MCQ Questions – Page 179

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 MCQ Questions With Answers

Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 MCQ Questions Question 1.

The most important cause of biodiversity loss is :

(A) Over exploitation of economic species
(B) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(C) Invasive species
(D) Breakdown of plant-pollinator relationships

Answer:
(B) Habitat loss and fragmentation

Explanation :
When large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to various human activities, mammals and birds requiring large territories and certain animals with migratory habits are badly affected, leading to population declines.

MCQ On Biodiversity And Conservation Class 12 Chapter 15 Question 2.

Alexander von Humboldt described for the first time:

(A) Ecological Biodiversity
(B) Laws of limiting factor
(C) Species-Area relationship
(D) Population Growth equation
Answer:
(C) Species-Area relationship

Explanation :
Alexander Von Humboldt noticed that within a region species richness increases with the increase in area.

Biodiversity And Conservation Class 12 MCQ Chapter 15 Question 3.

Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India

(A) Rice
(B) Maize
(C) Mango
(D) Groundnut
Answer:
(A) Rice

Explanation:
Rice has more than 50,000 genetically different strains while mango has 1000 varieties in India.

MCQs On Biodiversity And Conservation Chapter 15 Class 12 Question 4.

Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity?

(A) Brazil
(B) South Africa
(C) Russia
(D) India
Answer:
(A) Brazil

Explanation :
Brazil is the country with the greatest biodiversity of flora and fauna on the planet. It has the highest number of species of known mammals and fresh-water fish, and more than 50,000 species of trees and bushes. It takes first place in plant diversity. The climate of Brazil remains relatively undisturbed, constant and predictable giving tune for diversification, which favours rich biodiversity.

Question 5.

Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

(A) Destruction of habitat
(B) Invasion by alien species
(C) Keeping animals in zoological parks
(D) Over-exploitation of natural resources
Answer:
(C) Keeping animals in zoological parks

Explanation :
Keeping animals in zoological parks is not a cause for loss of biodiversity. The important factors causing loss of biodiversity are as follows: (i) Destruction of natural habitat (primary cause) (ii) Introduction of exotic (alien species) and indigenous species (iii) Over-exploitation of natural resources (iv) Coextinction of species.

Question 6.

Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?

(A) Rain forest of North-East India
(B) Sundarbans
(C) Thar desert
(D) Western ghats
Answer:
(A) Rain forest of North-East India

Explanation :
Pitcher plant (Nepenthes) is an insectivorous plant, found in rain forest of North-East India. They generally grow in nitrogen deficient soil. Suniiar bans are rich in fauna and flora. Mangrove plants are the characteristic of Sundar
Answer:
(D) Western Ghats are rich in biodiversity. Xerophytes are more common in Thar deserts.

Question 7.

What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psihotum, Rauwolfia and Aconitum?

(A) All are ornamental plants.
(B) All are phylogenic link species.
(C) All are prone to over-exploitation.
(D) All are exclusively present in the eastern Himalayas.
Answer:
(C) All are prone to over-exploitation.

Explanation :
All of the above plants are prone to over-exploitation due to their respective properties. Nepenthes (pilcher plant) is an insectivorous plant. Psilatum is a pteridophvte and Aconitum is a medicinal plant.

Question 8.

The species-area relationship is represented in form on a log scale.

(A) linear
(B) parabolic
(C) straight
(D) linear and parabolic
Answer:
(A) linear

Explanation :
The species-arca relationship is represented in linear form on a log scale.

Question 9.

Biodiversity is affected by

(A) latitudinal gradients
(B) species-area relationship
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation :
Biodiversity is not uniform throughout the world. It varies with the change in latitude and altitude, it is affected by latitudinal gradients and species-area relationship.

Question 10.

World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in:

(A) Brazil
(B) Sweden
(C) Argentina
(D) South Africa
Answer:
(D) South Africa

Explanation :

The World Summit on Sustain able Development took place in Johannesberg, South Africa.

Question 11.

Sacred groves are specially useful in :

(A) preventing soil erosion
(B) year-round flow of water in rivers
(C) conserving rare and threatened species
(D) generating environmental awareness
Answer:
(C) conserving rare and threatened species

Explanation :
Sacred grooves artmethod for in situ conservation of biodiversity and conserving rare threatened species.

Question 12.

Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as :

(A) in site conservation of biodiversity
(B) advanced ex site conservation of biodiversity.
(C) in site conservation by sacred groves.
(D) in site cryo-conservation of biodiversity
Answer:
(B) advanced ex site conservation of biodiversity.

Explanation :
In recent years, ex-situ conservation has advanced by preserving the gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition for long periods using cryopreservation techniques.

Question 13.

Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot-spots?

(A) Large number of species
(B) Abundance of endemic species
(C) Large number of exotic species
(D) Mostly located in polar regions
Answer:
(D) Mostly located in polar regions

Explanation:
Biodiversity hotspots specifically refer to 25 biologically rich areas around the world that have lost at least 70% of their original habitat. They are characterised by large number of flora and fauna, abundance of endemic species and also large number of , alien or exotic species. They are mostly found
in tropical and temperate regions. There are no biodiversity hotspots in polar regions.

Question 14.

The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuary?

(A) Bhitar Kanika
(B) Bandipur
(C) Kaziranga
(D) Corbett park
Answer:
(C) Kaziranga

Explanation :
Onehorned rhinoceros is specil’ic to Kaziranga National Park, which is siluated in Golaghat and Nagaon districts of (AsH sam). Bhitar Kanika National Park is loealed in Odisha and is specific for salt water crocodile. Bandipur National Park (Mysore) too is specific for tigers. Corbett National Park is situated in district Nainital (Uttarakhand) and is specific for tiger. It is the first National Park of India, which is famous for tigers.

Question 15.

Amongst the animal groups given below, which one has the highest percentage of endangered species?

(A) Insects
(B) Mammals
(C) Amphibians
(D) Reptiles
Answer:
(C) Amphibians

Explanation :
Amphibians have the highesl percentage presently, 32% of all amphibian species in the world face the threat of extinction. Other than these, 23% of all mammal species and 12% of all bird species also facing the risk,

Question 16.

What is common to the techniques (i) in-vitro fertilisation, (ii) Cryopreservation and (iii) tissue culture?

(A) All are in-situ conservation methods.
(B) All are ex-situ conservation methods.
(C) All require ultra-modern equipment and large space.
(D) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms.
Answer:
(B) All are ex-situ conservation methods.

Explanation :
Invitro fertilisation, cryopres ervation and tissue culture are all exsitu conservation methods. Exsitu (off site) conserva lion is a set of conservation techniques which involves the transfer of a target species away from its native habitat. At present gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable conditions (at very low temperature 196°C) for longer duration by cryopreservation method. Fertilisation can be achieved in laboratory through the process of invitro fertilisation, and species can be propagated by lissueculture method which is a plant breeding princi

Question 17.

The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as

(A) The CITES Convention
(B) The Earth Summit
(C) The G-16 Summit
(D) The MAB Programme
Answer:
(B) The Earth Summit

Explanation :
The historic convention on biological diversity held in Riode Janeiro (Brazil) in 3-4 June, 1992 is known as the Earth Summit. CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of wild flora and fauna) has helped in restricting poaching and loss of rare species. MAB stands for Man and Biosphere Programme, which undertakes es-tablishment and maintenance of biosphere reserves.

Question 18.

The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to

(A) increased number of predatory birds.
(B) over-exploitation by humAnswer:
(C) non-availability of the food.
(D) bird flu virus infection.
Answer:
(B) over-exploitation by humAnswer:

Explanation :
Extinction of passenger pigeon (Ectopistes migraturius) was due to the combined effects of their natural dramatic popula tion fluctuations and human overexploitation. Factors like increase in number of predatory birds, nonavailability of food and bird flu virus infection did not contribute to the extinc lion of passenger pigeon.

Question 19.

What is common to Lantana, Eichkornia and African catfish?

(A) All are endangered species of India.
(B) All are key stone species.
(C) All are mammals found in India.
(D) All the species are neither threatened, nor indigenous species of India.
Answer:
(D) All the species are neither threatened, nor indigenous species of India.

Explanation :
Lantana, Eichhornia (water hya cinth) and African catfish (Clarias gariepinu) are neither threatened, nor indigenous species of India. They all are alien (or exotic) species which are invasive and have a harmful impact on the indigenous species leading to their extinction.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(A) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Biodiversity means diversity at species level.
Reason (R): Biodiversity is a diversity not only at species level but at all levels of biological organization.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
The term biodiversity is popularized by Edward Wilson, it is a diversity at all levels of biological organization from macro molecules within cells to the biomes.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Percentage of animals is more than the percentage of plants.
Reason (R): 70% of all the species are animals, while plants contribute nearly 22% of the total.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion

Explanation :
Animals have a nervous system to receive stimuli and respond against them, they are mobile and can move the avoid com-petition.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Western ghats of India are one of the hot spots of biodiversity.
Reason (R): Western ghats have greater amphibian diversity than eastern ghats.

Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation :
Western ghats is one of the eight hotspots of biological diversity in the world due to its high level of biological diversity and endemism.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Biologists are not sure about total number of prokaryotic species
Reason (R): Nearly 45,000 species of plants and twice as many of animals have been recorded from India

Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation :
Biologists are not sure about tolal number of prokaryotic species because : (a) Conventional taxonomic methods are not suit-able for identifying microbial species, (b) Many species are not culturable under laboratory conditions.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): There is more species biodiversity in tropical latitudes than in temperate ones.
Reason (R): Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion

Explanation :
Biodiversity (species richness) is highest in tropics because (i) Tropics had more evolutionary time, (ii) Relatively constant environment (less seasonal), (iii) They receive more solar energy which contributes to greater productivity.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Process of extinction is random and fast.
Reason (R): Any species which can not adapt itself according to the environment, it cannot survive.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation :
If an organism fails to adapt itself according to the environment, it will not survive.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Loss of habitat is the main cause of loss of biodiversity.
Reason (R): This causes the increase in edge area and reduction in core area.

Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Explanation :
There are many reasons behind the loss of biodiversity among them habitat loss is one, others are overexploitation, alien- species invasions, co-extinctions.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Biosphere reserves are also included under the ex-situ conservation strategies.
Reason (R): Cropping and grazing are allowed in the transition zone of biosphere reserve.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation :
Biosphere reserves are included under the in situ conservation strategies.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Sacred groves are highly protected.
Reason (R): They are of religious importance to the communities.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion

Explanation:
Sacred groves are highly protccted by certain communities because they are of religious importance to the communities. They ‘t have a significant role in insitu conservation.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Many species like Stellar’s sea cow, passenger pigeon, etc., became extinct due to overexploitation.
Reason(R): Overexploitation is a major cause of biodiversity loss.

Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation :
Many species like’ Stellar’s sea cow, passenger pigeon, etc., became extinct due to over exploitation. The dependence of humans on nature for food and shelter led to over exploitation of natural resources. It is one of the major causes of biodiversity loss.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any four sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:
Excessive exploitation of species, whether a plant or animal reduces the size of its population, so it becomes vulnerable to extinction. Such as Dodo and passenger pigeon have become extinct due to over exploitation by humAnswer:Thus, the world is facing accelerated rates of species extinctions, largely due to human interference.

Question 1.

Identify a cause of biodiversity loss that is not included in evil quartet?

(A) Coextinction
(B) Pollution
(C) Alien species invasion
(D) Habitat loss and fragmentation
Answer:
(B) Pollution

Explanation :
Evil quartet, i.c., four major causes of biodiversity loss are habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and coextinction.

Question 2.

The species that have become extinct due to over exploitation is/are:

(A) Stellar sea cow
(B) Yucca moth
(C) Blatta orientalis
(D) Nile Perch
Answer:
(A) Stellar sea cow

Explanation :
Steller’s sea cow has become extinct in the last 500 years due to overexploitation by humAnswer:

Question 3.

Factors which make species susceptible to extinction are:

(A) Small population size
(B) Higher status of trophic level
(C) Inability to switch over to alternate food
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation :
Population traits which make species susceptible to extinction are small population, higher status of trophic level and ’ inability to switch over to alternate foods.

Question 4.

Assertion: Pollution reduces species biodiversity.
Reason: Spillover of oil in sea causes death of several marine animals.

(A) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Explanation :
Spillover of oil in sea causes death of several marine animals this pollution reduces species biodiversity.

Question 5.

——- is the first major cause of species

(A) Coextinction
(B) Overexploitation
(C) Habitat destruction
(D) Alien species invasion major cause of species extinction.
Answer:
(C) Habitat destruction

II. India is divided into 10 biogeographical regions. Varying physical conditions and species grouping India has rich species diversity. Tropics are rich centre of biodiversity. Warm temperature, high humidity in tropical areas provide favourable conditions throughout the years. Rich diversity is important for stability, productivity for ecosystems.

Question 1.

Which among the following represents diversity at ecosystem level?

(A) Genetic diversity
(B) Ecological diversity
(C) Species diversity
(D) Species evenness
Answer:
(B) Ecological diversity

Explanation :
Diversity of plants an animals at ecosystem is called ecological diversity.

Question 2.

Which of the following taxon shows maximum species diversity?

(A) Fishes
(B) Beetles
(C) Orchids
(D) Ants.
Answer:
(B) Beetles

Explanation :
Beetles shows maximum diversity in species as it represent the largest order of insects.

Question 3.

What is the approximate ratio of animals and plant species in our country?

(A) 3 :1
(B) 2 :1
(C) 1 : 3
(D) 1: 2
Answer:
(B) 2 :1

Explanation :
Ratio of plants and species in India is 2 :1.

Question 4.

When group represents minimum species diversity among vertebrates?

(A) Birds
(B) Mammals
(C) Reptiles
(D) Amphibians
Answer:
(B) Mammals

Explanation:
Among the vertebrates, minimum diversity is represented by amphibians and followed by reptiles, birds and mammals.

Directions: In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :
(A) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Tropics have more biodiversity.
Reason (R): Climate of tropical regions is more seasonal.

Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Explanation :
Tropics have more biodiversity due to warm temperature and high humidity.

III. Pollution, climate changes, over-exploitation by human etc. are responsible for changes in the ecosystem. Change in an ecosystem is responsible for depletion in biodiversity which directly or indirectly affects human beings and their surrounding. So it is important to conserve the biodiversity. There are various methods like in-situ conservation, ex situ conservation by which we can conserve our biodiversity.

Question 1.

How many biodiversity hot spots are identified globally?

(A) 20
(B) 3
(C) 34
(D) 50
Answer:
(C) 34

Explanation:
There are more than 30 biodiversity hot spots in the world. India have biodiversity hot spots.

Question 2.

Main cause of extinction of animals and plants is:

(A) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(B) Competition between species
(C) Over-exploitation
(D) Alien spedes invasion.
Answer:
(A) Habitat loss and fragmentation

Explanation :
Due to habitat loss animals migrates and losses their favourable condition, food, temperature waer that makes difficulty is surviving and become extinct.

Question 3.

Protected areas are examples of

(A) In situ conservation
(B) Ex-situ conservation
(C) Cryopreservation
(D) Green houses.
Answer:
(A) In situ conservation

Explanation :
Conservation of plants and species with in thee suitable boundary of natural surroundings.

Question 4.

Name the National Aquatic Animal of India?

(A) Sea-horse
(B) Gangetic shark
(C) Blue whale
(D) River dolphin
Answer:
(D) River dolphin

Explanation :
Dolphin is the national aquatic animals of India.

Question 5.

Species at the high risk of extinction in the future is called :

(A) Vulnerable
(B) Extinct
(C) Endemic
(D) Critically Endangered
Answer:
(D) Critically Endangered

Explanation :
The species of an organism lasting with the change in suitable condition of survival with thee time. Such species are called critically endangered.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Population Composition with Answers

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Population Composition with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Population Composition Class 12 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-12-geography-chapter-3-part-a/

Population Composition Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Population Composition Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Which attribute does not distinguish people?
(A) Age
(B) Sex
(C) Occupation
(D) Industries

Answer

Answer: (D) Industries

Population Composition MCQ Chapter 3 Question 2.
The average world sex ratio is:
(A) 970
(B) 980
(C) 990
(D) 995

Answer

Answer: (C) 990

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ Question 3.
The lowest sex ratio is found in:
(A) Egypt
(B) Qatar
(C) Kuwait
(D) Iran

Answer

Answer: (B) Qatar

MCQ Of Population Composition Class 12 Question 4.
Favourable sex ratio is found in how many countries.
(A) 109
(B) 119
(C) 129
(D) 139

Answer

Answer: (D) 139

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Question 5.
In how many countries, unfavourable sex ratio is found?
(A) 52
(B) 62
(C) 72
(D) 82

Answer

Answer: (C) 72

Population Composition MCQ Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 6.
In European countries, a deficit of males is due to:
(A) Low Birth Rate
(B) High Death Rate
(C) Better status of women
(D) Better status of men

Answer

Answer: (C) Better status of women

Class 12 Geography Population Composition MCQ Question 7.
In which continent, low sex ratio is found:
(A) Europe
(B) Asia
(C) North America
(D) Australia

Answer

Answer: (B) Asia

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Population Composition MCQ Question 8.
The aging population has aged more than:
(A) 40 years
(B) 45 years
(C) 50 years
(D) 60 years

Answer

Answer: (D) 60 years

Geography Class 12 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 9.
Expanding population Pyranrd Shows.
(A) Wide Base
(B) Narrow Base
(C) Developed economy
(D) Uniform width.

Answer

Answer: (A) Wide Base

MCQ On Population Composition Class 12 Question 10.
Which type of age-sex pyramid is of Australia?
(A) Expanding
(B) Constant
(C) Declining
(D) Negative

Answer

Answer: (B) Constant

Class 12 Population Composition MCQ Question 11.
Which one of the following has caused the sex ratio of the United Arab Emirates to be low.
(A) Selective migration of working population
(B) High birth rate of males
(C) Low birth rate of females
(D) High out-migration of females.

Answer

Answer: (D) High out-migration of females.

