CBSE Class 12

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Biology is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. There are total 26 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer Type Questions of one mark each.
3. Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer Type Questions of two marks each.
4. Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer Type Questions of three marks each.
5. Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four mark.
6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer Type Questions of five marks each.
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examiner is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
8. No. of printed pages are three.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
Identify the types of immunization in case of injection of ready made antibodies for a tetanus case.

Question 2.
What are Homologous organs?

Question 3.
What is the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit?

Question 4.
Explain the term emasculation.

Question 5.
What is Adaptive radiation?

SECTION-B

Question 6.
How do sweet potato and potato differ in terms of evolution?

Question 7.
Identify the diagram and label the parts.

Question 8.
What are the barriers that comprise innate immunity?

Question 9.
What are the parts of the fallopian tube?

Question 10.
What is out-crossing?

OR

What is succession?

SECTION-C

Question  11.
What is the principle of Genetic equilibrium?

Question  12.
Draw a labelled diagram of a human sperm

Question  13.
List the salient features of DNA double helix model.

OR

Explain the parts of an ovule with a diagram

Question  14.
Explain convergent evolution with examples

Question  15.
What do you mean by withdrawal syndrome? Write the side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in males.

Question  16.
Explain some methods of Molecular Diagnosis.

Question  17.
Explain with examples, how do the plant-animal interactions involve co-evolution.

Question  18.
Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases of human beings and is a major cause of death all over the globe. Explain the
(1) Causes of cancer
(2) Techniques of detection and diagnosis
(3) Treatment and cure

Question  19.
The rate of decomposition of detritus is affected by the abiotic factors like availability of oxygen, pH of the soil substratum, temperature etc. Discuss.

Question  20.
What are the different methods of breeding?

Question  21.
When is insulin fully functional?

Question  22.
You have identified a useful gene in a bacteria. Make a flow chart of the steps that you would follow to transfer this gene to a plant.

SECTION-D

Question  23.
A young couple quarrelled with the hospital authority on suspicion that their child had been exchanged after birth. The couple based their argument on the fact that their child is O blood group whereas they are A and B blood groups respectively. The doctor smiled and explained.
(a) What values of the doctor is reflected here?
(b) How can the child be O blood group as explained by the doctor?
(c) Which test method can be considered authentic to identify the biological parents of the child?
(d) Name the other blood group(s) which the child could have inherited.

SECTION-E

Question  24.
(a) What may be the probable reasons for greater biodiversity of tropics?
(b) Explain the importance of species diversity in reference to the “rivet popper hypothesis”.

OR

Give the journey of sperm formation with diagram. What are the hormones involved

Question  25.
In a medium where E.coli was growing, lactose was added, which induced the lac operon. Then why does the lac operon shut down after some time after the addition of lactose in the medium. Explain.

OR

Answer the following:
(a) Represent schematically the independent assortment of chromosomes.
(b) What are the requisites for a molecule to be a genetic material?

Question 26.
How do you represent the food and energy relationships between organisms?

OR

What are biogeochemical cycles? Explain the carbon cycle.

Answers

SECTION-A

Answer 1.
Passive immunization.

Answer 2.
The same structure developed along different directions due to adaptations to different needs. This is divergent evolution and these structures are homologous. Homology indicates common ancestry.

Answer 3.
5′ – AUGAAUG – 3′

Answer 4.
If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces using a pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as emasculation.

Answer 5.
This process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called adaptive radiation.

SECTION-B

Answer 6.
Sweet potato is a root modification and potato is a stem modification. Different structures evolving for same function are considered analogous structures and are examples of convergent evolution.

Answer 7.
Structure of microsporangium showing wall layers

Answer 8.
Innate immunity consists of four types of barriers. These are:

1. Physical barriers
2. Physiological barriers
3. Cellular barriers
4. Cytokine barriers

Answer 9.
Infundibulum with fimbriae, Ampulla, Isthmus that joins with the uterus.

Answer 10.
The practice of mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations. The offspring of such a mating is known as an out-cross.

OR

The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called Ecological succession. Example: hydrarch and xerarch succession.

SECTION-C

Answer 11.
Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies in a population are stable and is constant from,generation to generation. The gene pool (total genes and their alleles in a population) remains constant. This is called genetic equilibrium. Sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1. Individual frequencies, for example, can be named/), q, etc. In a diploide P and q represent the frequency of allele A and allele a. The frequency of AA individuals in a population is simply p₂ The probability that an allele A with a frequency of p appear on both the chromosomes of a diploid individual is simply the product of the probabilities, i.e.,p₂ Similarly of aa is q₂, of  Aa 2pq. Hence, p₂ + 2pq + q₂ = 1. This is a binomial expansion of (p + qf. When frequency measured differs from expected values, the difference (direction) indicates the extent of evolutionary change. Disturbance in genetic equilibrium, or Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, i.e., change of frequency of alleles in a population would then be interpreted as resulting in evolution.

Answer 12.

Answer 13.
The salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA are as follows:

1. It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by sugarphosphate, and the bases project inside.
2. The two chains have anti-parallel polarity. It means, if one chain has the polarity 5′ – >3′, the other has 3′ – >5′.
3. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond (H-bonds) forming base pairs. Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine from opposite strand and vice-versa. Similarly, Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with three H-bonds. As a result, always a purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine. This generates approximately uniform distance between the two strands of the helix.
4. The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion. The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm (a nanometre is one billionth of a metre, that is 10-9 m) and there are roughly 10 bp in each turn. Consequently, the distance between a bp in a helix is approximately equal to 0.34 nm.
5. The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This, in addition to H-bonds, confers stability of the helical structure.

OR

The ovule is a small structure attached to the placenta by means of a stalk called funicle. The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region called hilum. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments. Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small opening called the micropyle is organised. Opposite the micropylar end, is the chalaza, representing the basal part of the ovule. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called the nucellus. Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials. Located in the nucellus is the embryo sac or female gametophyte.

Answer 14.
Convergent evolution: Evolution of different structures for the same function and hence having similarity. The similar habitat that has resulted in selection of similar adaptive features in different groups of organisms but toward the same function. Examples are the eye of the octopus and of mammals, the flippers of Penguins and Dolphins. Sweet potato (root modification) and potato (stem modification). Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse organisms give clues to common ancestry.

Answer 15.
The tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued. This is characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating, which may be relieved when use is resumed again. In some cases, withdrawal symptoms can be severe.

The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in males are: Reduction of the size of testicles, decreased sperm production, potential for kidney and liver dysfunction, breast enlargement, premature baldness, enlargement of the prostate gland, and premature closure of the growth centres of the long bones which result in stunted growth, acne, increased aggressiveness, mood swing, depression.

Answer 16.
Some methods of Molecular Diagnosis are:

(1) Recombinant DNA Technology: It includes isolating the antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance.

(2) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): In this a single stranded DNA or RNA is tagged with a radioactive molecule which is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by using autoradiography.

(3) ELISA: It is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigens (proteins, glycoroteins, etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesised against the pathogen

Answer 17.
Plant-animal interactions often involve co-evolution of the mutualists. For example, the evolutions of the flower and its pollinator species are tightly linked with one another.
In many species of fig trees, there is a tight one-to-one relationship with the pollinator species of wasp. It means that a given fig species can be pollinated only by its ‘partner’ wasp species and no other species. The female wasp uses the fruit’not only as on oviposition (egg-laying) site but uses the developing seeds within the fruit for nourishing its larvae. The wasp pollinates  the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg-laying sites. In return for the favour of pollination, the fig offers the wasp some of its developing seeds, as food for the developing wasp larvae.

Another example, is of the Mediterranean orchid Ophrys which employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination done by a species of bee. One petal of its flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female of the bee in size, colour and markings. The male bee is attracted to what it perceives as a female, ‘pseducopulates’ with the flower, and during that process is dusted with pollen from the flower. When this same bee ‘pseudocopulates’ with another flower, it transfers pollen to it and thus, pollinates the flower. If the female bee’s colour patterns change even slightly for any reason during evolution, pollination success will be reduced unless the orchid flower co-evolves to maintain the resemblance of its petal to the female bee

Answer 18.
(1) Causes of Cancer:

• Ionizing radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations like UV.
• The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major cause of lung cancer.
• Oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes.

(2) Techniques of detection and diagnosis

• Biopsy and histopathological studies of tissues and blood.
• Bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of leukemias.
• Use of antibodies against cancer-specific antigens.
• Techniques of molecular biology is used for detection of genes in individuals with inherited susceptibility to certain cancers.
• Radiography, CT and MRI for cancer of internal organs.

(3) Treatment and Cure:

• Surgery
• Radiation therapy: In radiotherapy, tumor cells are irradiated lethally, taking proper care of the normal tissues surrounding the tumor mass.
• Immunotherapy
• Chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill cancerous cells. Some of these are specific for particular tumors.
• Use of a-interferons, which activate immune system to destroy tumor.

Answer 19.
Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process. The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin, and quicker, if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars. Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that regulate decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil microbes. Warm and moist environment favour decomposition whereas low temperature inhibits decomposition resulting in build up of organic materials.

Answer 20.
The different methods of breeding are:

1. Inbreeding
2. Out-breeding
3. Out-crossing
4. Cross-breeding and
5. Interspecific hybridisation

Answer 21.
Insulin is synthesised as a pro-hormone which like a pro-enzyme also needs to be processed before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone and contains an extra stretch called the C peptide. This C peptide is not present in the mature insulin and is removed during maturation into insulin

Answer 22.

SECTION-D

Answer 23.
(a) The doctor was assertive, patient and pragmatic.
(b) A child can be of blood group O if the parents are heterozygotes, i.e., Ai x Bi. If the child receives i from both the parents, it becomes, ii, and expresses O blood group.
(c) DNA finger printing
(d) A or B or AB.

SECTION-E

Answer 24.
(a) Reasons for the greater biodiversity of tropics.

1. Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
2. Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity.
3. There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.

