MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Federalism Class 10 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-10-civics-chapter-2/

Federalism Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Federalism Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The number of seats reserved for women in the panchayats and municipalities is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) half
(d) one-fifth

Answer

Answer: (b) one-third


Class 10 Federalism MCQ Question 2.
‘Holding together federations are not found in
(a) India
(b) Spain
(c) Belgium
(d) Australia

Answer

Answer: (d) Australia


Federalism MCQ Class 10 Question 3.
Subjects like computer software comes in the
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary List

Answer

Answer: (d) Residuary List


MCQ Of Federalism Class 10 Question 4.
Which of the following states has been given a special status?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Tripura
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana

Answer

Answer: (a) Jammu and Kashmir


Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
The number of Scheduled Languages in India is
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 25

Answer

Answer: (b) 22


Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 6.
Which one of the following States in India has its own Constitution?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) J & K
(d) Nagaland

Answer

Answer: (c) J & K


MCQ On Federalism Class 10 Question 7.
Which among the following are examples of ‘Coming together federations’?
(a) India, Spain and Belgium
(b) India, USA and Spain
(c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
(d) Belgium and Sri Lanka

Answer

Answer: (c) USA, Switzerland and Australia


Ch 2 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
In India’s federal system, the state governments have the power to legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Residuary subjects

Answer

Answer: (b) State list


Federalism Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
The Constitution of India
(a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists.
(b) divided powers between centre and states in two lists.
(c) listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.
(d) Specified the pow ers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre.

Answer

Answer: (a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists.


MCQ Federalism Class 10 Question 10.
In case of a clash between the laws made by the centre and a state on a subject in the concurrent list:
(a) the state law prevails.
(b) the central law prevails.
(c) both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions.
(d) the Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.

Answer

Answer: (b) the central law prevails.


Civics Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
What is the third tier of government known as?
(a) Village Panchayats
(b) State government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Zila Parishad

Answer

Answer: (c) Local self-government
Explanation:
The third tier of government known as the local self-government. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.


Class 10 Civics Ch 2 MCQ Question 12.
What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?
(a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue.
(b) States are dependent on revenue or funds on the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
(d) States have no financial autonomy.

Answer

Answer: (c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
Explanation:
Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.


MCQs Of Federalism Class 10 Question 13.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government?
(a) There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
(b) The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government.
(c) A state government is conservable to central government.
(d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.

Answer

Answer: (d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.
Explanation:
Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government. The central government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government and state government is conservable to central government.


Civics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 14.
What are the kinds of routes through which federations have been formed?
(a) One route involves independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit
(b) The second route is where a large country decides to divide its powers between the states and the national government
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Explanation:
There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed. The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.


Civics Ch 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the country?
(a) Period after 1990
(b) Period after 2000
(c) Period after 1980
(d) Period after 1970

Answer

Answer: (a) Period after 1990
Explanation:
All this changed significantly after 1990. This period saw the rise of regional political parties in many States of the country. This was also the beginning of the era of coalition government at the Centre.


Question 16.
Which language is recognised as the national language by the Constitution of India?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Tamil
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation:
Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians.


Question 17.
Which state of India enjoys a special status and has its own Constitution?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer

Answer: (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation:
Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution. Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to this State. Indians who are not permanent residents of this State cannot buy land or house here.


Question 18.
Which of the following subjects is not included in the Union list?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign affairs
(c) Police
(d) Banking

Answer

Answer: (c) Police
Explanation:
Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency.


Question 19.
Which of the following is not an example of ‘holding together’ federations?
(a) India
(b) Spain
(c) Belgium
(d) Switzerland

Answer

Answer: (d) Switzerland
Explanation:
A large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations.


Question 20.
Which level of government in India has the power to legislate on the ‘residuary’ subjects?
(a) Union government
(b) State government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Both a and b

Answer

Answer: (a) Union government
Explanation:
According to our constitution, the Union Government has the power to legislate on these ‘residuary’ subjects.


Picture-based Questions:

Look at the following cartoons taken from NCERT Textbook page 21 and answer the question that follow:

The States Plead for More Powers
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers 1
Perils of Running a Coalition Government
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers 2
Question:
The above two cartoons show the relationship between Centre and States. Should the State go to the Centre with a begging bowl? How can the leader of a coalition keep the partners of government satisfied?

Answer

Answer:
The State should not go to the Centre in such a manner. Ours is a federal country and the principle of federalism works on the power sharing arrangement. The two levels of government i.e., the Centre and State governments have their own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration. Hence, the centre cannot order the State government to do something, nor can it stop them from ensuring their rights as autonomous federal units.

The leader of the coalition should accommodate different groups and factions in his/her party as well as among alliance partners. He/she should heed to the views and positions of the coalition partners and do accordingly.


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Power Sharing Class 10 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-10-civics-chapter-1/

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called the
(a) Indian Tamils
(b) Muslim Tamils
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils
(d) Christian Tamils

Answer

Answer: (c) Sri Lankan Tamils


Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
The term Eelam stands for
(a) government
(b) state
(c) country
(d) political party

Answer

Answer: (b) state


Class 10 Power Sharing MCQ Question 3.
Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is called
(a) horizontal division
(b) parallel division
(c) vertical division
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) vertical division


Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 4.
Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium?
(a) French and English
(b) Dutch and Sinhala
(c) French and Sinhala
(d) Dutch and French.

Answer

Answer: (d) Dutch and French.


Power Sharing MCQ Class 10 Question 5
Brussels is the capital of
(a) Belgium
(b) the Netherland
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) West Indies

Answer

Answer: (a) Belgium


MCQ Of Power Sharing Class 10 Question 6.
A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following power-sharing arrangements:
(a) Power sharing among different social groups.
(b) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of government.
(c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
(d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments.

Answer

Answer: (c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.


Ch 1 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power. !
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves j through institutions of self-governance.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.

Answer

Answer: (d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.


Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
System of ‘checks and balances’ means:
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers.
(b) Separation of powers.
(c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among various institutions.
(d) Federal division of powers

Answer

Answer: (c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among various institutions.


MCQ On Power Sharing Class 10 Question 9.
Power sharing is:
(a) the very spirit of democracy
(b) separation of powers at different levels.
(c) system of checks and balances.
(d) a type of balancing powers.

Answer

Answer: (a) the very spirit of democracy


Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 10.
Who elects the community government in Belgium?
(a) People belonging to one language community only.
(b) By the leader of Belgium.
(c) The citizens of the whole country.
(d) The community leaders of Belgium.

Answer

Answer: (a) People belonging to one language community only.


Civics Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
In which year Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950

Answer

Answer: (b) 1948
Explanation:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.


Class 10 Civics Ch 1 MCQ Question 12.
Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Hinduism
(c) Islam
(d) Christianity

Answer

Answer: (a) Buddhism
Explanation:
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.


Civics Ch 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 13.
Which major social group constituted the largest share in population of Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Muslims

Answer

Answer: (a) Sinhalas
Explanation:
The major social groups in Sri Lanka are the Sinhala-speakers (74 per cent) and the Tamil-speakers (18 per cent)


Chapter 1 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?
(a) German
(b) French
(c) Dutch
(d) English

Answer

Answer: (c) Dutch
Explanation:
Of the Belgian’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language.


Power Sharing MCQ Questions Question 15.
Which religion is followed by Sinhala speaking people?
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims
(c) Buddhists
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Buddhists
Explanation:
Most of the Sinhala speaking people are Buddhists, while most of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims.


Question 16.
Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil
(b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi
(d) English

Answer

Answer: (b) Sinhala
Explanation:
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.


Question 17.
Which of the following is not one of the three organs of government powers are shared?
(a) Legislature
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary

Answer

Answer: (b) Bureaucracy
Explanation:
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.


