CBSE Class 9

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure. LearnInsta.com provides you the Free PDF download of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science (Chemistry) Chapter 2 – Is Matter Around Us Pure solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines. All Chapter 2 – Is Matter Around Us Pure Exercise Questions with Solutions to help you to revise complete Syllabus and Score More marks.

More Resources

• NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science
• HOTS Questions for Class 9 Science
• Value Based Questions in Science for Class 9
• NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 9 Science
• Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 9 Science

Class 9 Science Chapter 2 In Text Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by a pure substance?
Answer:
In terms of science, a pure substance may be defined as a single substance or matter which cannot be separated into other kinds of matter by any physical process. All pure elements and compounds are pure substances.

Question 2.
List points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.
Answer:

Question 3.
How are sol, solutions and suspension different from each other ?
Answer:

Question 4.
To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.
Answer:

Question 5.
How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25°C) which are miscible with each other ?
Answer:
The separation can be done by applying process of simple distillation. Both are miscible liquids. Since the difference in the boiling points is less than 25 K, the separation can be done with the help of fractional distillation technique. Petrol with less boiling point distils first leaving behind kerosene in the distillation from flask.

Question 6.
Name the technique to separate

1. butter from curd
2. salt from sea water
3. camphor from salt.

Answer:

1. The separation can be done by carrying centrifugation in a centrifugal machine.
2. The separation can be done either by crystallisation or by evaporation.
3. The process of sublimation helps in separating camphor from salt. Camphor undergoes sublimation.

Question 7.
What types of mixtures can be separated by technique known as crystallisation ?
Answer:
The solid mixtures in which one component or impurity is less soluble in a particular solvent as compared to the other. For example, impure samples of copper sulphate, potassium nitrate, potash alum etc. can be purified by this method.

Question 8.
Classify the following into physical and chemical changes.

1. Cutting of trees
2. Melting of butter in a pan
3. Rusting of almirah
4. Boiling of water to form steam
5. Passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases
6. Dissolving common salt in water
7. Making of fruit salads with raw fruits
8. Burning of paper and wood.

Answer:
Please note that a change which can be easily reversed is a physical change while the one which cannot be reversed is a chemical change in nature. Based on this concept, the changes that are listed may be classified as :

1. Chemical change
2. Physical change
3. Chemical change
4. Physical change
5. Chemical change
6. Physical change
7. Physical change
8. Chemical change.

Question 9.
Try to segregate the things around you as pure substances and mixtures :
(a) distilled water
(b) curd
(c) diamond
(d) ice cream
(e) kerosene
(f) cooking oil
(g) steel
(h) graphite
(i) raw rubber
(j) vulcanised rubber
(k) solder wire.
Answer:
Pure substances : Distilled water, diamond, graphite, raw rubber
Mixtures : curd, ice cream, kerosene oil, cooking oil, steel, vulcanised rubber, solder wire (alloy of lead and tin)

NCERT END EXERCISE

Question 1.
Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following ?

1. Sodium chloride from its solution in water. (CBSE 2012)
2. Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
3. Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car. (CBSE 2012, 2013, 2014)
4. Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
5. Butter from curd.
6. Oil from water. (CBSE 2012, 2013)
7. Tea leaves from tea.
8. Iron pins from sand.
9. Wheat grains from husk. (CBSE 2012)
10. Fine mud particles suspended in water. (CBSE 2012, 2013)

Answer:

1. Evaporation : Water will evaporate leaving behind sodium chloride.
2. Sublimation : Ammonium chloride will be collected as sublimate.
3. Filtration : Pieces of metal can be separated by filtration.
4. Chromatography : Pigments (coloured components) from the extract of flower plants can be separated by chromatography.
5. Centrifugation : Butter will get separated upon centrifugation.
6. Separating funnel : Oil and water can be separated by the use of separating funnel.
7. Filtration : Upon filtration through a sieve, tea leaves will be collected on the sieve.
8. Magnetic separation : A magnet will attract iron pins and not sand particles.
9. Sieving : Wheat grains from husk can be separated with the help of sieve.
10. Sedimentation : As a result of sedimentation, mud particles will settle as precipitate. It can be separated later on by filtration.

Question 2.
Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words-solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.
Answer:
Tea can be prepared in the steps given ahead :

1. Take approximately two to three cups of water (solvent) in a pan and heat it on a gas burner.
2. When water starts boiling, add desired amount of milk and sugar (both are solutes).
3. Now, stir with a spoon. As a result, sugar will dissolve and milk will become miscible with water. A solution will be formed.
4. Further boil the solution for sometime so that sugar may completely dissolve.
5. Now add the required amount of tea leaves (solute) to the pan. Boil again and filter through a sieve. Tea will be collected as filtrate. Tea leaves will get collected on sieve as residue.

Question 3.
Pragya tested the solubility of four different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution).

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 30 grams of water at 313 K ?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools ? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the maximum solubility at this temperature ?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt ?
Answer:
(a) At-313 K, in the saturated solution

(b) When the saturated solution prepared at 353 K is cooled to room temperature (about 298 K) the solubility of potassium chloride in water will decrease. It will slowly start separating as a crystalline white residue at the bottom of the container.
(c) The solubility of the salt in a water is defined as :
the maximum amount of the salt which is dissolved in 100 g of water (or any other solvent) to form a saturated solution at a given temperature
In the light of this, at 293 K

(d) With rise in temperature, the solubility of all the salts in water increases. This has been shown by the data given in the table. Similarly, when the temperature is decreased, the solubility of these salts in water decreases.

Question 4.
Explain the following, giving examples :
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Pure substance
(c) Colloid
(d) Suspension.
Answer:
(a) Saturated solution: A solution becomes saturated if the solute starts separating at the bottom of the container in which the solution is being prepared at a given temperature. A saturated solution generally becomes unsaturated upon heating.
(b) Pure substance: A pure substance means a single substance (or matter) which cannot be separated into other kinds of matter by any physical process.
(c) Colloid: Colloidal solutions are also heterogeneous in nature like suspensions, but they have smaller size of the particles which are distributed. It ranges between 1 nm to 100 nm i.e., in between the particle size of true solution and suspension.
(d) Suspension: A suspension may be defined as a heterogeneous mixture in which the solid particles are spread throughout the liquid without dissolving in it. They settle as precipitate if the suspension is left undisturbed for sometime.

Question 5.
Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture :
(a) Soda water
(b) Wood
(c) Air
(d) Soil
(e) Vinegar
(f) Filtered tea.
Answer:
Homogeneous mixture : Soda water, air, vinegar, filtered tea.
Heterogeneous mixture : Wood, soil.
Air is a homogeneous mixture of different gases. However, if some dust or other particles are present, then air becomes a heterogeneous mixture.

Question 6.
How would you confirm that the colourless liquid given to you is pure water ?
Answer:
This can be confirmed by the following experiments :

1. Filter the colourless liquid through a very fine filter paper. If no residue is left on the filter paper, this means that the liquid is pure water and has no suspended inpurities present in it.
2. Evaporate the colourless liquid in a china dish or beaker. In case no residue is left, this means that it is pure water and has no dissolved impurities present in it.
3. Determine the boiling point of pure liquid. If it comes out to be nearly 373 K (100°C), this means that the pure liquid is water.

Question 7.
Which of the following materials fall in the category of pure substances ?
(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air.
Answer:
Pure substances in the given list of materials are :
(a) Ice (compound)
(c) Iron (element)
(e) Calcium oxide (compound)
(f) Mercury (element).
Both milk and hydrochloric acid are homogeneous mixtures. Please note that the acid is formed when the vapours of hydrogen chloride gas are passed through water.
Wood and air (containing suspended particles) are heterogeneous mixtures. However, air free from any suspended particles is a homogeneous mixture.

Question 8.
Identify the solutions among the following mixtures :
(a) Soil
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(d) Coal
(e) Soda water.
Answer:
By definition, a solution or homogeneous mixture is the mixture of two or more non-reacting substances present in a single phase. In the light of this, the solutions among the following are :
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(e) Soda water.

Question 9.
Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect” ?

1. Salt solution
2. Milk
3. Copper sulphate solution
4. Starch sol.

Answer:
Tyndall effect is shown by colloidal sol. Since milk and starch sol are colloidal sol therefore, these will show Tyndall effect.

Question 10.
Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures :

1. Sodium
2. Soil
3. Sugar solution
4. Silver
5. Calcium carbonate
6. Tin
7. Silicon
8. Coal
9. Air
10. Soap
11. Methane
12. Carbon dioxide
13. Blood.

Answer:

Elements : Sodium, Silver, Tin and Silicon
Compounds : Calcium carbonate, Methane, Carbon dioxide.
Mixtures : Soil, Sugar solution, Coal (as percentage of carbon varies), Air, Blood, Soap.

Question 11.
Which of the following are chemical changes ?

1. Growth of a plant
2. Rusting of iron
3. Mixing of iron filings and sand
4. Cooking of food
5. Digestion of food
6. Freezing of water
7. Burning of a candle.

Answer:
Chemical changes are : Growth of a plant, Rusting of iron, Cooking of food, Digestion of food, Burning of a candle.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
A shining thick liquid is often used in glass thermometers. Name it.
Answer:
The shining liquid is mercury. It is used in glass thermometers as it does not stick to glass.