Population Composition MCQs Chapter 3 Question 12.
Which one of the following figures represents the working-age group of the population?
(A) 15 to 65 years
(B) 15 to 66 years
(C) 15 to 64 years
(D) 15 to 59 years.

Answer

Answer: (D) 15 to 59 years.

Population Composition Class 12 MCQs Question 13.
Which one of the following countries has the highest sex ratio in the world?
(A) Latvia
(B) Japan
(C) the United Arab Emirates
(D) France.

Answer

Answer: (A) Latvia

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Population Composition with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Geography Population Composition MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

The World Population Distribution Density And Growth MCQ Question 1.

refers to the way in which the population is spaced out all over the world.

(A) Density of population
(B) Population distribution
(C) Population expansion
(D) Population explosion
Answer:
(B) Population distribution

The World Population Class 12 MCQ Chapter 2 Question 2.

What is considered as the most important factor for life?

(A) Electricity
(B) Animals
(C) Water
(D) Society
Answer:
(C) Water

Explanation:
All the living things (plants and animals) need water to live.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.

The Arctic region and the Antarctica continent are situated near:

(A) The Sahara Desert
(B) The North and South Poles
(C) Amazon Basin
(D) the Equator
Answer:
(B) The North and South Poles

Explanation:
The Arctic encompasses a vast frozen ocean around the North Pole. Antarctica is a frozen continent anchored by the South Pole and surrounded by vast open oceans.

The World Population Distribution Density And Growth Class 12 MCQ Question 4.

The population of the world is:

(A) Equally distributed
(B) Sparsely distributed
(C) Unevenly distributed
(D) Haphazardly distributed
Answer:
(C) Unevenly distributed

Explanation:
Geographical, cultural, economical and social factors influence spatial distribution of population.

World Population Distribution Density And Growth MCQ Chapter 2 Question 5.

If the population decreases between two points of time, it is known as:

(A) neutral growth of population
(B) positive growth of population
(C) negative growth of population
(D) negligible growth of population
Answer:
(C) negative growth of population

Explanation:
A negative growth rate would mean a population size gets smaller, reducing 1 the number of people inhabiting that country.

World Population Class 12 MCQ Chapter 2 Question 6.

Those factors which make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin are known as:

(A) push factors
(B) pull factors
(C) migration factors
(D) immigration factor
Answer:
(B) pull factors

Explanation:
Pull factors are positive aspects that attract people to move to a place e.g. good employment opportunities, better facilities, education and medical facilities.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Question 7.

(Bi/P) x 1000 =

(A) Crude Birth Rate
(B) Negative Birth Rate
(C) Positive Birth Rate
(D) Zero Birth Rate
Answer:
(A) Crude Birth Rate

Explanation:
It is important to calculate crude birth rate because it is a useful indicator in studies of population around the world.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 The World Population MCQ Question 8.

Those factors which make the place of origin seem less attractive are known as:

(A) pull factors
(B) push factors
(C) immigration factors
(D) Economic factors
Answer:
(B) push factors

Explanation:
Freedom from political oppression, conflicts, chaos and war are some of the push factors that force people to leave their place of origin.

Geography Class 12 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 9.

World population exploded in the eighteenth century after the:

(A) World War I
(B) World War II
(C) Civil War
(D) Industrial Revolution
Answer:
(D) Industrial Revolution

Explanation:
With industrialization, if improvements in medical knowledge and public health, together with a more regular food supply, brought about a drastic reduction § in the death rate but no corresponding decline in the birth rate. The result was a population explosion.

The World Population MCQ Chapter 2 Question 10.

The growth of population is low in:

(A) developed countries
(B) third world countries
(C) developing countries
(D) Highly industrialized countries
Answer:
(A) developed countries

Explanation:
Developed countries tend to have a lower fertility rate due to lifestyle choices associated with economic affluence, leading to low growth of population.

MCQ Of The World Population Class 12 Question 11.

The consumption of resources on a faster rate is known as:

(A) development of resources
(B) depletion of resources
(C) declining of resources
(D) mis- muster of resources
Answer:
(B) depletion of resources

The World Population MCQ Class 12 Question 12.

Agrarian society depends on agriculture as the:

(A) primary means of subsistence
(B) neutral means of subsistence
(C) secondary means of subsistence
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) primary means of subsistence

Explanation:
Agrarian society can be defined as a society where a majority of its population derives its income from agriculture and related activities.

Geography Chapter 2 Class 12 MCQ Question 13.

The first stage of the Demographic Transition Theory has:

(A) high fertility and low mortality
(B) high fertility and high mortality
(C) low fertility and low mortality
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) high fertility and high mortality

Explanation:
During this stage, the population is stable, with both high birth rates and high death rates.

World Population MCQ Class 12 Question 14.

In the second stage of Demographic Transition Theory:

(A) fertility remains low
(B) fertility remains high
(C) fertility remains stagnant
(D) Fertility plays no major role
Answer:
(A) fertility remains low

Explanation:
The total population of a country in Second stage rises because births outnumber deaths.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 12 MCQ Question 15.

Spacing or preventing the birth of children is known as:

(A) home planning
(B) office planning
(C) family planning
(D) family prevention
Answer:
(C) family planning

The World Population Distribution Density And Growth MCQs Question 16.

Which continent has population?

(A) America
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(d) Asia
Answer:
(B) Africa

Explanation: Africa has the highest growth rate g of population due to several factors, including the rising life expectancy and the high fertility rates registered on the continent.

Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Class 12 Question 17.

Which country in the world has the lowest growth rate of population ?

(A) Lebnon
(B) Iraq
(C) Iran
(D) Syria
Answer:
(D) Syria

Explanation:
Due to the Syrian Civil Wap the Syrian population decreased.

Question 18.

Arrange the countries in ascending order of their population:

(i) China
(ii) USA
(iii) India
(iv) Indonesia

(A) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
(B) (iv),(ii),(iii),(i)
(C) (iii),(iv),(i),(ii)
(D) (iv),(iii),(ii),(i)
Answer:
(B) (iv),(ii),(iii),(i)

Explanation:
The presence of industries, various social facilities, improved infrastructure and high fertility rate makes China the most populous country in the world.

Question 19.

How is density of population of a region calculated ?

(A) Density of Population = Population/Area
(B) Density of Population = Population of the country
(C) Density of Population = Decreasing population
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Density of Population = Population/Area

Question 20.

The change in number of inhabitants of a territory during a specific period of time is known as :

(A) positive growth rate
(B) negative growth rate
(C) population growth
(D) density of population growth
Answer:
(C) population growth

Explanation:
Population growth is the increase in the number of people in a population.

Question 21.

Birth rate, death rate and migration are components of:

(A) population change
(B) population unrest
(C) population ration
(D) population control
Answer:
(A) population change

Explanation:
Population change is simply the change in the number of people in a specified area during a specific time period. It is based on three fundamental
factors: birth rate, death rate, immigration.

Question 22.

The movement of people from one place to another within the country or to a foreign country is termed as:

(A) population movement
(B) population disturbance
(C) migration
(D) immigration
Answer:
(C) migration

Explanation:
Migration is the permanent change of residence by an individual or group.

Question 23.

When the birth rate is more than the death rate between two points of time it is known as:

(A) negative growth rate
(B) positive growth rate
(C) change in population graph
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) positive growth rate

Explanation:
When the population growth rate is positive, per capita income growth is positive it is known as positive growth rate.

Question 24.

The expanding world trade during the sixteenth and seventeenth century, set the stage for:

(A) Outbreak of pandemic
(B) rapid population growth
(C) drastic drop on population growth
(D) unrest all across the globe
Answer:
(B) rapid population growth

Explanation:
Trade liberaliza tion and expansion generated the income effect that increased the population growth.

Question 25.

Which of the following factor helped in the reduction of birth rate and provided a stage for accelerated population growth? 0

(A) Technological advancement
(B) Conflicts and wars
(C) emergence of world power
(D) Introduction of birth control policies
Answer:
(A) Technological advancement

Explanation: Technological advances helped in lowering the fertility by stimulating the growth of the marginal cost of children and reducing the marginal benefit of children, while changing the reproductive attitude from favouring a greater number of children to favouring a lower number of children.

Question 26.

The population of non- industrial countries are normally:

(A) high
(B) low
(C) stable
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(C) stable

Explanation:
The populations of nonindustrial countries are normally stable (and low) because high birth rates are matched by high death rates.

Question 27.

Since doubling time is based on a population’s ,………….. it can also vary over time.

(A) annual growth rate
(B) annual death rate
(C) outbreak of catastrophe
(D) government’s policies
Answer:
(A) annual growth rate

Explanation:
Growth rate is the increasing rate of the number of people in a population and doubling time is the amount of time it takes for a quantity to double in size or value. Thus, the relationship is that doubling time depends on growth rate.

Question 28.

The effect of overpopulation can be:

(A) Increase in economic development
(B) Increase in demands of basic amenities
(C) Better education facilities
(D) More help from the government
Answer:
(B) Increase in demands of basic amenities

Explanation:
Overpopulation will cause additional strains on resources. More people means an increased demand for food, water, housing and other resources.

