CBSE Sample Papers

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

Section-A

Question 1.
Why did Gandhiji decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922? 1
(a) Because violence occurred in Kheda and Gandhiji did not like it.
(b) Because violence occurred in Chauri Chaura and many other places, and Gandhiji was firm believer of ahimsa.
(c) Because people did not support the movement.
(d) Because violence occurred in Champaran and some other places, and Gandhiji was firm believer of ahimsa.
Answer:
(b) Because violence occurred in Champaran and some other places, and Gandhiji was firm believer of ahimsa.

Question 2.
Lala Lajpat Rai was assaulted by the British police during a peaceful demonstration against the which one of the following?
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Indian Commission
(c) Rowlatt Act
(d) Quit India Movement
Answer:
(a) Simon Commission

Question 3.
Leading the procession, way past the Statue of Liberty, the peoples of Germany were bearing
which of the following flags?
(a) Black
(b) Red
(c) Gold
(d) Black, red and gold
Answer:
(d) Black, red and gold

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks
……………. is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.
Or
The deepest, landlocked and well protected sea port is …………………..
Answer:
India
Or
Vishakhapatnam

Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops from the following options:
(a) Golden fibre – Jute
(b) Fibre crop – Rubber
(c) Food crop – Cotton
(d) Non-food crop – Silk
Answer:
(a) Golden fibre – Jute

Question 6.
Fill in the blank:
Biotic and Abiotic resources: on the basis of origin, Renewable and non-renewable resources:on the basis of exhaustibility, …………………… : on basis of the status of development
(a) National and International resources
(b) Potential and Developed resources
(c) Individual and Community owned resources
(d) Human resources
Answer:
(b) Potential and Developed resources

Question 7.
Identify the industry with the help of the following features.

• Manufactures aircrafts, utensils and wires
• Light and a good conductor of heat
• Second most important metallurgical industry in India

Answer:
Aluminium Smelting

Question 8.
Aluminium Smelting
The oldest artificial sea port of India is
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Kandla
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 9.
Modem democracies maintain check and balance system. Identity the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government, local bodies
(b) Legislative, executive, judiciary
(c) Among different social groups
(d) Among different pressure groups
Answer:
(b) Legislative, executive, judiciary

Question 10.
If federalism works only in big country then why did Belgium adopt it?
Or
What is decentralisation?
Answer:
Belgium decided to divide its power between the national government and the constituent states.
Or
When power is taken away from central and state governments and given to local government, it is called decentralisation.

Question 11.
State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Or
Which is a major caste group of Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Step taken by Belgium:
The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the Central Government.
Or
Sinhala and Tamil is a major caste group of Sri Lanka.

Question 12.
12. Read the given table and find out in comparison to Kerala, which state has the highest infant mortality rate.

Sources: Economic Survey, 2017-18 Vol. 2, Government of india: National Sample Survey
Organisaiion (Report No. 575)
(a) Haryana
(b) Bihar
(c) Both Haryana and Bihar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Bihar

Question 13.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries. What crosses the boundaries of these countries were raw material, foodstuff and finished products. Colonies such as India exported raw material and foodstuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This w’as before large companies connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.

Foreign trade creates an opportunity’ for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

MNCs are a major force in connecting the countries of the world because-
(a) they can form and utilize the connections between national economics.
(b) they help in the integration of market and in flow of information.
(c) they may also outsource their production processes, often to lesser developed nations to reduce their costs.
(d) All of the above (d)
Answer:
(d) All of the above (d)

Or

Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets i.e., markets of their own countries. How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries? Choose the correct option.
(a) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
(b) Producers can sell their produce not only in market located within the country but also compete in markets located in other countries of the world.
(c) Impact of the goods produced in another country is also one of the way is expanding the choice of goods.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 14.
How is Public sector different for Private sector? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) In the public sector government owns most of the assets and provides all the services, whereas in private sector ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hand of private individual or companies.
(b) In the public sector ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hand of private individual or companies, whereas in the private sector government owns most of the assets and provides all the services.
(c) In the public sector government owns minimum assets and provides limited sendees, whereas in the private sector assets and delivery of services is the responsibility of private companies only.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) In the public sector government owns most of the assets and provides all the services, whereas in private sector ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hand of private individual or companies.

Question 15.
Suggest the way to create employment in rural areas from the options given below:
(a) Launching projects like irrigation facilities
(b) Building dams and developing infrastructural projects
(c) By opening services like cooperatives or banks
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 16.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Demand deposits offer an interesting facility of cheque.
Reason (R): Modern forms of money includes gold and silver coins.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Section-B

Question 17.
Give a brief description of Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha Movements which he organised in various places after arriving in India from South Africa.
Answer:
After arriving in India, Mahatma Gandhi organised several Satyagraha movements in various places:

• Champaran:
  In 1917, he travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the exploitative plantation system.
• Kheda:
  In 1917, he organised a Satyagraha Movement in support of the Kheda peasants in Gujarat. These peasants were very much worried due to crop failure and a plague epidemic. Since they could not pay the revenue, they demanded relaxation in revenue collection.
• Ahmedabad:
  In 1918, he went to Ahmedabad to organise Satyagraha movement among the workers of cotton mills.

Question 18.
Though conservative forces were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848, they could not restore the old order. How?
Or
“The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial workers in its programme of struggle.” Analyse the reasons.
Answer:

• Monarchs now began to realise that the cycles of revolution and repression would only be ended by granting concessions to the liberal-nationalist revolutionaries.
• Therefore, in the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
• Thus, the systems of serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in the Habsburg dominions and in Russia.
• The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867.

Or
The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial workers in its programme of struggle because:

• The industrial working classes did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in large numbers, except in the Nagpur region.
• As the industrialists came closer to the Congress, workers stayed aloof.
• The Congress felt that by including workers’ demands as part of its programme of struggle it would alienate industrialists and divide the anti-imperial forces.

Question 19.
“Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development of the country.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:

• The pace of development of country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over space. Therefore, efficient means of transport are pre-requisite for national development.
• Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport system.
• The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of our economy with the help of dense and efficient network of transport in the country.
• It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.

Question 20.
Describe any three features of ‘federal government’.
Or
Describe any three features of ‘unitary government’.
Answer:
Feature of Federal Government:

• Sharing of powers two or more levels of government
• Each government has its own jurisdiction
• Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of government.
• Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
• The fundamental provisions of the Constitution can be changed with the consent of both, (vz) It has dual objectives to safeguard and promote unity of the country.
  (Any three)

Or
Features of Unitary Government:

• Only one level of Government or the sub-units are subordinate to Central Government.
• The Central Government can pass an order to provincial or the local government
• State government has power of its own for which it is not answerable to the Central government.
• Both these governments are separately answerable to the people.
  (Any three)

Question 21.
“Tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.”
Evaluate the statement.
Answer:
The tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors because, these activities do not produce goods but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops.

At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. We also may need to talk to others over telephone or send letters or borrow money from banks to help production and trade. Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade are some of the examples of tertiary activities.

Question 22.
“Primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of development.” Evaluate the statement.
Answer:
As the methods of farming changed and agriculture sector began to prosper, it produced much more food than before. Many people could now take up other activities. There were increasing number of craftpersons and traders. Buying and selling activities increased many times. Beside, there were also transporters, administrators, army, etc. However, at this stage, most of the goods produced were natural products from the primary sector and most people were also employmed in this sector.

But overtime and especially because new methods of manufacturing were introduced, factories came up and started expanding. In past 100 years, there has been a further shift from secondary to tertiary sector.

Therefore, we can say that primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of development.

Section-C

Question 23.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (4 × 1 = 4)

The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans. felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power-something that usually only Brahmans had access to.

The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs. 102 crore toRs. 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 23.1.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the role of ‘Justice Party’ in boycotting of council elections?
(a) Justice Party felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power.
(b) Justice Party of Madras was not boycotted the council elections.
(c) The Party wanted power that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 23.2.
Identify how was the effects of ‘Non-Cooperation on the economic front’ dramatic from the following options:
(a) Foreign goods were boycotted.
(b) Liquor shops were picketed.
(c) Foreign cloths were burnt in huge bonfires
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 23.3.
Which among the following is/are the effect of Boycott movement on foreign textile trade? Select the appropriate option.
(a) The import of foreign cloth halved.
(b) Merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
(c) Indian textile mills and handloom went up.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 23.4.
Identify the form of demonstration by which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office from the given options:
(a) Satyagraha
(h) Block Movement
(c) Picket
(d) Guerrilla Movement
Answer:
(c) Picket

Question 24.
Read the text given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Different persons can have different developmental goals and what may be development for one may not be development for the other. It may even be destructive for the other. Besides seeking more income, one-way or the other, people also seek, things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent discrimination. All these are important goals. In fact, in some cases, these may be more important than more income or more consumption because material goods are not all that you need to live.

