Prasanna

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
What is nomadic herding?

Question 2.
What are the retail trading services?

Question 3.
Name the terminal stations of the Orient Express Railway.

Question 4.
Name the metropolitan city of Kerala.

Question 5.
Name the air service which is widely used in the hilly areas of the north-eastern sector.

Question 6.
What type of pollution is responsible for acid rain?

Question 7.
Which port is specially designed to receive large quantities of petroleum and petroleum products and fertiliser?

Question 8.
Discuss the concept of New Determinism with suitable example.

Question 9.
Why is sex ratio unfavourable to women in the world? Mention any three reasons.

Question 10.
Explain the concept of productivity and empowerment as the pillars of human development.

Question 11.
Study the following map carefully and answer the questions that follows.

(i) Name the Trans Continental Railways.
(ii) Name the stations situated at both ends of this railways.
(iii) Name the ports situated at Bay of Spencer through which it passes.

Question 12.
Continued feelings of dejection may motivate people to fall in the trap of anti social activities like crime and drug abuse. Which human values are important that could bring a positive change among such people?

Question 13.
Explain any three points of distinction between rural and urban settlements of India.

Question 14.
Describe the main characteristics of Commercial Livestock Rearing.

Question 15.
Describe the factors affecting the location of rural settlements in the world.

Question 16.
Describe the important characteristics of the Panama Canal. 5×1 = 5

Question 17.
Explain any five factors which influenced the location of Tata Iron and Steel Plant.

Question 18.
What is wind energy? State two advantages of wind energy. Name the states of India having favourable conditions for the development of wind energy.

Question 19.
Describe important characteristics of India’s international trade.

Question 20.
What is an air pollution? How is the air get polluted? Explain any three effects of air pollution on human life.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) An area having highest density of population.
(B) Areas of extensive commercial grain farming
(C) A major seaport
(D) A mega city
(E) A major airport

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A highly urbanised state, in terms of population.
(ii) A leading producer state in Groundnut.
(iii) An oil refinery that lies in Bihar.
(iv) Software Technology Park in Madhya Pradesh
(v) A major sea port.

Answers

Answer 1.
Nomadic herding is an activity in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter tools and transport. They move from one place to another along with their livestock depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.

Answer 2.
This is the business activity concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers. Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed stores solely devoted to selling.

Answer 3.
Paris in the West and Istanbul in the East.

Answer 4.
Kochi

Answer 5.
Pawan Hans.

Answer 6.
Air Pollution.

Answer 7.
Kandla Port.

Answer 8.
(i) Griffin Taylor introduced this concept which reflects a middle path between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism.
(ii) It was termed as Neo-determinism or stop-and-go determinism and tried to explain with the example of traffic signals. The concept shows that neither is a situation of absolute necessity nor is there a condition of absolute freedom.
(in) It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications. Possibilities can be created within the limits—that does not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents.

Answer 9.
(i) If gender discrimination is rampant, the sex-ratio is bound to be unfavourable to women.
(ii) The practice of female foeticide, female infanticide and domestic violence against women.
(iii) Lower socio-economic status of women.

Answer 10.
(i) Productivity: Productivity means human labour productivity in terms of human work.
(ii) Productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people as they are real wealth of nations. Efforts to increase their knowledge or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.
Empowerment: It means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people oriented policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.

Answer 11.
(i) The Australian Trans Continental Railways.
(ii) Perth in the West and Sydney in the East.
(iii) Port Augusta and Port Pirie.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening
(ii) Cooperation and counsellings
(iii) Harmony.

Answer 13.
(i) The rural settlements derive their life support from land based primary economic activities whereas urban settlements depend on processing of raw materials and manufacturing of finished goods and various services.
(ii) Cities act as nodes of economic growth and provide goods and services not only to urban dwellers but also to the people of rural settlements in their hinterlands in return for food and raw materials.
Functional relationship between the urban and rural settlements take place through transport and communication network.
(iii) Rural and urban settlements differ in terms of social relationship, attitude and outlook.
Rural people are less mobile; social relations among them are intimate. Way of life complex and fast; social relations are formal.

Answer 14.
(i) Commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.
(ii) Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western culture and is practised on permanent ranches.
(iii) Ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcel which are fenced to regulate the grazing.
(iv) The grass of one parcel is grazed, then animals are moved to another parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.
(v) It is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goat and horses. Rearing of animals in ranching is organised on a scientific basis.
(vi) The main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care of the animals.