Question 18.
Which of the following is not one of the aspects of federal division of powers?
(a) Sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments
(b) Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government
(c) The Constitution clearly lays down powers of different levels of government
(d) There is no vertical division of powers

Answer

Answer: (d) There is no vertical division of powers
Explanation:
The aspects of federal division of powers are sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments, Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government.


Question 19.
What led to non-sharing of power?
(a) Peace among all the communities
(b) The tyranny of the majority and oppression of minority
(c) Negation of the very spirit of democracy
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Non-sharing of power led to tyranny of the majority and oppression of minority and negation of the very spirit of democracy.


Question 20.
How many times was the Constitution of Belgium amended between 1970 and 1993?
(a) Two times
(b) Three times
(c) Five times
(d) Four times

Answer

Answer: (d) Four times
Explanation:
Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.


Picture-based Questions:

Look at the given cartoon taken from the NCERT Textbook Page 8 and answer the question that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers 1

Question:
In 2005, some new laws were made in Russia giving more powers to its President. During the same time the US President visited Russia. What, according to this cartoon, is the relationship between democracy and concentration of power? Can you think of some other examples to illustrate the point being made here?

Answer

Answer:
A good democracy opposes the idea of concentration of powers. It welcomes the idea of sharing of power for the smooth running of the government. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the ultimate source of all political power. Giving more power to the Russian President means power is concentrated in one person which is against the principle of democracy.


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-10-geography-chapter-7/

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following groups of cities is connected by the National Highway No. 1?
(a) Kolkata-Amritsar
(b) Ranchi-Kolkata
(c) Delhi-Punjab
(d) Varanasi-Kanyakumari

Answer

Answer: (c) Delhi-Punjab


Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
National Waterway No. 1 is navigable between which of the following places?
(a) Sadiya and Dhubri
(b) Allahabad and Haldia
(c) Udyogamandal and Champakkara
(d) Kottapuram and Komman

Answer

Answer: (b) Allahabad and Haldia


Lifelines Of National Economy MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following ports is the biggest with a spacious natural and well-sheltered harbour?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: (c) Mumbai


Life Lines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
port was developed as a subsidiary port in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.
(a) Haldia
(b) Kochi
(c) Kandla
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: (a) Haldia


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Question 5.
Which one of the following is considered as the first-class mail by the Indian postal network?
(a) Cards and envelopes
(b) Registered periodicals
(c) Book packets
(d) Registered newspapers

Answer

Answer: (a) Cards and envelopes


Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 6.
Which one of the following is the southernmost international airport in India?
(a) Nedimbacherry
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji
(c) Raja Sansi
(d) Meenam Bakkam

Answer

Answer: (a) Nedimbacherry


MCQ Of Lifelines Of National Economy Question 7.
Which one of the following is the oldest port of the eastern coast of India?
(a) Kolkata (Haldia)
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Chennai (Madras)

Answer

Answer: (d) Chennai (Madras)


MCQ On Lifelines Of National Economy Question 8.
Narrow Gauge railway line is found in
(a) the Northern Plains
(b) the hilly areas of Darjeeling, Shillong and Ooty
(c) deserts of Rajasthan
(d) the Central Highlands

Answer

Answer: (b) the hilly areas of Darjeeling, Shillong and Ooty


Class 10 Lifelines Of National Economy MCQ Question 9.
Which one of the following is not an advantage of pipeline transportation?
(a) Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and gas from fields to refineries.
(b) Solids can be transported in slurry form through pipelines.
(c) Pipelines rule out trans-shipment losses or delays.
(d) Initial cost of laying a pipeline is high.

Answer

Answer: (d) Initial cost of laying a pipeline is high.