(b) The rivet popper hypothesis was used by Paul Ehrlich. It states that in an airplane (ecosystem) all parts are joined together using thousands of rivets (species). If every passenger travelling in it starts popping a rivet to take home (causing a species to become extinct), it may not affect flight safety (proper functioning of the ecosystem) initially, but as more and more rivets are removed, the plane becomes dangcrousl y- weak over a period of time. Furthermore, which rivet is removed may also be critical. Loss of rivets on the wings (key species that drive major ecosystem functions) is obviously a more serious threat to flight safety than loss of a few rivets on the seats or windows inside the plane.
OR

In testis, the immature male germ cells (spermatogonia) produce sperms by spermatogenesis that begins at puberty.
The spermatgonia (sing, spermatogonium) present on the inside wall of seminiferous tubules multiply by mitotic division and increase in numbers. Each spermatogonium is diploid and contains 46 chromosomes. Some of the spermatogonia called primary spermatocytes periodically undergo meiosis.

A primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division (reduction division) leading to formation of two equal, haploid cells called secondary spermatocytes, which have only 23 chromosomes each. The secondary spermatocytes undergo the second meiotic division to produce four equal, haploid spermatids. The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called spermiogenesis. After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in the Sertoli cells, and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called spermiation.

The hormones involved are:

• Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
• Luteinising Hormone (LH)
• Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH

Answer 25.
The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene (the i gene) and three structural genes (z, y, and a).
The (i gene) codes for the repressor of the lac operon. The z gene codes for beta-galactosidase (β-gal), which is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of the disaccharide, lactose into its monomeric units, galactose and glucose. The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to
β-galactosides. The a gene encodes a transacetylase. Hence, all the three gene products in lac operon are required for metabolism of lactose.

Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta-galactosidase and it regulates switching on and off of the operon. Hence, it is termed as inducer. In the absence of a preferred carbon source such as  glucose, if lactose is provided in the growth medium of the bacteria, the lactose is transported into the cells through the action of permease. The lactose then induces the operon in the following manner. The repressor of the operon is synthesised (all-the-time – constitutively) from the i gene.

The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon. In the presence of an inducer, such as lactose or allolactose, the repressor is inactivated by interaction with the inducer. This allows RNA polymerase access to the promoter and transcription proceeds. Essentially, regulation of lac operon can also be visualised as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate. Glucose or galactose cannot act as inducers for lac operon. Thus, regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.

(b) The requisites for a molecule to be a genetic material are:

• It should be able to generate its replica (Replication).
• It should chemically and structurally be stable.
• It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.
• It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian Characters’.

Answer 26.
The food or energy relationship is expressed in terms of number, biomass or energy. The base of each pyramid represent the producer or the first trophic level while the apex represents tertiary or top level consumer. The three ecological pyramids that are usually studied are:
(a) pyramid of number;
(b) pyramid of biomass and
(c) pyramid of energy
Calculations of any energy content, biomass, or numbers must include all organisms at that trophic level. No generalisations can be true with a few individuals at any trophic level into account. Also a given organism may occupy more than one trophic level simultaneously. One must remember that the trophic level represents a functional level, not a species as such. A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time; for example, a sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats seeds, fruits, peas, and a secondary consumer when it eats insects and worms.

In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright, i.e., producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores, and herbivores are more in number and biomass than the carnivores. Also energy at a lower trophic level is always more than at a higher level. .

The pyramid of biomass in sea is also generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. Each bar in the energy pyramid indicates the amount of energy present at each trophic level in a given time or annually per unit area. There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids such as it does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature; it does not accommodate a food web. Moreover, saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in ecosystem.


The movement of nutrient elements through the various components of an ecosystem is called nutrient cycling or biogeochemical cycles.
Nutrient cycles are of two types:
(a) gaseous and
(b) sedimentary.
Carbon cycling occurs through atmosphere, ocean and through living and dead organisms. A considerable amount of carbon returns to the atmosphere as CO₂ through respiratory activities of the producers and consumers. Decomposers also contribute substantially to CO₂ pool by their processing of waste materials and dead organic matter of land or oceans. Some amount of the fixed carbon is lost to sediments and removed from circulation. Burning of wood, forest fire and combustion of organic matter, fossil fuel, volcanic activity are additional sources for releasing CO₂ in the atmosphere.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 2 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

• This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

1. Maharana Pratap ruled over Mewar only for 25 years. However, he accomplished so much grandeur during his reign that his glory surpassed the boundaries of countries and time turning him into an immortal personality. He along with his kingdom became a synonym for valour, sacrifice and patriotism. Mewar had been a leading Rajput kingdom even before Maharana Pratap occupied the throne. Kings of Mewar, with the cooperation of their nobles and subjects, had established such traditions in the kingdom, as augmented their magnificence despite the hurdles of having a smaller area under their command and less population. There did come a few thorny occasions when the flag of the kingdom seemed sliding down. Their flag once again heaved high in the sky thanks to the gallantry and brilliance of the people of Mewar.

2. The destiny of Mewar was good in the sense that barring a few kings, most of the rulers were competent and patriotic. This glorious tradition of the kingdom almost continued for 1500 years since its establishment, right from the reign of Bappa Rawal. In fact only 60 years before Maharana Pratap, Rana Sanga drove the kingdom to the pinnacle of fame. His reputation went beyond Rajasthan and reached Delhi. Two generations before him, Rana Kumbha had given a new stature to the kingdom through victories and developmental work. During his reign, literature and art also progressed extraordinarily. Rana himself was inclined towards writing and his works are read with reverence even today. The ambience of his kingdom was conducive to the creation of high quality work of art and literature. These accomplishments were the outcome of a long standing tradition sustained by several generations.

3. The life of the people of Mewar must have been peaceful and prosperous during the long span of time; otherwise such extraordinary accomplishment in these fields would not have been possible. This is reflected in their art and literature as well as their loving nature. They compensate for lack of admirable physique by their firm but pleasant nature. The ambience of Mewar remains lovely thanks to the cheerful and liberal character of its people.

4. One niay observe astonishing pieces of workmanship not only in the forts and palaces of Mewar but also in public utility buildings. Ruins of many structures which are still standing tall in their grandeur are testimony to the fact that Mewar was not only the land of the brave but also a seat of art and culture. Amidst aggression and bloodshed, literature and art flourished and creative pursuits of literature and artists did not suffer. Imagine, how glorious the period must have been when the Vijaya Stambha which is the sample of our great ancient architecture even today, was constructed. In the same fort, Kirti Stambha is standing high, reflecting how liberal the then administration was which allowed people from other communities and kingdoms to come and carry out construction work. It is useless to indulge in the debate whether the Vijaya Stambha was constructed first or the Kirti Stambha. The fact is that both the capitals are standing side by side and reveal the proximity between the king and \ the subjects of Mewar.

5. The cycle of time does not remain the same. Whereas the reign of Rana Sanga was crucial in raising the kingdom to the acme of glory, it also proved to be his nemesis. 1“ History took a turn. The fortune of Mewar—the land of the brave, started waning. Rana tried to save the day with his acumen which was running against the stream and the glorious traditions for sometime. (Delhi, All India, Foreign 2016)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

(a) Maharana Pratap became immortal because:

1. he ruled Mewar for 25 years.
2. he added a lot of grandeur to Mewar.
3. of his valour, sacrifice and patriotism.
4. both (ii) and (Hi).

(b) Difficulties in the way of Mewar were:

1. lack of cooperation of the nobility,
2. ancient traditions of the kingdom.
3. its small area and small population.
4. the poverty of the subjects.

(c) During thorny occasions:

1. the flag of Mewar seemed to be lowered.
2. the flag of Mewar was hoisted high.
3. the people of Mewar showed gallantry.
4. most of the rulers heaved a sigh of relief.

(d) Mewar was lucky because:

1. all of its rulers were competent.
2. most of its people were competent.
3. most of its rulers were competent.
4. only a few of its people were incompetent.

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(e) Who is the earliest king of Mewar mentioned in the passage?
(f) What was Rana Kumbha’s contribution to the glory of Mewar?
(g) What does the writer find worth admiration in the people of Mewar?
(h) How could art and literature flourish in Mewar?
(i) How did the rulers show that they cared for their subjects?
(j) What does the erection of Vijaya Stambha and Kirti Stambha in the same fort signify?

III. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) surprising (para 4)
(b) evidence (para 4)

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10 Marks)

1. To ensure its perpetuity, the ground is well held by the panther both in space and in time. It enjoys a much wider distribution over the globe than its bigger cousins, and procreates sufficiently profusely to ensure its continuity for all time to come.

2. There seems to be no particular breeding season of the panther, although its sawing and caterwauling is more frequently heard during winter and summer. The gestation period is about ninety to hundred days (Whipsnade, ninety-two days). The litter normally consists of four cubs, rarely five. Of these, generally two survive and not more than one reaches maturity. I have never come across more than two cubs at.the heels of the mother. Likewise, graziers in the forest have generally found only two cubs hidden away among rocks, hollows of trees, and other impossible places.

3. Panther cubs are generally in evidence in March. They are born blind. This is a provision of Nature against their drifting away from the place of safety in which they are lodged by their mother, and exposing themselves to the danger of their being devoured by hyenas, jackals and other predators. They generally open their eyes in about three to four weeks.

4. The mother alone rears its cubs in seclusion. It keeps them out of the reach of the impulsive and impatient male. As a matter of fact the mother separates from the male soon after mating and forgets all about their tumultuous union. The story that the male often looks in to find out how the mother is progressing with her cubs has no foundation except in what we wish it should do at least.

5. The mother carries its cubs about by holding them by the scruff of their neck in its mouth. It trains them to stalk, and teaches them how to deliver the bite of death to the prey. The cubs learn to treat all and sundry with suspicion at their mother’s heels. Instinctively the cubs seek seclusion, keep to cover and protect their flanks by walking along the edge of the forest.

6. I have never had an opportunity to watch mother panther train its cubs. But in Pilibhit forests, I once saw a tigress giving some lessons to its little ones. I was sitting over its kill at Mala. As the sun set, the tigress materialised in the twilight behind my machan. For about an hour, it scanned and surveyed the entire area looking and listening with the gravest concern. It even went to the road where my elephant was awaiting my signal. The mahout spotted it from a distance and drove the elephant away.