Money, or material things one can busy with it, it one factor on which our live depends. But the quality of our life also depends on non-material things mentioned above. If it is not obvious to you, then just think of the role of your friends in your life. You may desire their friendship. Similarly, there are many things that are not easily measured but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored.

However, it will be wrong to conclude that what cannot be measured is not important. Consider another example. If you get a job in a far off place, before accepting it you would try to consider many factors, apart from income, such as facilities for your family, working atmosphere, or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and freedom.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 24.1.
Economic development applies to the ……………… development of a country where the people earn ……………… income and can satisfy all their needs.
(a) social; higher
(b) social; lower
(c) all round; higher
(d) political; average
Answer:
(c) all round; higher

Question 24.2.
Different people have different goals or aspirations. Identify which development goals/ aspirations the following people belong to:

Choose the correct option.
(a) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(b) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
(c) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(d) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
Answer:
(a) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4

Question 24.3.
Besides seeking more income what do people want?
(a) Security
(b) Freedom
(c) Equal treatment
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 24.4.
Which of the following is not an important goal of people’s life?
(a) Good education
(b) Blood donation
(c) High salaried job
(d) Facilities for going abroad
Answer:
(b) Blood donation

Question 25.
Read the extract and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two kinds of political parties: parties that are present in only one of the federal units and parties that are present in several or all units of the federation. This is the case in India as well. There are some countrywide parties, which are called ‘national parties’. These parties have their units in various states. But by and large, all these units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level. Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission.

While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol only the official candidates of that party can use that election symbol. Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities are ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That is why these parties are called, ‘recognised political parties’. The Election Commission has laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and seats that a party must get in order to be a recognised party.

A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognised as a State party. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 25.1.
The most visible pillar of democracy is
(a) Adult Franchise
(b) Seats reservation
(c) Elections
(d) Political Parties
Answer:
(c) Elections

Question 25.2.
What do you know about Federal System?
(a) It is a system of government under which the power is divided between a central authority and its various constituent units.
(b) The various constituent units and the central authority run their administrative independently.
(c) These units and central authority do not interfere in the affairs of one another unnecessarily.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 25.3.
The Party that secure at least …………………..percent the total votes in the Lok Sabha elections or Assemly elections in four states and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party.
(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer:
(b) Six

Question 25.4.
Who issues a Model Code of Conduct for political parties?
(a) The Judiciary
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Press
(d) The Election Commission
Answer:
(d) The Election Commission

Question 26.
Read the extract given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Globalisation and greater competition among producers-both local and foreign producers- has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 26.1.
It creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. What does it refer to?
(a) Technology
(b) Investments
(c) Globalisation
(d) Trade Barriers
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 26.2.
How is globalisation beneficial for consumers?
(a) Greater choice before the consumers and improved quality
(b) Lower prices for several products
(c) People enjoying higher standards of living than was possible earlier
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 26.3.
The negative impact of globalisation-
(a) Availability of variety of products led to higher standard of living.
(b) Rising competition has led to shutting down of many units.
(c) It has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs.
(d) It increases foreign direct investment.
Answer:
(b) Rising competition has led to shutting down of many units.

Question 26.4.
Factors that helped in the process of globalisation are-
(a) Information and technology
(b) Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Creating barriers and other restrictions
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Section-D

Question 27.
How did ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe allied to the ideology of liberalism? Explain.
Or
How did Greek war of independence moblilise nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe? Explain.
Answer:
Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. For the new middle classes liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law.

Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism had stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through parliament. Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.

Yet, equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage. However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands.

Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal political rights.
In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state- imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the nineteenth century this was a strong demand of the emerging middle classes.

Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to economic exchange and growth by the new commercial classes, who argued for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital. In 1834, a customs union or zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states.

The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two. The creation of a network of railways further stimulated mobility, harnessing economic interests to national unification. A wave of economic nationalism strengthened the wider nationalist sentiments growing at the time.
Or
Answer:
Greek war of independence mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe through:

• Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century.
• The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1821.
• Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from many West Europeans who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture.
• Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim empire.
• The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824.
• Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

Question 28.
State any five features of plantation farming.
OR
Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of rice.
Answer:

• It is a type of commercial farming.
• It is single crop farming practised on a large area.
• Crops are mainly grown for the market.
• It is both labour intensive and capital intensive.
• It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
• All the products are used as raw material in respective industries.
• Examples of plantation crops are tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane and banana.

Or

• Rice is a Kharif crop which requires high temperature above 25°C.
• It requires high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm.
• In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.
• It is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India coastal areas and the deltaic regions where fertile alluvial soil is available.
• Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tubewells have made it possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall in Punjab and Haryana.

Question 29.
Describe the role of political parties in modem democracy.
Answer:
In a modem democracy political parties performed the following major functions:
(i) In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties. Parties select their candidates in different ways. In India top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.

(ii) Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them. In a democracy, a large number of similar opinions have to be grouped together to provide a direction in which policies can be formulated by the governments. A government is expected to base its policies on the line taken by the ruling party.

(iii) Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally laws are debated and passed in the legislature. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinions.

(iv) Parties form and run governments. Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them ministers to run the government in the way they want.

(v) Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the parties in power by voicing different views and criticising government for its failure or wrong policies.

(vi) Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues. Parties sometimes also launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people. Often opinions in the society crystallise on the lines parties take.

(vii) Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by governments.

Question 30.
“Democracy plays an important role to accommodate social diversity.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
(i) No society can fully or permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences. Democracy is best suited to produce this outcome. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.

(ii) Democracy continues to be democracy as long as all citizens have a chance to be part of majority at any point of time. If someone is debarred from being part of majority on the basis of birth then democracy is said to be concentrated in the hands of a few people.

(iii) It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply a rule by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that government can function to represent the opinion of common people.

(iv) The rule of majority should not be ruled by majority on the basis of religion or race or linguistic group, etc. Rule by majority means that in case of every decision or in case of very election, different persons and groups may form a majority.
Thus, through the above points, can say that the democracy plays an important role to accommodate social diversity.

Question 31.
“Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country.” Support the statement with examples.
Oo
“Credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
Banks play an important role in developing the economy of India:

• They keep money of the people in its safe custody.
• They give interest on the deposited money to the people.
• They mediate between those who have surplus money and those who are in need of money.
• They provide loan to large number of people at low interest rate.
• They promote agricultural and industrial sector by providing loans.
• They also provide funds to different organisations.

Or
In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for crop production. Crop production involves considerable costs on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity, repair of equipment, etc. There is a minimum stretch of three to four months between the time when the farmers buy these inputs and when they sell the crop. Farmers usually take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after harvest. Repayment of the loan is crucialy dependent on the income from farming.

If the failure of the crop made loan repayment impossible, then farmers had to sell part of the land to repay the loan. Credit, instead of helping those farmers to improve their earnings, left them worse off and they came into the debt trap. In this case, credit pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.

In one situation credit helps to increase earnings and, therefore, the person/farmer is better off than before. In another situation, because of the crop failture, credit pushes the person into debt trap. To repay the loan farmers have to sell a portion of their land. They are now clearly much worse off than before. Whether credit would be useful or not, therefore, depends on the risks in the situation and whether there is some support in case of loss.

Thus, through the above situation or example, we can easily say that credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.

Section-E

Map Skill Based Question

Question 32.1
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
(B) The place where the movement of Indigo planters was started.

Question 32.2
On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols.
(a) Sardar Sarovar Dam
(b) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant
(c) Pune Software Technology Park
(d) Kochi Sea Port
(e) Indore Cotton Textile Industry

Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 3 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two parts, A and B.
2. Both Part A and Part B have internal choices.

Part-A:
1. It consists of two sections, I and II.
2. Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
3. Section II has 4 questions on case study. Each case study has 5 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 4 out of 5 sub-parts.

Part-B:
1. It consists of three sections III, IV and V.
2. In section III, Question Nos. 21 to 26 are Very Short Answer Type questions of 2 marks each.
3. In section IV, Question Nos. 27 to 33 are Short Answer Type questions of 3 marks each.
4. In section V, Question Nos. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Type questions of 5 marks each.
5. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part – A
Section-I

Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.

