CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 5 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 5 for Practice

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever


Question 1.
In which year was Treaty of Vienna signed?
(a) 1811
(b) 1810
(c) 1815
(d) 1812

Question 2.
When did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre take place?
(a) 1919
(b) 1921
(c) 1922
(d) 1928

Question 3.
Who was called the ‘Bismarck of Italy’?
(a) Mazzini
(b) Garibaldi
(c) Cavour
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Question 4.
Fill in the blank:
…………………. resources are formed on a region, but have not been utilised.
…………………… in India has grown over the last three decades substantially.

Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair about different industries in India from the following
(a) Automobile Industry – Odisha
(b) Cotton Textile Industry – Amritsar
(c) Iron and Steel Plant – Naraura
(d) Software Technology – Gandhinagar

Question 6.
Fill in the blank:
Maharashtra: Black soil, Karnataka: Laterite soil, ……………. : Arid soil
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) Assam

Question 7.
Identify the programme launched by the Government of India with the help of the following features.

  • A programme to transform India into digital empowered society
  • Launched by 1 July 2015 by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi
  • The menifesto concentrates on e-govemance

Question 8.
Why does jute loose its markets? Choose the appropriate reason from the following options:
(a) Its high cost
(b) Synthetic fibres captured the market
(c) It is very fragile
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
…………….. recognises a party as National Party or State Party.
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Election Commission of India
(d) The Chief Election Commission

Question 10.
What is federalism?
What is jurisdiction?

Question 11.
Democracy must be a rule of the poor. How?
What is most distinctive feature about democracy?

Question 12.
Read the following data and find out the differences between literary rate of India as per census 2001 and 2011 respectively.

2001 2011
Persons 64.83% 74.04%
Males 75.26% 82.14%
Females 53.67% 65.14%

(a) Persons-6.88%, Males-9.21%, Females-53.67%
(b) Persons-9.21%, Males-6.88%, Females-11.87%
(c) Persons-74.4%, Males-82.14%, Females-65.46%
(d) Persons-1.21%, Males-9.19%, Females-11.47%

Question 13.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Megha has taken a loan of Rs. 5 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house. The annual interest rate on the loan is 12 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 10 years in monthly instalments. Megha had to submit to the bank, documents showing her employment records and salary before the bank agreed to give her the loan. The bank retained as collateral the papers of the new house, which will be returned to Megha only when she repays the entire loan with interest.

Megha has taken loan from:
(a) formal sector
(b) informal sector
(c) primary sector
(d) secondary sector


Most of the people like Megha take loan from formal sector. Which is the following statements about this sector is correct?
(a) It charges high interest on loan.
(b) It includes traders and employers.
(c) It saves people from debt-trap.
(d) It works under the supervision of the State Bank of India.

Question 14.
Where are most of the people employed?
(a) In primary sector
(b) In secondary sector
(c) In tertiary sector
(d) In quinary sector

Question 15.
Read the given statements in context of ‘liberalisation’ and choose the correct answer.
(a) Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called liberalisation.
(b) After Independence, the Indian government had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.
(c) This was considered necessary to protect the consumers within the country from internal competition.
(d) With liberalisation of trade businesses are allowed to make decisions freely on import and export.

Question 16.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Different people having different developmental goals.
Reason (R): Different people having different life situations.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.


Question 17.
How can battles be fought with Satyagraha?

Question 18.
Describe the events of the French Revolution which had influenced the people belonging to
other parts of Europe.
The Habsburg Empire was a patchwork of many different regions and peoples. Elucidate this statement.

Question 19.
What are the various forces of nature that contribute to the formation of soil? What is the
importance of soil?

Question 20.
Describe the role of citizens in a democracy.
“A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democratic project.” Justify the statement.

Question 21.
Why are transactions made in money? Explain with suitable examples.

Question 22.
What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.


Question 23.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (4 × 1 = 4)

In 1815, representatives of the European powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria – who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.

A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. Thus the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south. Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria was given control of northern Italy. But the German confederation of 39 states that had been set up by Napoleon was left untouched. In the east, Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a portion of Saxony. The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon, and create a new conservative order in Europe.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 23.1.
Which of the following revolutions is known as the first expression of nationalism?
(a) Russian Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) The Revolution of the Liberals
(d) Glorious Revolution

Question 23.2.
What was the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815?
(a) To declare war against France
(b) To declare competition of German unification
(c) To begin the process of Italian unification.
(d) To restore conservation regime in Europe

Question 23.3.
How can you say that the Congress of Vienna ensured peace in Europe?
(a) Laying out a balance of power between all big powers in Europe
(b) Austria was not under Northern Italy
(c) By giving power to German confederation
(d) With the restoration of Bourbon dynasty

Question 23.4.
Which of the following groups of countries that collectively defeated Napoleon?
(a) Poland, Italy, France and Hungary
(b) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
(c) Scotland, Sweden, Russia and Germany
(d) Germany, Hungary, Italy and Britain

Question 24.
Read the text given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake of loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition. Kandla also known as the Deendayal Port, is a tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt stretching across the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat. Mumbai is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well-sheltered harbour.