7. When darkness descended upon the scene and all was well and safe, the tigress called its cubs by emitting a low haa-oon. The cubs, two in number and bigger than a full-grown cat, soon responded. They came trotting up to their mother and hurried straight to the kill in indecent haste. The mother spitted at them so furiously that they doubled back to its heels immediately. Thereafter, the mother and its cubs sat under cover about 50 feet (15 m) away from the kill to watch, wait, look, and listen. After about half an hour’s patient and fidgetless vigil the mother seemed to say ‘paid for’. At this signal, the cubs cautiously advanced, covering their flanks, towards the kill. No longer did they make a beeline for it, as they had done before.

8. The mother sat watching its cubs eat, and mounted guard on them. She did not partake of the meal. (Delhi, All India, Foreign, 2016)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) To protect its cubs the mother panther hides them :

1. among rocks
2. in the branches of the trees
3. behind the tree trunks
4. at its heels

(b) The male panther :

1. is protective of its cubs
2. trains its cubs
3. watches the progress of the mother
4. is impulsive and impatient

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(c) How many cubs does the mother panther rarely deliver?
(d) What may happen if the panther cubs are not born blind?
(e) Why did the mahout drive his elephant away?
(f) Why did the tigress spit at its cubs?
(g) From the narrator’s observation, what do we learn about the nature of the tigress?
(h) Why does the panther not face the risk of extinction?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) moving aimlessly (para 3)
(b) came down / fell (para 7)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

People tend to amass possessions, sometimes without being aware of doing so. They can have a delightful surprise when they find something useful which they did not know they owned. Those who never have to change house become indiscriminate collectors of what , can only be described as clutter. They leave unwanted objects in drawers, cupboards and attics for years in the belief that they may one day need them. Old people also accumulate belongings for two other reasons, lack of physical and mental energy, and sentiment. Things owned for a long time are full of associations with the past, perhaps with the relatives who are dead, and so they gradually acquire a sentimental value.

Some things are collected deliberately in an attempt to avoid wastage. Among these are string and brown paper, kept by thrifty people when a parcel has been opened. Collecting small items can be a mania. A lady cuts out from newspapers sketches of model clothes that she would like to buy if she had money. As she is not rich, the chances are that she will never be able to afford such purchases. It is a harmless habit, but it litters up her desk. Collecting as a serious hobby is quite different and has many advantages. It provides relaxation for leisure hours, as just looking at one’s treasure is always a joy. One doesn’t have to go out for amusement as the collection is housed at home. Whatever it consists of – stamps, records, first editions of books, china – there is always something to do in connection with it, from finding the right place for the latest addition to verifying facts in reference books. This hobby educates one not only in the chosen subject, but also in general matters which have some bearing on it.

There are other benefits also. One gets to meet like-minded collectors to get advice, compare notes, exchange articles, to show off one’s latest find. So one’s circle of friends grows. Soon the hobby leads to travelling, perhaps a meeting in another town, possibly a trip abroad in search of a rare specimen, for collectors are not confined to one country. Over the years one may well become an authority on one’s hobby and will probably be asked to give informal talks to little gatherings and then, if successful, to larger audiences. [Delhi, All India, Foreign 2016]

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)
B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
Draft an advertisement in about 50 words for a leading practising lawyer Karan Kumar who wishes to buy an independent house of about 1000 square feet at City Light Road to be used as an office- cum-residence. It should be located in a posh area with excellent facilities. Uninterrupted water & electricity. Nearby market must. His mobile No. is 45645678. (4 Marks)
OR
You have planned to organize a summer camp for the children of age group 10¬13 years for developing their creative skills in art—craft, clay modeling, music etc. in your school during the month of May. Draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your notice-board giving details. Mention the last date of registration of the students/ you are Reena/Roshan, Secretary Art and Craft Club, B.V. Public School, Chandigarh.

Question 5.
Your school, KKR Senior Secondary School, is situated in the heart of the city of Mangalore. Many stray animals roam on the school road causing traffic jams as well as accidents. Write a letter to the editor of The Indian Express drawing attention of the municipal authorities to this nuisance. Sign as Rukmani/Rakesh, Head Girl/Head Boy. (Word limit 120-150) (6 Marks)
OR
You are Saurabh/Shweta, 15, Shashigardens, Ghaziabad. Read the advertisement given below and write a letter to the advertiser, applying for the job. Also give your detailed resume which you would send along with your letter of application.

Question 6.
You are Ram/Devi. You recently attended a health camp on yoga. Write an article on the benefits of Yoga for holistic health and the need to practice daily. (Word limit 150-200) (10 Marks)
OR
Write a speech in 150-200 words on the topic ‘Discipline shapes the future of student’. It is to be delivered in the morning assembly. You are Karuna/Karan. (All India 2016)

Question 7.
You witnessed a street fight between a landlord and his tenant and felt bad about their uncouth behavior in a public place. Write a speech to be given in the school assembly, bringing out the need for good manners and polite behavior especially in public places. You are Lalita/Lalit. (Word Limit: 150-200) (10 Marks)
OR
You are Venu/Fatima of Sapphire International School, Delhi. Your school recently organised winter carnival which featured the famous band Rock On. Write a report on the event in150-200 words.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow: (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

Now we will count to twelve
and we will all keep still.
For once on the face of the Earth
let’s not speak in any language,
let’s stop for one second,
and not move our arms so much.

(а) What is the significance of the number ‘twelve’?
(b) Which two activities does the poet want us to stop?
(c) What does the poet mean by ‘let’s not speak in any language’?
(d) Describe the pun on the word, ‘arms’.

OR
…………. I saw my mother,
beside me,
doze, open mouthed, her face
ashen like that
of a cdrpse and realised with
pain ……….

(a) Who is “I”?
(b) What did ‘I’ realise with pain?
(c) Why was the realisation painful?
(d) Identify and name the figure of speech used in these lines.

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: (3 × 4 = 12 Marks)

(a) What does the reference to chappals in ‘Lost Spring’ tell us about the economic condition of the ragpickers? (All India 2016)
(b) What do we learn about the crofter’s nature from the story The Rattrap? (All India 2016)
(c) What is suggested by the ‘Massive weight of the uncle’s wedding band’?
(d) What does the poet want for the children of the slums? How can this change be affected?
(e) How did the dewan procure the hundredth tiger for the tiger king?
(f) How did the governor of Oxford Prison describe Evans to the secretary, examination board? (All India 2016)

Question 10.
Language is an essential part of one’s identity. How did M. Hamel and his students show their love for their language on the day of the last lesson? (6 Marks)
OR
“Sophie’s dreams and disappointments are all in her mind.” Do you agree? Why or Why not? (NCERT)

Question 11.
Both the units of ‘Memories of Childhood’ present autobiographical episodes from the lives of two women from ‘marginalised communities’. Describe the main issues raised as well as the common features highlighted in them. (6 Marks)
OR
Both Derry and Mr. Lamb are victims of physical impairments. Yet they are poles apart in their values and outlook to life. Comment. (Word limit 120 150)

Question 12.
How did Mrs. Hall show her excitement when Griffin came to stay at Coach and Horses Inn? ( Word Limit 120-150) [All India 2016] (6 marks)
OR
What are Godfrey’s arguments for adopting Eppie? (Word limit 120-150)

Question 13.
Marvel was a perfect choice to carry out Griffin’s objective. Comment. (Word limit 120-150) (6 Marks)
OR
Attempt a character sketch of Eppie. (Word limit 120-150) (All India 2016)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
I. (a) (iv) both (ii) and (iii)
(b) (iii) its small area and small population
(c) (i) the flag of Mewar seemed to be lowered
(d) (iii) most of its rulers were competent

II. (e) Bappa Rawal is the earliest king of Mewar mentioned in the passage. His reign started around 1500 years ago.

(f) Rana Kumbha gave a new stature to the kingdon of Mewar. Literature and art flourished during his reign. He himself had penchant for writing. His works are read with reverence even today.

(g) The people of Mewar may be peaceful and prosperous. It is reflected in their art, literature and loving nature. The pleasant nature of people compensate for lack of their admirable physique.

(h) The enviroment of Mewar was conducive to the creation of high quality work of art and literature. They flourished amidst aggression and bloodshed.

(i) Besides the forts and palaces of Mewar, the surprising pieces of architecture are seen in the public utility buildings also. These structures are testimony to the fact that the rulers had care for their subjects.

(j) The erection of Vijaya Stambha and Kirti Stambha in the same fort signifies the proximity/close relationship between the king and the subjects of Mewar.

III.
(a) Astonishing (b) Testimony

Answer 2.
I. (a) – (i) among rocks (b) (iv) is impulsive and impatient

II. (c) The mother panther rarely delivers five cubs.
(d) If the panther cubs are not born blind, they may drift away from the place of safety. They may also be devoured by hyenas, jackals and the other predators.
(e) The tigress was keeping a vigil over her cubs. The mahout did not want to disturb her. Instead, he desired to assure her that there was no danger. So, he drove his elephant away.
(f) The tigress spat at its cubs to make them aware of dangers. She also wanted them to learn patience.
(g) The tigress is protective of her cubs. She raises them alone and does not allow the male to reach them. Also she trains them well.
(h) Panthers do not face the risk of extinction because they procreate quite profusely and are distributed much widely.