Question 1.
Express 225 as the product of prime numbers.
Solution :

225 = 3 x 3 x 5 x 5
= 3² x 5²

Question 2.
The sum and product of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial are 3 and -10 respectively. The quadratic polynomial is Solution :
Let the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial be a and p.
Then  α + β = 3 and αβ =-10
So, required polynomial
p(x) = x² – (a + p)x + ap = x² – 3x – 10

Question 3.
HCF of 144 and 198 is 18, find the LCM of 144 and 198.
OR
Explain why 3 x 5 x 7 + 7 is a composite number.
Solution :
Let a = 144 and b = 198
Then a x b = HCF x LCM
⇒ 144 x 198= 18 x LCM

OR
3 x 5 x 7 + 7= (15 + 1) x 7
= 16 x 7 = 112 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 7
= Product of prime factors
Hence, it is a composite number.

Question 4.
If the equations kx – 2y = 3 and 3x + y = 5 represent two intersecting lines at unique point, then find the value of k
Solution :
Lines kx -2y = 3 and 3x + y = 5 intersect at unique point.
\(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}} \neq \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}} \Rightarrow \frac{k}{3} \neq \frac{-2}{1} \Rightarrow k \neq-6\)
∴ k has any real value except 6.

Question 5.
The decimal expansion of the rational number of \(\frac{43}{2^{4} 5^{3}}\) will terminate after how many places
Solution :
Here we have a rational number of the form \(\frac{p}{q}\) and the prime factorisation of q is of the form 2ⁿ5^m,
Now, \(\frac{43}{2^{4} 5^{3}}=\frac{43 \times 5}{2^{4} 5^{4}}=\frac{215}{10^{4}}=0.0215\)
where n, m are non-negative integers, so decimal expansion of given rational number terminates.

Question 6.
The radius of a circle is 5 cm. Find the radius of the circle whose area is 49 times the area of the given circle.
OR
What is the angle subtended at the centre of a circle of radius 6 cm by an arc of length 6k cm.
Solution :
Area of the given circle = πr² = 25π sq. cm.
Area of other circle = 49 x 25π sq. cm.
Let radius of this circle be R.
Then  πR² = 49 x 25π
⇒ R² = 7² × 5² = R = 7 x 5 = 35 cm.
OR
Here l = 6π, r = 6 cm, θ = ?
∵ \(l=\frac{\pi r \theta}{180^{\circ}} \Rightarrow 6 \pi=\frac{\pi \times 6 \times \theta}{180^{\circ}}\)
∴ θ = 180°

Question 7.
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point 15 metres away from the base is 30°. Find the height of the tower
OR
Find the angle of depression from the top of 12 m tall tower of an object lying at a point 12 m away from the base of the tower.
Solution :
Let AB be the tower and C the point 15 m away from the base of the tower.

OR
Let AB be the tower of 12 m height and B its base. Let C be a point 12 m away from base B of tower AB where an object is situated.


tan θ = 1
tan θ = tan 45° ⇒ θ = 45°
Thus, angle of depression = ∠EAC = ∠ACB = 45°

Question 8.
The areas of two circles are in the ratio 9 : 4, then what is the ratio of their circumferences?
Solution :

Question 9.
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is 30°. If the height of the tower is 20 m, find the distance of the point from the foot of the tower.
Solution :

Question 10.
A road which is 7 m wide surrounds a circular park whose circumference is 88 m. Find the radius of the park.
Solution :

Question 11.
The median and mode respectively of a frequency distribution are 26 and 29. Then find its mean
Solution :
Median = 26
and Mode = 29
We know that 3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean
⇒ 3 x 26 = 29 + 2 Mean
⇒ 2 Mean = 78 – 29 = 49
Mean = 24.5

Question 12.
To divide line segment AB in the ratio m : n, we draw a ray AX so that ∠BAX is an acute angle and then mark points on ray AX at equal distance. What is the minimum number of these points on AX?
Solution :
m + n.

Question 13.
Find the value of k for which the given system has unique solution. 2x + 3y – 5 = 0, kx – 6y – 8 = 0
OR
If the pair of equations x sin 9 + y cos 0 = 1 and x + y = a/2 has infinitely many solutions, then what is the value of 0?
Solution :
For unique solution:

Question 14.
Find the probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1,2,3, of 4
OR
If a pair of dice is thrown once, then what is the probability of getting a sum of 8?
Solution :
Number of outcomes = 15 (i.e., 1, 2,…, 15)
Number of favourable outcomes = 3 (i.e., 4, 8, 12)
P(multiples of 4) \(\frac{3}{15}=\frac{1}{5}\)
OR
Number of outcomes = 36
Favourable outcomes = (2, 6), (3, 5), (4, 4), (5, 3) and (6, 2)
Number of favourable outcomes = 5
P(getting a sum of 8) \(=\frac{5}{36}\)

Question 15.
Find the angle of depression from the top of 12 m high tower of an object lying at a point 12 m away from the base of the tower.
Solution :
Let AB be the tower and C the point 12 m away from the base of the tower.

Question 16.
Two different dice are thrown together, find the probability that the sum of the numbers appeared is less than 5. 1
Solution :
Number of outcomes = 36
Favourable outcomes = (1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (2, 1), (2, 2), (3, 1)
Number of favourable outcomes = 6
\(\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{sum}<5)=\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)

Section – II

Case study-based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
Case Study Based-I

Question 17.
Students of class X^th standard managed to visit Qutub Minar on an educational trip. Their teacher narrated the facts of Qutub Minar.

The teacher said that the monument is made of red sandstone and marble. with a 73-meters tall tapering tower of five stories with 14.3 metres base diametre. The students also saw iron pillar of Ashoka.

(i) What is the angle of elevation if they were standing at a distance of 73 metres away from the minar?
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°

(ii) They want to see the tower at an angle of 60°. So, they want to know the distance where they should stand and hence find the distance.
(a) 30 m
(b) 35 m
(c) 42.14 m
(d) 45 m

(iii) Considering that the iron pillar is 3.5 metres tall and a radius of 14 cm.  What is the volume of cylindrical portion of the pillar?
(a) 205600 cu. cm
(b) 15560 cu.cm
(c) 244200 cu. cm
(d) 215600 cu.cm

(iv) Write the formula to find the curve surface of the cylindrical portion of the pillar.
(a) 2πrh
(b) πrh
(c) πr²h
(d) 2πr(r + h)

(v) What is the curved surface area of the pillar if it has its radius 14 cm and height 3.5 m?
(a) 20800 sq. cm
(b) 24600 sq. cm
(c) 35600 sq. cm
(d) 30800 sq. cm
Solution :

(iv) (a): Curved surface area of a cylinder = 2itrh
(y) (d): Curved surface area = 2πrh
Here r = 14cm and h = 3.5m = 3.5 x 100cm 350 cm

Case Study Based-2

Question 18.
To conduct sports day activities, in your rectangular-shaped school ground ABCD, lines have been drawn with chalk powder at a distance of 1 m each. 100 flower pots have been placed at a distance of 1 m from each other along AD, as shown in figure. Niharika runs \(\frac{1}{4} \mathrm{th}\) the distance AD on the 2nd line and posts a green flag. Preet runs \(\frac{1}{5} th \) the distance AD on the eighth line and posts a red flag. Rashmi is in between these two girls with blue flag.

(i) Coordinates of Niharika are ……………
(a) (2,25)
(b) (25,2)
(c) (-2,25)
(d) (-25,2)

(ii) Coordinates of Preet are …………..
(a) (20, 8)
(b) (8, 20)
(c) (-20, 8)
(d) (-8, 20)

(iii) What is the distance between two flags?
(a) \(\sqrt{68}\)
(b)  \(\sqrt{71}\)
(c)  \(\sqrt{61}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{52}\)

(iv) Position of Rashmi’s flag is …………..
(a) (2,22.5)
(b) (22.5,2)
(c) (-2,22.5)
(d) (-22.5,2)

(v) If each flower pot costs ₹ 50. How much they have to pay for 100 pots?
(a) ₹  2000
(b) ₹  5000
(c) ₹ 3000
(d) ₹ 6000
Solution :
(i)  (a):(2,25)
Niharika runs \(\frac{1}{4} \text { th }\) the distance AD on 2nd line = \(\frac{1}{4} \text { th }\) x 100 = 25 4
So, coordinates of Niharika are (2, 25).

(ii) (b): (8, 20)
Preet runs \(\frac{1}{5} \text { th }\)distance AD on 8th line = \(\frac{1}{5} \text { th }\) x 100 = 20.
So Preet’s coordinate = (8,20).

(iii) (c):√61
Distance between two flags

(v) (b): ₹ 5000.
Cost of one pot = ₹ 50
Cost of 100 pots = 100 x ₹ 50 = ₹ 5000

Case Study Based-3

Question 19.
A student of class X standard finds in a circular table cover with radius 32 cm, a design which is formed leaving an equilateral triangle ABC in the middle as shown in the figure. Some questions arises in his mind which he shares with you. Help him to solve these questions.