Ncert Class 10 Social Science Objective Questions Question 10.
Which organisation constructs and maintains roads in the border areas?
(a) NHAI
(b) BRO
(c) Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana
(d) BSF

Answer

Answer: (b) BRO


Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 One Mark Questions Pdf Question 11.
Which one of the following ports is a tidal port?
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Mangalore port
(c) Kandla
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: (c) Kandla


Class 10 Social Science MCQ Question 12.
Which one of the following ports was developed in order to relieve the pressure of Kolkata port?
(a) Paradip port
(b) Tuticorin port
(c) Haldia port
(d) Chennai port

Answer

Answer: (c) Haldia port


Social Science MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
Which two extreme locations are connected by the North-South Corridor?
(a) Amritsar and Tuticorin
(b) Srinagar and Tiruvananthapuram
(c) Srinagar and Tuticorin
(d) Srinagar and Kanyakumari

Answer

Answer: (d) Srinagar and Kanyakumari


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Social Science With Answers Question 14.
National Waterway No. 1 is navigable between which of the following places?
(a) Between Sadiya and Dhubri
(b) Between Allahabad and Haldia
(c) Between Kottapuram and Komman
(d) Between Udyogamandal and Champakkara

Answer

Answer: (b) Between Allahabad and Haldia


Social MCQ Class 10 Question 15.
Which one of the following is the oldest artificial port of the country?
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai

Answer

Answer: (c) Chennai


Question 16.
National Highways are constructed and maintained by:
(a) NHAI
(b) CPWD
(c) SPWD
(d) BRO

Answer

Answer: (b) CPWD


Question 17.
Which one of the following modes of transportation reduces tran-shipment losses and delays in the supply of petroleum and gases?
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Pipeline
(d) Waterways

Answer

Answer: (c) Pipeline


Question 18.
The helicopter services to Oil and Natural Commission in its offshore operations are provided by:
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Pawanhans helicopters
(d) Alliance Air

Answer

Answer: (c) Pawanhans helicopters


Question 19.
The largest number of newspapers published in India are in which of the following languages?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Urdu
(d) Marathi

Answer

Answer: (a) Hindi


Question 20.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the sea ports of India?
(a) Mumbai is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well sheltered harbour.
(b) Tuticorin Port in Tamil Nadu has a natural harbour and hinterland.
(c) Vishakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked and well protected port.
(d) Chennai is an inland riverine port.

Answer

Answer: (d) Chennai is an inland riverine port.


Question 21.
In recent years, India is earning large foreign exchange through the export of which of the following?
(a) Ores and Minerals
(b) Information Technology
(c) Agricultural Products
(d) Electrical goods

Answer

Answer: (b) Information Technology


Question 22.
Which of the following airlines is the nationalised airline of India?
(a) Air India
(b) Jet Airways
(c) Kingfisher Airline
(d) Indigo

Answer

Answer: (a) Air India


Question 23.
Which of the following airlines is the nationalised airline of India?
(a) Air India
(b) Jet Airways
(c) Kingfisher Airline
(d)Indigo

Answer

Answer: (a) Air India


Question 24.
Which of the following is the oldest artificial port and the second most important port of the country?
(a) Mumbai port
(b) Kandla port
(c) Chennai port
(d) Ennore port

Answer

Answer: (c) Chennai port


Question 25.
Which one of the following types of communication service in India is the largest in the world?
(a) Postal network
(b) Television network
(c) Internet services
(d) Radio broadcasting

Answer

Answer: (a) Postal network


Map-based Questions:

Question 1.
On the given outline political map of India, mark the following international airports.
• Raja Sansi
• Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
• Chhatrapati Shivaji
• Meenambakkam
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy with Answers 1

Answer

Answer: Do it yourself


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-10-geography-chapter-6/

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following has been major source of foreign exchange for IT industry?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
(b) Oil India Limited (OIL)
(c) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
(d) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

Answer

Answer: (d) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)


Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 2.
In what ratio are iron ore, coking coal and limestone required to make steel?
(a) 4 : 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 3 : 1
(d) 4 : 3 : 2