Question 2.
Name two metals which are both malleable and ductile.
Answer:
Copper and silver are both malleable and ductile.

Question 3.
A diamond knife is quite often used for cutting glass. Why ?
Answer:
Diamond is probably the hardest substance known. Therefore, a knife made from a special type of diamond is used for cutting glass.

Question 4.
Flow will check the purity of a pure chemical compound in the solid state ?
Answer:
The purity of a pure chemical compound can be checked by finding its melting point experimentally and by comparing it with its standard melting point value available in the form of tables. In case, the two values are nearly the same, the substance is pure. Otherwise, it is not.

Question 5.
A hard substance when bent produces a tinkling sound. Predict its nature.
Answer:
The hard substance is a metal. Actually metals are sonorous and produce tinkling sound when bent.

Question 6.
Give one test to show that brass is a mixture and not a compound.
Answer:
When we try to melt brass, it does not have a sharp melting point. This shows that it is not a compound. It is a homogeneous mixture of copper and zinc and is called alloy.

Question 7.
To the already prepared solution of a solute A’ prepared in water, a small amount of A is added. However, it does not dissolve. What does it indicate ?
Answer:
This indicates that the solution of the substance A in water is of saturated nature. It is called saturated solution.

Question 8.
What is the range of the size of the particles of dispersed phase in a colloidal solution ?
Answer:
It ranges from 1 nm (10~9 m) to 100 nm (10~7 m).

Question 9.
When a beam of light was passed through the solution of a substance A dissolved in water, the path of light could be seen. Predict the nature of the solution.
Answer:
The solution of substance A in water is colloidal solution. The colloidal particles scattered the light when it was passed through the solution due to Tyndall effect.

Question 10.
What will happen if a colloidal solution of sulphur is centrifuged in a centrifugal machine for sometime.
Answer:
The yellow precipitate of sulphur will settle at the bottom of the tube and the solution collected above the precipitate will be colourless.

Question 11.
How will you justify that rusting of iron is a chemical change ?
Answer:
The rust is a brown chemical compound known as hydrated ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃.xH₂O). It can not be removed from the surface of the metal by any means. Formula of rust shows that iron has undergone a chemical change.

Question 12.
Why do not the dispersed phase particles in a colloidal solution combine with one other ?
Answer:
They donot come closer because of the presence of either positive or negative charge on them. Due to mutual repulsion, these particles remain scattered in a colloidal solution.

Question 13.
What are the units of mass percent ?
Answer:
Mass percent has no units as it is simply a ratio.

Question 14.
What is the nature the solution formed by mixing mustard oil and water ?
Answer:
It is a colloidal solution known as emulsion.

Question 15.
Give one example of the colloidal solution in which solid acts as the dispersed phase and gas as the dispersion medium.
Answer:
Dust storm in which solid particles are dispersed in air.

Question 16.
Name two compounds which sublime on heating.
Answer:
Ammonium chloride and iodine crystals.

Question 17.
You are provided with a mixture of carbon tetrachloride and water. How will you separate the constituents ?
Answer:
Both are immiscible liquids. The separation can be done by the use of a separating funnel.

Question 18.
Give one example of
(a) solution of a gas in a liquid
(b) solution of number of gases.
Answer:
(a) An aqueous solution of ammonia
(b) Air.

Question 19.
What is disperssed phase and dispersion medium in a colloid ?
Answer:
If a colloidal solution is compared to an ordinary solution, then dispersed phase is comparable to the solute and dispersion medium to the solvent.

Chapter 2 Science Class 9 Short Answer Questions

Question 20.
What happens when a saturated solution of sodium chloride prepared at 60°C is allowed to cool at room temperature ? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
A small amount of the salt gets separated at the bottom of the container as a residue.

Question 21.
Can a mixture of alcohol and water be separated with the help of a separating funnel ?
Answer:
No, it is not possible because alcohol (ethyl alcohol) and water are completely miscible. They do not form separate layers. Therefore, their separation cannot be done with the help of a separating funnel.

Question 22.
Sodium chloride contains two elements, but it is still a pure substance. Assign reason.
Answer:
The two elements sodium and chlorine have combined with each other by chemical reaction to form sodium chloride (NaCl) which is a chemical compound. Since these elements cannot be separated from each other by any physical process, sodium chloride is a pure substance.

Question 23.
What types of mixtures are represented by the following ?
(a) Carbon dioxide gas dissolved in water.
(b) Air containing suspended particles.
(c) Soap bubbles formed by blowing air into soap solution.
Answer:
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) heterogeneous.

Question 24.
Two miscible liquids A and B are present in a solution. The boiling point of A is 60°C while that of B is 90°C. Suggest a method to separate them.
Answer:
The separation can be done by the process of simple distillation. The vapours of the liquid A will rise in the flask when heated to a temperature of 60°C. They will pass through the condenser and will collect as “ distillate. The liquid B with higher boiling point will remain in the flask.

Question 25.
Classify the following as homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures :

1. Copper sulphate solution
2. A suspension of chalk in water
3. Dust storm
4. A dilute solution of alcohol in water.

Answer:

1. homogeneous
2. heterogeneous
3. heterogeneous
4. homogeneous.

Question 26.
Solubility of KNO₃ at 313 K is 62 g. What mass of KNO₃ would be needed to produce a saturated solution of KNO₃ in 50 g of water at 313 K ?
Answer:
By definition of a saturated solution.
100 g of water at 313 K contain KNO₃ = 62 g 50 g of water at 313 K contain KNO₃ = 31 g

Question 27.
(a) State one property in which a solution of sugar in water resembles a mixture of sugar and sand and one property in which it differs from it.
(b) You are given two liquids; one a solution and the other a compound. How will you distinguish the solution from the compound ?
Answer:
(a) Resemblance : Both of them taste sweet due to the presence of sugar.
Difference : The constituent particles cannot be seen in the mixture of sugar and water but they can be easily seen in the mixture of sugar and sand.
(b) Try to separate the constituents present in both by some suitable physical method. Separation is possible in case of a solution but not in a compound.

Question 28.
What would you observe when :
(a) A saturated solution of potassium nitrate prepared at 60°C is allowed to cool to room temperature ?
(b) A mixture of iron filings and sulphur is heated strongly ?
(c) A colloidal solution of starch is passed through an ordinary filter paper ?
Answer:
(a) Crystals of potassium nitrate which are needle shaped would slowly appear at the bottom of the container which may be a china dish or a beaker.
(b) A greyish-black mass passes formed.
(c) The solution passes through the ordinary filter paper without leaving any residue.

Question 29.
The teacher instructed three students A, B and C respectively to prepare a 50% (mass by volume) solution of sodium hydroxide (NaOH). A dissolved. 50 g of NaOH in 100 mL of water. B dissolved 50 g of NaOH in 100 g of water. The student C dissolved 50 g of NaOH in water to make 100 mL of solution. Which one of them has made the desired solution and why ? (CBSE 2014)
Volume of water = (250 – 150) = 100 mL
Answer:
The student ‘C’ has made the desired solution.

Question 30.
Point out whether the following statements are true or false :

1. Particles in a colloidal solution can always be seen by naked eyes.
2. Scattering of light occurs when a beam of liquid is passed through aqueous sugar solution.
3. Colloidal solutions are of heterogeneous nature.
4. Digestion of food is a chemical change.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True.

Question 31.
Calculate the mass of potassium sulphate required to prepare its 10 percent (mass percent) solution in 100 g of water.
Answer:

Question 32.
What volumes of ethyl alcohol and water must be mixed together to prepare 250 mL of 60 percent volume by volume solution of alcohol in water ?
Answer:

Question 33.
(a) Two students Ramesh and Alka were required to prepare 10 percent (mass/mass) solution of sodium chloride in water. For that, Ramesh dissolved 10 g of the salt in 100 g of water while Alka dissolved 10 g of the salt in 100 g of the solution. Which out of the two prepared the correct solution ?
(b) You are given a solution of a substance ‘A’. How will you test whether it is saturated or unsaturated with respect to A at a given temperature ?
Answer:
(a) Alka prepared the correct solution because by definition 10 percent solution of a substance means a solution containing 10 g of the solute dissolved in 100 g of it. This means that the mass of water in the solution is 90 g.
(b) Take the given solution in a beaker. Now add small amount of A to this solution and stir with a glass rod. If it dissolves in this solution, this means that the solution is unsaturated. If it does not dissolve and separates as a solid at the bottom of the beaker, the solution is saturated in nature.

Question 34.
What are solute and solvent in aereated drinks ?
Answer:
In aerated drinks, carbon dioxide (solute) is dissolved in water (solvent). It is infact, a homogeneous mixture.

Question 35.
How much water should be mixed with 12 mL of alcohol so as to obtain 12% alcohol solution ?
Volume of solute (alcohol)
Answer:

Question 36.
(a) All mixtures are homogeneous. Is this statement correct ? Justify your answer.
(b) How can a saturated solution be made unsaturated ?
Answer:
(a) No, this statement is wrong. Mixtures can be homogeneous only if the constituents present are uniformly mixed and there is no boundary of separation of these constituents.
A mixture is said to be heterogeneous if it does not have a uniform composition and also has visible boundaries of separation between the constituents.
A few examples of heterogeneous mixtures are listed. A mixture of sand and common salt is regarded as a heterogeneous mixture. No doubt, these are present in the same phase i.e., solid phase but have clear boundaries of separation. The particles of sand and common salt can be easily seen in the mixture.
(b) A saturated solution can be made unsaturated in two ways :

1. By increasing the temperature or by heating
2. By adding more of the solvent or by diluting the solution.

Question 37.