Answer 15.
(i) Water supply: Rural settlements are located near waterbodies such as rivers, lakes and
springs where water can be easily obtained. Most water based ‘wet point’ settlements have many advantages such as water for drinking, cooking, and washing. Rivers and lakes can be used to irrigate farm land.
(ii) Land: People choose to settle near fertile lands suitable for agriculture. In Europe, villages grew up near rolling country avoiding swampy, low lying land, while people in south east Asia chose to live near low-lying river valleys and coastal plains suited for wet rice cultivation.
(iii) Upland: It is not prone to flooding, was chosen to prevent damage to houses and loss of life. In low lying river basins, people chose to settle on terraces and levees which are ‘dry point’. In tropical countries people build their houses on stilts near marshy land to protect themselves from flood, insects and animal pests.
(iv) Building Materials: The availability of building materials—Wood and stone near settlement is another advantage. Early villages were built in forest clearings where wood was plentiful. In some areas of China, cave dwellings were important and African Savanna’s building materials were mud, bricks and the Eskimos use ice blocks to construct igloos.
(v) Defence: During the times of political instability, war, hostility of neighbouring groups, villages were build on defensive hills and islands. In Nigeria, upstanding Inselberges formed good defensive sites. In India most of the settlements are located on higher grounds or hills.

Answer 16.
(i) This canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the Pacific Ocean in the west.
(ii) It is about 72 km long and involves a very deep cutting for a length of 12 km.
(iii) It has a six lock system and ships cross the different levels through these locks before entering the Gulf of Panama.
(iv) It shortens the distance between New York and San Francisco by 13000 km by sea. The distance between Western Europe and the West coast of USA, and north, eastern and central USA and East and South-east Asia is shortened.
(V) Its economic significance is relatively less than the Suez canal. It is vital to the economies of Latin America.

Answer 17.
(i) The Tata Iron and Steel plant lies very’ close to the Mumbai-Kolkata railway line.
(ii) 240 km away from Kolkata, nearest port for the export of steel.
(iii) The rivers Subamarekha and Kharkai provide water to the plant.
(iv) The iron-ore for the plant is obtained from Noamundi and Badam Pahar and coal is brought from Joda mines in Odisha.
(v) Cooking Coal comes from Jharia and West Bokaro coal fields.

Answer 18.
(a) Wind energy is absolutely pollution free and an inexhaustive source of energy. The mechanism of energy conversion from blowing wind is simple.
(b) (i) It is non-conventional energy sources. It will provide more sustained, eco-friendly, and cheaper energy.
(ii) The kinetic energy of wind through turbines is converted into electrical energy. Land and sea breeze can also be used.
(iii) The ministry of non conventional sources of energy is developing wind energy in India to lessen the burden of oil import bill.
(c) In Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharastra and Karnataka favourable conditions for wind energy exist.

Answer 19.
(i) India’s International trade has undergone a sea change in recent years in terms of volume, composition as well as direction.
(ii) India’s contribution in the world trade is as low as one percent of the total volume. It plays significant role in the world economy.
(iii) U.S. A is the biggest International trade partner that is an important destination for India’s export.
(vi) Most of India’s foreign trade is carried through sea and air routes.
(v) A small portion is also carried through land route to neighbouring countries like Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Pakistan.

Answer 20.
(a) Air pollution is taken as addition of contaminants like dust, fumes, gas, fog, odour, smoke to the air in substantial proportion and duration that may be harmful to flora and fauna and to property.
(b) With increasing use of varieties of fuels as source of energy, there is a marked increase in emission of toxic gases into the atmosphere resulting in the pollution of air.
(c) (i) Air pollution causes various diseases related to respiratory, nervous and circulatory systems.
(ii) Smoky fog over cities called as urban smog is caused by atmospheric pollution. It proves very harmful to human health.
(iii) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen, hydrocarbons, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide; lead and asbestos have direct effect on human being in various ways and are cause of many deadly diseases.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which parts of U.S.A and Europe have density more than 200 persons per sq. km?

Question 2.
Define the term ‘positive growth of population’.

Question 3.
Which is the leading steel producing region of Germany?

Question 4.
Which is the busiest sea route in the world?

Question 5.
Name the metropolitan city of Bihar.

Question 6.
Name any two ferrous minerals other than iron ore.

Question 7.
Which port has been developed to relieve pressure of Chennai?

Question 8.
Explain with examples the three economic factors influencing the population distribution in the world.

Question 9.
What is subsistence agriculture? Mention any four characteristics of primitive subsistence agriculture.