Answer

Answer: (a) 4 : 2 : 1


Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which one of the following groups of factors is a prime group for the location of aluminium smelting plant?
(a) Capital and market
(b) Raw material and electricity
(c) Labour and raw material
(d) Capital and transport

Answer

Answer: (b) Raw material and electricity


MCQ Of Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the National Jute Policy of 2005?
(a) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials
(b) Ensuring good prices to the jute farmers
(c) Increasing productivity
(d) Improving quality of jute

Answer

Answer: (a) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials


MCQ On Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 5.
What is per capita consumption of steel per annum in India?
(a) 28 kg
(b) 30 kg
(c) 32 kg
(d) 34 kg

Answer

Answer: (c) 32 kg


Class 10 Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 6.
Which of the following factors are not necessary to set up an iron and steel plant?
(a) Proximity to iron-ore mines
(b) Availability of coking coal
(c) Good resources of limestone and manganese
(d) Nearness to a water body to discharge wastes

Answer

Answer: (d) Nearness to a water body to discharge wastes


Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQs Question 7.
Air pollution is caused by
(a) Organic and inorganic industrial effluents discharged into rivers.
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.
(c) Unwanted sounds from industries, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills.
(d) Overdrawing of groundwater.

Answer

Answer: (b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.


Manufacturing Industries MCQ Class 10 Question 8.
Most of the integrated steel plants in India are located in
(a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Bundelkhand Plateau
(c) Meghalaya Plateau
(d) Chotanagpur Plateau

Answer

Answer: (d) Chotanagpur Plateau


Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
Which are the two prime factors for the location of aluminium industry?
(a) Market and labour
(b) Transport network and water supply
(c) Cheap and regular supply of electricity and bauxite
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Cheap and regular supply of electricity and bauxite


Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ Question 10.
The first cement plant was set up in India in 1904 in
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Chennai

Answer

Answer: (d) Chennai


Class 10 Geography Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 11.
Which one of the following groups of states have the largest number of cotton textile centres?
(a) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat

Answer

Answer: (a) Gujarat and Maharashtra


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Question 12.
Which of the following group of factors is a prime group for the location of aluminium smelting plant?
(a) Capital and Market
(b) Raw material and Electricity
(c) Labour and Raw material
(d) Capital and Transport

Answer

Answer: (b) Raw material and Electricity


MCQ Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 13.
Which one of the following countries has the largest installed capacity of spindles in the world?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Britain

Answer

Answer: (b) China


Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Which one of the following cities is known as electronic capital of India ?
(a) Srinagar
(b) Noida
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Pune

Answer

Answer: (c) Bengaluru


Manufacturing Industries MCQ Questions Question 15.
The first successful textile mill was established in:
(a) Delhi
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai (Bombay)

Answer

Answer: (d) Mumbai (Bombay)


Question 16.
Manufacturing Industries are placed in:
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Service sector

Answer

Answer: (b) Secondary sector


Question 17.
Which one of the following air services provides services to Oil and Natural Gas Commission in its off-shore operations?
(a) Indian Airlines
(b) Air India
(c) Pawan hans Helicopters LTD
(d) Alliance

Answer

Answer: (c) Pawanhans Helicopters LTD


Question 18.
The first successful textile mill was established in:
(a) Delhi
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai (Bombay)

Answer

Answer: (d) Mumbai (Bombay)


Question 19.
What is the correct meaning of agglomeration economies?
(a) Many industries set up in rural centres
(b) Industries are basically agro-based.
(c) Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres
(d) Industries set up produce raw material for secondary sector.