1. Name a non-metallic element found in
   1. liquid state
   2. gaseous state.
2. Pick metalloid from the elements carbon, silicon, phophorus, gold.
3. Which two properties of metals enable us to give the desired shapes to metals ?

Answer:

1. 1. Bromine (Br₂)
   2. Oxygen (O₂).
2. Silicon (Si) is a metalloid.
3. Metals are melleable and ductile, i.e. they can be beaten into sheets and drawn into wires.

Question 38.
Why does a salt disappear when dissolved in water ?
Answer:
Water helps in separating ions from a salt. This inter-ionic forces decreases and the ions gets dispersed. Therefore salt dissolved in water and disappears.

Question 39.
(a) Name a metal which is liquid at room temperature.
(b) Smoke and fog are aerosols. How do they differ from each other?
(c) Name an element which melts when kept on the palm.
Answer:
(a) Metal is mercury(Hg)
(b) In smoke, dispersed phase is a solid (dust or carbon particles). In aerosols, it is a liquid (water drops). Dispersion medium in both the cases is the same i.e. air.
(c) It is either gallium (Ga) or cesium (Cs).

Question 40.

1. Name a metal which is the best conductor of heat.
2. Among the substances given below choose the elements, mixture and compound.
   1. Air
   2. Lead
   3. Diamond
   4. Calcium carbonate.

Answer:

1. The metal is silver(Ag).
   1. Air (Mixture)
   2. Lead (Element)
   3. Diamond (Element)
   4. Calcium carbonate (Compound).

Question 41.
(a) Draw a flow sheet diagram to show the process of obtaining constituent gases from air.
(b) Which gas condenses first ? Why ?
Answer:
(a)

(b) Nitrogen (N₂) condenses first because its boiling point is the least (-196°C) among all the gases present in air.

Question 42.
Name the appropriate methods for the separation of the following :

1. nitrogen from air
2. dye from blue ink
3. cream from milk
4. ammonium chloride from common salt.

Answer:

1. Nitrogen is one of the constituents of air. It can be separated with the help of fractional distillation,
2. Chromatography helps in separating dye from blue ink.
3. Centrifugation or churning helps in separating cream from milk.
4. Ammonium chloride is of volatile nature while common salt (sodium chloride) is not. The separation can be done with the help of sublimation.

Question 43.
(a) Identify the solute and solvent in tincture of iodine.
(b) Why is Tyndall effect not seen in a true solution ?
Answer:
(a) In tincture of iodine; solute present is iodine and solvent is ethyl alcohol.
(b) In a true solution, the particle size is so small that it does not scatter the beam of light. Therefore,
Tyndall effect is not seen in a true solution.

Question 44.

1. Arrange solids, liquids and gases in increasing order of the following properties of matter
   1. rigidity
   2. diffusion
   3. compressibility.
2. Write one example from your daily life which is based on diffusion of gases.

Answer:

1. 1. Rigidity : Gases < Liquids < Solids
   2. Diffusion : Solids < liquids < gases
   3. Compressibility : Gases < Liquids < Solids
2. Smell of aroma or perfume released in one corner of the room soon spreads throughout.

Question 45.
What is a saturated solution ? What happens when a saturated solution is heated ?
Answer:
A solution is said to be saturated if no more of a solute can dissolve in it at a given temperature.
A saturated solution becomes unsaturated upon heating.

Question 46.

1. Colloidal solutions show Tyndall effect but true solutions do not. Discuss.
2. Explain how does soap help in cleaning dirty clothes ?

Answer:

1. In a colloidal solution, the particle size is such (1 nm to 100 nm), that these particles scatter the light rays as they fall on them. Because of scattering, the path of the light as well as the particles become visible. But in a true solution, the particle size is so small (less than 1 nm) that these particles are not in a position to scatter the light. Therefore, true solution does not show any Tyndall effect.
2. In dirty clothes, the dust particles are sticking on the oil drops present. Simple water cannot remove these oil drops from the clothes because water and oil as such do not form a stable emulsion. Soap plays the role of emulsifier and helps in forming a stable emulsion between the two. In other words, it helps in mixing oil and water. This means that soap helps in removing these oil drops along with the dirt sticking to them. The dirty clothes get washed by soap solution.

Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Long Answer Questions

Question 47.

1. Fog and cloud are both colloidal in nature. How do they differ ?
2. What is the function of fractionating column in fractional distillation ?

Answer:

1. Both fog and cloud are the examples in which liquid (water) is the dispersed phase and gas (air) is the dispersion medium. The only difference between them is that clouds are formed in the upper atmosphere while fog gets formed in the region close to earth.
2. A fractionating column obstructs the upwards movement of the vapours of the liquids. As a result, the energy (latent heat of condensation) which is released by the high boiling liquid is taken by the low boiling liquid. It remains in the vapour state. The high boiling liquid by releasing energy condenses and falls back in the distillation flask. Thus, fractionating column helps in the separation of the components from a liquid mixture. For example, a mixture of ethyl alcohol and water.

Question 48.

1. Can we separate a mixture of water and alcohol by the use of a separating funnel ? If not, suggest a suitable method.
2. You are provided with two liquids, one is a mixture of two miscible liquids while the other is a pure compound. Suggest two ways to distinguish them from each other.

Answer:

1. No, it is not possible because water and alcohol form a miscible liquid mixture. The separation can be done with the help of fractional distillation. Alcohol (ethyl alcohol) with lesser boiling point distills leaving behind water in the distillation flask.
2. The distinction can be made as follows :
   1. In case the constituents of a given liquid can be separated by methods like simple distillation or fractional distillation, it is a liquid mixture. If it is not possible, then the liquid is a compound.
   2. Find the boiling points of both the liquids. In case it is sharp, the given liquid is a compound. In case it is not, then the given liquid is a mixture.

Question 49.
Classify the following as physical and chemical changes. Give reason for your answer.

1. Burning of candle.
2. Melting of ice.
3. Burning of petrol in an engine.
4. Change of colour of iron bar on strong heating.
5. Churning of milk to get butter.

Answer:

1. Chemical change : The way present in the candle changes to liquid state. This means that the change is of physical nature. At the same time, the constituents carbon and hydrogen present in wax react with oxygen of air to form new substances. This means that a chemical reaction or change is also taking place.
2. Physical change : When water formed as a result of melting of ice is cooled to 0°C, it changes back to ice.
3. Chemical change : Petrol is a mixture of different hydrocarbons. They undergo oxidation or combustion upon burning to form carbon dioxide and water vapours along with heat energy. Therefore, it is a chemical change.
4. Physical change : Iron bar regains its colour on cooling.
5. Physical change : There is only a change of physical state and no new substance is formed.

Question 50.
Give an example of a mixture which exhibits the following characteristics.

1. Two non-miscible components.
2. Two volatile components differing in boiling points by more than 30°C.
3. Two coloured components.
4. Water containing a soluble salt.
5. Volatile and non-volatile solid components.
   Suggest a suitable method for separating constituents in each case.

Answer:

1. Carbon disulphide and water. The separation can be done by a separating funnel.
2. Ethyl alcohol and ether. The separation can be done by simple distillation. However, proper precaution must be taken since ether vapours catch fire.
3. A mixture of blue-black ink. Separation can be done by chromatography.
4. A mixture of copper sulphate and water. The separation can be done by concentration followed by cooling the concentrated solution (crystallisation).
5. A mixture of naphthalene and sodium chloride. Separation can be done in a china dish, covered by a funnel. The process is called sublimation. Naphthalene gets separated as sublimate leaving behind sodium chloride.

Question 51.
You are provided with a mixture containing iron filings, ammonium chloride, sand and sodium chloride. Describe the procedure that you would use to separate the constituents from the mixture.
Answer:
Place the mixture on a paper or petridish. Move a bar magnet a number of times over the mixture. Iron filings get attached to the magnet and can be separated later on by scrapping. Transfer the remaining mixture to a china dish and subject it to the sublimation process. Ammonium chloride sublimes leaving behind sodium chloride and sand. Transfer the mixture to a glass beaker. Add a small amount of water and stir with a glass rod for some time. Sodium chloride completely dissolves in water leaving behind sand as such. The latter can be removed by filtration. The filtrate on concentration and cooling gives crystals of sodium chloride.

Question 52.
Process of simple distillation can be used to separate the constituents from a liquid mixture differing in their boiling points by 25°C or more. However, fractional distillation is effective if the difference in boiling points is less than 25°C. How will you explain this ?
Answer:
In simple distillation, only the low boiling liquid will distil while high boiling liquid will remain in the distillation flask. Thus, separation can be done if the difference in the boiling points of the liquids is 25° C or more. In the second case, both the liquids will distil simultaneously. The distillate will contain the fractions of both the liquids. If a fractionating column is used, the vapours of high boiling liquid will also rise into the column along with the low boiling liquid. But they will condense first releasing energy (called latent heat of condensation) and fall back in the distillation flask as a liquid. This energy will be absorbed by the vapours of the low boiling liquid which will remain in the vapour state. It will get distilled while the high boiling liquid unable to get distilled, will remain in the distillation flask only. In this way, separation can be done. Thus, the role of fractionating column is to put obstructions in the path of the vapours of the liquids that are rising upwards.