(i) What is the area of the circular table?
(a) \(\frac{22528}{7} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{20528}{7} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{22028}{7} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{28022}{7} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\)

(ii) What is the measure of angle subtended by each side of the equilateral triangle at the centre of the circle?
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 120°
(d) 90°

(iii) Each side of the equilateral triangle is:
(a) \(64 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}\)
(b) \(8 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}\)
(c) \(16 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}\)
(d) \(32 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}\)

(iv) What is the area of equilateral triangle?
(a) \(700 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\)
(b) \(768 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\)
(c) \(678 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\)
(d) \(876 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\)

(v) What is the area of the design?
(a) 1888 cm²
(b) 1688 cm²
(c) 1988 cm²
(d) 1588 cm²
Solution :

Case Study Based-4

Question 20.
A child was playing with a rope. He laid the rope on two straight lines which were perpendicular to each other. He marked the horizontal line from -3 to 3 and vertical line from -2 to 2. The rope forms some mathematical shape which can be answered below:

(i) What is the name of the shape from A, B to C?
(a) parabola
(b) linear
(c) elliptical
(d) spiral

(ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomical (shape of the rope)?
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4

(iii) The zeroes of the polynomial are
(a) 3,-1,2
(b) -3, -1,1
(c) 3, 1,-2
(d) -3, 2, -2

(iv) What will be the expression of the polynomial?
(a) x³ + 3x¹ – x – 3
(b) x² – 3x² + x + 3
(c) x³ + 3x² + x + 3
(d) x³ + 3x² + x – 3

(v) What is the degree of the polynomial so formed?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0
Solution :
(i) (a): parabola
(ii) (a) : The graph of the polynomial intersects the x-axis at three points.
So, the number of zeroes of the polynomial is 3.
(iii)
(b): -3,-1, 1
(a): x³ + 3x² -x- 3
(c): 3

Section-III
Part-B

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone.

Question 21.
If the point C(k, 4) divides the line segment joining two points A(2, 6) and B(5, 1) in ratio 2:3, what is the value of k
OR
What is the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining (4, 3) and (-2, -1)?
Solution :
C(k, 4) divides the line segment joining two points A(2, 6) and B(5, 1) in ratio 2:3

Let the points (4, 3) and (-2, -1) be denoted by A and B respectively.

Let M be the mid-point of AB. Coordinates of M are \(\left(\frac{4+(-2)}{2}, \frac{3+(-1)}{2}\right), \text { i.e. }(1,1)\)
Thus, the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining (4, 3) and (-2, -1) are (1,1).

Question 22.
In an obtuse AABC (ZB is obtuse), AD is perpendicular to CB produced. Then prove that AC² = AB² + BC² + 2BC x BD.
Solution :

Given: A AABC in which ZB is obtuse and AD ⊥ BC.
To prove: AC² = AB² + BC² + 2BC x BD
Proof: In Δ ADC,
AC² = AD² + DC² [Pythagoras Theorem]
AC² = AD² + (DB + BC)²
AC² = AD² + DB² + BC² + 2DB x BC
AC² = AB² + BC² + 2DB x BC   [AD² + DB² = AB²]

Question 23.
In the given figure, a circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm and CD = 4 cm. Find AD.

Solution :

Given: Circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD.
Also , AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm and CD = 4 cm
Here AP = AS [Tangents from same external point]
Let AP = AS = x
Similarly BP = BQ, CQ = CR, RD = DS
Since AP = x
⇒ BP= AB – AP = 6-x
Now, BP = BQ = 6- x
CQ = BC – BQ = 7 – (6 – x) = 1 +x
Now CQ = CR = 1 +x
RD = CD – CR = 4- (1+x) = 3- x
Now RD = DS = 3 – x = SD
AD = AS + SD
= x + 3 – x = 3
AD = 3 cm

Question 24.
Draw a circle of radius 4 cm. From a point 7 cm away from the centre of circle. Construct a pair of tangents to the circle.
Solution :

Steps of construction:
1. Taking radius of 4 cm, draw a circle with centre O.
2. Draw a line segment OP = 7 cm.
3. Draw XY, the perpendicular bisector of OP. Let it intersects OP at M.
4. With M as centre and radius equal to MO or MP, draw a circle. Let it intersects the given circle at points Q and R.
5. Join PQ and PR.

Question 25.
Prove that prove that \(\sqrt{\frac{1-\sin \theta}{1+\sin \theta}}=\sec \theta-\tan \theta\)
OR
Prove that \(\frac{\tan ^{2} \theta}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}+\frac{\cot ^{2} \theta}{1+\cot ^{2} \theta}=1\)
Sol.

Question 26.
If 4 times the 4th term of an AP is equal to 18 times the 18th term, then find the 22nd term.
Solution :
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the AP.
Then its, 4th term = a + 3d
and its 18th term = a + 17d
We have
4(a + 3d) = 18(a+ 17d)
⇒ 4 a+ 12 d= 18a + 306d
⇒ 18a- 4a = 12d – 306d
⇒  14a = -294d
⇒ 14a + 294d= 0
⇒ 14(a + 21d) = 0
⇒ a + 21d= 0
⇒ a + (22 – 1)d = 0
So, 22nd term of AP = 0

Section-IV

Question 27.
Given that √3 is an irrational number, show that (5 + 2√3) is an irrational number.
Solution :
Suppose 5 + 2√3 is a rational number.

Here \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{p}{q}-5\right)\) is rational number but √3 is an irrational number (given). This contradicts our assumption.
So, 5 + 2√3is an irrational number.

Question 28.
A right triangle ABC, right angled at A, is circumscribing a circle. If AB = 6 cm and BC = 10 cm, find the radius of the circle.
Solution :

Question 29.
Solve graphically: 2x + 3y = 2, x – 2y = 8
Solution :
We have
1x + 3y = 2
⇒ 3y= 2 – 2x
⇒ \(y=\frac{2-2 x}{3}\)

Tables of values

Plotting the value of above table and joining them by a straight line, we get a graph of 2x + 3y = 2.
Also, x – 2y = 8 ⇒ 2y = x – 8 ⇒ \(y=\frac{x-8}{2}\)

Table of values

Plotting the values of above tables and joining them by a straight line, we get a graph of x – 2y = 8.

The two graph lines intersect at (4, -2)
x = 4 and y= -2 are the solutions of the given system of equations.

Question 30.
A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball at random from the bag is three times that of a red ball, find the number of blue balls in the bag.
OR
Find the probability that 5 Sundays occur in the month of November of a randomly selected year.
Solution :
Let the number of blue balls in the bag = x.

OR
We know that November has 30 days, which means 4 weeks and 2 days.
Now, 4 weeks will contain 4 Sundays.
The remaining 2 days may be (Sunday, Monday), (Monday, Tuesday), (Tuesday, Wednesday), (Wednesday, Thursday), (Thursday, Friday), (Friday, Saturday) and (Saturday, Sunday).
Total number of possible outcomes = 7 Number of favourable outcomes = 2
∴ P(5 Sundays) = \(\frac{2}{7}\)

Question 31.
The rainwater from a roof 22 m x 20 m drains into a cylindrical vessel having diameter of base 2 m and height 3.5 m.
If the vessel is just full, find the rainfall in cm.
Solution :
Let L be the length and B the breadth of the roof.
Then, L = 22 m and B = 20 m. Let the rainfall in metres be x.
Then, the volume of rainwater drained from the roof into the cylindrical vessel
= LB x = 22 x 20 x x m³  ………… (i)
Let, r be the radius and h the height of the cylindrical vessel.
Then,
r= \(\frac{2}{2}m \)= 1 m and h = 3.5 m
The volume of the cylindrical vessel

Question 32.
Prove that

Solution :

Question 33.
The difference of two natural numbers is 5 and the difference of their reciprocals is \(\frac{1}{10}\). Find the numbers.
OR
Find two consecutive odd natural numbers the sum of whose squares is 394.
Solution :
Let the smaller natural number be x.
Then greater natural number = x + 5

Natural number cannot be negative.
So, x = 5 So, smaller number = 5 and
greater number = 10
OR
Let first odd natural number be (2x -1) then other consecutive odd natural number be (2x+ 1)

Section-V

Question 34.
A girl of height 90 cm is walking away from the base of a lamp-post at a speed of 1.2 m/s. If the lamp is 3.6 m above the ground, find the length of her shadow after 4 seconds.
OR
In the given figure, ABC is a triangle in which AB = AC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively, such that AD = AE. Show that the points B, C, E and D are concylic.