Question 10.
Explain any three features of Semi-clustered settlement.

Question 11.
Study the diagram given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Why is the utilisation of surface water limited in Industrial sector in India?
(ii) Which sector utilises the most of surface water and why?

Question 12.
Which human values are important to minimise the air pollution as human activities are main causes?

Question 13.
Degradation of cultivation land is one of the most serious problems that arises out of faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development in India. Explain.

Question 14.
Explain any two functions of WTO. Why has this organisation been criticised? Mention three reasons in this regard.

Question 15.
How are technological innovations an important aspect of modern manufacturing industries? Explain.

Question 16.
Describe the main characteristics of quaternary activities.

Question 17.
What are the Trans-continental Railways? Write four features of trans-Siberian Railways.

Question 18.
How are physical and economic factors responsible for uneven distribution of population in India?

Question 19.
Define the term ‘Migration’. Explain four factors that are responsible for migration of people in India.

Question 20.
Discuss any five geographical factors that affect localisation of an industry at a particular place in India.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A mega city
(B) A country having highest growth rate of population
(C) An area of Mediterranean agriculture
(D) A seaport
(E) An International airport

Question 22.
Locate and label theTollowing five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A state with lowest gender ratio.
(ii) An oil refinery situated in Uttar Pradesh.
(iii) A leading producer state of Maize.
(iv) A software technology park situated in Odisha.
(v) A major seaport of Tamil Nadu.

Answers

Answer 1.
(i) North-Eastern parts of U.S.A. and North-Western part of Europe.

Answer 2.
Positive growth of population happens when the birth rate is more than the death rate between two points of time or when people from other countries migrate permanently to a region.

Answer 3.
The Ruhr region.

Answer 4.
The Northern Atlantic Sea Route is the busiest sea route in the world.

Answer 5.
Patna

Answer 6.
(i) Manganese
(ii) Chromite

Answer 7.
Tuticorin port was developed to relieve pressure of Chennai port.

Answer 8.
(i) Minerals: Areas with minerals deposits attract industries. Mining and industrial activities generate employment skilled and semi-skilled workers move to these areas and make them densely populated.
(ii) Urbanisation: Cities offer better employment opportunities; educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication, good civic amenities, attraction of city life. It leads to rural to urban migration.
(iii) Industralisation: It provides job opportunities and attract large number of people. These include not just factory workers but transport operators, shopkeepers, bank employees, doctors, teachers and others providers.

Answer 9.
(a) Subsistence agriculture is one in which the farming areas consume all or nearly so, of the products locally grown.
(b) (i) It is widely practised by many tribes in the tropics, especially in Africa.
(ii) The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil.
(iii) Cultivated patches area very small and done with very primitive tools.
(iv) The farmer may return to the earlier patch after some time.

Answer 10.
(i) These may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlements.
(ii) More often such a pattern may also result from segregation of a large compact of village. One more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from cluster.
(iii) The land owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village whereas the people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village.

Answer 11.
(i) The availability of surface water is not sufficient.
(ii) (a) Agriculture sector.
(b) Agriculture needs sufficient water for irrigation throughout the year.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening .
(ii) To follow the principle of sustainable development
(iii) Cooperation and Eco-friendly

Answer 13.
(i) One of the serious problems that arises out of faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development is degradation of land resources.
(ii) It may lead to depletion of soil fertility, alarming fall in water table in irrigated areas. A large tract of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and waterlogging.
(iii) Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile.
(iv) Leguminous crops have been displaced form the cropping pattern in the irrigated areas and duration of fallow has substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping.

Answer 14.
(a) (i) WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations. It sets the rules for the global trading system and resolves disputes between its member nations.
(ii) It covers trade in services such as tele-communication and banking and other issues such as intellectual rights.

(b) (i) It has been criticised and opposed that free trade does not make ordinary peoples lives prosperous.
(ii) It is actually widening the gulf between rich and poor, by making rich countries more rich.
(iii) The influential nations in the W.T.O focus on their own commercial interests. Developed countries have not fully opened their markets to products from developing countries.

Answer 15.
(i) Technological innovations through research and development strategy are an important aspect of modem manufacturing for quality control; eliminating waste and inefficiency and combating pollution.
(ii) The importance of responsible factors for the localisation of industries are decreased regularly.
(iii) The structure and forms of industries are changed due to the progress in developed economy.
(iv) Many changes occurred in the activities of modem industries. Advanced technique is being used in industries forgetting production.
(v) Scattered units of small scales are being noticed in large areas in place of industries.