Answer

Answer: (c) Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres


Question 20.
Which of the following industries has been a major foreign exchange earner in the last few years?
(a) Electronics Industry
(b) Information Technology Industry
(c) Engineering Industry
(d) Tourism Industry

Answer

Answer: (b) Information Technology Industry


Question 21.
Which of the following is an electronics industry?
(a) HMT, Bengaluru
(b) TISCO, Jamshedpur
(c) BHEL, Hyderabad
(d) BALCO, Korba

Answer

Answer: (c) BHEL, Hyderabad


Question 22.
Which of the following is a negative effect of industrialisation?
(a) Economic growth
(b) Pollution
(c) Foreign exchange earnings
(d) Rapid urbanisation

Answer

Answer: (b) Pollution


Question 23.
Which of the following industries is the largest consumer of chemicals?
(a) Fertilisers
(b) Textiles
(c) Chemicals
(d) Paper

Answer

Answer: (c) Chemicals


Question 24.
Sixty percent of sugar mills are concentrated in which of the following states?
(a) Punjab and Haryana
(b) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(d) West Bengal and Orissa

Answer

Answer: (c) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar


Question 25.
When and where was the first successful textile mill established in India?
(a) In Ahmedabad in 1858
(b) In Chennai in 1954
(c) In Kolkata in 1816
(d) In Mumbai in 1854

Answer

Answer: (d) In Mumbai in 1854


Match the following:

Column AColumn B
(i) Software technology parka. Bhadravati
(ii) Iron and steel plantb. Amritsar
(iii) Cotton textile industryc. Murshidabad
(iv) Silk textile industryd. Bengaluru
(v) Woollen textile industrye. Shahjahanpur
Answer

Answer:

Column AColumn B
(i) Software technology parkd. Bengaluru
(ii) Iron and steel planta. Bhadravati
(iii) Cotton textile industrye. Shahjahanpur
(iv) Silk textile industryc. Murshidabad
(v) Woollen textile industryb. Amritsar

Give full form of the following:

  1. SAIL
  2. BHEL
  3. TISCO
  4. OIL
  5. GDP
  6. NTPC
  7. BPO
  8. STPI
  9. EMS
  10. NMCC
Answer

Answer:

  1. SAIL — Steel Authority of India Limited
  2. BHEL — Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
  3. TISCO — Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited
  4. OIL — Oil India Limited
  5. GDP — Gross Domestic Product
  6. NTPC — National Thermal Power Corporation
  7. BPO — Business Processes Outsourcing
  8. STPI — Software Technology Park of India
  9. EMS — Environment Management System
  10. NMCC — National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Manufacturing Industries CBSE Class 10 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-10-geography-chapter-5/

Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The Monazite sands in Kerala is rich in
(a) thorium
(b) uranium
(c) platinum
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) thorium


Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Nagarcoil and Jaisalmer are well known for effective use of
(a) solar energy
(b) wind energy
(c) atomic energy
(d) tidal energy

Answer

Answer: (b) wind energy


Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 3.
The pair of states which has most of the petroleum deposits
(a) Rajasthan and Karnataka
(b) Assam and Gujarat
(c) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(d) Odisha and Goa

Answer

Answer: (b) Assam and Gujarat


Mineral And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
One of the following is a non-metallic mineral
(a) manganese
(b) copper
(c) coal
(d) granite

Answer

Answer: (d) granite


MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Question 5.
Aluminium is obtained from
(a) bauxite
(b) limestone
(c) copper
(d) manganese

Answer

Answer: (a) bauxite


Class 10 Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 6.
Uranium and thorium used for generating nuclear power are found in
(a) Godavari Basin
(b) Gulf of Cambay
(c) Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh
(d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: (d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan


Mineral And Energy Resources MCQ Question 7.
In which region of India tidal energy is produced?
(a) Gulf of Kuchchh
(b) Puga Valley of Ladakh
(c) Gulf of Cambay
(d) Madhapur near Bhuj

Answer

Answer: (a) Gulf of Kuchchh


MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Question 8.
Tertiary coals occur in the
(a) North-western states
(b) Coastal states
(c) North-eastern states
(d) Southern states

Answer

Answer: (c) North-eastern states


Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ Question 9.
Mica is used in electric and electronic industries because
(a) of its insulating properties and resistance to high voltage
(b) it is a good conductor of electricity
(c) of its great malleability
(d) of its sonorous nature