Question 53.
Give an example of a mixture which exhibits following characteristics.

1. Two non-miscible components,
2. Two volatile components with appreciable difference in boiling points.
3. Two coloured components.
4. Water containing certain suspended particles.
5. Water containing a soluble salt. (f) A volatile and a non-volatile component.

Answer:

1. A mixture of kerosene and water.
2. A mixture of ether (b.p. = 35° C), and ethyl alcohol (b.p. = 78° C).
3. A mixture of blue/black ink.
4. A colloidal solution of starch.
5. A mixture of copper sulphate in water.
6. A mixture of ammonium chloride and sodium chloride.

Question 54.
Rama tested the solubility of four substances at different temperatures and found in grams of each substance dissolved in 100 g of water to form a saturated solution.

1. Which substance is least soluble at 293 K.
2. Which substance shows maximum change in its solubility when the temperature is raised from 293 K to 313 K ?
3. Find the amount of ammonium chloride that will separate out when 55 g of its solution at 333 K is cooled to 293 K.
4. What is the effect of temperature on the solubility of a salt ? –
5. What mass of sodium chloride would be needed to make a saturated solution in 10 g of water at 293 K ?

Answer:

1. Potassium nitrate is least soluble in water at 293 K.
2. Potassium nitrate shows maximum change in its solubility which is 30 g (62-32) per 100 g of water.
3. From the available information, 55 g of ammonium chloride solution upon cooling from 333 K to 293 K separates salt = (55 – 37) = 18 g.
4. From the available information, it is clear that the solubility of salt in water increases with the rise in temperature.
5. At 293 K, in a saturated solution,
   100 g of water has sodium chloride = 36 g
   10 g of water has sodium chloride = 3.6 g

Question 55.

1. Name the separation technique used to separate the constituents of the mixture of miscible liquids. Draw a labelled diagram of the process for separating mixture of acetone and water.
2. List two properties of the mixture of miscible liquids essential for the process.
3. K simple fractionating column is provided with beads. Give reasons.

Answer:

1. The separation technique depends upon the boiling temperature difference between the miscible liquids.
   If they differ in their boiling points by 25°C or more, the separation can be done by simple distillation. If the difference is less than 25°C, fractional distillation is used. Acetone (b.p. = 56°C) and water (b.p. = 100°C) can be separated by simple distillation. For the labelled diagram,
   
2. The constituents of the miscible liquids should be volatile in nature.
   The constituents of the miscible liquids should not react chemically with each other.
3. The purpose of beads in the fractionating column is to obstruct the upward movement of liquid with higher boiling point. This helps in the separation of the two liquids.

Question 56.
The concentration of a salt solution in terms of mass by mass percentage is 20% and the mass of the solution is 550 g. Determine the mass of solute present in the solution.
Answer:

Question 57.
(a) To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find the concentration at this temperature.
(b) What is the effect of temperature on the solubility of a solid in a liquid ?
(c) Why is it possible to distinguish the particles of a solute from those of a solvent in a suspension ?
Answer:

(b) Solubility of a solid in a liquid is generally directly proportional to the temperature. If the temperature increases, the solubility increases. If the temperature decreases, so is the solubility. However, there are some exceptions also. Solubility of lithium carbonate in water decreases with increase in temperature.
(c) In a suspension, the size of the particles of the dispersed phase is quite big. They can be easily distin¬guished from the particles of the dispersion medium. They can be seen even with naked eye.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

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CBSE Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 Extra Questions People as Resource Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource.

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Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers People as Resource

SOLVED QUESTION BANK

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Question 1.
What is people as a resource?
Answer:
People as a resource means people are an asset rather than a liability, i.e., the work population of a country.

Question 2.
When does population becomes human capital?
Answer:
Population becomes human capital when investment is made in the form of education, training and medical care. It adds up to the productive power of a country.

Question 3.
What is the positive side of a large population?
Answer:
A large population, from productive aspect, contributes to Gross National Product.

You can also Download NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science PDF to help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Question 4.
What is human capital? [CBSE2011]
Answer:
When investment is made in the form of education, training and medical care, the quality of population improves and becomes a great asset. It is known as human capital.

Question 5.
How can investment be made in humans?
Answer:
Investment can be made in humans by means of education, training and provision of health care facilities.

Question 6.
How does the society benefit from investment in humans?
Answer:
The benefit of society from investment in humans is an indirect way that is the benefits of educated and healthier population spreads to those who are not educated or healthy.

Question 7.
How is human capital superior to other resources?
Answer:
Human capital is superior to other resources because other resources can be developed only by human beings with their skills and knowledge. They can not be developed and become useful on their own.

Question 8.
Why do educated parents invest heavily in the education of their children?
Answer:
Educated parents invest more in the health and education of their children because they are aware of the benefits of higher education.

Question 9.
How illiterate parents create a vicious cycle for their children?
Answer:
Illiterate parents who are not aware of the advantages of education and hygiene, deprive their children of these which in turn results in their children falling in the trap of a vicious circle.

Question 10.
What are different types of primary activities?
Answer:
Primary activities include agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, mining, quarrying and poultry farming etc.

Question 11.
What are tertiary activities?
Answer:
Tertiary activities include services like education, health, communication, banking, trade, transport, tourism, insurance etc. These services help in the smooth functioning of primary and secondary activities.

Question 12.
A person is making envelopes with the help of paper. In which sector should his activity be included? [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Secondary sector

Question 13.
What are economic activities?
Answer:
The activities which help to earn money for the country or add value to the national income are known as economic activities.

Question 14.
What are non-economic activities?
Answer:
Non-economic activities are those activities which do not add to the national income such as an individual performing domestic chores.

Question 15.
Define market activities.
Answer:
Market activities are those activities for which the people, who perform these activities, are paid or have profits such as production of goods and services.

Question 16.
What are non-market activities?
Answer:
Non-market activities are those activities which are carried out for self-consumption such as consumption and processing of primary products and own account production of fixed assets.

Question 17.
In which case women get paid for their work?
Answer:
Women are paid for their work when they enter into the labour market.

Question 18.
What are the major determinants of earnings?
Answer:
Education and skill are the two major determinants of earnings.

Question 19.
What is an unorganised sector?
Answer:
It is a sector where the income of people is low and irregular. The basic facilities such as maternity leave, childcare and other social security systems are also absent in an unorganised sector.

Question 20.
What kinds of jobs in the organised sector attract women?
Answer:
In the organised sector, teaching and medicine attract the women most.

Question 21.
Mention two factors on which quality of population depends.
Answer:
The two factors are the literacy rate and the health of a person indicated by life expectancy and skill formation of the people.

Question 22.
Which factor decides the growth rate of a country?
Answer:
The growth rate of a country is decided by the quality of population.

Question 23.
How is education useful to an individual?
Answer:
Education is useful in making better use of the economic opportunities available to an individual.

Question 24.
What are Navodaya Vidyalayas?
Answer:
Navodaya Vidyalayas are the schools started for the talented children in the rural areas.

Question 25.
Why have vocational streams been developed?
Answer:
Vocational streams have been developed to equip large number of high school students with occupations related to knowledge and skills.

Question 26.
Mention the literacy rates of population in 1951 and 2010-11.
Answer:
18% in 1951 and 74% in 2010-11.

Question 27.
What differences have been noted in literacy among different sections of the society and states?
Answer:
The differences are higher between males and females, more in urban areas than rural areas and higher in Kerala than Bihar.

Question 28.
Even though primary schools have expanded largely in villages, mention the reasons for their diluted result?
Answer:
The poor quality of schooling and high dropout rates are the reasons for their diluted results.

Question 29.
What do you know about Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?
Answer:
It is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years by 2010.

Question 30.
What is the main aim of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?
Answer:
It is a time-bound initiative of the central government in partnership with the states, the local government and the community for achieving the goals of universalisation of elementary education.

Question 31.
Why have mid-day meal scheme been launched by the government in the schools?
Answer:
Mid-day meal scheme has been launched by the government in schools to encourage attendance and retention of children and to improve their nutritional status.

Question 32.
What are the strategies adopted in the 12th plan for education and literacy?
Answer:
The strategies include increasing access, quality, adoption of states-specific curriculum modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology. It is also focussed on convergence of formal, non-formal, distance and IT education institutions.

Question 33.
Mention two things necessary for good health.
Answer:
The two things which are necessary for good health are:

1. Balanced and nutritious diet
2. Health care facilities

Question 34.
What is the aim of National Health Policy of India?
Answer:
The National Health Policy aims at improving the accessibility of healthcare, family welfare and nutritional services with special focus on the underprivileged segment of the population.

Question 35.
What is infant mortality rate? [CBSE 20151
Answer:
The infant mortality rate (IMR) refers to the number of deaths of infants per thousand live births before completing one year.

Question 36.
What do you mean by birth rate?
Answer:
The birth rate is the total number of live births per 1,000 people during a particular period of time.

Question 37.
Define death rate.
Answer:
The death rate is the total number of people dying per 1,000 people during a particular period of time.