Question 29.

Arrange the four stages of demographic transition in the correct order:

(i) Pre- industrial stage
(ii) Urbanizing/industrializing
(iii) Mature industrial
(iv) Post-industrial
OPTIONS:
(A) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
(B) (iv),(ii),(iii),(i)
(C) (iii),(iv),(i),(ii)
(D) (ii),(i),(iii),(iv)
Answer:
(A) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)

Question 30.

The evolution of the population profile of a country, region or other defined geographical area over time is known as :

(A) demographic cycle
(B) demographic evolution
(C) demographic digression
(D) none of the Above
Answer:
(A) demographic cycle

Explanation:
The demographic cycle is one of the most important factors for predicting economic prosperity and performance of a country.

Question 31.

As per 2019, Life expectancy in Japan was the highest with close to:

(A) 65 years
(B) 75 years
(C) 85years
(D) 95 years
Answer:
(C) 85vears

Question 32.
Which country has the highest mortality rate as per 2019? R
(A) LTkraine
(B) Bulgaria
(C) Romania
(D) Croatia
Answer:
(B) Bulgaria

Explanation:
The mortality rate in Bulgaria is high due to diseases of the cardiovascular system, non- infectious and cancer diseases.

Question 33.

Which one of the following is not a fact?

(A) Human population increased more than ten times during the past 5(10 years.
(B) It took 1 years for the population to rise from 5 billion to 6 billion
(C) Population growth is high in the first stage of demographic transition.
(D) Population growth is high in developing nations.
Answer:
(C) Population growth is high in the first stage of demographic transition.

Explanation:
During the first stage the population is stable, with both high birth rates and high death rates, The death rates are high
because there is increased disease, minimal medical care, poor sanitation, and limited food supplies.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The people of a country are its real wealth.
Reason (R): Itis they, who are the actual resources and make use of the country’s other resources and decide its policies.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Ultimately a country is known by 1 the people living over there.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The population of the world is unevenly distributed.
Reason (R): Asia has many places where people are few and few place where people are very many.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Geographical, cultural, economical and social factors influence spatial distribution of population. Since these factors vary across our planet, we have an uneven distribution of population in the world. Geographical factors like soil, climate, topography, water influence the population of an area.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Each unit of land has limited capacity to support people living on it.
Reason (R): It is necessary to understand the ratio between the numbers of people to the size of land.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: The ways in which people have organized themselves in space at any given time represent the sum of all of the advances they have made to their overall geographical area.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Death rate plays an active role in population change.
Reason (R): Population growth occurs not only by increasing births rate but also due to decreasing death rate.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The population of the world or 1 I the particular place does not remain the same. Death decreases the population.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): The 10 most populous countries of the world contribute about 60 per cent of the world’s population.
Reason (R): Out of these 10 countries, 6 are located in Asia.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The 10 most populous countries of the world contribute about 60 per cent of the world’s population as they are rich in natural resources, have fertile soil, accessible land and favourable climate.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Each unit of land has limited capacity to support people living on it.
Reason (R): Hence, it is necessary to understand the ratio between the numbers of people to the size of land.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Each unit of land has limited j capacity to support people living on it because j water, food, shelter and resources in each unit a limited.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes.
Reason (R): This is because such areas are favourable for the production of crops and to build roads and industries.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
This is because plains are favourable for growing crops, setting up industries and for developing the transport system.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): The mountainous and hilly areas hinder the development of transport network and hence initially do not favour agricultural and industrial development.
Reason (R): So, these areas tend to be highly populated.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
The steep topography makes it difficult and expensive to build houses, establish factories, build roads and grow vegetation. The low temperatures also make it difficult for many to live there.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Mediterranean regions were inhabited from early periods in history
Reason (R): This is due to their pleasant climate.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Mediterranean regions were inhabited from early periods in history due to their pleasant climate, fertile soil and privileged geographical location of the Mediterranean area between 3 continents helped it flourish.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Areas with mineral deposits attract industries.
Reason (R): Mining and industrial activities generate employment.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Areas with mineral deposits play a major role in the industrial growth of a nation and its people at large. It generates revenue, encourages development and employees a large number of people.

Question 11.

Assertion (A): Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication.

Reason (R): It leads to rural torural migration and cities grow in size.
Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Decline in income from agriculture, lack of alternative job, declining j local economy, and denied access to basic facilities leads to rural to urban migration and cities grow in size.

Question 12.

Assertion (A): The Kobe-Osaka region of Japan is thickly populated
Reason (R): This is because of the presence of a number of industries.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
The Kobe-Osaka region of Japan is thickly populated because of the presence of a number of industries like:- electronics, pharmaceutical, machinery, device, chemical, food, and construction industries. It is the second most populated region in Japan.

Question 13.

Assertion (A): Some places attract more people because they have religious or cultural significance.
Reason (R): In the same way – people tend to move away from places where there is social and political unrest.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
People may choose to move for a variety of reasons, such as employment opportunities, to escape a violent conflict, environmental factors, educational purposes, or to reunite with family. Others feel they must leave because of poverty, political unrest, gang violence and the discrimination they face in daily life.

Question 14.

Assertion (A): Death rate plays an active role in population change.
Reason (R): Population growth occurs not only by increasing births rate but also due to decreasing death rate.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Natural decrease occurs when death rate is greater than birth rate.

Question 15.

Assertion (A): When people move from one place to another, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin.
Reason (R): The place of origin shows a decrease in population while the population increases in the place of destination.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:
Economic, political, cultural, or environmental reasons force people to move away from the place of origin.

Question 16.

Assertion (A): A small increase in population is desirable in a growing economy.
Reason (R): However, population growth beyond a certain level creates no problems.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation:
Higher population growth rates would clearly lead to higher economic growth rates.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
The people of a country are its real wealth. It is they who make use of the country’s resources and decide its policies. Ultimately a country is known by its people. It is important to know how many women and men a country has, how many children are born each year, how many people die and how? Whether they live in cities or villages, can they read or write and what work do they do? The world at the beginning of 21st century recorded the presence of over 6 billion population. The population of the world is unevenly distributed. The remark of George B. Gressey about the population of Asia that “Asia has many places where people are few and few places where people are very many” is true about the pattern of population distribution of the world also.

Question 1.

What is the real wealth of a country?

(A) Government
(B) People
(C) Educational institutes
(D) Economy
Answer:
(B) People

Question 2.

Why is it important to know how many women and men a country has, how many children are born each year, how many people die?

(A) For planning purpose
(B) For push factors
(C) For pull factors
(D) For preparing military strength
Answer:
(A) For planning purpose

Explanation:
Population data helps to plan how many schools, clinics, hospitals and jobs a country needs.

Question 3.

The knowledge of how many women and men a country has, how many children are born each year, how many people die and how is known as:

(A) Density data
(B) Population data
(C) Sensex data
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Population data

Explanation:
Population data can be used for planning purposes.

Question 4.

The world at the beginning of 21st century recorded the presence of over …………….. population.

(A) 6 billion
(B) 8 billion
(C) 10 million
(D) 6 million
Answer:
(A) 6 billion

II. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
There are three components of population change – births, deaths and migration. Death rate plays an active role in population change. Population growth occurs not only by increasing births rate but also due to decreasing death rate. Crude Death Rate (CDR) is a simple method of measuring mortality of any area. CDR is expressed in terms of number of deaths in a particular year per thousand of population in a particular region. By and large mortality rates are affected by the region’s demographic structure, social advancement and levels of its economic development.

Question 1.

Name the three components of population change.

(A) Migration, economy, education
(B) Migration, birth rate, death rate
(C) Migration, industries, agriculture
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Migration, birth rate, death rate

Explanation:
The difference between live births and deaths and the difference between the number of people moving into an area and the number of people moving out defines the population change.

Question 2.

……………. plays an active role in population change.

(A) Birth rate
(B) Death rate
(C) Accidents
(D) Immigration
Answer:
(B) Death rate

Explanation:
Natural decrease in population occurs when death rate is greater than birth rate. Natural increase in population occurs when the death rate is low

Question 3.

Which method is used for measuring the mortality of an area?

(A) Crude Birth Rate
(B) Crude Death Rate
(C) Population Index
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Crude Death Rate

Explanation:
The crude death rate is the number of deaths per 1000 people in a year in relation to the total population. It is a simple method to measure the death rate because it j takes only the data of total mid-year population f and total deaths.

Question 4.

Name two factors that affect the mortality rate.

(A) Economic development, death rate
(B) Demographic structure, economic growth
(C) Social advancement, birth rate
(D) Social advancement, demographic structure
Answer:
(D) Social advancement, demographic structure

III. Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
A small increase in population is desirable in a growing economy. However, population growth beyond a certain level leads to problems. Of these the depletion of resources is the most serious. Population decline is also a matter of concern. It indicates that resources that had supported a population earlier are now insufficient to maintain the population. The deadly HIV/ AIDS epidemics in Africa and some parts of the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) and Asia have pushed up death rates and reduced average life expectancy. This has slowed down population growth.

Question 1.

What is the correlation between population economy?