Answer 16.
(i) Quaternary activities involve in the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information.
(ii) These activities centre around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and technical skills.
(iii) Over half of all workers in developed economies are in the knowledge sector and great demand for the consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, statisticians.
(iv) Working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classroom, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage belong to the same.
(v) Quaternary activities can also be outsourced.

Answer 17.
(a) Trans-continental railways run across the continent and link its two ends. They were constructed for economic and political reasons to facilitate long runs in different directions.
(b) (i) It is a major rail route of Russia that runs from St. Petersburg in the west to Valadivostak on the Pacific coast in the east passing through Moscow, Ulfa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, Chita and Khabarovsk.
(ii) Most important route in Asia and the longest double-tracked and electrified Trans Continental Railway in the world.
(iii) It has helped in opening up its Asian region to West European markets. It runs across the Ural Mountains and Yenisei rivers.
(iv) Chita is an important agro centre and Irkutsk, a fur centre.
(v) There are connecting links to the south, namely to Odessa, Baku on the Caspian coast, Tashkent, Ulan-Bator etc.

Answer 18.
(A) Physical factors:
(i) Physical along with terrain and availability of water.
(ii) Development of transport network.
(iii) Availability of mineral and energy resources.

(B) Economic factors that determine the pattern of the population distribution:
(i) Development of Irrigation and evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development.
(ii) Industrialisation and urbanisation.
(iii) Pattern of human settlement.

Answer 19.
Migration is the movement of people from one place to another in search of better opportunities with an intention to settle.
(i) Employment: In the rural areas, mostly people depend on agriculture and they do not have employment throughout the year so they move from village to city.
(ii) Marriages: It influences mainly women as they migrate from one place to another due to their marriages. They leave their parental houses which is the most important cause in the rural areas except in Meghalaya.
(iii) Education: It is an important cause. People who want to get higher education move from rural areas to the cities.
(iv) Lack of Security: As a pull factor and push factor where people are in dilemma and worried due to the security of life and property during political turmoil people migrate towards a safe area.

Answer 20.
(i) Raw materials Industries using weight losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw materials are located. Most of the iron and steel industries are located either near sources of invention (Bhadravati, Bhilai, and Rourkela) or near the coal fields (Bokaro, Durgapur).
(ii) Power: Power provides the motive force for machines. Certain industries, like aluminum and synthetic nitrogen manufacturing industries tend to be located near sources of power because they are power intensive and require huge quantum of electricity.
(iii) Market: Markets provide the outlets for manufactured products. Cotton textile industry uses a non-weight losing raw material and generally located in large urban centre, Ahmedabad, Surat, etc. Petroleum refineries are also located near the markets to make easier, the transport of crude oil. Koyali, Mathura and Barauni refineries are typical examples.
(iv) Transport: Industries are concentrated in Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi, and in and around Kolkata. It was due to the fact that they initially became the nodal point having transport links. Industries shifted to interior locations only when railways lines were laid. All major industries plants are located on the trunk rail rates.
(v) Labour: In India, labour is quite mobile and is available in large number due to our large population. Cheap labour available from thickly populated parts of the country.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5 drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Name the area which has now become the rust bowl of the U.S.A.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of ‘ports of call’ with suitable example.

Question 3.
Explain the term bilateral trade.

Question 4.
Define the term poverty.

Question 5.
Name the two broad categories of reasons responsible for migration in India.

Question 6.
Name the sea port which was developed as satellite port to relieve the pressure at the Mumbai Port.

Question 7.
State any two sources of air pollution.

Question 8.
Explain any three characteristics of extensive commercial grain cultivation in the world.

Question 9.
Mention any three characteristics of retail trading services.

Question 10.
“Slavery was a curse.” Justify the statement.

Question 11.
Explain the economic significance of river Rhine in three points.

Question 12.
Cultural activities such as pilgrimage, religious fairs, tourism cause water pollution. By which human values such activities may be minimised/controlled.

Question 13.
Describe any three characteristics of hamlet rural settlement in India.

Question 14.
Describe any five features of plantation agriculture in the world.

Question 15.
Road transport plays a vital role in the promotion of trade and tourism in the world. Support this statement with the suitable arguments

Question 16.
Name the first city of a million population in the world. Describe any two characteristics of administrative and cultural towns.

Question 17.
Define the term ‘growth of population’. Explain any four causes for the steady growth of population in India in the decades 1921-1951.

Question 18.
Explain the important factors which influenced the location of Rourkela Steel Plant.