Question 38.
What are the two indicators for assessing the future of a country?
Answer:
The two indicators for assessing the future of a country are increase in life expectancy and improvement in childcare.

Question 39.
How many medical colleges and dental colleges are in India?
Answer:
There are 381 medical colleges in the country and 301 dental colleges.

Question 40.
What do you mean by the term ‘unemployment’?
Answer:
It is a situation when people, who are willing to work at the existing wages, are not able to find jobs for themselves.

Question 41.
How does rural areas differ from urban areas in terms of unemployment?
Answer:
In rural areas, there is seasonal and disguised unemployment whereas in urban areas, there is educated unemployment.

Question 42.
What is meant by seasonal unemployment? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
It is a situation when people are not able to find jobs during the particular months of a year especially in agriculture.

Question 43.
What is disguised unemployment?
Answer:
It is a situation when people appear to be employed but in reality they are not such as in agriculture if five people are working but only three are required, then two people are disguised unemployed.

Question 44.
What is educated unemployment?
Answer:
It means unemployment among the educated people. It usually occurs in cities where there are educated or skilled people but no job opportunities.

Question 45.
Mention two consequences of unemployment.
Answer:
The two consequences of unemployment are:

1. It leads to wastage of manpower resources.
2. It tends to increase in economic overload.

Question 46.
‘Unemployment rate is low in India.’ Why? [HOTS]
Answer:
In India, the unemployment rate is low because large number of people with low income and productivity are counted as employed.

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Question 47.
Define Human capital and human capital formation. Name any two sources of human capital formation.
Answer:
When investment is made in the form of education, training and medical care, the quality of population improves and becomes a great asset. It is known as human capital.

When the investment is made in the existing human resource for further development by becoming more educated and healthy is termed as human capital farmatipn.

The two sources of human capital formation are education and health.

Question 48.
Mention three sectors of economic activities with examples. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The three sectors of economic activities are:

1. Primary sector. It produces goods by exploiting natural resources. It includes agriculture, forestry, mining, animal husbandry and fishing.
2. Secondary sector. It converts all raw material into finished goods such as manufacturing industries and construction activities.
3. Tertiary sector. It includes trade, transportation, communication, education, health, tourism and insurance etc. It helps in the smooth functioning of primary and secondary sectors.

Question 49.
Define economic activities. Highlight the two types of economic activities. [CBSE 2014]
                                                                    Or
What is an economic activity? What are the different types of economic activities? [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Economic activities are those activities which add value to the national income. The two types of economic activities are:

1. Market activities. These are those activities which involve remuneration to those who perform the activities for wages or profit.
2. Non-market activities. These activities refer to production activities which are performed for self-consumption and processing of primary products and own account production of fixed assets.

Question 50.
Distinguish between market and non-market activities with three points of distinction.
Answer:

 
Question 51.
How are the children of educated parents are different from those of uneducated ones?
Answer:

Question 52.
Mention any three features of National Health Policy. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The three features of National Health Policy are:

1. It aims at improving the accessibility of healthcare and family welfare.
2. It aims at improving the nutritional services with special focus on under-privileged segment of the population.
3. It has improved the ratio of nurses, doctors and beds in the country.

Question 53.
What is the health status of the population in India?
Answer:

1. India has built a vast health infrastructure and has also developed the manpower required at primary, secondary and tertiary sector in government, as well as, in the private sector.
2. Life expectancy have been increased to over 68.3 years in 2014.
3. Infant mortality rate has come down from 147 in 1951 to 37 in 2015.
4. Crude birth rates have dropped to 20.8 and death rates to 6.5 within the same duration of time.

Question 54.
Why is health of people a matter of major concern for the Indian government?
Answer:
Health is an important determinant of the quality of production and in turn affects the overall growth and development of a country. In spite of improvement in health, medical facilities, decline in infant mortality rate etc. it continues to remain a matter of concern because:

1. Safe drinking water and basic amenities are still only available to one-third of the rural population.
2. The per capita calories consumption is still much below the recommended levels.

Question 55.
“Unemployment leads to low income and low savings and hence low demand and low production. This is the identification of a depressed economy.” Support the statement with three arguments.
[CBSE 2016; HOTS]
Answer:
Unemployment has negative effects on the economic development of a country in the following ways

1. It is a wastage of manpower resource. It increases the economic overload and the number of dependent on population.
2. The quality of life of an individual as well as the society is adversely affected. There is a feeling of hopelessness among the youth.
3. The time period lost in the unemployment is an irrecoverable loss. It is the loss of productive period and the loss can not be compensated.

Thus, increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Question 56.
In what way is human capital superior to other sources like physical capital? How a large population is turned into a productive asset? Explain. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Human capital is superior to other sources like physical capital as it can make use of other sources like land and physical capital. Human capital can develop land and physical capital according to his skill and education because they could not develop on their own.
A large population is turned into a productive asset by the following ways:

1. Proper investment in developing skills.
2. Emphasis on academic and vocational aspects of students.
3. Making available opportunities accessible to large section of people like technological know how.

Question 57.
Describe the employment scenario in the three sectors of the economy in India in recent years. [CBSE 2013] [HOTS]
Answer:
Agriculture is the most labour absorbing absorbing sector sector of the economy. In recent years, there has been a decline in the dependence of population on agriculture partly because of disguised unemployment. Some of the surplus labour in agriculture has moved to secondary or tertiary sectors. Small-scale manufacturing is the most labour absorbing sector in secondary sector. The tertiary sector has seen a remarkable improvement in its employment in recent years. In this sector, various new services are now appearing such as biotechnology, information technology and so on.

Question 58.
Analyse the role of education in the formation of human capital formation. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The role of education in human capital formation is as follows:

1. Educated people earn more than the uneducated people.
2. Literate population is an asset to an economy.
3. It leads to higher productivity.
4. It opens new avenues for a person.
5. It provides new aspirations and develops values of life. if) It contributes to the growth of society.
6. It enhances the national income, cultural richness and the efficiency of the governance.

Question 59.
Describe five main features of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The five main features of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan are:

1. It is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years.
2. It is a time-bound initiative of the central government, in partnership with the states, the local government and the community for attaining the goal of universalisation of elementary education.
3. In this, bridge courses and back-to-school camps have been introduced to increase the enrolment in elementary education.
4. Mid-day meal scheme has been introduced to encourage attendance in schools and increase their nutritional status.
5. These type of polices of the government could add to the literate minds and further the economic development.

Question 60.
Describe the policy of government on higher education as per 12th Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The policy of the Indian government under the 12th Five Year Plan is as follows:

1. It focusses on improving the education sector.
2. It focusses on increasing access, quality and adoption of state-specific curriculum, modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology.
3. It focusses on distance education, convergence of formal and non-formal distance and IT education institutions.
4. It aims at reducing gender gaps in literacy and to increase the literacy rates within the time period.
5. It aims at increasing the enrolment in higher education of 18 to 23 years age to 25.2% by 2017-18 and to reach the target of 30% by 2020-21.

Question 61.
Why will a firm not like to employ a worker with ill-health? How does it affect the working environment? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
A firm will not like to employ an ill-healthy worker because:

1. An unhealthy worker would not be able to contribute to the overall productivity of an organisation.
2. An unhealthy worker is a liability rather than an asset for an organisation.
3. An unhealthy worker cannot contribute to the growth of the organisation.
4. An unhealthy worker does not work regularly and remains on leaves due to sickness.
5. It creates a gloomy atmosphere in the surroundings.

Question 62.
Describe different types of unemployment found in India. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The different types of unemployment found in India are:

1. Disguised unemployment. This is the phenomenon where too many workers are working in a specific job. It happens in small agricultural farms where the whole family is working on the same farm but so many workers are not required to cultivate the farm efficiently.
2. Seasonal unemployment. It occurs when workers can find work in a specific season. For example, agricultural workers may find work only during busy agricultural seasons when sowing, harvesting, weeding and threshing are done.
3. Educated unemployment. This type of unemployment is common in urban areas. There is unemployment among the educated and technically skilled workers because they are not able to find the jobs for themselves.

Question 63.
Explain any five effects of unemployment on the overall growth of the economy. [CBSE 2014]
                                                             Or
How does unemployment affect the overall growth of an economy?
Answer:
The five effects of unemployment on the overall growth of an economy are:

1. It leads to wastage of manpower resource.
2. The people who are an asset become a liability.
3. It creates a feeling of hopelessness and despair among the young people. ‘
4. It increases economic overload, i.e., the dependence of unemployed on the working population.
5. The quality of life of an individual gets affected.

Hope given Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 are helpful to complete your homework.

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CBSE Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Poverty as a Challenge Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge.

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Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Poverty as a Challenge

SOLVED QUESTION BANK

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]

Question 1.
What kind of people in India are considered poor?
Answer:
They could be landless labourers in villages or people living in overcrowded jhuggis in cities. They could be daily wage earners at construction sites or child workers in dhabas. They could also be beggars with children in tatters.

Question 2.
What is poverty?
Answer:
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to get the minimum basic necessities of life, i.e., food, clothing and shelter for his or her sustenance.

Question 3.
Mention any one historical reason for poverty.
Answer:
Low level of income under the British colonial rule.

Question 4.
State two consequences of poverty. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Growth of slums and high level of indebtedness are the two consequences of poverty.