(A) High population growth leads to high economic growth
(B) High population growth leads to limited economic growth
(C) Less population growth leads to exponential economic growth (D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) High population growth leads to limited economic growth

Explanation:
The quantity, quality, structure, distribution, and movement of a population can help or hinder the rate of economic development.

Question 2.

Population decline is a matter of …………..

(A) happiness
(B) concern
(C) economic growth
(D) push factors
Answer:
(B) concern

Explanation:
Declining population means slower economic growth.

Question 3.

……………. is an estimate of the average number of additional years that a person of a given age can expect to live.

(A) Average life span
(B) Average death span
(C) Average life expectancy
(D) Average death expectancy
Answer:
(C) Average life expectancy

Question 4.

The increase in the number of individuals in a population is known as:

(A) Population growth
(B) Population stability
(C) Population blast
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Population growth

Explanation:
Population growth depends on 1 the rate of natural increase, or the fertility rate 1 minus the mortality rate, and net migration.

IV. Study the given graph carefully and answer the following questions :
The World Population Distribution Density And Growth MCQ

Question 1.

How does the natural increase in population occur, as per the graph?

(A) Birth Rate – Death Rate
(B) Death Rate + Birth Rate
(C) Growth Rate – Birth Rate
(D) Birth Rate + Migration
Answer:
(B) Death Rate + Birth Rate

Explanation:
The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country or place is causes the natural increase.

Question 2.

What does the transition from high fluctuating stage to low fluctuating stage indicate?

(A) Shift from Urban Industrial economy to Rural Agrarian economy
(B) Shift from Rural Agrarian economy to Urban Industrial economy
(C) Low Birth and Death Rate to High Birth and Death Rate
(D) Migration from Urban to Rural areas
Answer:
(B) Shift from Rural Agrarian economy to Urban Industrial economy

Question 3.

From the given graph, what condition can you infer about the developing countries?

(A) High Birth Rate and High Death Rate
(B) Low Birth rate and Low Death rate
(C) High Birth Rate and Low Birth Rate
(D) Low Birth Rate and High Death Rate
Answer:
(C) High Birth Rate and Low Birth Rate

Explanation:
The social structure, religious beliefs, economic prosperity and urbanisation within each country leads to high birth rates and low birth rates in developing countries.

Question 4.

In which stage of Demographic Transition, population explosion took place :

(A) Stage I
(B) Stage II
(C) Stage III
(D) Post Stage III
Answer:
(B) Stage II

Explanation:
Stage II is characterized by a rapid decrease in a country’s death rate while the birth rate remains high. The fall in the death rate is due to drastic improvement in the medical facilities, vaccinations, etc.

V. Study the given graph carefully and answer the following questions :
The World Population Class 12 MCQ Chapter 2

Question 1.

Identify the Asian country with the maximum population.

(A) India
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) USA
Answer:
(B) China

Explanation:
The rise of industry and large scale agriculture and many other factors has lead China to have maximum population.

Question 2.

Why is Japan’s population decreasing?

(A) No pull factors
(B) Terrorism
(C) Government policies
(D) Low fertility rate
Answer:
(D) Low fertility rate

Explanation:
Japan’s overall population is shrinking due to low fertility rates and the aging population is rapidly increasing.

Question 3.

Why is Brazil sparsely populated?

(A) Due to climate
(B) Due to drug mafia
(C) Due to less land availability
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Due to climate

Explanation:
Brazil is very sparsely populated due to the climate of the area. The country suffers from frequent droughts.

Question 4.

Why is Asia the most populous continent?

(A) No contact with Western world
(B) Dictatorship
(C) No emigration allowed
(D) Rich in natural resources
Answer:
(D) Rich in natural resources .

Explanation:
Asia is rich in natural resources such as petroleum, forests, fish, water, rice, copper and silver.

VI. Study the given graph carefully and answer the following Questions:
Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ

Question 1.

Which of these periods closely represents the European explorations?

(A) 1 CE to 1600 CE
(B) 1500 CE to 1700 CE
(C) 1520 CE to 1900 CE
(D) 1650 CE to 1950 CE
Answer:
(C) 1520 CE to 1900 CE

Question 2.

In how many years did world population increase from 4 billion to 5 billion?

(A) 12 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 100 years
Answer:
(A) 12 years

Explanation:
The world population increased due to better nutrition, higher birth rates, and lower mortality.

Question 3.

What is the speciality of the period 1650 CE to present?

(A) Development and spread of agriculture
(B) Colonialization
(C) Technological revolutions
(D) Transportation
Answer:
(C) Technological revolutions

Question 4.

What was the approximate population of the world in 1600s?

(A) 0.25 billion
(B) 0.5 billion
(C) 0.75 billion
(D) 1 billion
Answer:
(B) 0.5 billion

Explanation:
New crops that had come from the Americas to Asia and Europe during the 16th century contributed to population growth on these continents. The indigenous populations of the Americas, however, were decimated by diseases brought by European colonizers.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Ecosystem Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-12-biology-chapter-14/

Ecosystem Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Ecosystem Class 12 MCQ Chapter 14 Question 1.
Who introduced term Ecosystem?
(a) Leaneous
(b) Reiter
(c) Odum
(d) Aristle

Answer

Answer: (b) Reiter

MCQ On Ecosystem Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 2.
Soil developed from sedimented rock:
(a) Force Science
(b) Edaphology
(c) Pedogenesis
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Pedogenesis

Ecosystem MCQ Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 3.
Best soil for plant growth is:
(a) Grit
(b) Sandy
(c) Soily
(d) Clay

Answer

Answer: (d) Clay

Question 4.
Soil particle determine the character of:
(a) Organisation
(b) Biomass
(c) Area capacity
(d) Soil plants

Answer

Answer: (a) Organisation

Question 5.
Plant roots soil water is:
(a) Cellular water
(b) Surface water
(c) Humidity water
(d) Gravitational water

Answer

Answer: (d) Gravitational water

Question 6.
Exchange of water in submerged plant:
(a) Stomata
(b) Normal surface
(c) Hydathode
(d) Lenticel

Answer

Answer: (b) Normal surface

Question 7.
Submerged Rooted Hydrophyte are:
(a) Uticularia
(b) Prapa
(c) Nymphea
(d) Vallisnaria

Answer

Answer: (d) Vallisnaria

Question 8.
Water co-deficient contains:
(a) Large thin walled cells
(b) Large-vacuoles
(c) Membrane
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Membrane

Question 9.
Xerophyte Contains:
(a) Deep roots
(b) Sunken stomata
(c) Thick cuticle
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 10.
Small extremite animals of tropicalregion:
(a) Allen’s law
(b) Bergmen’s law
(c) Dollo’s law
(d) Cope’s law

Answer

Answer: (d) Cope’s law

Question 11.
Hibernation of some animals:
(a) Regular
(b) Periodic
(c) Suddenly
(d) Temporary

Answer

Answer: (a) Regular

Question 12.
Physical and chemical properties of soil studied by :
(a) Climatic factor
(b) Biotic factor
(c) Soil factor
(d) Topographic factor

Answer

Answer: (b) Biotic factor

Question 13.
Identity the Hetero Organism:
(a) Pistia
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Vallisnaria
(d) Casurina

Answer

Answer: (c) Vallisnaria

Question 14.
That animal who can bear one third loss of water of one third body weight is:
(a) Necturus
(b) Camel
(c) Wall Lizzard
(d) Kyton

Answer

Answer: (b) Camel

Question 15.
Root hair absent in:
(a) Hydrophyte
(b) Halophyte
(c) Mesophyte
(d) Heliophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Hydrophyte

Question 16.
A water co-efficient Mesophyte is:
(a) Cappais
(b) Agave
(c) Acacia
(d) Hemeris

Answer

Answer: (b) Agave

Question 17.
Gravitated carried soil is:
(a) Alluvial
(b) Muddy
(c) Glacier
(d) Compound

Answer

Answer: (d) Compound

Question 18.
Kanha National Park is famous for:
(a) For Birds
(b) For Tendua
(c) For Tiger
(d) For Crocodile

Answer

Answer: (b) For Tendua

Question 19.
During food chain the maximum energy is stored in :
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Herbivoures
(d) Camivourse

Answer

Answer: (a) Producers

Question 20.
The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivoure to carnivorce level is :
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%

Answer

Answer: (b) 10%

Question 21.
Ecological pyramids were first devised by:
(a) Charles Eltom
(b) R. Hesse
(c) R.A. Lindemann
(d) Justus von Liebig

Answer

Answer: (a) Charles Eltom

Question 22.
Which of the following ecosystem has highest gross primary productivity:
(a) Grassland
(b) Coral reefs
(c) Mangrooves
(d) Rainforests

Answer

Answer: (b) Coral reefs

Question 23.
In the phosphorus cycle, weathring makes phosophate available first to:
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Consumers
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Producers

Question 24.
Which types of the following pyramid are never inverted?
(a) Pyramid of energy
(b) Pyramid of biomass
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) Pyramid of dry biomass

Answer

Answer: (a) Pyramid of energy

Question 25.
Biosphere means:
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Lithosphere and ionosphered
(c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
(d) Hydrosphere lithosphere and ionsophere