Question 19.
“Maize is a food as well as fodder crop”. Discuss.

Question 20.
Explain the advantages of satellite communication with reference to India.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A large country of the size of continent in term of area
(B) A mega city
(C) A major area of nomadic herding
(D) A sea port
(E) An International airport.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A state having highest gender ratio.
(ii) A leading producer state of Rice.
(iii) An oil refinery situated in Gujarat
(iv) An international airport of Assam.
(v) A software technology park situated in Jammu & Kashmir.

Answers

Answer 1.
North Aplacian (Pittsburg)

Answer 2.
These are the ports which originally developed as calling points on main sea routes where
ships used to anchor for refuelling, watering and taking food items. Aden and Singapore are good examples.

Answer 3.
Bilateral trade is done by two countries with each other and enter into agreement to trade specified commodities amongst them.

Answer 4.
Poverty is a state of deprivation. In absolute terms it reflects the inability of an individual to satisfy certain basic needs for a sustained, healthy and reasonably productive living.

Answer 5.
(i) Push factors
(ii) Pull factors

Answer 6.
Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Answer 7.
(i) Combustion of fossil fuels.
(ii) Mining and Industries.

Answer 8.
(i) It is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid latitudes.
(ii) Wheat is the principal crop though other crops like com, barley, oats and rye are also grown.
(iii) The size of the farm is very large. Entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.

Answer 9.
(i) This is the business activity concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
(ii) Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments or stores solely devoted to selling.
(iii) Street peddling, handcarts, trucks, door-to-door, mail order, telephone, automatic vending machines and Internet are examples of non-star retail trading.

Answer 10.
(i) 15th century onwards the European colonialism began and along with trade of exotic commodities, a new form of trade emerged known as slave trade.
(ii) The Portuguese, Dutch, Spaniards and British captured African natives and forcefully transported them to the newly discovered America for their labour in plantation.
(iii) Slave trade was a lucrative business for more than two hundred years till it was abolished.

Answer 11.
(i) It flows through a rich coal field and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
(ii) Huge tonnage moves along the stretch south of the Ruhr.
(iii) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea route.

Answer 12.
(i) Eco-friendly
(ii) Awakening
(iii) Cooperation

Answer 13.
(i) These settlement are fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing common name.
(ii) These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani etc.
(iii) This segmentation of a village is often motivated by social and ethnic factors.

Answer 14.
(i) This type of farming are large estates or plantation; large capital investment; managerial and technical support.
(ii) Single crop specialisation, cheap labour, and a good system of transportation which links the states to the factories and markets for the export of the products.
(iii) Important plantation on crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
(iv) Plantation agriculture as mentioned above was introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics.
(v) Now, ownership of the majority of plantations has passed into the hands of the government.

Answer 15.
(i) Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railways. It also provides door-to-door service.
(ii) Road transport is most suitable for tourists and they could observe the natural sites through them easily.
(iii) The quality of the roads varies greatly between developed and developing countries as road construction and maintenance require heavy expenditure.
(iv) Roads are universal and provide long distance links. Inter-state highways are used for speedy movement.
(v) Lorries of increasing size and power to carry heavy loads are common in increasing the trade as well as tourism.

Answer 16.
(a) London
(b) (i) National capitals, which house the administrative offices of central governments—
New Delhi, Washington are called administrative towns.
(ii) Provincial towns can also have administrative functions as Victoria, Mumbai, Bangalore (Bangluru).
(c) (i) All over the world many places (towns) are known as pilgrimage, where people visit for religious and other cultural activities. Varanasi, Mecca are the best example.
(ii) Some towns are known for their cultural activities (Movies, Drama, Literature, festivals etc). Jaipur, Panaji, Miami are the main centres.

Answer 17.
(a) Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time.
(b) (i) An overall improvement in health and sanitation, brought down the mortality rate
(ii) Better transport and communication system improved distribution system.
(iii) The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate..
(iv) Life expectancy increased.

Answer 18.
(i) It was set up in 1959. The plant was located on the basis of proximity to materials to minise the cost of transporting weight-losing material.
(ii) This plant has a unique locational advantage.
(iiii) It receives coal from Jharia and Iron ore from Sundargarh and Kandujhar.
(iv) The Hirakund project supplies power for the electric furnaces.
(v) Water is being obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers.