Question 5.
What are the factors of human poverty?
Answer:
There are many factors of human poverty like not having job security, discrimination due to caste, having inadequate access to education, shelter or food etc.

Question 6.
Why is the concept of poverty being broadened into human poverty?
Answer:
The concept of poverty is being broadened into human poverty as the challenge is becoming bigger and the analysis of poverty is becoming rich through a variety of new concepts like social exclusion.

Question 7.
Mention any one common indicator of poverty.
Answer:
Social exclusion is a common indicator of poverty today.

Question 8.
How is the analysis of poverty becoming rich in recent years?
Answer:
The analysis of poverty is being enriched through a variety of new concepts like social exclusion and vulnerability.

Question 9.
What is poverty line?
Answer:
Poverty line is an indicator of poverty, i.e., it is a level of income which barely meets sustenance.

Question 10.
When is a person considered poor? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
A person is considered poor if his or her income or consumption level falls below the given minimum level necessary to fulfil the basic needs.

Question 11.
Who is an urban poor?
Answer:
An urban poor is a person who has an income of ₹ 1,000 per month and in terms of calories, has a requirement of 2,100 calories per person per day.

Question 12.
Which methods are used to estimate the poverty line in India?
Answer:
The daily income and consumption method are used to estimate the poverty line in India.

Question 13.
How is poverty line estimated periodically? State the organisation which is responsible for estimating poverty.
Answer:
The poverty line is estimated periodically by conducting sample surveys. These surveys are carried out by the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO).

Question 14.
Why is the calorie requirement higher in rural areas?
Answer:
On account of people in the rural areas engaging themselves in strenuous physical work, calorie requirement in rural areas is higher than in urban areas.

Question 15.
Give the definition of poverty line as defined by the World Bank.
Answer:
World Bank defines poverty line in terms of minimum availability of the equivalent of $ 1.90 per person per day.

Question 16.
Which social groups are vulnerable to poverty? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The two social groups, most vulnerable to poverty, are scheduled castes and scheduled tribes households.

Question 17.
Give any two poorest states in India.
Answer:
Odisha and Bihar are the two poorest states in India.

Question 18.
Which states of India has seen a significant decline in poverty?
Answer:
There has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal.

Question 19.
Poverty, which was officially non-existent earlier, has resurfaced in which country?
Answer:
Russia

Question 20.
What led to the substantial decline in poverty in China? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The substantial decline in poverty in China has been a result of rapid economic growth and massive investment in human resource development.

Question 21.
By which year the new sustainable development goals of the United Nations proposes ending all types of poverty?
Answer:
2030.

Question 22.
How is regular growth of population one of the major causes of poverty? [HOTS]
Answer:
High population growth rate increases the rate of depletion of resources. Due to this, pressure on resources increases. People will have to manage with a smaller share of resources, thus bringing more people below the poverty line.

Question 23.
The current anti-poverty programme consists of two planks. Name them.
Answer:
The two planks of the current anti-poverty programme are:

1. Promotion of economic growth
2. Targeted anti-poverty programmes

Question 24.
Name the scheme which was launched to create self-employment opportunities for the educated youth in the rural areas.
Answer:
The Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana

Question 25.
What is the full form of MGNREGA?
Answer:
MGNREGA stands for Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 26.
What does PMGY stand for?
Answer:
PMGY stands for Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana.

Question 27.
When was Rural Employment Generation Programme launched?
Answer:
REGP was launched in the year 1995.

Question 28.
What is India’s most compelling challenge?
Answer:
India’s most compelling challenge is poverty reduction.

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]

Question 29.
Explain the colonial rule and income inequalities as causes of poverty.
Answer:
One historical reason responsible for the low level of economic development, i.e., poverty, was the British colonial administration. It was responsible for the ruin of the traditional handicrafts and textile industries. It led to a fall in employment and thereby income level.
The situation was further aggravated by the high growth rate of population. As a result, the growth . rate of per capita income was very low.

Another major cause of poverty has been the huge inequalities in income, which are attributed to unequal distribution of land and other resources. Major policy initiatives like land reforms which aimed at redistribution of assets in rural areas were not properly implemented.

Question 30.
“Poverty is a curse upon humanity.” Explain. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Indeed ‘poverty is a curse upon humanity’ because the poor cannot afford belly-full meals a day.

1. The poor do not have a proper roof on their heads to protect themselves from cold, rain and heat.
2. Basic essentials like clothing, oil and soap etc. are missing in the daily routine of the poor. They cannot afford a minimum subsistence level of living.
3. Sick members of the family suffering from serious aliments like TB, cancer etc. cannot be looked after in the absence of medication.
4. In the absence of savings on account of very low income, the poor fall an easy prey to indebtedness.

Question 31.
“Every fourth person in India is poor.” Substantiate the given statement. [HOTS]
Answer:
The above statement throws light upon the fact that in India there is poverty all around us. This
implies that roughly 270 million people in India live in poverty. This also substantiates the fact that India has the largest single concentration of the poor in the world.

India faces the biggest challenge on the poverty front with the landless labourers in villages, over crowded jhuggis in cities, daily wage workers, child workers in the dhabas and beggars around us. .

Question 32.
Explain any three social indicators through which poverty is looked upon. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Poverty today is looked upon through social indicators like illiteracy level, lack of access to healthcare,
lack of job opportunities etc.

1. People are poor because they are illiterate and they are illiterate because they are poor.
2. Poverty is a situation where sick people cannot afford treatment, i.e., they lack access to healthcare.
3. Poverty also implies lack of a regular job, at a minimum decent level.

Question 33.
Define ‘Vulnerability’. How is it determined?
Answer:
Vulnerability refers to a measure describing the greater probability of certain communities like people belonging to backward castes, handicapped persons, old women etc. becoming or remaining poor in the coming years. It is determined by the options available to different sections of the society to have an access to an alternative living in terms of assets, education, health, and job opportunities, when confronted with any kind of disaster or calamity.

Question 34.
Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
In India, the poverty line is estimated periodically, usually every-five years, by conducting sample
surveys. These surveys are carried out by the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO).

In India, for determining the poverty line, the accepted average calorie requirement is 2,400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2,100 calories per person per day in urban areas. In the year 2011-12, the poverty line for a person was fixed at ? 816 per month for the rural areas and ? 1,000 for the urban areas.

But for making comparisons between developing countries, many international organisations like the World Bank use a uniform standard for the poverty line, i.e., minimum availability of the equivalent of $ 1.90 per person per day.

Question 35.
Explain the two methods to estimate poverty line. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The two methods used to estimate poverty line are: –

1. Income method. It this method, the poverty line is estimated with the help of minimum income required. In the year 2011-12, the poverty line for a person was fixed at ₹ 816 per month
   for the rural areas and ₹ 1,000 per month for the urban areas. The higher amount for urban areas has been fixed because of high prices of essential products in urban areas.
2. Consumption method. In this method, the average calorie requirement of a person is multiplied to the current prices. The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2,400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2,100 calories per person per day in urban areas.

Question 36.
Analyse the factors responsible for contributing to decline in poverty in Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Punjab.
Answer:
There has been a decline in poverty in Kerala because it has focused more on human resource development.

In states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, the public distribution of foodgrains could have contributed to the improvement in food availability and thereby reducing the poverty.

In Punjab, there has been a reduction in the level of poverty on account of high agricultural growth rate.

Question 37.
“Removal of poverty has been one of the major objective of Indian development strategy.” In the light of this statement explain the two planks of Indian government on anti-poverty strategy.
[CBSE 2012; HOTS]
Answer:
Over a span of thirty years, till early 1980s a very little growth in per capita income was observed and reduction in poverty was also not much.

Since the eighties, India’s economic growth has been the fastest in the world from 3.5% per annum in 1970s to about 6% during the 1990s. The higher growth rate has helped significantly in the reduction of poverty.
This stands a testimony to the strong link between the economic growth and reduction in poverty.

In the light of these, there is a dire need for the introduction of targeted anti-poverty programme to affect poverty directly or indirectly. Some of the major programmes in this direction are MGNREGA, PMRY, SGSY, AAY etc.

Question 38.
Why the results of the poverty alleviation programmes have been mixed up?
Answer:
The results of poverty alleviation programmes have been mixed up on account of:

1. Lack of proper implementation and right targeting.
2. Less effectiveness due to a lot of overlapping of these schemes.
3. Despite the good intentions, the benefits of these programmes have not fully reached the deserving poor.
4. Lack of proper monitoring of these programmes. (any three)

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Question 39.
State the dimensions of poverty.
Answer:
The various dimensions of poverty are:

1. It means hunger and shelter.
2. It is a situation in which parents are not able to send their children to schools.
3. It is a situation where sick people cannot afford treatment.
4. It means lack of safe drinking water and sanitation facilities.
5. It means lack of a regular job at a minimum decent level.

Question 40.
Give an account of inter-state disparities in poverty in India. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
In every state, the proportion of poor is not the same. As a matter of fact, the success rate of reducing poverty varies from state to state. While the All India Head Count Ratio (HCR) was 21.9% in 2011-12, but states like Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Odisha has poverty above the all India poverty level. Bihar and Odisha continue to be the poorest states with poverty ratios of 33.7% and 32.6% respectively. In Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh along with rural poverty urban poverty is also high.