Answer

Answer: (c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere

Question 26.
Best type of pyramid which is always true is:
(a) Pyramid or energy
(b) Pyramid of Biomass
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (a) Pyramid or energy

Question 27.
Decomposers are:
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Autohetrotrophs
(c) Organotrophs
(d) Heterotrophs

Answer

Answer: (d) Heterotrophs

Question 28.
The largest ecosystem is :
(a) Forest ecosystem
(b) Marine ecosystem
(c) Pond ecosystem
(d) Grassland ecosystem

Answer

Answer: (b) Marine ecosystem

Question 29.
More than 70 of world freshwater is contain in:
(a) Antarctica
(b) Glaciers and mountains
(c) Greenland
(d) Polar ice

Answer

Answer: (c) Greenland

Question 30.
Which one of the following pair is mismatched?
(a) Prairies-Epiphytes
(b) Tundra-Permafrost
(c) Savannaha-Acacia trees
(d) Coniferous forests-Evergreen trees)

Answer

Answer: (a) Prairies-Epiphytes

Question 31.
Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(a) Mountain
(b) Desert
(c) Forest
(d) Ocean

Answer

Answer: (b) Desert

Question 32.
Primary succession occurs in :
(a) Primary succession occurs
(b) Previously unoccupied area
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Previously unoccupied area

Question 33.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramid?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight

Answer

Answer: (a) Dry weight

Question 34.
What is the main cause of extinction of some species in tropical forests?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Afforestation
(c) Pollution
(d) Soil erosion

Answer

Answer: (a) Deforestation

Question 35.
Ecology deals with:
(a) The arth and plants
(b) The relationship between organisms and their environment
(c) Economical growth of poor people
(d) The life under sea

Answer

Answer: (b) The relationship between organisms and their environment

Question 36.
Shola forests are found in :
(a) Eastern Coast of Orissa
(b) North East Himalayas
(c) Western Ghats (Kerala)
(d) Decian Plateau

Answer

Answer: (c) Western Ghats (Kerala)

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

January 23, 2023January 21, 2023 by Prasanna

Organisms and Populations Class 12 MCQ Questions With Answers

Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 MCQ Questions Question 1.

Which of the following forest plants controls the light conditions at the ground?

(A) Climbers
(B) Shrubs
(C) Tall trees
(D) Herbs
Answer:
(C) Tall trees

Explanation :
In a forest ecosystem, light is an important abiotic component that controls a number of life processes in organisms. In forest, its intensity duration and quality at ground is controlled by tall trees.

MCQ On Organism And Population Class 12 Question 2.

According to Allen’s rule, the mammals from colder climates have

(A) shorter ears and longer limbs
(B) longer ears and shorter limbs
(C) longer ears and longer limbs
(D) shorter ears and shorter limbs
Answer:
(D) shorter ears and shorter limbs

Explanation :
Snails undergo aestivation to avoid summers.

Organism And Population MCQ Class 12 Question 3.

Snails escape from stressful time in summers by

(A) Hibernation
(B) Aestivation.
(C) Diapause
(D) Homeostasis
Answer:
(B) Aestivation.

Explanation :
Snails undergo aestivation to I avoid summers.

Organism And Population Class 12 MCQ Question 4.

Autecology is the

(A) relation of a population to its environment.
(C) relation of a community to its environment.
(D) relation of a biome to its environment.
Answer:
(B) relation of an individual to its environment.

Explanation :
Autecology is the study of interre lationship of the organisms of a species to biotic or abiotic environment.

Organisms And Population Class 12 MCQ Question 5.

Biosphere is

(A) a component in the ecosystem.
(B) composed of the plants present in the soil.
(C) life in the outer space.
(D) composed of all living organisms present on earth which interact with the physical environment.
Answer:
(D) composed of all living organisms present on earth which interact with the physical environment.

Explanation:
Biosphere, one of the four layers that surround the Earth, is composed of all living organisms present on earth which interact with their physical environment. It is collectively used for all the ecosystems of world.

Organisms And Population MCQ With Answers Question 6.

Which one of the following organisms reproduces sexually only once in its life time?

(A) Banana plant
(B) Mango
(C) Tomato
(D) Eucalyptus
Answer:
(A) Banana plant

Explanation :
Banana plant is the largest herbaceous flowering plant. It is a monocarpic plant which reproduces sexually only once in its life lime. Monocarpic plants are those plants which flower only once in their life and die after flowering and fruiting. These plants are generally annual (wheat, rice) or biennials (like carrot and radish).

Organisms And Populations MCQ Chapter 13 Question 7.

Ecological niche is

(A) the surface area of the ocean.
(B) an ecologically adapted zone.
(C) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community.
(D) formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake.
Answer:
(C) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community.

Explanation :
Ecological niche is ecologically adapted zone, that is, the particular place of habitat occupied by individual of a species within its ecosystem. Ecological niche have specific characteristics, such as availability of nutrients, temperature, terrain, sunlight, and predators, which influences how populations affect and are affected by resources and enemies.

MCQ Of Organism And Population Class 12 Question 8.

Ecotone is

(A) a polluted area.
(B) the bottom of a lake.
(C) a zone of transition between two communities.
(D) a zone of developing community.
Answer:
(C) a zone of transition between two communities.

Explanation :
Ecotone is a transition zone between two communities. The adjacent biotic (natural) communities generally do not possess a fine demarcation line between them, Therefore, the adjacent of two communities is represented bv population of both the communities, and this transition zone between two communities is referred as ecotone.

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 13 Question 9.

Salt concentration (salinity) of the sea measured in parts per thousand is

(A) 10-15
(B) 30-70
(C) 0-5
(D) 30- 35
Answer:
(D) 30- 35

Explanation :
The salinity (measured in parts per thousand) is less than in land water, 30-35 in sea water and > 100 in some hvpersaline water bodies like lagoons. After temperature, water is an important abiotic factor which has a great influence on the life of an organism. In an oceanic ecosvstem, organisms face many waters related problems like pH, salinity of water. The salinity (salt concentration) of sea is measured in parts per thousand units. It is about 30-35 ppt.

Organisms And Population MCQ Class 12 Question 10.

What will happen to a well growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the forest in a park?

(A) It will grow normally.
(B) It will grow well because it is planted in the same locality.
(C) It may not survive because of change in its microclimate.
(D) It grows very well because the plant gets more sunlight.
Answer:
(C) It may not survive because of change in its microclimate.

Explanation :
In forest ecosystem tall trees of forest plants controls the light condition, that is, intensity duration and quality of light at the ground. A well growing herbaceous plant in forest receive less intensity duration and quality of light, but when it is transplanted in a park outside its natural habitat, the light will be received uninterrupted. So, due to change in its microclimate, it may not survive.

Question 11.

A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be the status of the population after some years?

(A) It will decline
(B) It will stabilize
(C) It will increase
(D) It will first decline and then stabilize
Answer:
(C) It will increase

Explanation :
Variations in number of individuals in a population is expressed as population density and population size. A IS population of more young individuals than older individuals will show positive growth in future (after some vrs), i.e., it will increase after some time.

Question 12.

If a population of 50 Paramecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the growth rate of population?

(A) 50 per hour
(B) 200 per hour
(C) 5 per hour
(D) 100 per hour
Answer:
(D) 100 per hour

Explanation :
Biotic potential is the natural capacity of a population to multip lyincrease at its maximum rate under favourable environmental conditions. Population of P&ramecium show 100 per hour growth, two individuals are produced by one.

Question 13.

What would be the per cent growth or birth rate per individual per hour for the same population mentioned in the previous question (Question 12)?

(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 50
(D) 150
Answer:
(B) 200

Explanation :
Growth rate is 200% as one organism is producing two individuals at a time.

Question 14.

Which of the following would necessarily decrease the density of a population in a given habitat?

(A) Natality > mortality
(B) Immigration > emigration
(C) Mortality and emigration
(D) Natality and immigration
Answer:
(C) Mortality and emigration

Explanation :
Mortality and emigration would necessarily decrease the density of a population in a given habitat due to loss of individual result from mortality (deaths) and emigration.

Question 15.

A protozoan reproduces by binary fission. What will be the number of protozoans in its population after six generations?

(A) 128
(B) 24
(C) 64
(D) 32
Answer:
(C) 64

Explanation :
Binary fission is a mode of asexual reproduction in protozoan through which it produces two offsprings from parent individuals. So,
In 1st generation: there are 2 protozoans were:
In 2nd generation : there are 2×2 = 4 protozoans
In 3rd generation : there are 4×2 = 8 protozoans
In 4th generation: there are total 16 protozoans were:
In 5th generation: there are total 32 protozoans
In 6th generation: there are 64 protozoans were:
Thus, the population of protozoans will be 64, after six generations.

Question 16.

Amensalism is an association between two species where

(A) one species is harmed and other is benefitted.
(B) one species is harmed and other is unaffected.
(C) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected.
(D) both the species are harmed.
Answer:
(C) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected.

Explanation :
Amensalism is an association between two organisms in which one species is benefitted or unaffected while the other organism is destroyed or inhibited.

Question 17.