Answer 19.
(i) Maize is a food as well as fodder crop grown under semi arid climate condition and in the
inferior soils.
(ii) This crop occupies only about 3.6% of total cropped area. Its cultivation is not concentrated in any specific region.
(iii) It is sown all over India except eastern and north-eastern regions.
(iv) The leading producers of maize are the states of Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
(v) Yield level of maize is higher than other coarse cereals. It is high in southern states and declines towards central parts.

Answer 20.
(i) Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication.
(ii) The use of satellite in getting a continuous and synoptic view of larger area has made If satellite communication very vital for the country due to the economic and strategic reasons.
(iii) Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring of natural calamities surveillance of border areas.
(iv) Satellites collect data in several spectral bonds and transmit them to the ground stations for various uses.
(v) The National Remote Sensing Agency at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing. These are very useful in the management of natural resources.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Give one difference between immigration and emigration.

Question 2.
Write the meaning of sustainable human development.

Question 3.
What do you mean by quinary activities?

Question 4.
What is an outport?

Question 5.
Give one example each of religious and mining towns of India.

Question 6.
Mention the two environmental problems that emerged due to intensive irrigation in Indira Gandhi Canal command area.

Question 7.
Which seaport is known as ‘queen of Arabian Sea’?

Question 8.
“The human activities create cultural landscape”. Support the statement with any three
examples.

Question 9.
The proportion of literate population of a country is an indicator of its socio-economic development. Explain.

Question 10.
Explain any three features of clustered rural settlements of India.

Question 11.
Study the diagram given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Identify and name the iron and steel plant shown in the above diagram. In which state is this plant located?
(ii) Which river provides water to the plant?
(iii) From where does it get iron ore? In which year did it start production?

Question 12.
Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion. Mention which human values are important to enhance it?

Question 13.
How did the Bhils in Petalwad block of Jhahua district revitalise large parts of common property resources throw their own efforts? Explain any three points.

Question 14.
Mention the meaning of manufacturing industry. Explain any three characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing industry in the world.

Question 15.
Name the country in which Suez Canal is located. Which are the two terminal points of this canal? Explain the economic significance of Suez canal.

Question 16.
Discuss the important features of Mixed Farming.

Question 17.
“Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive”. Justify the statement.

Question 18.
Explain the main causes of the rapid growth of population in India from 1951 to 1981.

Question 19.
“Indian farmers gamble with the monsoon”. Discuss.

Question 20.
Define the term ‘Watershed Management’. Explain any four features of watershed management progress initiated in the country.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) An area of commercial livestock rearing.
(B) A major seaport
(C) An airport
(D) A mega city
(E) A large country of the size of a continent in terms of area.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) The state which is the leading producer of jute.
(ii) An oil refinery in Haryana.
(iii) A headquarter city of the North-Western Railways.
(iv) A land-locked seaport.
(v) The state with lowest level of HDI.

Answers

Answer 1.
Migrants who move into a new place are called Immigrants whereas migrants who move out of a place are called Emigrants.

Answer 2 .
To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities.
All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future.

Answer 3.
Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas.

Answer 4.
These are deep water ports built away from the actual ports; serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size.

Answer 5.
(i) Mathura
(ii) Digboi

Answer 6.
(i) Water logging
(ii) Soil salinity.

Answer 7.
Kochi Port

Answer 8.
(i) The imprint of human activities are created everywhere—health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls.
(ii) Fields, orchard and pastures in plains and rolling hills.
(iii) Ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellite in the space.

Answer 9.
(i) Proportion of literate population of a country in an indicator of its socio-economic development.
(ii) It reveals the standard of living, social status of females, availability of educational facilities and policies of government.
(iii) Level of economic development is both a cause and consequence of literacy.

Answer 10.
(i) It is a compact or closely built up area of houses.
(ii) In this type of village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, bams and pastures.
(iii) Its intervening streets present some geometric shape-as rectangular, radial, liner etc

Answer 11.
(i) (a) Durgapur steelplant (b) West Bengal
(ii) Damodar valley corporation.
(iii) It gets iron ore from Noamundi. It started its production in 1962.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening
(ii) Eco-friendly
(iii) Cooperation

Answer 13.
(i) Land Reforms — improve the agroland, pastureland etc.
(ii) Revitalise the irrigation resources.
(iii) Planted fodder grass on pastureland, adapted social fencing, no open grazing.

Answer 14.
(A) (i) Manufacturing involves a full array of production from handicrafts to moulding iron and steel and stamping out plastic toys to assembling delicate computer components or space vehicles.
(ii) The common features are the application of power, mass production of identical products and specialised labour in factor setting for the production of standardised commodities. It adds value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable product.