There has been a significant decline in poverty in states like Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal. High agricultural growth rates are responsible for reducing poverty in Punjab and Haryana. Kerala has focussed more on human resource development. Land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty in West Bengal. Public distribution of food grains is held responsible for the improvement on the poverty front of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 41.
Give one most suitable factor responsible for the reduction of poverty in each of the following cases.
(a) Punjab
(b) Kerala
(c) West Bangal
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:

1. High agricultural growth rates are responsible for reducing poverty in Punjab.
2. Kerala has focussed more on human resource development.
3. Land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty in West Bengal.
4. Public distribution of food grains is responsible for the improvement in poverty in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 42.
Mention any four causes of poverty in India. [CBSE 2016,15,13,12, 11]
                                                   Or
Discuss the major reasons of poverty in India. [CBSE 2016,15, 11, 10]
Answer:
There are a number of causes responsible for the widespread poverty in India. Some of them are:

1. Low level of economic development under the British rule in India.
2. Decline of Indian handicrafts industry-, which led to unemployment, poverty and misery which were responsible for the low rate of income growth.
3. Social factors like caste system, religious faiths and beliefs also kept certain section of people in society in poverty.
4. High growth rate of population led to a very low per capita income in the country.
5. Huge income inequalities due to unequal distribution of land and other resources.

Question 43.
What are the main features of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005?
[CBSE 2016, 13, 12, 11]
Answer:
The main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 are:

1. The Act assures 100 days employment every year to every rural household.
2. It also aimed at sustainable development to address the cause of draught, deforestation and soil erosion.
3. One-third of the jobs are reserved for women.
4. The share of SCs, STs and women are 23 per cent, 17 per cent and 53 per cent respectively, (ie) Under this, the average wage has increased from ₹ 65 in 2006-07 to ₹ 132 in 2013-14.
5. The scheme provided employment to 220 crores person days of employment to 4.78 crore household. (any five)

Question 44.
Elucidate the targeted anti-poverty programmes undertaken by the government.
Answer:
The government has launched many schemes affecting poverty directly or indirectly. Some of the
most important programmes are:

1. Mahatama Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005. It aims to provide 100 days of wage employment to every household to ensure security of livelihood in rural areas. It also aims at sustainable development to address the causes of draught, soil erosion and deforestation. One-third of the proposed jobs have been reserved for women under this scheme. The share of SCs, STs and women in the scheme are 23%, 17% and 53% respectively. The average wage has increased from ₹ 65 in 2006-07 to ₹ 132 in 2013-14.
2. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY). It was started in 1993. The aim of the scheme is to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in the rural areas and towns. The youth are provided assistance in setting up small business and industries.
3. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP). It was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns.
4. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY). It was launched in 1999. The aim is to bring the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into Self-Help Groups (SHGs) with the help of bank credit and government subsidy.
   (e) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY). It was launched in 2000. Under this, additional central assistance is given to states for basic services like primary health, primary education, rural drinking water and rural electrification.

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CBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Population Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science SST Geography Chapter 6 Population.

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NCERT Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are people considered an important part of society?
Answer:
People are considered an important part of society as they develop the economy and the society, make and use resources. People are both producers and consumers of the resources.

Question 2.
‘Population is the pivotal element in social studies’. How?
Answer:
Population is the point of reference from which all other elements are observed and from which they derive meaning and significance.

Question 3.
After how many years is the census held?
Answer:
After 10 years.

Question 4.
What do you mean by size and distribution of population?
Answer:
Population size means number of people at a particular time and place. Population distribution means how are they located in various regions.

Question 5.
Mention the different components of population quality.
Answer:
Age, sex composition, literacy levels, occupational structure and health condition are the different components of population quality.

Question 6.
According to the 2011 census which was the most populous state of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Question 7.
Name the biggest Indian state in terms of area.
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 8.
How is the density of population calculated?
Answer:
The density of population is calculated by the number of persons per unit area.

Question 9.
What position does India hold in the world with regard to its population density?
Answer:
India hold the third position after Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 10.
What was the population density of India in the year 2011?
Answer:
382 persons per sq km.

Question 11.
Give two reasons why the population density is low in some areas.
Answer:
Rugged terrain and unfavourable climate are the two reasons.

Question 12.
Which Indian regions have moderate population density?
Answer:
The North eastern and peninsular regions have moderate population density

Question 13.
Give reasons for moderate population density in peninsular states.
Answer:
Shallow and less fertile soil, moderate to low rainfall, hilly, rocky and dissected nature of the terrain are some factors.

Question 14.
Which regions of India have high population density?
Answer:
The Northern Plain have high population density.

Question 15.
Identify the three states of the Northern Plains with high population densities.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal

Question 16.
Mention two reasons responsible for the high density of population in the Northern Plains.
Answer:
Flat plain with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

Question 17.
What was the annual growth rate of India’s population in 2011?
Answer:
1.64%

Question 18.
What are the process involved in population change?
Or
What are the three processes involved in the change of numbers, distribution and composition of the population?
Answer:
Births, deaths and migrations are the processes involved in population change.

Question 19.
Mention two ways through which population change could be expressed.
Answer:
The two ways to express population change include absolute number and percentage change per year.

Question 20.
Which is the major component of population growth in India? Why?
Answer:
Birth rate is the major component of growth in India because birth rates have always been higher than death rates.

Question 21.
Mention two types of migration.
Answer:
The two types of migration are internal and international migration.

Question 22.
What is international migration?
Answer:
International migration is the movement of people between countries.

Question 23.
Which movement of the people across regions and territories does not change the size of the population? [CBSE 2010]
Answer:
Internal migration.

Question 24.
Which population factor is influenced by internal migration size or distribution? [HOTS]
Answer:
The distribution of population within a country is influenced by internal migration.

Question 25.
What is the sex ratio in India according to 2011 census?
Answer:
943 females per 1000 males

Question 26.
What is the sex ratio of Kerala, Puducherry, Delhi and Haryana as per 2011 census?
Answer:
(a) Kerala – 1084 females per 1000 males.
(b) Puducherry – 1038 females per 1000 males.
(c) Delhi – 866 females per 1000 males.
(d) Haryana – 877 females per 1000 males.

Question 27.
What is the pattern of internal migration in India?
Answer:
From rural to urban area.

Question 28.
What do you understand by the term ‘age composition’?
Answer:
The age composition of a population refers to the number of people in different age groups in a country.

Question 29.
What benefits have to be provided to children below 15 years?
Answer:
Children below 15 years are economically unproductive and need to be provided with food, clothing, education and medical care.

Question 30.
Which age groups are considered ‘non-producers’?
Answer:
The children below 15 years and the aged above 59 years are considered non-producers.

Question 31.
In whose favour has the sex ratio been in the country?
Answer:
The sex ratio in the country has always remained favourable to males and unfavourable to females.

Question 32.
What do you understand by the term ‘literacy’?
Answer:
Literacy relates to quality of being able to read and write in any language.

Question 33.
What is the literacy rate of India as per the 2011 census?
Answer:
73% (80.9% for males and 64.6% for females).

Question 34.
Why do difference exsist in literary level of males and females in India?
Answer:
Because more preference is given to males as compared to females. Males are considered as earning members, so they are more literate.

Question 35.
Name one social indicator and one economic indicator of population composition. [HOTS]
Answer:
One important social indicator is sex ratio and economic indicator is occupational structure

Question 36.
What is occupational structure?
Answer:
The distribution of the population according to different types of occupations is referred to as the occupational structure.

Question 37.
Mention the classification of occupations.
Answer:
Occupations are classified in primary, secondary and tertiary activities.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 38.
What are the three major issues inculcate through the census?
Answer:
The three major issues inculcated through census are:
(a) Population size and distribution. It explains how many people are there in a specific region and where they are located.
(b) Population growth and processes of population change. It means how the population has grown and changed with the times.
(c) Characteristics or qualities of the population. The age, sex, composition, literacy levels, occupational structure and health conditions can be known.

Question 39.
Define census. What is the importance of the study of population?
Answer:
Census is the counting of population of a country. In India, it takes place after every ten years. In census, various kinds of information is collected about the members of the households. On the basis of this information, the government provides details about birth rate, death rate, sex ratio, literacy and other important features of population. The importance of studying population is mainly in estimating the total manpower available for production and total amount of goods and services required for their consumption.

Question 40.
Describe the distribution of population in India. [CBSE 2015, 2016]
Answer:
(a) The population of India, as on March 2011, stood at 1,210.6 million. These 1.21 billion people
are unevenly distributed over 3.28 million square km.
(b) The population is divided into:
Very densely population – Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh. Very sparsely population—Sikkim Lakshadweep, Rajasthan, Arunachal Pradesh.
Moderately population – States like Assam and Peninsular states.
(c) The dense population is due to fertile, flat land and favourable climate. On the other hand, hilly areas or regions with low rainfall do not allow people to settle there.

Question 41.
What were the causes of uneven population in India? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
The population of India is unevenly distributed in India because of the following reasons:
(a) Relief of the land: Where there are mountains and rugged relief the population is sparse. Flat and fertile land favours the population density.
(b) Climate: Less people live in cold climate, in very hot climate and where it is dry. More people live in areas where the climate is favourable.
(c) In regions where the industrial development is more the population is dense as occupations are more. Moreover, the transport facilities also favour the growth of population.