Lichens are the associations of

(A) bacteria and fungus
(B) algae and bacterium
(C) fungus and algae
(D) fungus and virus
Answer:
(C) fungus and algae

Explanation :
Lichens is an organism that is formed by the symbiotic association of a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium. It occurs as crusty patches or bushy growths on tree trunks, bare ground, etc. and represents a positive (beneficial) interaction between two different species.

Question 18.

Select the statement which explains best parasitism.

(A) One organism is benefited
(B) Both the organisms are benefited
(C) One organism is benefited, other is not affected
(D) One organism is benefited, other is affected
Answer:
(D) One organism is benefited, other is affected

Explanation :
Parasitism is an interaction between two species in which one species (parasite) derives benefit while the other species (host) is harmed. For example, ticks and lice (parasites) present on the human body represent this interaction where in the parasites receive benefit (as they derive nourishment by feeding on the blood of humans). On the other hand, these parasites reduce host fitness and cause harm to the human body.

Question 19.

Which of the following is a partial root parasite?

(A) Sandal wood
(B) Mistletoe
(C) Orobanche
(D) Ganoderma
Answer:
(A) Sandal wood

Explanation :
Sandalwood tree (Santalum album) is an example of partial root parasite. It grows on the roots of Dalbergia, Albizzia and Eucalyptus. he sucking roots ol the plants attack the roots of the host trees and from them nutrients are absorbed. Mistletoe (Vbaim) is considered as hemiparasite which derives a part of nourishment from host plant. Orobanche is an obligate holoparasite which attack strategic food crops, such as legumes and vegetables, Ganoderma mushrooms are. known as king of herbs for its wonderful . medicinal properties. They are commonly known as reishi mushrooms. They are widely distributed, shelf-like or knob-like fungi that feed either as saprobes on dead wood or as parasites on the live wood of hardwood trees.

Question 20.

What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s national parks sanctuaries?

(A) Pug marks only
(B) Pugmarks and faecal pellets
(C) Faecal pellets only
(D) Actual headcounts
Answer:
(B) Pugmarks and faecal pellets

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Ecology is concerned with four levels of biological organisation.
Reason (R): Organisms, populations, communities and biomes are four levels of biological organisation.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
Ecology include six level of organizalion that are organism, population, communiLy, ecosystem, biosphere and biome.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Different habitats had different physical and chemical conditions.
Reason (R): Physicochemical (abiotic) components characterize the habitat of an organism.

Answer:
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation :
Habitat is governed by the both abiotic and biotic components.

Question 3.

Assertion (A) : Small animals are rarely found in polar regions.
Reason (R): Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area. Large surface area great loss of heat.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
Small animals have a large sur-face area with respect to their volume, so they lose body heat fast if it is cold outside, small animals are rarely found in polar regions.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): A community with more species is more stable than that with less species.
Reason(R): More the number of species, lesser the variation in

Answer:
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation :
Communities with more species tend to be more stable than those with less species because they are able to resist occasional disturbance . David Tilman’s long term experiments showed the plots with more species, experience less year to year variation in total biomass.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in seawater.
Reason (R): Freshwater animals face osmotic problems in seawater.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
When freshwater animals move into sea, water continuously moves out of the animal’s body through the process of osmosis.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The term interbreeding implies sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): Interbreeding result in variation among species.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
Interbreeding implies sexual reproduction which involve the fusion of two gametes of different species which bring variation among the species.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Population has certain attributes which an individual organism does not have.
Reason (R): Population is a group of people living in a well-defined area, at a particular time.

Answer:
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation :
Population is a group of people therefore it’s attributes are different from an individual organism.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Natality contributes to the increase in population density.
Reason (R): Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population which is

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Clownfish maintains a commensalism relation with the sea anemone.
Reason (R): In this interaction, one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
Clownfish maintain a commensalism relation with the sea anemone. In this interaction, one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited. Sea anemone has stinging tentacles that provide protection to Clownfish from predators. The sea anemone does not appear to derive any benefit from the down fish.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): The human population represents the logistic growth curve.
Reason (R): When the resources are limited leading to competition between individuals and survival of fittest, the population tends to grow in a logistic manner.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
The human population represents the logistic growth curve as the numbers of human beings are increasing rapidly but available resources are not increasing at the same pace. Such a growth pattern is not sustainable because at one point the human popu¬lation would reach a place where there would not be enough resources for everyone.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any four sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:
Growth of a population with time shows specific and predictable patterns. Two types of growth pattern of population are exponential and logistic growth. When resources in the habitat are unlimited each spedes has the ability to realize fully its innate potential to grow in number. Then the population grows in exponential fashion. When the resources are limited growth curve shows an initial slow rate and then it accelerates and finally slows giving the growth curve which is sigmoid.

Question 1.

Identify the incorrect statement:

(A) Exponential growth occurs in organism such as lemmings.
(B) Logistic growth is more realistic.
(C) Exponential growth has two phases lag and log.
(D) In logistic growth, population passes well beyond the carrying capadty of ecosystem.

Answer:
(D) In logistic growth, population passes well beyond the carrying capadty of ecosystem.

Explanation :

In logistic growth population seldom grows beyond the carrying capacity of ecosystem.

Question 2.

Identify the correct equation that represents the exponential population growth curve:

(A) dN/dt = IN
(B) dN/dt = rN (K-N/K)
(C) Nt =N0ert
(D) Both (A) and (C)

Explanation :
If any species is flourishing under unlimited resources, it would reach exponential growth which can be depicted by equation: dN/dt =rN Where, N= population density at time t; r = intrinsic rate of natural increase. If we derive the integral form of the exponen-tial growth equation, it can be written as: Nt
=N ert Where,Where Nt, = population density after time t; N0is population density at time zero; r = intrinsic rate of natural increase; is the base of natural logarithm.

Question 3.

The equations correctly represents Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is:

(A) dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K
(B) dN/dt = rN/K
(C) dN/dt = N(K-N)/K
(D) dN/dt = r(K-N)/K
Answer:
(A) dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K

Explanation :
The equations correctly repreI sents Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is dN/dt = I rN(K-N)/K

Question 4.

The population growth is generally described by the following equation: dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K What does ‘r’ represent in the given equation?

(A) Population density at time
(B) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(C) Carrying capacity
(D) The base of natural logarithm
Answer:
(B) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

Explanation:
‘r’ represents Intrinsic rale of naural increase.

Question 5.

Study the population growth curves (A and B) in the given graph and select the incorrect statement:

Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 MCQ Questions

(A) Curve ‘A’ shows exponential growth, represented by equation dN/dt=rN
(B) Curve ‘B’ shows logistic growth, represented by equation dN/dt = r(K-N)/K
(C) Exponential growth curve is considered as more realistic than the logistic growth curve
(D) Curve ‘A’ can also be represented by equation Nt = N0ert
Answer:
(C) Exponential growth curve is considered as more realistic than the logistic growth curve

Explanation :
Since resources of growth for most animal populations are finite and become limiting sooner or later, so the logistic growth model is considered as more realistic.

II. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same :
All biomes of the earth constitute the earth’s ecosystem. All flora and fauna occur in the lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere along with their environments. Air, water, soil, biota, temperature and light are the major environmental factors that directly affect the flora and fauna in different geological areas of the earth.

Question 1.

Climate of an area depends upon:

(A) Altitude of the area
(B) Latitude of the area
(C) Topography
(D) Both (A) and (B).
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B).

Explanation :
The altitude of an area can impact like climate that are mostly rainy and have low temperature while the altitude of an area impact the ultimate with respect to equator and poles.

Question 2.

Hydrological cycle is concerned with :

(A) Lithosphere
(B) Hydrosphere
(C) Atmosphere
(D) All of these.

Explanation :
Lithosphere is concerned with land, hydrosphere with water bodies and atmosphere is concerned of space. Hydrological cycle circulates in all these three subsystem.

Question 3.

Soil aeration is inversely proportional to :

(A) Soil pore spaces
(B) Diameter of soil particles
(C) Water holding capacity of soil
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(C) Water holding capacity of soil

Explanation:
More will be the water holding capacity soil, less will be the air spaces less soil aeration.

Question 4.

Edaphology is concerned with study of :

(A) Soil
(B) Climate
(C) Biota
(D) Topography
Answer:
(A) Soil

Explanation :
Edaphology is the study of soil useful for plant growth.

Directions: In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

(A) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Some organisms like Salmon are known as Euryhaline.
Reason (R): Euryhalines can tolerate a wide range of salinities.

Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation :
Euryhaline animals like salmon can adopt wide range of selinity as they are found in areas where river and sea meets.

III. Population is a group of individuals of a single species living in a given area. It includes spatial arrangement, genetic variation and the dynamics including natality, mortality, biotic potential, carrying capacity, etc. Population structure includes features as density, abundance, spacing, genetic variations. The genetic structure reveals genetic variations and population size.

Question 1.

——— is the study of the ecology of population.

(A) Autocology
(B) Demecology
(C) Endaphology
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Demecology

Explanation:
Autocology is the study of species ecology and Edaphology is the study of soil.

Question 2.

——— spedes inhabit different geographical areas. Allopatric.