Solution :
Let AB be the lamp-post and CD be the girl after walking for 4 seconds away from the lamp-post. DE is the shadow of the girl.
Let DE = x cm.
BD = Distance covered by girl in 4 seconds = 1.2 x 4 = 4.8 m

Question 35.
Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x² + lx + 10, and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
Solution :
We have,
p(x) = x² + 1x + 10
⇒ p(x) = x² + 5x + 2x + 10
⇒ x(x + 5) + 2(x + 5)
⇒ (x + 5) (x + 2)

Question 36.
Find the mean of the following data:

Solution :

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic with Solutions and marking scheme Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two parts, A and B.
2. Both Part A and Part B have internal choices.

Part-A:
1. It consists of two sections, I and II.
2. Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
3. Section II has 4 questions on case study. Each case study has 5 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 4 out of 5 sub-parts.

Part-B:
1. It consists of three sections III, IV and V.
2. In section III, Question Nos. 21 to 26 are Very Short Answer Type questions of 2 marks each.
3. In section IV, Question Nos. 27 to 33 are Short Answer Type questions of 3 marks each.
4. In section V, Question Nos. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Type questions of 5 marks each.
5. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part – A
Section-I

Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.

Question 1.
Express 156 as the product of primes.
Solution :
156 = 2² × 3 × 13

Question 2.
Write a quadratic polynomial, sum of whose zeroes is 2 and product is -8.
Solution :
Quadratic polynomial is given by x² – (α + β)x + αβ = x² – 2x – 8

Question 3.
Given that HCF (96, 404) is 4, find the LCM ( 96, 404).
OR
State the fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic.
Solution :
\(\mathrm{LCM}(96,404)=\frac{96 \times 404}{\mathrm{HCF}(96,404)}=\frac{96 \times 404}{4}=9696\)
OR
Every composite number can be expressed (factorized) as a product of primes, factorization is unique, apart from the order in which the factors occur.

Question 4.
On comparing the ratios of the coefficients, find out whether the pair of equations x-2y = 0 and 3x + 4y – 20 = 0 is consistent or inconsistent.
Solution :
x – 2y = 0
3x + 4y – 20 = 0
\(\frac{1}{3} \neq \frac{-2}{4}\)
As, \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}} \neq \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\) is one condition for consistency.
Therefore, the pair of equations is consistent.

Question 5.
If a and b are co-prime numbers, then find the HCF (a, b).
Solution :
1

Question 6.
Find the area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm if angle of the sector is 60°. (Take π = 22/7).
OR
A horse is tied to a pole with 28 m long rope. Find the perimeter of the field where the horse can graze.
(Take π = 22/7)
Solution :

Question 7.
In the given fig. DE || BC, ∠ADE = 70° and ∠BAC = 50°, then angle ∠BCA = ……..

OR
In the given figure, AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm, AE = 3.5 cm and AC = 7 cm. Is DE parallel to BC?

Solution :

Question 8.
The cost of fencing a circular field at the rate of ₹ 24 per metre is ₹ 5280. Find the radius of the field.
Solution :

Question 9.
A tree breaks due to storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches the ground where it makes an angle 30°. The distance between the foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 8 m. Find the height of the tree from where it is broken.
Solution :

Question 10.
If the perimeter and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then find the radius of the circle.
Solution :
Perimeter of circle = Area of circle
⇒ 2nr = nr²
⇒ r = 2 units

Question 11.
Write the empirical relationship among mean, median and mode.
Solution :
3 median = mode + 2 mean

Question 12.
To divide a line segment BC internally in the ratio 3 : 5, we draw a ray BX such that ZCBX is an acute angle. What will be the minimum number of points to be located at equal distances, on ray BX?
Solution :
8

Question 13.
For what values of p does the pair of equations 4x + py +8 =0 and 2x +2y +2 =0 has unique solution?
OR
What type of straight lines will be represented by the system of equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + 6y = 7?
Solution :
\(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}} \neq \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\)  is the condition for the given pair of equations to have a unique solution.
\(\Rightarrow \frac{4}{2} \neq \frac{p}{2}\)
⇒ P ≠ 4
Therefore, for all real values of p except 4, the given pair of equations will have a unique solution.

Question 14.
A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is red?
OR
A die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting a prime number?
Solution :
No. of red balls = 3, No. black balls = 5
Total number of balls = 5 + 3 = 8
Probability of red balls \(=\frac{3}{8}\)
OR
Total no. of possible outcomes = 6
There are 3 prime numbers: 2, 3, 5.
So, probability of getting a prime number \(=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 15.
A tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point on the ground, which is 15m away from the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be 60°. Find the height of the tower.
Solution :

Question 16.
Probability of an event E + probability of the event E (not E) is,
Solution :
1

Section-II

Case study-based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

Case Study Based-1

Question 17.

Mathematics teacher of a school took her 10th standard students to show Red fort. It was a part of their Educational trip. The teacher had interest in history as well. She narrated the facts of Red fort to students. Then the teacher said in this monument one can find combination of solid figures. There are 2 pillars which are cylindrical in shape. Also 2 domes at the comers which are hemispherical.7 smaller domes are at the centre. Flag hoisting ceremony on Independence Day takes place near these domes.

(i) How much cloth material will be required to cover 2 big domes each of radius 2.5 metres? (Take n = 22/7)
(a) 75 m²
(b) 78.57 m²
(c) 87.47 m²
(d) 25.8 m²

(ii) Write the formula to find the volume of a cylindrical pillar.
(a) nrh
(b) nr!
(c) nr(l + r)
(d) 2nr

(iii) Find the lateral surface area of two pillars if height of the pillar is 7m and radius of the base is 1.4 m. 1
(a) 112.3 cm²
(b) 123.2 m²
(c) 90 m²
(d) 345.2 cm²

(iv) How much is the volume of a hemisphere if the radius of the base is 3.5 m?
(a) 85.9 m³
(b) 80 m³
(c) 98 m³
(d) 89.83 m³

(v) What is the ratio of sum of volumes of two hemispheres of radius 1 cm each to the volume of a sphere of radius 2 cm?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1:8
(c) 8 : 1
(d) 1 : 16
Solution :

Case Study Based-2

Question 18.
Class X students of a secondary school in Krishnagar have been allotted a rectangular plot of a land for gardening activity. Saplings of Gulmohar are planted on the boundary at a distance of lm from each other. There is a triangular grassy lawn in the plot as shown in the figure. The students are to sow seeds of flowering plants on the remaining area of the plot.

Considering A as origin, answer question (i) to (v).

(i) Considering A as the origin, what are the coordinates of A?
(a) (0,1)
(b) (1,0)
(c) (0,0)
(d) (-1,-1)
Solution :
(c) (0,0)

(ii) What are the coordinates of P?
(a) (4, 6)
(b) (6, 4)
(c) (6,0)
(d) (7,4)
Solution :
(a) (4, 6)

(iii) What are the coordinates of R?
(a) (6, 5)
(b) (5, 6)
(c) (0, 16)
(d) (16, 1)
Solution :
(a) (6, 5)

(iv) What are the coordinates of D?
(a) (12,2)
(b) (-12, 6)
(c) (12, 3)
(d) (6, 10)
Solution :
(a) (12,2)

(v) What are the coordinates of P if D is taken as the origin?
(a) (12,2)
(b) (-12,6)
(c) (12,3)
(d) (6, 10)
Solution :
(b) (-12,6)

Case Study Based-3

Question 19.
Rahul is studying in X Standard. He is making a kite to fly it on a Sunday. Few questions came to his mind while making the kite. Give answers to his questions by looking at the figure.

(i) Rahul tied the sticks at what angles to each other?
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 60°
Solution :
(c) 90°

(ii) Which is the correct similarity criteria applicable for smaller triangles at the upper part of this kite?
(a) RHS
(b) SAS
(c)  SSA
(d) AAS
Solution :
(b) SAS

(iii) Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4:9. Corresponding medians of these triangles are in the ratio
(a) 2:3
(b) 4:9
(c) 81:16
(d) 16:81
Solution :
(b) 4:9

(iv) In a triangle, if the square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then the angle opposite to the first side is a right angle. This theorem is called as,
(a) Pythagoras theorem
(b) Thales theorem
(c) Converse of Thales theorem
(d) Converse of Pythagoras theorem
Solution :
(d) Converse of Pythagoras theorem

(v) What is the area of the kite, formed by two perpendicular sticks of length 6 cm and 8 cm?
(a) 48 cm²
(b) 14 cm³
(c) 24 cm²
(d)  96 cm²
Solition :
(a) 48 cm²

Case Study Based-4

Question 20.
Due to heavy storm, an electric wire got bent as shown in the figure. It followed a mathematical shape. Answer the following questions below:

(i) Name the shape in which the wire is bent.
(a) spiral
(b) ellipse
(c) linear
(d) parabola
Solution :
(d) parabola

(ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial (shape of the wire).
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 0
Solution :
(a) 2

(iii) The zeroes of the polynomial are
(a) -1,5
(b) -1,3
(c) 3,5
(d) -4,2
Solution :
(b) -1,3

(iv) What will be the expression of the polynomial?
(a) x² + 2x – 3
(b) x² – 2x + 3
(c) x² – 2x – 3
(d) x² + 2x + 3
Solution :
(c) x² – 2x – 3

(v) What is the value of the polynomial if x =-1?
(a) 6
(b) -18
(c) 18
(d) 0
Solution :
(d) 0

Part-B
Section-III

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone.