Question 42.
How does migration play an important role in population growth? Explain the ‘pull’ and ‘push’ factors of migration.
Answer:
Migration leads to steady increase in the percentage of population especially in the cities and town. It not only changes the population size but also the population composition.
The ‘pull’ factor of the city is the movement or migration of people to the cities due to increased employment opportunities, education and better living conditions.
The ‘push’ factor is associated with the migration from rural to urban area due to unfavourable conditions like unemployment and poverty in the villages.

Question 43.
What has been the impact of urbanisation in India? Mention three features.
Answer:
The impact of urbanisation in India:
(a) Rapid urbanisation has led to lack of facilities like housing, sanitation, water, power and education, etc. Slums and other social tensions are created. Crime rate has increased.
(b) It has put heavy pressure on transport. Heavy rush on roads creates transport problems like traffic jams, accidents, etc. High urbanisation has created congestion and pollution.
(c) Rural areas are being neglected.

Question 44.
Why is ‘Age Composition’ considered as one of the most basic characteristics of population? Explain. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
(a) Age composition is considered as the most basic characteristics of population as age influences what a person needs, buys and his capacity to perform.
(b) The number and percentage of a population found within the children, working age and aged groups are an important factor to determine the society’s social and economic structure.
(c) The age structure in India gives more weightage to adults-58.7%, aged 6.9% and children-34.4%.

Question 45.
How are the categories of people according to age composition advantageous to India?
Answer:
The categories of people according to age composition are advantageous to India in the following manner:
Children (generally below 15 years) are economically unproductive and have to be provided with food, clothing, education and medical care as the future of the country depends upon them. Adults (15-59 years) form the working population of the country, the progress and development of the country depends upon them.
Aged (above 59 years) They may have retired but they may work voluntarily.

Question 46.
Explain any three differences between dependent and productive population.
Answer:

Question 47.
Give reasons for low sex ratio in India.
Answer:
India’s sex ratio according to 2011 census is 943 females per thousand males. It is unfavourable due to:
(a) early marriages and social evils like dowry deaths. Female children are neglected.
(b) illiteracy among females is high. They have no knowledge about pre-natal and post-natal care.
(c) low economic and political status of females.

Question 48.
“In India, literacy rate among women is still low.” Justify the statement. [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) In India, women generally look after domestic work and are left with no time to get educated
mostly in the villages. Therefore the literacy rate is low.
(b) Lack of awareness and economic backwardness is another reason for the low literacy rate,
(c) Neglect of the child, especially a girl child, is very common. They are not given proper education, nutrition and medical care.

Question 49.
Who is treated as literate according to the Census of 2001? Why is literacy an important quality of a population?
Answer:
According to the 2011 census, any person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate.
Literacy is an important quality of a population as only an informed and educated citizen can make intelligent choices and undertake research and development project. Not much economic development can take place with low literacy levels.

Question 50.
Explain the occupational structure of India.
Answer:
India has the following occupational structure:
(a) Primary-Agriculture: Majority of population in India is engaged in agriculture. This has given rise to disguised unemployment.
(b) Secondary-Industries: A little more than 10% of Indian population is engaged in secondary sector which is for less than countries of Europe. Production activities and not equally developed.
This leads to heavy dependence on primary sectors which itself is not so developed. This
leads to unbalanced economy.
(c) Tertiary: Population engaged in banking, communication and transport is only 29%.

Question 51.
What are the advantages of having a healthy population? In spite of the efforts of the government, the health situation in India is a matter of great concern. Why?
Answer:

• A healthy population only can provide welfare and well-being of a society.
• A healthy population only bear healthy mind to have responsible citizens and to contribute economic development of the country.
• Despite the achievements made a large percentage of the population still suffers from malnutrition. Safe drinking water and basic sanitation facilities are available to a very small percentage of the rural population.

Question 52.
Why is too much attention and care required for adolescent population?
Answer:
For the following reasons too much attention and care is required for adolescent population:
Adolescent population constitutes l/5th of the total population of India. Adolescents are generally grouped in the age group of 10-19 years. They are the most important resources of the future. Nutrition requirement of adolescents are higher than those of a normal child or adult.
Poor nutrition can lead to deficiency and stunted growth but in India, the diet available to adolescents is inadequate in all nutrients. A large number of adolescent girls suffer from anemia. Their problems have so far not received adequate attention in the process of development.

Question 53.
Explain how the quality of people is more important than quantity of people. [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Quality of people refers to the education, knowledge, skills of the people. The people are healthy and lead an active life. They put in more working hours and contribute more to the national income of the country. Quantity of people refers to the total population of the country. Many do not get adequate health facilities, per capita calorie consumption is much below the recommended level Safe drinking water and sanitation may not be available to them. Many may not get education and mostly are manual workers. Therefore a small mentally-developed population with a healthy body is more important than a large population.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 54.
Why is population very important in a country? [HOTS]
Or
Why is population a pivotal element in social studies?
Answer:
(a) The people are important to develop the economy and society.
(b) The people make and use the resources and are themselves resources with varying quality.
(c) It is the point of reference from which all other elements observed and from which they derive significance and meaning. ‘Resources’, ‘calamities’ and ‘disasters’ are all meaningful only in relation to human beings.
(d) Their numbers, distributions, growth and characteristics or qualities provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspect’s of the environment.
(e) Human beings are producers and consumers of earth’s resources. Therefore, it is very important to know how many people are there in a country, where do they live, how and why are their numbers increasing and what are their characteristics.

Question 55.
Define the following terms:
Answer:
(a) Population. The total number of people living in a country at a given point of time.
(b) Census. Process of collection, compilation and publication of information relating to different aspects of people living in a country at a specific point of time.
(c) Million plus cities/Mega Cities. Cities with a population of one million and above. There are 53 million plus cities in India, e.g. Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai, Bengaluru.
(d) Urban Agglomeration. Around the core of each town or city, cluster of urban settlements have developed which are linked to the economy of the country .They are known as urban agglomeration. They are extension of cities but are not covered by defined municipal limits.
(e) Sex Ratio. Number of females per thousand males in the population.

Question 56.
What is meant by annual growth rate of population? Why is even low annual growth rate of population considered not good for India? [HOTS]
Answer:
It is the percentage increase in the growth of population per year. The rate or pace of population increase is studied in per cent per year. Rate of increase of 2% per annum means that in a given year, there was an increase of two persons for every 100 persons in the base population. This is referred as annual growth rate. India’s population has been steadily increasing from 361 million in 1951 to 1210 million in 2011.
It is essential to realise that India has a very large population. When a low annual rate is applied to a large population, it becomes a very high absolute number. When more than a billion people increase even at a lower rate, the total numbers being added becomes very large.

Question 57.
Describe the classification of occupational structure. How does occupational structure indicate economic development of a country?
Answer:
It is generally classified into primary, secondary and tertiary activities.

• Primary activities include agriculture, animal husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining, quarrying etc.
• Secondary activities include manufacturing industry, building and construction work etc.
• Tertiary activities include transport, communications, commerce, administration and other services.
• Developed nations have a high proportion of people in secondary and tertiary activities because it is more productive and profitable.
• Developing countries tend to have a higher proportion of their workforce engaged in primary activities because these are not as productive and profitable as the other sectors.
• In India, about 64% of the population is engaged only in agriculture. The proportion of population dependent on
• secondary and tertiary sectors is about 13 to 20% respectively.

Question 58.
What are the factors affecting health status of people of India? What are the improvements made in the health status of people of India?
Answer:
The factors affecting health status of people of India are as follows.
(a) The per capita calorie consumption is much below the recommended levels in India and malnutrition affects a large percentage of population.
(b) Safe drinking water and basic sanitation amenities are available to only l/3rd of the rural population.
The improvements made in the health status of people of India are.
(a) Death rates have declined from 25 per 1000 population in 1951 to 7.2 per 1000 in 2011.
(b) Life expectancy at birth has increased from 36.7 years in 1951 to 67.9 years in 2012.
(c) The substantial improvement is the result of many factors including improvement in public health, prevention of infectious diseases and application of modern medical practices in diagnosis and treatment of ailments.

Question 59.
What are the significant features of NPP 2000? What are the measures taken by the NPP 2000 to protect adolescent population?
Answer:
The NPP 2000 provides a policy framework for imparting free and compulsory education for school upto 14 years of age, reducing infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births, achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases, promoting delayed marriage for girls, and making family welfare a people-centered programme.

• Besides nutritional requirements, the policy puts greater emphasis on other important needs of
  adolescence including protection from unwanted pregnancies and sexually transmitted diseases (STD).
• It called for programmes that aim towards encouraging delayed marriage and child bearing,
  education of adolescence about the risks of unprotected sex, making contraceptive services accessible and affordable, providing food supplements, nutritional services, strengthening legal measures to prevent child marriage.

MAP SKILLS

Question 60.
Locate and label the following in an outline map of India.
(a) The state having highest and lowest density of population.
(b) The state having highest and lowest sex ratio.
(c) Largest and smallest state according to area.
Answer:
(a) The state having highest density of population – Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal (any one)
The state having lowest density of population – Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Sikkim (any one)

(b) The state having highest sex ratio – Kerala
The state having lowest sex ratio – Haryana
(c) Largest state according to area – Rajasthan
Smallest state according to area – Goa

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