III. (a) Drifting away (b) Descended

Answer 3.
A. TITLE: The Habit of Collection

NOTES:

1. Sentimental value of collection

1. delightful purpose of collection
2. indiscriminate collectors
3. lack of physical and mental energy
4. association with past

2. Purpose of deliberate collection

1. avoidance of wastage
2. can be a mania
3. a harmless habit

3. Adv. of collection

1. relaxtn. for leisure hrs.
2. as verfiying facts in ref. books
3. source of educating people

4. Other benefits of collection

1. meeting of like minded collectors/people
2. source of travelling
3. as authority on one’s hobby

B. SUMMARY

Collection gives a delightful surprise to the people. The indiscriminate collectors only clutter their house. The people are sentimentally attached with the collections as they are closely linked with the past. But deliberate collection is merely a waste of time. The collection of small items bears no meaning as it can be said a mania. However, it can be treated as a harmless habit. On the other hand the habit of valuable collection is the source of relaxation. We get amusement at home. It also serves us as the source of knowledge. This hobby gives opportunity to meet like minded people also. We may apt for travelling to meet them in another town. We may become an authority on our hobby.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

KKR Senior Secondary School
Kamal Enclave Mangalore
10th May, 20××
The Editor
The Indian Express
New Delhi

Sub: Nuisance Caused by Stray Animals Dear Sir,

Through the columns of your esteemed daily, I would like to express the difficulties caused by stray animals near our school. Ours is a newly developed school situated on the outskirts of the city.

Stray animals are a great threat to pedestrians and vehicle drivers regularly causing traffic jams and often accidents too. Only recently a cow drove its horns into a class nine student causing severe injuries in his abdomen. The dairy owners let loose their domestic animals to graze on the domestic waste and garbage. Many a time the life of many a student is endangered on account of accidents caused by these animals. Stray animals are ubiquitous in the street in front of our school. Often they sit on the road causing considerable inconvenience and danger to the passersby most of whom are students of our school.

Several complaints made to the authorities in the past year have been in vain.

You are requested to give some space to my letter in your prestigious newspaper so that it may reach the ears of the authorities. I hope that the authorities concerned would look into the matter and take immediate steps to solve the problems of the residents.

Thanking you
Yours truly
Rukmani Head Girl
KKR Senior Secondary School

OR

15, Shashi Gardens, Ghaziabad
Uttar Pradesh
19th Sept. 20××
Principal
Sapphire Senior Secondary School
Mira Enclave, Delhi

Sub: Application for the post of a librarian Dear Sir,

With reference to your advertisement in ‘The Times of India’ dated 7 th Sept. 20xx inviting applications for the position of a librarian, I hereby offer my candidature for the same.

As regards my qualifications and experience, I am enclosing my bio-data to enable you to make an assessment of my suitability for the given post. In case my application is considered, I am available for the interview at any time suitable to you.

If selected, I assure you that I shall work with utmost dedication and sincerity to your full satisfaction.

Hoping for a favourable response.
Yours faithfully
Shweta
Enel. : Bio-data and Testimonials

Answer 6.

Yoga: A Holistic Approach to Health
By Ram

You are truly healthy when you are not just physically fit but also mentally and emotionally balanced. Weight loss, a strong and flexible body, glowing beautiful skin, peaceful mind, good health – whatever you may be looking for, yoga has it on offer. Very often, yoga is only understood as being limited to asanas . As such, its benefits are only perceived to be at the body level and we fail to realize the immense benefits yoga offers in uniting the body, mind and breath.

Sun Salutations and Kapal Bhati pranayama are some ways to help you lose weight with yoga. Pranayama and meditation are effective techniques to release stress. Yoga is also one of the best ways to calm a disturbed mind.

Yoga poses massage organs and strengthen muscles. Breathing techniques and meditation release stress and improve immunity. Yoga and pranayama help you bring your mind back to the present moment, where you can stay happy and focused. Yoga can even help improve your relationship with your loved ones by keeping the mind happy . Multiple tasks through the day can be quite exhausting. Yoga provides the secret to feeling fresh and energetic even after a long day.

The deeper you move into your yoga practice, the more profound are its benefits.

OR

Discipline Shapes the Future of Student

Good morning, respected Principal, teachers and students! Today I wish to talk to you about the decisive role that discipline plays in a student’s life.

Discipline is the most fundamental of all qualities that shape a student. Discipline means self-control and never trespassing the rules of propriety.

The lack of discipline among the students is one of the chief social problems of the day. You should be a model student, diligent in studies, well behaved at home, in school and outside.

Elders who are indisciplined, set a bad example to the youngsters. They are unconsciously influenced by the elders. A healthy society which is composed of people who mind their business and who are not sources of botheration to others. Non-interference in others’ affairs is one of the most prized virtues .You should be obedient to your parents, teachers and elders.

You should get up early in the morning, do some exercises and keep yourself trim. Study diligently the lessons of the day. Our nation is often caught in a crisis as people become unruly and fight among themselves. From our young age we should train ourselves to be the ideal citizens of our nation.

It is said that the people of a nation are its wealth. Let us take a vow that we will be dutiful, honorable citizens of India.

Thank you

Answer 7.
Good morning, respected Principal, teachers and other staff! Today I wish to talk to you about the importance of good manners in public life

Man is considered as the most intelligent creation of God on the earth as he lives in the society as well as he has capacity to think, talk and act accordingly. So, he must know how to behave well and practise good manners to behave well with others in the society. Parents must teach their kids how should they behave with family members, neighbours, teachers, etc and respect the views of others. Being a well behaved person, one must be polite, gentle, disciplined, and sweet. Some people behave well with sweet words only at home but when they are outside or with strangers they behave badly.

Good manners help a person to show the same character, everywhere. Well mannered people know well how to show or explain the bitter truth with sweet words. They do not shout or quarrel in public. People, who lack good manners, generally have sharp tongue and behave roughly and abuse others without any reason.

They show that they lack a good culture, society and discipline, thus they are hated everywhere. Well mannered people are honoured and admired everywhere.

I urge you to always be polite and well mannered to all at home as well as outside.

Thank you.

OR

Rock On Performs at Sapphire International
By Venu

Delhi, 23rd Sept. 20xx: A grand winter carnival was organized on 22nd Sept. 20xx by Sapphire International School in the spacious school grounds. It was a warm and pleasant morning. The carnival was inaugurated by the Education Minister of Delhi Manish Sisodia.

The programme started at 11 am when the Education Minister arrived. He appreciated the beautifully organized carnival. About 100 stalls selling beautiful handicraft and utility items had been put up. There was a separate food court offering both Indian and foreign cuisines. The colourfully decorated game stalls were a great hit among the children.

The highlight of the carnival was the musical performance by the renowned band Rock On Himanshu, the lead singer regaled the audience with his melodious songs. The audience comprising students and their friends and family, enthusiastically applauded the performances.

The carnival ended at 6 pm. A student remarked, “This is the best carnival I have seen this year’. A part of the proceeds were donated to the NGO—Saathi.

Answer 8.

(a) The poet wishes to remind the readers the need to keep quiet all twelve months of the year. Twelve could also refer to the twelve hours of the clock.
(b) He wants us to stop speaking and keep our arms still.
(c) He wishes people to to refrain from speaking in any language and unite by the common bond of silence.
(d) Arms could refer to both arms of the human body and the destructive weapons that humans have devised.

OR

(a) Here T refers to the poet.
(b) She realized with pain that her mother was ageing and had become pale and ashen. She was slowly nearing death.
(c) The realization is painful as she fears the pain of separation from her mother.
(d) The figure of speech used here is ‘similie’. It occurs in the line ‘ashen like that of a corpse’.

Answer 9.
(a) The ragpickers move around on dirty roads barefoot. There are several reasons to explain their lack of chappals. One says that wearing chappals was not a tradition in their family. Another says that his mother had not brought it down. The fact is that they were too poor to be able to afford chappals.

(b) The crofter was a lonely and credulous man. He was a generous man as he offered the peddlar food, hospitality and shelter. He even entertained him by playing mjolis with him. In good faith he even told him where he had kept his 30 kronor.

(c) Adrienne Rich’s ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’ is very rich in imagery. ‘Massive weight of Uncle’s wedding’ is a suggestive imagery. It is symbolic of the weight of the harsh and difficult experiences of her married life. The wedding band represents the unbreakable bond of marriage between the husband and the wife.

(d) The poet has a keen desire that these slum children should break the bonds of living in a slum area. They should not remain dejected, depressed and isolated from the rest of the civilized world. So he urges the governors, teachers, inspectors, invigilators and visitors to come forward and educate the slum children. They should be taken to the horizons of the blue sky so that they can progress and cope with the other world. Through education their life can be made to change.

(e) Dewan’s tiger was an old tiger. It was procured from the People’s Park in Madras. It was not ferocious and agile. It was passive and exhausted. He was pushed down to the ground. He wandered into the Maharaja’s presence and stood as if in humble supplication. The tiger was kept hidden in Dewan’s house. At midnight when the town slept in peace, the Dewan and his wife dragged the tiger into the car drove straight to the forest.

(f) James Roderick Evans was quite a pleasant sort of chap. He had no record of violence. He was one of the stars at the Christmas concert. But he was ‘just a congenital kleptomaniac.’ The prison officers called him “Evans the Break.” Thrice he had escaped from prison.

Answer 10.
It is true that one’s language is a part of one’s cultural identity. It is inseparable part of one’s existence. In the story The Last Lesson, the villagers and M. Hamel became acutely aware of their love for French only when it was snatched from them. They regretted wasting their time in impulsive and futile pursuits and neglecting learning their own language. So the scene in the school on the day of the last lesson in French was different from that on other days. German was going to be imposed on them from the next day. Hence, all students and even the village elders had gathered there. The love for their native language French dominated all other things. Now it was too late as their opportunity had been taken away from them by the cruel Germans.

OR

Like every youth when he is about to leave the school, the struggle of thought begins, even in Sophie. On their way back home, Sophie and Jansie discuss possibilities of work to be started. Sophie’s flight took off from boutique to shop manager, to an actress cum boutique owner and to a fashion designer, though both the girls were earmarked for a biscuit factory.

Like every young girl, Sophie also fancied the world. She also had in her fancies a strong feeling of knowing the unknown, seeing the unseen and even meeting the welcoming strangers. Though her father forbade for taking her to unknown places and countries, yet Sophie expected Geoff to acquaint her to all new and strange things, people and places. She fancied the world greeting and applauding them.

Finally in her fantasizing she had Danny Casey in her mind. So she visited the perfect place for lovers and sat on the solitary wooden bench under the tree. She waited for her lover coming out of the shadows but there was no sign of him. She became burdened with sadness. Thus Sophie’s dreams and disappointments are all of her own creations.