Question 21.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (4, -3) and (8, 5) in the ratio 3 : 1 internally.
OR
Find a relation between x andy such that the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (7, 1) and (3, 5).
Solution :

OR
Let P(x,y) be equidistant from the points A(7, 1) and B(3, 5)
Give AP = BP. So. AP² = BP²
(x—7)²+(y— 1)2= (x—3)2+(v—5)2
x² — 14x+49+y²—2y+ I = x²—6x+9+y²— 10y+25
x – y= 2

Question 22.
In the fig. if LM || CB and LN || CD, prove that \(\frac{\mathrm{AM}}{\mathrm{MB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AN}}{\mathrm{ND}}\)

Solution :

Question 23.
A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = AD + BC.

Solution :
To prove: AB + CD = AD + BC
Proof: AS = AP (Length of tangents from an external point to a circle are equal)
BQ= BP
CQ = CR
DS = DR
AS + BQ + CQ + DS = AP + BP + CR + DR
(AS + DS) + (BQ + CQ) = (AP + BP) + (CR + DR)
AD + BC = AB + CD

Question 24.
Draw a line segment of length 7.8 cm and divide it in the ratio 5:8. Measure the two parts.
Solution :

Question 25.
Given 15 cot A = 8, find sin A and sec A.
OR
Find tan P – cot R

Solution :

Question 26.
How many terms of the A.P: 9, 17, 25……… must be taken to give a supi 636?
Solution :

Section-IV

Question 27.
Prove that -√3 is an irrational number.
Solution :

3 divides p² ⇒ 3 divides p
3 is a factor of p
Take p = 3c
3q² = (3c)²
3q² = 9c²    ⇒   q² = 3c²
3 divides g² ⇒ 3 divides q
3 is a factor of 9
Therefore 3 is a common factor of p and q.
It is a contradiction to our assumption that \(\frac{p}{q}\) is rational.
Hence √3 is an irrational number.

Question 28.
Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T. Prove that ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ.

Solution :

Question 29.
Meena went to a bank to withdraw ₹ 2,000. She asked the cashier to give her ₹ 50 and ₹  100 notes only. Meena got 25 notes in all. Find how many notes of ₹ 50 and ₹ 100 she received.
Solution :

Question 30.
A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears
(i) a two-digit number
(ii) a perfect square number.
(iii) a number divisible by 5. 3
OR
One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting (/’) A king of red colour.
(ii) A spade
(iii) The queen of diamond
Solution :
(i) 10,11,12,…, 90 are two digit numbers. Thereare81 numbers. So, probability of getting a two-digit number =
\(=\frac{81}{90}=\frac{9}{10}\)

(ii) 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81 are perfect squares. So, probability of getting a perfect square number \(=\frac{9}{90}=\frac{1}{10}\)

(iii) 5, 10, 15,…, 90 are divisible by 5. There are 18 outcomes. So, probability of getting a number divisible by 5.
\(=\frac{18}{90}=\frac{1}{5}\)

OR

(i) Probability of getting “A king of red colour.”
P (King of red colour) \(=\frac{2}{52}=\frac{1}{26}\)

(ii) Probability of getting “A spade”
P (a spade) \(=\frac{13}{52}=\frac{1}{4}\)

(iii) Probability of getting “the queen of diamond” P (the queen of diamond)
P (the queen of diamond) \(=\frac{1}{52}\)

Question 31.
Metallic spheres of radii 6cm, 8cm and 10cm respectively are melted to form a solid sphere. Find the radius of the resulting sphere.
Solution :

Question 32.
\(\text { Prove that } \frac{\sin A-\cos A+1}{\sin A+\cos A-1}=\frac{1}{\sec A-\tan A}\)
Solution :

Question 33.
A motor boat whose speed in still water is 18 km/h, takes 1 hour more to go 24 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
OR
Find two consecutive odd positive integers, sum of whose squares is 290.
Solution :
Given: Speed of boat = 18 km/hr,
Distance = 24 km
Let x be the speed of stream.
Let t₁ and t₂ be the time for upstream and downstream. As we know that,



OR
Let one of the odd positive integer be x
then the other odd positive integer is x + 2
ATQ, x² + (x+2)² = 290
⇒  x² + x² + 4x + 4 = 290
⇒ 2 x 2 + 4x – 286 = 0
⇒ 2(x² + 2x – 143) = 0
⇒ x² + 2x – 143 = 0
⇒ x² + 13x — 11x — 143 = 0
⇒ x(x + 13) — 11(x + 13) = 0
⇒ (x – 11)(x + 13) = 0
⇒  (x – 11)0,(x + 13) = 0
Therefore, x = 11 or  -13
According to question, x is a positive odd integer.
Hence, we take positive value of x
So, x = 11 and(x + 2)11 + 2 = 13
Therefore, the odd positive integers are 11 and 13.

Section-V

Question 34.
The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a 8m tall building from the top of a multistoried building are 30° and 45°, respectively. Find the height of the multi-storied building and the distance between the two buildings.
OR
A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind in a horizontal line at a height 88.2 m from the ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon from the eyes of the girl at any instant is 60°. After sometime, the angle of elevation reduces 30°. Find the distance travelled by the balloon during the interval.

Solution :

Question 35.
The p^th q^th and r^th terms of an A.P. are a, b and c Show that a(q – r) + b(r -p) + c(p – q) = + c(p – q) = 0                            Solution :
Let AB be the multi-storied building of height hm and CD the building at a distance xm.
Let A be the first term and D the common difference of A.P.
T_p = a = A + (p – 1)D(A – D) + pD …………(i)
T_q= b = A + (q – 1)D = (AD) + qD ……….(ii)
T_r = c = A + (r – 1)D(A – D) + rD ……………(iii)
Here we have got two unknowns A and D which are to be eliminated.
We multiply (i), (ii) and (iii) by q  – r, r  – p and p  – q respectively and add:
a(q – r) = (A – D)(q – r) + Dp(q – r)
b(r – p) (A – D)(r – p) + Dq(r – p)
c(p – q) – (A – D)(p – q) + Dr(p – q)
a(q  – r) + b(r  – p) + c(p – q)
= (A – D)[q – r + r – p + p – q] + D[p(q – r) + q(r – p) + r(p – q)]
= (A – D)(0) + D[pq — pr + qr — pq + rp  – rq)
= 0

Question 36.
A survey regarding the heights (in cm) of 51 girls of class X of a school was conducted and the following data was obtained. Find the median height and the mean using the formulae.

Solution :

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 5 for Practice

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

Section-A

Question 1.
In which year was Treaty of Vienna signed?
(a) 1811
(b) 1810
(c) 1815
(d) 1812

Question 2.
When did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre take place?
(a) 1919
(b) 1921
(c) 1922
(d) 1928

Question 3.
Who was called the ‘Bismarck of Italy’?
(a) Mazzini
(b) Garibaldi
(c) Cavour
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Question 4.
Fill in the blank:
…………………. resources are formed on a region, but have not been utilised.
Or
…………………… in India has grown over the last three decades substantially.

Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair about different industries in India from the following
options.
(a) Automobile Industry – Odisha
(b) Cotton Textile Industry – Amritsar
(c) Iron and Steel Plant – Naraura
(d) Software Technology – Gandhinagar

Question 6.
Fill in the blank:
Maharashtra: Black soil, Karnataka: Laterite soil, ……………. : Arid soil
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) Assam

Question 7.
Identify the programme launched by the Government of India with the help of the following features.

• A programme to transform India into digital empowered society
• Launched by 1 July 2015 by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi
• The menifesto concentrates on e-govemance

Question 8.
Why does jute loose its markets? Choose the appropriate reason from the following options:
(a) Its high cost
(b) Synthetic fibres captured the market
(c) It is very fragile
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
…………….. recognises a party as National Party or State Party.
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Election Commission of India
(d) The Chief Election Commission

Question 10.
What is federalism?
Or
What is jurisdiction?