(B) Characteristics of modem large scale manufacturing:
(i) Specialisation of skills/methods of production.
(ii) Mechanisation.
(iii) Technological innovation.
(iv) Organisational structure and stratification.

Answer 15.
(A) Egypt
(B) Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the South.
(C) (i) It reduces direct sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo.
(ii) The tolls are so heavy that some find it cheaper to go by the longer Cape Route whenever the consequent delay is not important.
(iii) It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean.

Answer 16.
(i) This form of agriculture is found in the highly developed parts of the world-North-westem
Europe, Eastern North America, parts of Eurasia.
(ii) Mixed farms are moderate in size and usually the crops associated with it are wheat, barley, oats, rye, maize, fodder and root crops.
(iii) Fodder crops are an important component of mixed farming.
(iv) Crop rotation and inter cropping play an important role in maintaining soil fertility.
(v) Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry. Animals like cattle, sheep, pigs and poultry provide the main income along with crops.

Answer 17.
• This means that development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions.
• Development occurs when positive growth takes place. Positive growth does not always lead to development. Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality.
• The quality of life people enjoy in a country, the opportunities they have and freedoms they enjoy; are important aspects of development is not new ideas.
• According to Mahbub-ul-Haq, development enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. Choices are not fixed but keep on changing. Development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.
• A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. It means people must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals.

Answer 18.
(i) The decades of 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion.
(ii) It was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country.
(iii) The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent.
(iv) The developmental activities were introduced through a centralised planning process and economy started showing up answering the improvement of living condition of people at large.
(v) Increased international migration contributed to the high growth rate.

Answer 19.
It is rightly said that Indian farmers gamble with monsoon. It can be proved with following:
(i) Irrigation covers only about 33% of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall.
(ii) Poor performance of South-west monsoon also adversely affects the supply of canal water for irrigation.
(iii) The rainfall in Rajasthan and other drought-prone areas is too meagre and highly unreliable.
(iv) Areas receiving high annual rainfall experience considerable fluctuations. It makes them vulnerable to both droughts and floods.
(v) Drought is a common phenomenon in the low rainfall areas that may experience occasional floods. Both droughts and floods continue to be twin menace in Indian agriculture.

Answer 20.
Watershed Management: It basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources.
Features of watershed management:
(i) It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods – percolation tanks, recharge wells.
(ii) It includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources—natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human within a watershed.
(iii) It aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. .
(iv) It not only conserves the entire ecosystem of an area but also empowers the people by making them socially and economically self reliant as it has community participation as its vital component.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which continent has the highest growth rate of population?

Question 2.
Define sex ratio.

Question 3.
Give any two examples of tertiary activities.

Question 4.
Give the meaning of Human Settlement.

Question 5.
What are National Highways?

Question 6.
Name the headquarter of ‘South Central’ Railway zone.

Question 7.
Name any two natural sources of water pollutants.

Question 8.
Explain how technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.

Question 9.
Explain the key areas of human development.

Question 10.
Explain any three characteristics of ‘Foot Loose Industries’.

Question 11.
Mention main features of ‘Pastoral nomadism’.

Question 12.
‘Drought’ is a natural disaster. As a push factor it compels people to migrate from one area to another area in India. Which human values can minimise the impact of drought?

Question 13.
Study the map of India given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Define the term ‘metropolitan city.’
(ii) Which state of India has the largest number of metropolitan cities?
(iii) Name any two northern states of India which have no metropolitan city.

Question 14.
State any three characteristics of water transport. Why is traffic faster on the Cape of Good Hope Route? Give two reasons.

Question 15.
Explain any five basis of international trade in brief.

Question 16.
Explain any five problems of rural settlements in developing countries of the world.

Question 17.
Describe the uneven distribution of mineral and energy resources of India with suitable examples.

Question 18.
When was National Water Policy undertaken? Mention its key features.

Question 19.
Explain the problems caused by urban waste disposal in India.

Question 20.
“Despite the setback caused by the partition, Indian ports continued to grow after the independence.” Support the statement with examples.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A large country of North-America in area.
(B) An area of subsistence gathering.
(C) The terminal station of a trans-continental Railway.
(D) A major sea port.
(E) An international airport.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following live features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) The most urbanised state (2011).
(ii) A leading cotton producing state.
(iii) The software technology park located in Punjab.
(iv) The major coal field located in Chhattisgarh.
(v) The international airport located in Karnataka.