Answer

Answer: (a) of its insulating properties and resistance to high voltage


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question 10.
Limestone is the basic raw material of
(a) Paper industry
(b) Cement industry
(c) Sugar industry
(d) Textile industry

Answer

Answer: (b) Cement industry


MCQ Minerals And Energy Resources Question 11.
The larger occurrences of minerals of igneous and metamorphic rocks are called:
(a) Veins
(b) Lodes
(c) Beds
(d) Layers

Answer

Answer: (b) Lodes


Chapter 5 Geography Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
In which one of the following states the largest wind farm cluster is located?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Kerala
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu


MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 13.
Which of the following is the oldest oil producing state of India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Andaman Nicobar island

Answer

Answer: (c) Assam


MCQs On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 14.
Which one of the following non- conventional sources of energy is harnessed near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Geothermal Energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Geothermal Energy


Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
In which of the following iron ore belt Kudremukh mines are located?
(a) Orissa-Jharkhand belt
(b) Maharashtra-Goa belt
(c) Durg-Baster-Chandrapur belt
(d) Bellary-Chitradiga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt

Answer

Answer: (d) Bellary-Chitradiga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt


Question 16.
Which one of the following states, is the largest producer of copper in India ?
(a) Orissa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

Answer

Answer: (c) Madhya Pradesh


Question 17.
Which one of the following is largely derived from ocean water?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Magnesium
(c) Gold
(d) Mica

Answer

Answer: (b) Magnesium


Question 18.
The highest quality of hard coal is:
(a) Lignite
(b) Bituminous
(c) Peat
(d) Anthracite

Answer

Answer: (d) Anthracite


Question 19.
Which form of coal has a low carbon and high moisture contents and low heating capacity?
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Bituminous

Answer

Answer: (a) Peat


Question 20.
Which one of the following factors is responsible for the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states of India?
(a) Sugarcane is bulky raw material.
(b) The sucrose content reduces with distance.
(c) The cane produced has higher sucrose content.
(d) The cooperative are not successful.

Answer

Answer: (c) The cane produced has higher sucrose content.


Question 21.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the importance of manufacturing industries?
(a) They generate jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
(b) Export of manufactured goods brings in forgein exchange.
(c) Manufacturing industries encourage trade and commerce.
(d) The economic strength of a country is measured in terms of the raw material it possesses.

Answer

Answer: (d) The economic strength of a country is measured in terms of the raw material it possesses.


Question 22.
Which one of the following minerals is not obtained from the veins and lodes?
(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gypsum

Answer

Answer: (d) Gypsum


Question 23.
Which one of the following non-conventional sources of energy is harnessed in the Parvati Valley near Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh
(a) Tidal Energy
(b) Geothermal Energy
(c) Wind Energy
(d) Solar Energy

Answer

Answer: (b) Geothermal Energy


Question 24.
Which one of the following is an essential feature of Mica?
(a) It is a metallic mineral made up of a series of plates
(b) It can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.
(c) It is not used in electric and electronic industry.
(d) It cannot be easily split into thin sheets

Answer

Answer: (b) It can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.


Question 25.
Which one of the following features is not true about copper?
(a) India is deficient in the reserve and production of copper.
(b) It is reliable, ductile and a good conductor.
(c) It is a ferrous ore.
(d) It is mainly used in electrical cables and electronic goods.

Answer

Answer: (c) It is a ferrous ore.


Categorise the following minerals into ferrous and non-ferrous:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers 1

Answer

Answer:
Ferrous: Iron-ore, manganese, cobalt, nickel.
Non-ferrous: Bauxite, tin, lead, copper.


Categorise the following minerals into metallic and non-metallic.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers 2

Answer

Answer:
Metallic: Gold, iron-ore, platinum, tin, nickel, copper, silver
Non-metallic: Sulphur, marble, granite, salt, sandstone


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Minerals and Energy Resources CBSE Class 10 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.