Question 11.
Democracy must be a rule of the poor. How?
Or
What is most distinctive feature about democracy?

Question 12.
Read the following data and find out the differences between literary rate of India as per census 2001 and 2011 respectively.

(a) Persons-6.88%, Males-9.21%, Females-53.67%
(b) Persons-9.21%, Males-6.88%, Females-11.87%
(c) Persons-74.4%, Males-82.14%, Females-65.46%
(d) Persons-1.21%, Males-9.19%, Females-11.47%

Question 13.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Megha has taken a loan of Rs. 5 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house. The annual interest rate on the loan is 12 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 10 years in monthly instalments. Megha had to submit to the bank, documents showing her employment records and salary before the bank agreed to give her the loan. The bank retained as collateral the papers of the new house, which will be returned to Megha only when she repays the entire loan with interest.

Megha has taken loan from:
(a) formal sector
(b) informal sector
(c) primary sector
(d) secondary sector

Or

Most of the people like Megha take loan from formal sector. Which is the following statements about this sector is correct?
(a) It charges high interest on loan.
(b) It includes traders and employers.
(c) It saves people from debt-trap.
(d) It works under the supervision of the State Bank of India.

Question 14.
Where are most of the people employed?
(a) In primary sector
(b) In secondary sector
(c) In tertiary sector
(d) In quinary sector

Question 15.
Read the given statements in context of ‘liberalisation’ and choose the correct answer.
(a) Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called liberalisation.
(b) After Independence, the Indian government had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.
(c) This was considered necessary to protect the consumers within the country from internal competition.
(d) With liberalisation of trade businesses are allowed to make decisions freely on import and export.

Question 16.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Different people having different developmental goals.
Reason (R): Different people having different life situations.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Section-B

Question 17.
How can battles be fought with Satyagraha?

Question 18.
Describe the events of the French Revolution which had influenced the people belonging to
other parts of Europe.
Or
The Habsburg Empire was a patchwork of many different regions and peoples. Elucidate this statement.

Question 19.
What are the various forces of nature that contribute to the formation of soil? What is the
importance of soil?

Question 20.
Describe the role of citizens in a democracy.
Or
“A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democratic project.” Justify the statement.

Question 21.
Why are transactions made in money? Explain with suitable examples.

Question 22.
What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.

Section-C

Question 23.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (4 × 1 = 4)

In 1815, representatives of the European powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria – who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.

A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. Thus the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south. Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria was given control of northern Italy. But the German confederation of 39 states that had been set up by Napoleon was left untouched. In the east, Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a portion of Saxony. The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon, and create a new conservative order in Europe.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 23.1.
Which of the following revolutions is known as the first expression of nationalism?
(a) Russian Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) The Revolution of the Liberals
(d) Glorious Revolution

Question 23.2.
What was the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815?
(a) To declare war against France
(b) To declare competition of German unification
(c) To begin the process of Italian unification.
(d) To restore conservation regime in Europe

Question 23.3.
How can you say that the Congress of Vienna ensured peace in Europe?
(a) Laying out a balance of power between all big powers in Europe
(b) Austria was not under Northern Italy
(c) By giving power to German confederation
(d) With the restoration of Bourbon dynasty

Question 23.4.
Which of the following groups of countries that collectively defeated Napoleon?
(a) Poland, Italy, France and Hungary
(b) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
(c) Scotland, Sweden, Russia and Germany
(d) Germany, Hungary, Italy and Britain

Question 24.
Read the text given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake of loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition. Kandla also known as the Deendayal Port, is a tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt stretching across the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat. Mumbai is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well-sheltered harbour.

The Jawaharlal Nehru port was planned with a view to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub port for this region. Marmagao port (Goa) is the premier iron ore exporting port of the country. This port accounts for about fifty per cent of India’s iron ore export. New Mangalore port, located in Karnataka caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines. Kochchi is the extreme south-western port, located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.

Moving along the east coast, you would see the extreme south-eastern port of Tuticorin, in Tamil Nadu. This port has a natural harbour and rich hinterland. Thus, it has a flourishing trade handling of a large variety of cargoes to even our neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka, Maldives, etc. and the coastal regions of India. Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country. It is ranked next to Mumbai in terms of the volume of trade and cargo.

Vishakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port. This port was, originally, conceived as an outlet for iron ore exports. Paradwip port located in Odisha, specialises in the export of iron ore. Kolkata is an inland riverine port. This port serves a very large and rich hinterland of Ganga- Brahmaputra basin. Being a tidal port, it requires constant dredging of Hoogly. Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 24.1.
……………………. is the biggest port while Kandla is the tidal port in ………………..
(a) Kolkata; Vishakhapatnam
(b) Mumbai; Gujarat
(c) Tuticorin; Kolkata
(d) New Mangalore, Mumbai

Question 24.2.
Major ports handle about 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade. Identify which port
belongs to which state:

Choose the correct option-
(a) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(b) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(c) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(d) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Question 24.3.
Why is Chennai port called an artificial port?
(a) It provides access to oceans.
(b) It facilitates people to catch fish and supplement their food needs.
(c) It provides links with other countries or far-off places.
(d) A wall has been built to faciliate the anchor of ships as there is no zigzag coastline.

Question 24.4.
Kandla is also known as
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
(b) Bal Gangadhar Port
(c) Deendayal Port
(d) a deepest landlocked port

Question 25.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.

Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They also will have a share in governmental power, either through participation in governmental committees or bringing influence on the decision-making process.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 25.1.
Power sharing is essential for democracy because-
(a) it helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different organs of the government.
(b) it help to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different social groups.
(c) it fulfils the demands of different social groups.
(d) None of the above

Question 25.2.
Power sharing between different organs of the government is being referred to
(a) union government
(b) community government
(c) vertical division of powers
(d) horizontal distribution of powers

Question 25.3.
……………. is also called checks and balances.
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers
(b) Vertical distribution of powers
(c) Vertical division of powers
(d) Horizontal distribution of powers

Question 25.4.
Which of the following is not the benefits of power sharing?
(a) It reduces the possibility of conflicts between social groups.
(b) It ensures political stability in the long run.
(c) All political parties get their expected share.
(d) It upholds the spirit of democracy.

Question 26.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4 )

“Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60 per cent of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.”

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 26.1.
Groundwater is a
(a) renewable resource
(b) non-renewable resource
(c) reserve stock
(d) None of these

Question 26.2.
Why is groundwater overused?
(a) Due to overpopulation
(b) Due to industialisation
(c) Due to commercialisation of agriculture
(d) All of these

Question 26.3.
Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the correct option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
(d) All of these

Question 26.4.
Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable development?
(a) Using natural resources properly and scientifically
(b) Reducing pollution or environmental degradation
(c) Preventing infectious diseases
(d) Adopting measures to check global warming

Section-D

Question 27.
What were the impact of the First World War on national movement in India?
Or
Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slowdown in the cities? Give reasons.

Question 28.
Explain some of the human activities which are mainly responsible for land degradation in
India.
Or
“The challenge of sustainable development requires control over industrial pollution.” Explain the statement with examples.

Question 29.
What major steps were taken towards decentralisation in 1992?

Question 30.
What are the various characteristics of democracy?

Question 31.
How can globalisation be made fairer? Explain.
Or
“There has been a big change in the three sectors of economic activities, but a similar shift has not taken place in the share of employment.” Explain the statement on the basis of facts.

Section-E

Map Skill Based Question

Question 32.1
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
(B) The place connected to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 32.2
On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols.
(a) Paradwip Port
(b) Jamshedpur Iron and Steel Plant
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
(d) Chennai Software Technology Park
(e) Kakrapara Nuclear Power Plant

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 4 for Practice

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

Section-A

Question 1.
Identify the correct statement with regard to Johann Gottfried Herder is correct.
(a) He was a French philosopher.
(b) He was a German philosopher.
(c) He was an Italian philosopher.
(d) He was an Indian philosopher.

Question 2.
When was the Khilafat Committee founded?
(a) 1919
(b) 1920
(c) 1927
(d) 1922

Question 3.
The Non-Cooperation programme was adopted in the
(a) Lahore Session
(b) Nagpur Session
(c) Gujarat Session
(d) Second Round Table Conference

Question 4.
Fill in the blank:
Everything available in our …………….. which can be used to satisfy our needs.
Or
People employed in the ………………… activities manufacture the primary materials into finished goods.

Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the soils found in India from the following options:
(a) Alluvial soils – Himalayan river systems
(b) Arid soils – Tropical and sub-tropical climate
(c) Forest soils – Regur soils
(d) Laterite soils – Red to brown is colour

Question 6.
Fill in the blank:
Pulses: Leguminous crop, Watermelon: Zaid crop, ……………… : Rabi crop
(a) Maize
(b) Jowar
(c) Bajra
(d) Barley

Question 7.
Identify the important highways of India with the help of the following features.

• Six-lane Super Highways
• link Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai
• are being implemented by the NHAI

Question 8.
On the basis of ownership industries are categorised as:
(a) large-scale and small-scale industries
(b) public sector, private sector, joint and cooperative sectors
(c) basic/key and consumer industries
(d) agro-based and mineral-based industries

Question 9.
More than …………….. parties are registered with the Election Commission of India. 1
(a) 800
(b) 900
(c) 750
(d) 650

Question 10.
Name the country who does not have federal system.
Or
What is the most distinctive feature of democracy?

Question 11.
What is a community government?
Or
What is partisanship?

Question 12.
Read the given data which gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil. Select the correct option which defines how it is essential for the development process of a country.

Source: BP Statistical Review of World Energy, June 2018
(a) If prices of crude oil increase this becomes a burden for all.
(b) Reserves of crude oil are going to last for 50 years and more.
(c) Middle East and USA may face energy crisis in future due to exhaustion of crude oil.
(d) Crude oil is a major source of energy for agriculture and industrial development.

Question 13.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Chinese manufacturers learn of an opportunity to export toys to India, where toys are sold at a high price. They start exporting plastic toys to India. Buyers in India now have the option of choosing between Indian and the Chinese toys. Because of the cheaper prices and new designs, Chinese toys become more popular in the Indian markets. Within a year, 70 to 80 percent of the toy shops have replaced Indian toys with Chinese toys.

Toys are now cheaper in the Indian markets than earlier. Let us see the effect of foreign trade through the . example of Chinese toys in the Indian markets. What is happening here? As a result of trade Chinese toys come into the Indian markets. In the competition between Indian and Chinese toys, Chinese toys prove better. Indian buyers have a greater choice of toys and at lower prices. For the Chinese toy makers, this provides an opportunity to expand business. The opposite is true for Indian toy makers. They face losses, as their toys are selling much less.

Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government on foreign trade and foreign investment is known as:
(a) Nationalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Taxation

Or

Trade barrier is a restriction set by the government to regulate the trade of the country. How will trade bander affect the Chinese producers? Choose the correct option.
(a) If there is trade barrier on the Chinese toys then the cost of the Chinese toys in the Indian market would be high and will not be able to flourish in the market.
(b) The Chinese producers have to stop selling their products to the Indian market and look for some other ventures.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Question 14.
Which among the following options is incorrect?
(a) Demand deposit shares the essential features of money.
(b) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash.
(c) Demand deposits are safe way of money transformation.
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque.

Question 15.
Read the given statements in context of ‘National development’ and choose the correct
option.
(a) It is measured by National Income.
(b) It is measured by Average Income and Per Capita Income.
(c) It is measured by Human Development Index.
(d) It is measured by Net Attendance Ratio.

Question 16.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Not every goods or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to known the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods. Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Section-B

Question 17.
Enumerate some features of the conservative regimes set up in Europe following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815.

Question 18.
What is meant by the idea of Satyagraha?
Or
Mention three reasons by which the rich peasant communities took active participation in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 19.
Why is iron and steel industry called the basic industry? Explain any three reasons.

Question 20.
“Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to political parties all over the world.” Analyse the statement.
Or
Why were the linguistic states created? What are their advantages?

Question 21.
How is it that the average person in Punjab has more income than the average person in Kerala but it lags behind many other crucial areas? Explain.

Question 22.
Which three efforts should be made by any country to improve its HDI?

Section-C

Question 23.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (4 × 1 =4)

Economists began to think in terms of the national economy. They talked of how the nation could develop and what economic measures could help forge this nation together. ‘The aim of the zollverein is to bind the Germans economically into a nation. It will strengthen the nation materially as much by protecting its interests externally as by stimulating its internal productivity. It ought to awaken and raise national sentiment through a fusion of individual and provincial interests. The German people have realised that a free economic system is the only means to engender national feeling.’

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 23.1.
What did experts discuss the national economy?
(a) Development of Germany
(b) Economic measurement that forges this nation together
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Restoration of power after 1815

Question 23.2.
Identify the country which initiated the Zollverein from the following options.
(a) Austria
(b) Prussia
(c) Russia
(d) Switzerland

Question 23.3.
Highlight the role of Zollverein in arousing the sentiments of Nationalism amongst Germans from the following options.
(a) Zollverein made a unified economic territory.
(b) It consolidated the national sentiment through a fusion of individual and provincial
(c) It introduced a common currency for all.
(d) All of the above

Question 23.4.
From whose writing these sentences ‘The aim of the Zoilverein is …… .‘ have been quoted’?
(a) Friedrich List
(b) Ernst Renan
(c) Philip Veit
(d) Louis Bonaparte

Question 24.
Read the text given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 =4)

Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.

In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 24.1.
Tea, coffee, banana, ……………. and rubber are major crops which comes under ………………
(a) bajra; shifting agriculture
(b) sugarcane; shifting agriculture
(c) sugarcane; plantation farming
(d) wheat; horticulture

Question 24.2.
In commercial farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. Identify which state the
following crops mainly belong to:

Choose the correct option.
(a) a-2, b -1, c-4, d-3
(b) a-3, b -1, c-4, d-2
(c) a-1, b -2, o-3, d-4
(d) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Question 24.3.
Which commercial crops cultivable in laterite soils?
(a) Rubber and sugarcane
(b) Cotton and jute
(c) Barley and gram
(d) Tea and coffee

Question 24.4.
Which of the following statements is incorrect in context of plantation farming?
(a) It is practised in areas where population pressure on land is high.
(b) It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
(c) It requires well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the
plantation areas.
(d) None of these

Question 25.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 =4)

Party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections. These cannot be changed very quickly. Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special circumstances. For example, if India has evolved a multiparty system, it is because the social and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties. No system is ideal for all countries and all situations.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 25.1.
India has adopted a multi-party system because-
(a) this system keeps people informed about the political activities.
(b) this system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.
(c) the second and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties.
(d) All of these

Question 25.2.
Each country develops a ……………. that is considered by its special circumstances.
(a) national party
(b) party system
(c) series of functions
(d) political system

Question 25.3.
Why is one party system not considered a good democratic system? Choose the correct option.
(a) It provides a political choice to the people.
(b) People are deprived of the right of electing representatives.
(c) It has no democratic option.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 25.4.
We need at least two parties in a democratic set up because-
(a) it gives a fair chance to the two parties to compete in election to come in power.
(b) it gives a chance to take inspiration from country’s culture and values.
(c) it reduces a vast multitudes of opinions.
(d) it implements the policies by winning popular support through elections.

Question 26.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 =4)

Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2017, Ford Motors was selling 88,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 1,81,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico, Brazil and United States of America. The company wants to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 26.1.
The passage given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) National competition
(b) International competition
(c) Foreign investment
(d) Decreased employment

Question 26.2.
What is foreign investment?
(a) The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, buildings, machines and other equipments.
(b) Investment made by citizens or company of a nation
(c) Investment made by MNCs
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 26.3.
The appropriate reason for the attraction of foreign companies to invest in India is-
(a) global competition
(b) flexibility in labour law
(c) trade barrier
(d) international trade

Question 26.4.
Ford Motors can be termed as a MNC. By setting up their units in India, Ford Motors wants to-
(a) utilize the low-cost production benefits and a large market.
(b) produce different types of automobiles.
(c) be a large-scale exporter of cars.
(d) collaborate with a leading Indian Automobile company.

Secti0n-D

Question 27.
How did the Salt Satyagraha become an effective tool of resistance against British colonialism in India during 1930? Explain.
Or
“Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation.” Support the statement.

Question 28.
What is mass communication? Highlight the different types of mass communication and its
importance.
Or
“Roadways still have an edge over railways in India.” Support the statement with arguments.

Question 29.
Explain with examples the accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony.

Question 30.
“Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.” Analyse the statement with examples.

Question 31.
What steps should be taken to create more employment? Explain.
Or
Why should the banks and cooperatives provide more loan facilities to the rural households in India. Give five reasons.

Section-E

Map Skill Based Question

Question 32.1
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
(B) The city related to Jallianwala Bagh incident.

Question 32.2
On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable
symbols.
(a) Salem Iron and Steel Plant (b) Thiruvananthapuram Software Technology Park
(c) Tungabhadra Dam (d) Surat Cotton Textile Industry
(e) Uttar Pradesh – a major sugarcane producing state