Answers

Answer 1.
Africa.

Answer 2.
The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the sex ratio.

Answer 3.
(i) Trade
(ii) Transport communication.

Answer 4.
Human settlement means cluster of dwellings of any type of size where human beings live.

Answer 5.
The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the central government are known as the National highways.

Answer 6.
Secunderabad.

Answer 7.
(i) Erosion
(ii) Land slides.

Answer 8.
Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.
– Concepts of friction and heat helped us discover fire.
– Similarly, understanding of the secrets of DNA and genetics enabled us to conquer many diseases.
– We use the laws of aerodynamics to develop faster planes.

Answer 9.
(i) Access to resources
(ii) Health
(iii) Education

Answer 10.
(i) Foot loose industries relocated in a wide variety of places.
(ii) They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise.
(iii) They largely dependent on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and employ a small labour force.

Answer 11.
(i) It is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
(ii) They move from one place to another along with their livestock depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
(iii) Each nomadic community occupies a well identified territory as a matter of tradition.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening for Rain water harvesting.
(ii) Provision for the distribution of safe drinking water facilities and fodder and water for cattle.
(iii) Cooperation in all respect.

Answer 13.
(i) Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called metropolitan cities.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh
(iii) (a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh

Answer 14.
(A) Characteristics of water transport:
(i) Water transportation does not require route construction.
(ii) The oceans are linked with each other and are negotiable with ships of various sizes.
(iii) It is much cheaper because the friction transportation than others. Its energy cost is lower.

(B) The traffic is faster on the Cape of Good Hope Sea route because:
(i) Limited development.
(ii) Very long sea route amongst the countries of Asia and Europe:

Answer 15.
Basis of International Trade:
(i) Difference in national resources.
(ii) Population factors—size, distribution and diversity.
(iii) Stage of economic development,
(iv) Extent of foreign investment.
(v) Transport development.

Answer 16.
Problems:
(i) Supply of water is not adequate.
(ii) Water borne disease such as cholera and jaundice tend to be a common problem.
(iii) Crop cultivation sequences in the absence of irrigation also suffer.
(iv) Absence of toilet and garbage disposal facilities cause health related problems.
(v) Difficult to provide adequate health and educational infrastructure for their large rural population.

Answer 17.
Distribution of Minerals and Energy resources:
(i) Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.
(ii) Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the Valley of Damodar, Son, Mahanadi and Godavari.
(iii) Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and Mumbai High.
(iv) Most of the major mineral resources occur to the east of a line linking Mangalore and Kanpur.
(v) Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India:
(1) The North-Eastern Plateau Region.
(2) The South-Western Plateau Region.
(3) The North-Western Region.

Answer 18.
The National Water Policy was undertaken in 2002. Priorities broadly in the following order:
Drinking water, irrigation, hydro power, navigation, industrial and other uses.

Key features:
(i) Irrigation and multi-purpose projects should invariably include drinking water component wherever there is no alternative source of drinking water.
(ii) Providing drinking water to all human beings and animals should be the first priority.
(iii) Measures should be taken to limit and regulate the exploitation of groundwater.
(iv) Both surface and groundwater should be regularly monitored for quality. A phased programme should be undertaken for improving water quality.
(v) The efficiency of utilisation in all the diverse uses of water should be improved.
(vi) Awareness of water as a scarce resource should be fostered.
(vii) Conservation consciousness should be promoted through education, regulation, incentives and disincentives. (Any Four)

Answer 19.
(i) The huge turnout of ashes and debris from industries, thermal power houses and building
construction have posed problems of serious consequences.
(ii) Solid wastes cause health hazard through creation of obnoxious smell, and harbouring of flies and rodents which act as carriers of diseases like typhoid, diphtheria, diarrhoea, malaria and cholera.
(iii) Wastes cause frequent nuisances and when these are carelessly handled spread by wind and spread through rain water.
(iv) The dumping of industrial waste into rivers leads to water pollution.
(v) River pollution from city based industries and untreated sewage leads to serious health problems downstream.

Answer 20.
Development of Indian Sea Ports:
(i) Today Indian ports are handling large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade.
(ii) Most of the ports are equipped with modem infrastructure.
(iii) Previously the development and modernisation was the responsibility of the government agencies.
(iv) Considering the increase in function and need to bring these ports at par with the international ports; private entrepreneurs have been invited for the modernisation of ports in India.
(v) The capacity of Indian ports increased from 20 million tonnes of cargo handling in 1951 to more than 586 million tonnes in 2008-09.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.