Answer 11.
The lesson ‘Memories of Childhood’ presents autobiographical episodes from the lives of two women. They highlight the plight of ‘the marginalised communities’. The people of these communities never receive honour and dignity due to them. In ‘The Cutting of My Long Hair’ Bonnin describes how an Indian girl suffered extreme indignities. She tried to maintain her identity and her distinct culture. She liked to wear, long and thick hair. But the ‘paleface woman’ and others dragged her out. They tied her fast in a chair and gnawed off her long hair. In ‘We Too Are Human Beings’ Bama, a Tamil Dalit writer, presents the struggle of a girl of a low caste. The people of low castes are never respected and honoured. They have to carry a food packet by its string without touching it. The girl in ‘We Too Are Human Beings’ struggles, studies hard and stands first in the class. She attains equality, and honour.

The most common feature of both these episodes is the struggle and fight against racial and social discrimination. They don’t take oppression, exploitation and injustice meekly.

OR

Derry’s main problem is his burnt face. One side of his face was eaten up by acid. He suffers from a tremendous sense of inferiority complex. He is always conscious that his face is ‘bad’, ‘terrible’ and ‘the ugliest’. People are ‘afraid’ of him. He tries to escape people. He allows himself to be alienated from the world. On the other hand, Mr Lamb doesn’t allow his physical disability to come in his way. He accepts life as it comes. He has a positive attitude towards life, things and people. He doesn’t find solace in escapism. Children tease him by calling ‘Lamey-Lamb’, but he doesn’t mind it. One of his legs was blown off in the war. But he is full of life and enjoys it at his best. He enjoys sitting in the sun, reading books and growing weeds and flowers.

Derry is withdrawn and defiant. He doesn’t trust people. He thinks that no one will ever love and kiss him except his own mother. He can’t stand people staring at him or passing uncharitable remarks. He is touchy and hyper-sensitive. Mr Lamb is open-minded and open-hearted. For him all are welcome. He loves everybody and everything. He teaches Derry how to handle people and things.

Answer 12.
Griffin arrives in Bramblehurst railway station bundled from head to foot with only the tip of his nose showing. He enters the Coach and Horses Inn and demands a room and a fire. Mrs. Hall, the owner is quite excited and obliged as she feels lucky to have a customer in the chill of February. She was also delighted that he did not haggle over the rent. She prepares a supper for him and offers to take his coat and hat, but he refuses to take them off. When he finally removes the hat, his entire head is swathed in a bandage. Mrs. Hall thinks he has endured some accident that had disfigured his face. She tries to get him to talk about himself, but he is taciturn with her, although not particularly rude. When she went to clear his lunch dishes, the stranger finally requests her to have her luggage sent from Bramblehurst railway station. Her bid to initiate yet another conversation with the stranger is met with resistence as the stranger abruptly asks her to get some matches.

OR

Godfrey insists that he has a claim on Eppie and confesses that he is her father. Hitherto he had refrained from revealing this secret out of moral cowardice and guilt he felt for Molly’s death. However he did feel a sense of responsibility towards Eppie. When Godfrey is ready to claim Eppie as his own, he tells Silas that he is standing in the way of Eppie’s welfare. He persuades him that being wealthier he would be able to give a more luxurious upbringing to Eppie. Silas says that he will not argue anymore and leaves the decision up to Eppie. Eppie who dearly loves Silas and regards him as her father refuses Godfrey’s offer of taking care of her.

Answer 13.
Marvel is poor, homeless and jobless tramp. He wears shabby, old-fashioned clothes, like his ‘obsolete hat’, and he has buttons replaced by pieces of string. The narrator goes so far as to tell us that he does everything in a leisurely manner. He doesn’t seem to like work or excitement. The Invisible Man chooses him to carry out his ends as his own state of invisibility had necessitated the help of a normal person. Marvel was a destitute and a jobless man. Also he wasn’t as intelligent, strong willed and sharp as the invisible man. It was easy to manipulate him. Marvel was timid and quite terrified by the abusive and violent ways of the invisible man. He definitely doesn’t like working for the Invisible Man. So it’s no surprise when he decides to resign from his services.

OR

Eppie is Silas’ adopted daughter and the light of his life. Even as a little girl, she is adorable. She is affectionate and trusting—she latches on to Silas right away—and she is full of high spirits and lovable mischief. She loves flowers and butterflies, and birds and animals and loves to explore the world around her.

Not much changes are seen in her even after sixteen years. When we meet Eppie again, she is still high-spirited and full of mischief, talking about her desire for a garden just where Aaron Winthrop will hear, because she knows that he will volunteer to dig it for her. She has a little dog and cat that she frolics with, and she calls Silas by pet names. Eppie is completely devoted to Silas. She doesn’t even want to marry Aaron because she is afraid that she will have to leave her father. And when Godfrey, her biological father, offers to make her a lady, she refuses quickly and firmly thus showing her love and loyalty to Silas.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Maths is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Questions 1-4 in section A are very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Questions 5-12 in section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Questions 13-23 in section C are long answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
• Questions 24-29 in section D are long answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.

SECTION A

Question 1.
If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |adj A| = 144, then find the value of |3A| ?

Question 2.

Question 3.
Evaluate \(\int { \frac { { sec }^{ 2 }\left( logx \right) }{ x } } dx\)

Question 4.
Differentiate log (x + \(\sqrt { { x }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 } }\)) with respect to x.

SECTION B

Question 5.
Using elementary transformation find the inverse of the matrix \(\begin{pmatrix} 5 & 4 \\ 3 & 2 \end{pmatrix}\)

Question 6.
Using differentials find the approximate value of f(5.001) where f(x) = x³ – 7x² + 15.

Question 7.
Find the equations of tangents to the curve 3x² – y² = 8 which passes through the point (\(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) , 0)

Question 8.
If cos y = x cos (a + y) prove that \(\frac { dy }{ dx } =\frac { { cos }^{ 2 }\left( a+y \right) }{ sina }\)

Question 9.
Find the coordinate of the point where the line \(\frac { x+1 }{ 2 } =\frac { y+2 }{ 3 } =\frac { z+3 }{ 4 }\) meets the plane x + y + 4z = 6.

Question 10.
Let A and B are two events such that P (\(\bar { A\cup B }\)) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\), P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) and P(\(\bar { A }\)) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) .Prove that A and B are independent events.

Question 11.
Solve for x, tan^-12x + tan^-13x = \(\frac { \pi }{ 4 }\)

Question 12.
Evaluate \(\int { \frac { x-4 }{ \left( x-2 \right) ^{ 3 } } } { e }^{ x }dx\)

SECTION C

Question 13.

Question 14.

Question 15.

Question 16.

Question 17.

Question 18.
Form the differential equation of the family of circles in the first quadrant which touches the coordinate axes.

Question 19.

Question 20.

Question 21.
An instructor has a question bank consisting of 300 easy True/False questions, 200 difficult True/False questions, 500 easy multiple choice questions and 400 difficult multiple choice questions. If a question is selected at random from the question bank, what is the probability that it will be an easy question given that it is a multiple choice question.

Question 22.
An insurance company insured 2000 scooters and 3000 motorcycles. The probability of an accident involving a scooter is 0.01 and that of a motorcycle is 0.02. An insured vehicle met with an accident. Find the probability that the accidented vehicle was a motorcycle. How we can avoid accidents?

Question 23.

SECTION D

Question 24.
If the sum of the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side of a right angled triangle is given, show that the area of the triangle is maximum when the angle between them is \(\frac { \pi }{ 3 }\).
OR
A tank with rectangular base and rectangular sides, open at the top is to be constructed so that its depth is 2 m and volume is 8m³. If building of tank cost ₹ 70 per square metre for the base and ₹ 45 per square metre for the sides, what is the cost of least expensive tank?

Question 25.
Find the area of the region included between the parabola y² = x and the line x + y = 2 using integration.
OR
Find the area of the smaller region bounded by the ellipse \(\frac { { x }^{ 2 } }{ 9 } +\frac { { y }^{ 2 } }{ 4 } =1\) and the line \(\frac { x }{ 3 } +\frac { y }{ 2 } =1\) using integration.

Question 26.
If \(A=\left( \begin{matrix} 3 & 2 & -1 \\ -2 & 1 & 2 \\ 1 & -3 & 1 \end{matrix} \right)\) , find A^-1. Hence solve the system of linear equations
3x – 2y + z = 2
2x + y – 3z = – 5
-x + 2y + z = 6

Question 27.
A company manufactures two types of toys. Toys of Type A require 5 minutes each for cutting and 10 minutes each for assembling. Toys of type B require 8 minutes each for cutting and 8 minutes each for assembling. There are 3 hours 20 minutes available for cutting and 4 hours available for assembling. The profit is ₹ 0.50 each for type A and ₹ 0.60 each for type B toys. How many toys of each type should be manufactured in order to maximize the profit?

Question 28.
The points A (4, 5, 10), B(2, 3, 4) and C(1, 2, -1) are three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD. Find the vector and cartesian equation of the sides AB and BC and find coordinates of D.
OR
Find the angle between lines whose direction cosines are given by the relations 3l + m + 5n = 0 and 6mn – 2nl + 5lm = 0

Question 29.
Solve the differential equation \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = sin (x + y) + cos (x + y)

Solutions

Solution 1.

Solution 2.

Solution 3.

Solution 4.

Solution 5.

Solution 6.

Solution 7.

Solution 8.

Solution 9.

Solution 10.

Solution 11.

Solution 12.

Solution 13.

Solution 14.

Solution 15.

Solution 16.

Solution 17.

Solution 18.
Equation of family of circle in the first quadrant which touches both the coordinate axes is

Solution 19.

Solution 20.

Solution 21.
Let E₁ is the event: it is an easy question
E₂ is the event: it is an M.C.Q (Multiple Choice Question)
True/False Easy Question = 300
True/False Difficult Question = 200
MCQ easy question = 500
Difficult MCQ = 400
Total Questions = 300 + 200 + 500 + 400 = 1400
Total easy questions = 300 + 500 = 800
Total difficult questions = 200 + 400 = 600
E₁ ∩ E₂ = easy M.C.Q = 500
E₂ = 500 + 400 = 900

Solution 22.
E₁ : Total insured scooters = 2000
E₂ : Total insured motorcycles = 3000
Total vehicles = 5000
A is the event insured vehicle meets with an accident.