The Jawaharlal Nehru port was planned with a view to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub port for this region. Marmagao port (Goa) is the premier iron ore exporting port of the country. This port accounts for about fifty per cent of India’s iron ore export. New Mangalore port, located in Karnataka caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines. Kochchi is the extreme south-western port, located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.

Moving along the east coast, you would see the extreme south-eastern port of Tuticorin, in Tamil Nadu. This port has a natural harbour and rich hinterland. Thus, it has a flourishing trade handling of a large variety of cargoes to even our neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka, Maldives, etc. and the coastal regions of India. Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country. It is ranked next to Mumbai in terms of the volume of trade and cargo.

Vishakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port. This port was, originally, conceived as an outlet for iron ore exports. Paradwip port located in Odisha, specialises in the export of iron ore. Kolkata is an inland riverine port. This port serves a very large and rich hinterland of Ganga- Brahmaputra basin. Being a tidal port, it requires constant dredging of Hoogly. Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 24.1.
……………………. is the biggest port while Kandla is the tidal port in ………………..
(a) Kolkata; Vishakhapatnam
(b) Mumbai; Gujarat
(c) Tuticorin; Kolkata
(d) New Mangalore, Mumbai

Question 24.2.
Major ports handle about 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade. Identify which port
belongs to which state:



a. Tuticorin 1. Kerala
b. Kochi (Kochchi) 2. Tamil Nadu
c. Paradwip 3. West Bengal
d. Haldia 4. Odisha

Choose the correct option-
(a) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(b) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(c) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(d) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Question 24.3.
Why is Chennai port called an artificial port?
(a) It provides access to oceans.
(b) It facilitates people to catch fish and supplement their food needs.
(c) It provides links with other countries or far-off places.
(d) A wall has been built to faciliate the anchor of ships as there is no zigzag coastline.

Question 24.4.
Kandla is also known as
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
(b) Bal Gangadhar Port
(c) Deendayal Port
(d) a deepest landlocked port

Question 25.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.

Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They also will have a share in governmental power, either through participation in governmental committees or bringing influence on the decision-making process.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 25.1.
Power sharing is essential for democracy because-
(a) it helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different organs of the government.
(b) it help to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different social groups.
(c) it fulfils the demands of different social groups.
(d) None of the above

Question 25.2.
Power sharing between different organs of the government is being referred to
(a) union government
(b) community government
(c) vertical division of powers
(d) horizontal distribution of powers

Question 25.3.
……………. is also called checks and balances.
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers
(b) Vertical distribution of powers
(c) Vertical division of powers
(d) Horizontal distribution of powers

Question 25.4.
Which of the following is not the benefits of power sharing?
(a) It reduces the possibility of conflicts between social groups.
(b) It ensures political stability in the long run.
(c) All political parties get their expected share.
(d) It upholds the spirit of democracy.

Question 26.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4 )

“Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60 per cent of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.”

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 26.1.
Groundwater is a
(a) renewable resource
(b) non-renewable resource
(c) reserve stock
(d) None of these

Question 26.2.
Why is groundwater overused?
(a) Due to overpopulation
(b) Due to industialisation
(c) Due to commercialisation of agriculture
(d) All of these

Question 26.3.
Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the correct option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
(d) All of these

Question 26.4.
Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable development?
(a) Using natural resources properly and scientifically
(b) Reducing pollution or environmental degradation
(c) Preventing infectious diseases
(d) Adopting measures to check global warming


Question 27.
What were the impact of the First World War on national movement in India?
Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slowdown in the cities? Give reasons.

Question 28.
Explain some of the human activities which are mainly responsible for land degradation in
“The challenge of sustainable development requires control over industrial pollution.” Explain the statement with examples.

Question 29.
What major steps were taken towards decentralisation in 1992?

Question 30.
What are the various characteristics of democracy?

Question 31.
How can globalisation be made fairer? Explain.
“There has been a big change in the three sectors of economic activities, but a similar shift has not taken place in the share of employment.” Explain the statement on the basis of facts.


Map Skill Based Question

Question 32.1
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
(B) The place connected to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 32.2
On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols.
(a) Paradwip Port
(b) Jamshedpur Iron and Steel Plant
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
(d) Chennai Software Technology Park
(e) Kakrapara Nuclear Power Plant
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions4