) ΔG with temperature


Question 24.
During the extraction of haematite, limestone is added which acts as
(a) flux
(b) slag
(c) reducing agent
(d) gangue

Answer

Answer: (a) flux


Question 25.
In blast furnace iron oxide is reduced by
(a) silica
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) carbon
(d) lime stone

Answer

Answer: (b) carbon monoxide


Question 26.
From the Ellingham graph between Gibb’s energy and temperature, out of C and CO with is a better reducing agent for ZnO?
(a) Carbon
(b) CO
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Carbon


Question 27.
In a thermite process is used as reducing agent.
(a) Zn
(b) Al
(c) Mn
(d) Fe

Answer

Answer: (b) Al


Question 28.
Blister copper is
(a) impure copper
(b) obtained in self reduction process during bessermerisation
(c) Both are correct
(d) None is correct

Answer

Answer: (c) Both are correct


Question 29.
Which of the following slags is produced during extraction of iron?
(a) CaSiO3
(b) FeSiO3
(c) MgSiO3
(d) ZnSiO3

Answer

Answer: (a) CaSiO3


Question 30.
Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by hydrogen?
(a) Ferric oxide
(b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Zinc oxide
(d) Cupric oxide

Answer

Answer: (b) Aluminium oxide


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