Solution 23.

Solution 24.

Solution 25.

Solution 26.

Solution 27.
Let x type A and y type B toys manufactured.

Hence profit is maximum at the point (8, 20) means 8 toys of type A and 20 toys of type B should be manufactured.

Solution 28.
In parallelogram diagonal bisect to each other, so mid point of BD = Mid point of AC

Solution 29.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 4

Time Allowed : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions 

• All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
• This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
• Section A contains five questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains five questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains twelve questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains one value based question of 4 marks and Section E contains three questions of 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and all the 3 questions of 5 marks weightage. You have to attempt only 1 of the choices in such questions.
• You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

Questions
SECTION : A

Question 1.
Show graphically, the variation of the de-Broglie wavelength (λ) with the potential (V) through which an electron is accelerated from rest.

Question 2.
A resistance R is connected across a cell of emf e and internal resistance r. A potentiometer now measures the potential difference between the terminals of the cell as V. Write the expression for V in terms of ε, V and R.

Question 3.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along Z-direction. What can you say about the direction of electric and magnetic field vector?

Question 4.
A point charge is placed at point O as shown in the figure. Is the potential difference V_A-V_B positive, negative or zero, if Q is
(i) positive
(ii) negative?

Question 5.
The permeability of magnetic material is 0.9983. Name the type of magnetic materials it represents.

SECTION : B

Question 6.
Two uniformly large parallel thin plates having charge densities +σ and -σ are kept in the X- Z plane at a distance ‘d’ apart. Sketch an equipotential surface due to electric field between the plates. If a particle of mass m and charge ‘-q’ remains stationary between the plates, what is the magnitude and direction of this field?

OR

Question 7.
Two convex lenses of same focal length but of aperture A₁ and A₂ (A₂ < A₁), are used as the objective lenses in two astronomical telescopes having identical eyepieces. What is the ratio of their resolving power? Which telescope will you prefer and why? Give reason.

Question 8.
A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north tip down at 60° with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.4 G. Determine the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place.

Question 9.
Figure shows two identical capacitors, C₁ and C₂, each of 1μF capacitance connected to a battery of 6 V. Initially switch ‘S’ is closed. After sometime ‘S’ is left open and dielectric slabs of dielectric constant K = 3 are inserted to fill completely the space between the plates of the two capacitors.

How will the
(i) charge and
(ii) potential difference between the plates of the capacitors be affected after the slabs are inserted?

Question 10.
Draw the output waveform at X, using the given inputs A and B for the logic circuit shown below. Also, identify the logic operation performed by this circuit.

Question 11.
Draw the transfer characteristic curve of a base biased transistor in CE configuration. Explain clearly how the active region of the V₀ versus V_i– curve in a transistor is used as an amplifier.

Question 12.
(i) Define modulation index.
(ii) Why is the amplitude of modulating signal kept less than the amplitude of carrier wave?

Question 13.
A current is induced in coil C₁due to the motion of current carrying coil C₂.
(a) Write any two ways by which a large deflection can be obtained in the galvanometer G.
(b) Suggest an alternative device to demonstrate the induced current in place of a galvanometer.

Question 14.
Define the terms
(i) drift velocity,
(ii) relaxation time. A conductor of length L is connected to a dc source of emf ε. If this conductor is replaced by another conductor of same material and same area of cross-section but of length 3L, how will the drift velocity change?

Question 15.
Name the semiconductor device that can be used to regulate an unregulated dc power supply. With the help of I-V characteristics of this device, explain its working principle.

Question 16.
Draw a schematic diagram showing the
(i) ground wave
(ii) sky wave and
(iii) space wave propagation modes for em waves.
Write the frequency range for each of the following :
(i) Standard AM broadcast
(ii) Television
(iii) Satellite communication

Question 17.
How are infrared waves produced? Why are these referred to as ‘heat wave’? Write their one important use.

Question 18.
Using Gauss’s law obtain the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R at a point outside the shell. Draw a graph showing the variation of electric field with r, for r > R and r < R.

Question 19.
An electron and a photon each have a wave lenght of 1.00 nm.
Find
(a) their momenta,
(b) the energy of the photon and
(c) the kinetic energy of electron

Question 20.
Describe Young’s double slit experiment to produce interference pattern due to a monochromatic source of light. Deduce the expression for the fringe width.

OR

Use Huygens principle to verify the laws of refraction.

Question 21.
(a) Describe briefly, with the help of suitable diagram, how the transverse nature of light can be demonstrated by the phenomenon of polarization.
(b) When unpolarized light passes from air to a transparent medium, under what condition does the refracted light get polarized?

Question 22.
The energy levels of a hypothetical atom are shown. Which of the shown transitions will result in the emission of a photon of wavelength 275 nm? Which of these transitions correspond to emission of radiation of

(i) maximum and
(ii) minimum wavelength?

SECTION : D

Question 23.
In the circuit shown, R₁ = 4 Ω, R₂ = R₃ = 15 Ω, R₄ = 30Ω and E= 10 V. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the circuit and the current in each resistor.

SECTION : E

Question 24.
(i)  With the help of a labelled diagram, describe briefly the underlying principle and working of a step up transformer.
(ii) Write any two sources of energy loss in a transformer.
(iii) A step up transformer converts a low input voltage into a high output voltage. Does it violate law of conservation of energy? Explain.

OR

Derive an expression for the impedance of a series LCR circuit connected to an AC supply of variable frequency. Plot a graph showing variation of current with the frequency of the applied voltage. Explain briefly how the phenomenon of resonance in the circuit can be used in the tuning mechanism of a radio or a TV set.

Question 25.
State Biot-Savart law, giving the mathematical expression for it. Use this law to derive the expression for the magnetic field due to a circular coil carrying current at a point along its axis. How does a circular loop carrying current behave as a magnet?

OR

With the help of a labelled diagram, state the underlying principle of a cyclotron. Explain clearly how it works to accelerate the charged particles. Show that cyclotron frequency is independent of energy of the particle. Is there an upper limit on the energy acquired by the particle? Give reason.

Question 26.
(a) Draw a ray diagram to show refraction of a ray of monochromatic light passing through a glass prism.Deduce thee xpression for the refractive index of glass in terms of angle of prism and angle of minimum deviation.
(b) Explain briefly how the phenomenon of total internal reflection is used in fibre optics.

OR

(a) Obtain Lens Maker formula using the expression

Here the ray of light propagation from a rarer medium of refractive index (n₁) to a denser medium of refractive index (n₂) is incident on the convex side of spherical refracting surface of radius of curvature R.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a concave mirror when the object is kept between its focus and the pole. Using this diagram, derive the magnification formula for the image found.

 Answers :
SECTION : A

Answer 1.

Answer 2.

Answer 3.
In electromagnetic wave, the electric field vector E and magnetic field vector B show their variations perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave as well as perpendicular to each other. As the electromagnetic wave is travelling along Z-direction, hence E and B show their variation in XY-plane.

Answer 4.
If Q is positively charged, V_A-V_B = positive. If Q is negatively charged, V_A-V_B = negative.

Answer 5.
Paramagnetic material (0 < μ < 1).

SECTION : B

Answer 6.
Downward force due to gravity is balanced by upward force due to electric field.


When this dipole is placed in an electric field along + X-axis, it will experiences a torque.

According to Right Hand Thumb Rule, torque will be into the plane of the paper.

Answer 7.

∴  The telescope with objective of aperture A₁ should be preferred for viewing as this would :

1. give a better resolution.
2. have a higher light gathering power of telescope.

Answer 8.
Given,

Answer 9.
When S is closed: Potential difference across C₁  = Potential difference across C₂ = 6V
V₁ = V₂ = 6V
∴ q₁ = q₂ = 1μF x 6V = 6μC
When S is open and dielectric slab (K = 3) are put in between plates of capacitors,
C₁ = 3 x 1μF = 3μF
C₁ = 3 x 1μF = 3μF
When S is open, potential difference across C₁ , V₁= 6V
∴ q₁ = 3μF x 6V = 18μC
Potential difference across C₂

Answer 10.

The logic operation performed by this circuit is OR.

SECTION : C

Answer 11.

In the active region, a (small) increase of V_i results in a (large, almost linear) increase in I_c. This results in an increase in the voltage drop across R.

Answer 12.
(i) Modulation index is defined as the ratio of amplitude of modulating signal to amplitude of carrier wave. It is given by

A_m = amplitude of modulation wave
A_c = amplitude of carrier wave
(ii) The amplitude of modulating signal is kept less than the amplitude of carrier wave to avoid noise.

Answer 13.
(a) Any two ways to obtain large deflection in G :

• Moving C₂ faster towards C₁.
• Insertion of soft iron core in C₁
  

(b) Alternative device that can be used in place of galvanometer is LED.

Answer 14.
(i) Drift velocity :
The average velocity with which the free electrons drift towards positive terminal under the influence of an external field is called drift velocity.
(ii) Relaxation time :
Average time interval between two successive collisions of an electron with the ions/ atoms of the conductor.
The drift velocity will be inversely proportional to L, i.e.,

Answer 15.
A Zener diode is a specially designed diode which is operated in reverse breakdown region continuously with any damage. When Zener diode is operated in the reverse break down region, the voltage across it remains practically constant (V_z) for a large change in reverse current. Therefore, for any increase/ decrease of the input voltage there is a increase/ decrease of the voltage drop across series resistance without any change in the voltage across Zener diode,

Answer 16.
(i) Standard AM Broadcast : 540-1600 kHz
(ii) Television : 54-72 MHz VHF (very high frequencies); 76-88 MHz TV; 174-216 MHz UHF (ultra high frequencies); 420-890 MHz TV
(iii) Satellite communication : 5.925-6.425 GHz uplink and 3.7-4.2 GHz downlink.

Answer 17.
Infrared rays are produced by hot bodies and molecules. Infrared waves are called heat waves as they cause heating effect. Infrared waves are used to maintain earth’s warmth, in physiotherapy, remote switches etc.

Answer 18.
Electric field at point P at a distance r out side the spherical shell.

According to gauss law,

image

Answer 19.
λ_e =λ_photon = 1.00 nm= 10^-9 m
(a) For electron or photon, momentum

Answer 20.

S is a narrow slit (of width about 1 mm) illuminated by a monochromatic source of light. At a suitable distance (=10 mm) from S, two slits S₁ and S₂ are placed parallel to S. When a screen is placed at a large distance (about 2m) from the slits S₁ and S₂, alternate dark and bright bands appear on the screen. These are the interference bands or fringes. The band disappear when either slit is covered.
Explanation :
According to Huygens principle, the monochromatic source of light illuminating the slit S tends out spherical wavefront. The two waves of same amplitude and same frequency superimpose on each other, dark fringes appear on the screen when the crest of one wave falls on the trough of other and they neutralize the effect of each other. Bright fringes appear on the screen when the crest of one wave coincides with the crest of other and they reinforce each other.

Expression for the fringe width :
Let d = distance between slits S₁ and S₂
D = distance of screen from two slits and
x – distance between the central maxima
‘O’ and observation point P.
Light waves spread out from S and fall on both S₁ and S₂. The spherical waves emanating from S₁ and S₂ will produce interference fringes on the screen MN.


Now, the intensity at point P is maximum or minimum accordingly as the path difference is an integral multiple of wavelength or an odd integral multiple of half wavelength.

OR

Wavefront :
The continuous locus of all the particles of a medium, which are vibrating in the same phase is called wavefront.
Laws of refraction :
Let PP’ represent the surface separating medium 1 and medium 2 as shown in fig.

Which is Snell’s Law of refraction of light (second law)
First Law, incident wavefront, refracted wave front, normals all lie in the same plane.

Answer 21.

(a) When a polaroid P₁ is rotated in the path of an unpolarised light, there is no change in transmitted intensity. The light transmitted through Polaroid P₁ is made to pass through Polaroid P₂. On rotating polaroid P₂, in path of light transmitted from P₁ we notice a change in intensity of transmitted light. This shows the light transmitted from P₁ is polarized. Since light can be polarized, it has transverse nature.
(b) Whenever unpolarised light is incident from air to a transparent medium at an angle of incidence equal to polarizing angle, the reflected light gets fully polarized.

Answer 22.
If a photon of wavelength λ = 275nm is to be emited , they energy of photon is given by

hence transition B would result in the emission of a photon of wavelenght 275nm.
(i) Transition A corresponds to max wavelenght due to least energy change transition.
(ii) Transition D corresponds to min wavelenght due to least energy change transition.

SECTION : D

Answer 23.
R₂  R₃  R₄  are in parallel combination

SECTION : E

Answer 24.
(i) Step-Up Transformer :

Principle :
It works on the principle of mutual induction. When alternating current is passed through a coil an induced emf is set up in the neighbouring coil.
Working :
When an alternating voltage is applied to the primary, the resulting current produces an alternating magnetic flux which links the secondary and induces an emf in it. We consider an ideal transformer in which the primary has negligible resistance and all the flux in the core links with both primary and secondary windings. Let (Φ) be the flux in each turn in the core at any time t due to current in the primary when a voltage V_p is applied to it.
Then the induced emf or voltage E_ç, in the secondary with N_s, turns is

The alternating flux also induces an emf, called back emf in the primary given by

But E_p = V_p (since resistance of primary is small) and E_s. = V_s (since secondary current is small)

(i) Sources of energy loss in transformer are : Heat loss due to resistance of windings, loss due to eddy currents.
(ii) A step up transformer steps up the voltage while it steps down the current. So the input and output power remain same (provided there is no loss). Hence there is no violation of the principle of energy conservation.

OR

The effective resistance offered by a series LCR circuit to the flow of current is called its impedance. It is denoted by Z. Suppose an inductance L, capacitance C and resistance R are connected in series to a source of alternating emf, V = V₀ sin ωt
Let I be the instantaneous value of current in series circuit. Then voltages across the three components are

• V_L = X_L It is ahead of current I in phase by 90°
• V_c = X_C It lags behind the current I in phase by 90°
• V_R = RI. It is in phase with current I.

These voltages are shown in the phasor diagram given below :

As V_L and V_c are in opposite direction, their resultant is OD = V_L – V_c, in the positive y-direction.

Here, V/ I is the effective resistance of the series LCR circuit and is called its impedance (Z).

The given graph showing variation of current with the frequency of the applied voltage. The radio and TV receiver sets are the practical applications of series resonant circuits. Signals of several different frequencies are available in air. By turning the tuning knob of the radio set, we vary the frequency of the LC circuit till it matches the frequency of the desired signal.

A series resonant circuit allows maximum current through it. So, it is called acceptor circuit. A series resonance circuit is that circuit in which inductance L, capacitance C and resistance R are connected in series. The impedance of this circuit has a minimum value and the current through the circuit is maximum.

Answer 25.
Biot-Savart Law states that the magnitude of magnetic Y field dB due to current element is directly proportional to the current I,


Explanation :
A circular current loop produces magnetic field and its magnetic moment is the product of current and its area.
M = IA

OR

Principle :
Acharged particle can be accelerated to high energy by making it cross the same electric field again and again using a perpendicular magnetic field.

Working :
High frequency oscillator maintains moderate alternating potential difference between the dees. This potential difference establishes an electric field that reverse its direction periodically. Suppose a positive ion of moderate mass produced at the centre of the dees, finds D₂ at negative potential.It gets accelerated towards it. A uniform magnetic field, normal to the plane of the dees, makes it move in a circular track. Particle traces a semicircular track and returns back to the region between the dees. The moment it arrives in the region electric field reverses its direction and accelerate the charge towards D₁ This way charge keeps on getting accelerated until it is removed out of the dees. Centripetal force, needed by the charged particle to move in circular track, is provided by the magnetic field.

Thus, frequency of revolution is independent of the energy of the particle. Yes, there is an upper limit on the energy acquired by the charged particle. The charged particle gains maximum speed when it moves in a path of radius equal to the radius of the dees.

Answer 26.
(a)


Each optical fibre consists of a core and cladding, refractive index of the material of the core is higher than that of cladding. When a signal, in the form of light, is directed into the optical fibre, at an angle greater than the critical angle, it undergoes repeated total internal reflections along the length of the fibre and comes out of it at the other end with almost negligible loss of intensity.

OR

(a)

The point, where image of an object, located at infinity is formed, is called the focus F, of the lens and the distance f gives its focal length.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 2 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions :

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Name the non-stoichiometric point defect responsible for colour in alkali metal halides.

Question 2.
Gelatin is generally added to ice cream. Give reason.

Question 3.
Give IUPAC name of the following organic compound :

Question 4.
Write the structure of Acetoxy salicylic acid.

Question 5.
Name the mono saccharides persent in lactose.

Question 6.
Differentiate between molarity and molality for a solution. How does a change in temperature influence their values?

Question 7.
A chemical reaction is of first order w.r.t. reactant A and of second order w.r.t. reactant B. How is the rate of this reaction affected when

1. the concentration of B is alone increased to three times.
2. the concentration of A as well as B are doubled?

Question 8.
Complete the following chemical equations:

1. Cu + Cone. HNO₃ →
2. S₈ + H₂SO₄ (conc.) →

Question 9.
Write complete chemical equations for

1. Oxidation of Fe²⁺ by Cr₂O^2-₇ in acidic medium
2. Oxidation of S₂O^2-₃ by MnO^–₄ in neutral aqueous medium

Or
Complete the following chemical equations:

1. MnO^–₄ (aq) + C₂O^2-₄ (aq) + H⁺ (aq) →
2. Cr₂O^2-₇ (aq) + Fe²⁺ (aq) + H⁺(aq) →

Question 10.
Which one of the following pair of sustances undergoes S_N2 substitution reaction faster and why?

Question 11.
Calcium crystallises in Face Centered Cubic structure. Radius of the atom in the metal is 141.4 pm.
(a) What is the length of the side of the unit cell?
(b) How many atoms of Calcium are there in its 5 cm³?

Question 12.
Calculate the freezing point of an aqueous solution containing 10.5 g of MgBr₂ in 200 g of water (given molar mass of MgBr₂ = 184 g mol^-1, K_f for water = 1.86 K kg mol^-1, also MgBr₂ is 80% dissociated).

Question 13.
The rate of a reaction becomes four times when the temperature changes from 300 K to 320 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction, assuming that it does not change with temperature. (R = 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1)

Question 14.

1. How electrophoresis leads to coagulation of gold sol?
2. Explain Tyndall effect briefy by taking an example.
3. Explain why coagulation of sols will occur.p-

Question 15.
(a) Briefly explain leaching process with reaction.
(b) With the help of reactions, explain how pure Zr is obtained from impure Zr?
(c) With the help of reactions, explain how pure gold is obtained?

Question 16.
How would you carry out the following conversions? Write complete equations in each case.
(a) 1-methylcyyclohexene to 1-iodo methylcyclohexanol
(b) Styrene to 1-bromo-l-phenylethane
(c) But-4-enal to 2-Bromobutane

Question 17.

1. Why in transition elements, the melting point first increases and then decreases?
2. Why scandium (Atomic no. 21) is considered a transition metal?
3. How would you account for the following-Actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction?

OR
With the help of chemical reactions, explain how KMnO₄ is prepared from pyrolusite ore? Also, write the chemical reaction of KMnO₄ with SO₂ gas in acidic medium?

Question 18.
How will you bring about following conversions? Write complete equations in each case.
(a) Ethanal to 3-hydroxybutanal
(b) Benzaldehyde to benzophenone
(c) Propanone to propene

Question 19.
Give the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions:

Question 20.
Explain the following:
(a) Peptide Linkage
(b) Essential amino acid
(c) Pyranose Structure of β Glucose

Question 21.
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the polymers given below:
(a) Buna-S
(b) Neoprene
(c) Nylon-6,6

Question 22.

1. Give two macromolecules used as drug traget.
2. What are antiseptics?
3. What are anionic detergents?

Question 23.
Mamta, a housewife lives in Sonepat (Haryana). The tap water she gets is rich in dissolved salts. She uses ordinary washing soap for washing clothes and she finds that soaps are not very effective in cleaning her clothes. One of her neighbours, Shilpa is a student of science. Shilpa suggested to her to use synthetic detergents for washing clothes.
Answer the following questions:
(i) As a science student, why did Shilpa suggest to Mamta to use synthetic detergent?
(ii) Give one chemical reaction to justify why not to use ordinary soap.
(iii) What were the values associated with the above decision?

Question 24.
What type of a battery is the lead storage battery? Write the anode and the cathode reactions and the overall reaction occurring in a lead storage battery when current is drawn from it. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C:
Cu(s) | CuSO₄(10^-1 M)|| Ag₂SO₄(10^-3 M) | Ag
Given E_cell° = 0.46 V
OR
(a) Write the anode and cathode reactions occurring in a commonly used mercury cell. How is the overall reaction represented?
(b) Calculate the degree of dissociation and dissociation constant of 0.01 M acetic acid at 298 K, given that
Δ⁰_m (CH₃COOH) = 39 S cm² mol^-1
Δ⁰_m (CH₃COO^–) = 40.9 S cm² mol^-1
Δ⁰_m (H⁺) = 349.1 S cm² mol^-1

Question 25.
(a) Explain each of the following:

1. Molten PCl₅ conducts electricity
2. The electron gain enthalpy of Fluorine is less than Chlorines .
3. Fluorine forms only one oxoacid, that is HOF

(b) Draw the structure of
(i) XeOF
(ii) ClF^–₄
OR
Answer the following

1. Which neutral molecule would be isoelectronic with CIO^–?
2. Of Bi (V) and Sb(V) which may be stronger oxiding agent and why?
3. What is the basicity of H₃PO₃ and why?
4. Why do noble gases have very low boiling points?
5. Nitrogen is much less reactive than phosphorus at room temperature. Why?

Question 26.
(a) Arrange the following sets of compounds in increasing order according to the given instruction.

1. Phenol, 2-nitrophenol, Cyclohexanol (Acidic character)
2. pentan-l-ol, n-butane, pentanal, ethoxyethane (boiling points)

(b) Describe the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
(c) Write Kolbe’s reaction with an example.
OR
(a) Explain the following name reactions with a suitable example.

1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Williamson’s synthesis

(b)

1. Haloalkanes are more soluble in organic solvent as compared to water, why?
2. Grignard’s reagent is prepared under anhydrous conditions, why?
3. Phenol is more acidic than ethanol, why?

Answers 

Answer 1.
F-centre or metal excess defect

Answer 2.
Gelatin acts as an emulsifying agent as well as prevents crystallisation of water.

Answer 3.
3-Hydroxyhex-4-enoic acid

Answer 4.

Answer 5.
β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose.

Answer 6.

• Molarity : It is the number of moles of solute per litre of solution.
• Molality : It is number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent.

In case of molarity, its value will decrease with increasing temperature but molality remains unchanged with change in temperature.

Answer 7.
According to given information the rate law equation is
rate = k[A] [B]²

1. On increasing [B] three times
   rate₁ = k [A] [3B]²
   = 9 k[A] [B]²
   i.e. rate becomes nine times.
2. When [A] and [B] gets doubled, then
   rate₂ = K[2A] [2B]² = 8 K[A] [B]²
   i.e. rate becomes 8 times.

Answer 8.

1. Cu + 4HNO₃ (conc.) → Cu (NO₃)₂ + 2NO₂ + 2H₂O
2. S₈ + 16H₂SO₄ (conc.) → 24SO₂ + 16H₂O

Answer 9.
(a) Cr₂O^2-₇ + 6Fe²⁺ + 14⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 6Fe³⁺ + 7H₂O
(b) 8MnO^–₄ + 3S₂O^2-₃ + H₂O → 8MnO₂ + 6SO^2-₄ + 2OH^–
OR
(a) 2MnO^–₄ + 5S₂O^2-₄ + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 8H₂O + 10CO₂
(b) CrO^2-₇ + 3H₂S + 8H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 3S + 7H₂O

Answer 10.

Answer 11.
Since calcium crystallises in fee structure, so

Answer 12.
From question

Answer 13.
Since K₂ = 4K₁
T₁ = 300 K, T₂ = 320 K, R = 8.314 JK^-1 mol.
from Arrhenius relation:

Answer 14.

1. The colloidal particles move towards oppositely charged electrode i.e. electropheoresis takes place and it will lead to coagulation of gold sol.
2. The path of light becomes visible due to scattering of light by particles of starch sol and tyndall effect will take place.
3. Coagulation of sol will occur due to neutralisation of charges on the colloidal particles.

Answer 15.
(a) The process of leaching with NaOH (aq) is used for leaching of bauxite ore to get pure alumina (Al₂O₃). The reaction involved is
Al₂O₃(g) + 2NaOH(aq) + 3H₂O(g) → Al₂O₃2CH₂O↓ + 2NaHCO₃ (aq)
Precipitate is filtered, washed and dried, followed by heating to get pure Al₂O₃.

Answer 16.

Answer 17.

1. It is due to strong metal metal bond which is there because of small size and large number of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
2. Sc (21) → [Ar] 3d¹4s²
   It contains partially filled d-orbital in the ground state, i.e. 3d¹ configuration, hence it is d-orbital considered as a transition metal.
3. It is due to poorer shielding of 5f electrons in actinoids as compared to 4f electrons of lanthanoids.

OR
Preparation of KMnO₄ from pyrolusite ore :

Reaction with SO₂
2MnO^–₄ + 5SO₂ + 2H₂O \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \) 2Mn²⁺ + 5SO^2-₄ + 4H⁺

Answer 18.

Answer 19. 

Answer 20.
(a) Peptide linkage : Proteins are connected to each other through

(amide linkage) bond which is called peptide bond or linkage in protein chemistry,
e.g.

(b) Essential amino acid : The amino acids which must be taken in diet regularly are known as essential amino acids.
(c) Pyranose structure of β-glucose is as follows:

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

1. Protein, enzymes, hormones etc.
2. Antiseptics : The class of compounds used to kill microorganisms on living cells are known as antiseptics.
3. These are sodium salts of sulphonated long chain alcohols or hydrocarbons, since large part of such detergent is anionic and cleansing action is also due to this part. Hence such detergents are known as anionic detergents. Most of the household detergents are anionic.

Answer 23.
(a) Synthetic detergents provide cleaning in soft water as well as in hard water.

(c) Values associated are knowledge of chemistry, concern for friend, cleanliness and environment protection, (any two)

Answer 24.
It is a secondary battery, i.e. rechargeable
Cell reaction during battery in use:
At anode : Pb(s) + SO^2-₄(aq) → PbSO₄(aq) + 2e^–
Cathode : Pb(s) + SO^2-₄(aq) + 4H⁺(aq) + 2e → PbSO₄(s) + 2H₂O (l)
Net reaction : Pb(s) + PbO₂(s) + 2H₂SO₄(aq) → 2PbSO₄ + 2H₂O(l)

(b) Cell reactions at
Anode → Cu(s) Cu²⁺ + x  Here, n = 2
Cathode → (Ag⁺ + e^– → Ag) × 2
Net reaction :
Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺ → Cu²⁺ + 2Ag
At 298 K, Nemst equation for emf of cell:

OR
Reaction of mercury cell at
Anode : Zn (Hg) + 20H^– → ZnO(s) + H₂O + 2e^–
Cathode : HgO + 2H₂O + 2e^– → Hg(l) + 2OH^–
Overall reaction:
Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(s)
[since no ion is involved during the overall reaction, so cell potential remains constant during the entire life of the cell]

(b) from question (Δ⁰_m) = 39 S cm² mol^-1
limiting molar conductivity (Δ⁰_m) for acetic acid
Δ⁰_m (CH₃COOH) = λ_CH3COO^– + λ°_H+
= 349.1 + 40.9 – 390 S cm² mol^-1
Now, Degree of dissociation,

α = 0.1
Dissociation constant (K_a) for fa acetic acid :
K = Cα² = (0.01) (0.1)² = 10^-4

Answer 25.
(a)

1. In molten state PCl₅ exist as [PCl₄]⁺ and [PCl₆]^– ions, hence it conducts electricity.
2. It is due to high electron density in valence shell of fluorine.
3. Due to absence of d orbitals in F, it cannot expand its covalency.

OR

1. OF₂ or ClF
2. Bi(V) is an stronger oxidising agent, reason being Bi(III) is more stable than Bi(V) because of inert pair effect.
3. Structure of H₃PO₃ –
   
   Its basicity is two and the reason being is, it consists of two OH groups, hence only 2H⁺ ions can be released.
4. Noble gases are monotomic gas molecules and hence only weak dispersion forces are there. As a result they have low boiling point.
5. Triple bond present between two nitrogen atoms is much stronger than P-P single bond, hence nitrogen is less reactive than phosphorous.

Answer 26.
(a)

1. Cyclohexanol < phenol < 2-nitrophenol
2. n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentanal < pentan-1-ol

OR
(a)

1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction:
   
2. Williamson’s synthesis:
   An alkyl halide reacts with sodium alkoxide to form ether.
   R-X + R’- ONa → R-O-R’ + NaX
   CH₃Cl + NaOC₂H₅ → CH₃-O-CH₂-CH₃ + NaCl

(b)

1. Haloalkanes are unable to form hydrogen bond with water but bonding of haloalkanes with organic solvent is as strong as among haloalkanes. Due to this reason haloalkanes are more soluble in organic solvent than water.
2. Grignard reagent reacts immediately with water to form alkane, hence they are prepared under anhydrous conditions.
   RMgX + H₂O → RH + MgX(OH)
3. Phenoxide ion is resonance stablised, hence phenol is more acidic than ethanol (ethoxide ion is destablised by +I effect of alkyl group).

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