(A) Sympatic
(B) Allopatric
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Allopatric

Explanation :
Allopatric is the evolving of separate species from an arrcestrol population.

Question 3.

Increase in population does not increase in :

(A) Health facilities
(B) Unemployment
(C) Food resources
(D) Per capita income.
Answer:
(B) Unemployment

Explanation :

Unemployment is the unavailability of suitable job can be overcome by developing skill an creating opportunity. So, it does not impacted by increase in population.

Question 4.

Which Indian state has the least population growth?

(A) Kerala
(B) U.E
(C) A.P.
(D) Assam.
Answer:
(A) Kerala

Explanation :
Kerala has the least population growth, which has the highest population growth.

Question 5.

There is more competition for survival between :

(A) Different animals of same niche
(B) Same animals of same niche
(C) Different animals of different niche
(D) Same animals of different niche.
Answer:
(B) Same animals of same niche

Explanation :
Same animals under the niche have limited food resources. So, same animals would have same food habits and there is more competition for survival.

Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 MCQ Questions With Answers

The most important cause of biodiversity loss is :

Alexander von Humboldt described for the first time:

Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India

Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity?

Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?

What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psihotum, Rauwolfia and Aconitum?

The species-area relationship is represented in form on a log scale.

Biodiversity is affected by

World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in:

Sacred groves are specially useful in :

Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as :

Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot-spots?

The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuary?

Amongst the animal groups given below, which one has the highest percentage of endangered species?

What is common to the techniques (i) in-vitro fertilisation, (ii) Cryopreservation and (iii) tissue culture?

The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as

The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to

What is common to Lantana, Eichkornia and African catfish?

Assertion (A): Biodiversity means diversity at species level. Reason (R): Biodiversity is a diversity not only at species level but at all levels of biological organization.

Assertion (A): Percentage of animals is more than the percentage of plants. Reason (R): 70% of all the species are animals, while plants contribute nearly 22% of the total.

Assertion (A): Western ghats of India are one of the hot spots of biodiversity. Reason (R): Western ghats have greater amphibian diversity than eastern ghats.

Assertion (A): Biologists are not sure about total number of prokaryotic species Reason (R): Nearly 45,000 species of plants and twice as many of animals have been recorded from India

Assertion (A): There is more species biodiversity in tropical latitudes than in temperate ones. Reason (R): Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable.

Assertion (A): Process of extinction is random and fast. Reason (R): Any species which can not adapt itself according to the environment, it cannot survive.

Assertion (A): Loss of habitat is the main cause of loss of biodiversity. Reason (R): This causes the increase in edge area and reduction in core area.

Assertion (A): Biosphere reserves are also included under the ex-situ conservation strategies. Reason (R): Cropping and grazing are allowed in the transition zone of biosphere reserve.

Assertion (A): Sacred groves are highly protected. Reason (R): They are of religious importance to the communities.

Assertion (A): Many species like Stellar’s sea cow, passenger pigeon, etc., became extinct due to overexploitation. Reason(R): Overexploitation is a major cause of biodiversity loss.

Identify a cause of biodiversity loss that is not included in evil quartet?

The species that have become extinct due to over exploitation is/are:

Factors which make species susceptible to extinction are:

Assertion: Pollution reduces species biodiversity. Reason: Spillover of oil in sea causes death of several marine animals.

——- is the first major cause of species

Which among the following represents diversity at ecosystem level?

Which of the following taxon shows maximum species diversity?

What is the approximate ratio of animals and plant species in our country?

When group represents minimum species diversity among vertebrates?

Assertion (A): Tropics have more biodiversity. Reason (R): Climate of tropical regions is more seasonal.

How many biodiversity hot spots are identified globally?

Main cause of extinction of animals and plants is:

Protected areas are examples of

Name the National Aquatic Animal of India?

Species at the high risk of extinction in the future is called :

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers

Population Composition Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

refers to the way in which the population is spaced out all over the world.

What is considered as the most important factor for life?

The Arctic region and the Antarctica continent are situated near:

The population of the world is:

If the population decreases between two points of time, it is known as:

Those factors which make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin are known as:

(Bi/P) x 1000 =

Those factors which make the place of origin seem less attractive are known as:

World population exploded in the eighteenth century after the:

The growth of population is low in:

The consumption of resources on a faster rate is known as:

Agrarian society depends on agriculture as the:

The first stage of the Demographic Transition Theory has:

In the second stage of Demographic Transition Theory:

Spacing or preventing the birth of children is known as:

Which continent has population?

Which country in the world has the lowest growth rate of population ?

Arrange the countries in ascending order of their population:

How is density of population of a region calculated ?

The change in number of inhabitants of a territory during a specific period of time is known as :

Birth rate, death rate and migration are components of:

The movement of people from one place to another within the country or to a foreign country is termed as:

When the birth rate is more than the death rate between two points of time it is known as:

The expanding world trade during the sixteenth and seventeenth century, set the stage for:

Which of the following factor helped in the reduction of birth rate and provided a stage for accelerated population growth? 0

The population of non- industrial countries are normally:

Since doubling time is based on a population’s ,………….. it can also vary over time.

The effect of overpopulation can be:

Arrange the four stages of demographic transition in the correct order:

The evolution of the population profile of a country, region or other defined geographical area over time is known as :

As per 2019, Life expectancy in Japan was the highest with close to:

Which one of the following is not a fact?

Assertion (A): Biodiversity means diversity at species level.
Reason (R): Biodiversity is a diversity not only at species level but at all levels of biological organization.

Assertion (A): Percentage of animals is more than the percentage of plants.
Reason (R): 70% of all the species are animals, while plants contribute nearly 22% of the total.

Assertion (A): Western ghats of India are one of the hot spots of biodiversity.
Reason (R): Western ghats have greater amphibian diversity than eastern ghats.

Assertion (A): Biologists are not sure about total number of prokaryotic species
Reason (R): Nearly 45,000 species of plants and twice as many of animals have been recorded from India

Assertion (A): There is more species biodiversity in tropical latitudes than in temperate ones.
Reason (R): Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable.

Assertion (A): Process of extinction is random and fast.
Reason (R): Any species which can not adapt itself according to the environment, it cannot survive.

Assertion (A): Loss of habitat is the main cause of loss of biodiversity.
Reason (R): This causes the increase in edge area and reduction in core area.

Assertion (A): Biosphere reserves are also included under the ex-situ conservation strategies.
Reason (R): Cropping and grazing are allowed in the transition zone of biosphere reserve.

Assertion (A): Sacred groves are highly protected.
Reason (R): They are of religious importance to the communities.

Assertion (A): Many species like Stellar’s sea cow, passenger pigeon, etc., became extinct due to overexploitation.
Reason(R): Overexploitation is a major cause of biodiversity loss.

Assertion: Pollution reduces species biodiversity.
Reason: Spillover of oil in sea causes death of several marine animals.

Assertion (A): Tropics have more biodiversity.
Reason (R): Climate of tropical regions is more seasonal.

Assertion (A): The people of a country are its real wealth.
Reason (R): Itis they, who are the actual resources and make use of the country’s other resources and decide its policies.

Assertion (A): The population of the world is unevenly distributed.
Reason (R): Asia has many places where people are few and few place where people are very many.

Assertion (A): Each unit of land has limited capacity to support people living on it.
Reason (R): It is necessary to understand the ratio between the numbers of people to the size of land.

Assertion (A): Death rate plays an active role in population change.
Reason (R): Population growth occurs not only by increasing births rate but also due to decreasing death rate.

Assertion (A): The 10 most populous countries of the world contribute about 60 per cent of the world’s population.
Reason (R): Out of these 10 countries, 6 are located in Asia.

Assertion (A): Each unit of land has limited capacity to support people living on it.
Reason (R): Hence, it is necessary to understand the ratio between the numbers of people to the size of land.

Assertion (A): People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes.
Reason (R): This is because such areas are favourable for the production of crops and to build roads and industries.

Assertion (A): The mountainous and hilly areas hinder the development of transport network and hence initially do not favour agricultural and industrial development.
Reason (R): So, these areas tend to be highly populated.

Assertion (A): Mediterranean regions were inhabited from early periods in history
Reason (R): This is due to their pleasant climate.

Assertion (A): Areas with mineral deposits attract industries.
Reason (R): Mining and industrial activities generate employment.

Assertion (A): The Kobe-Osaka region of Japan is thickly populated
Reason (R): This is because of the presence of a number of industries.

Assertion (A): Some places attract more people because they have religious or cultural significance.
Reason (R): In the same way – people tend to move away from places where there is social and political unrest.

Assertion (A): Death rate plays an active role in population change.
Reason (R): Population growth occurs not only by increasing births rate but also due to decreasing death rate.

Assertion (A): When people move from one place to another, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin.
Reason (R): The place of origin shows a decrease in population while the population increases in the place of destination.

Assertion (A): A small increase in population is desirable in a growing economy.
Reason (R): However, population growth beyond a certain level creates no problems.

Assertion (A): Ecology is concerned with four levels of biological organisation.
Reason (R): Organisms, populations, communities and biomes are four levels of biological organisation.