MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 MCQ Questions With Answers

Molecular Basis Of Inheritance MCQ Class 12 Question 1.

In a DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

(A) glycosidic bonds
(B) phosphodiester bonds
(C) peptide bonds
(D) hydrogen bonds
Answer:
(B) phosphodiester bonds

Explanation :
In a DNA strand; the nucleotides are linked together by 3′-5′ phosphodiester linkage (bonds) to form a dinucleotide. More nucleotides can be joined in such a manner to form a polynucleotide chain.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 MCQ Question 2.

A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the

(A) base
(B) sugar
(C) phosphate group
(D) hydroxyl group
Answer:
(C) phosphate group

Explanation :
A nitrogenous base is attached to the pentose sugar by an N-glycosidic linkage to form a nucleoside, that is, Nucleoside = Nitro¬gen base + Pentose sugar When a phosphate group is attached to the 5′-OH of a nucleoside through phosphodiester linkage, a nucleotide is formed, that is, Nucleotide = Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate (P04). So, a nu¬cleoside differs from a nucleotide as it lacks the phosphate group.

Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Class 12 MCQ Question 3.

Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of sugars called

(A) trioses
(B) hexoses
(C) pentoses
(D) polysaccharides
Answer:
(C) pentoses

Explanation :
Both deoxyribose and ribose belongs to the class pentoses as it contains ‘5’ carbon atoms.

Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 MCQs Question 4.

The fact that a purine base always paired through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to, in the DNA double helix

(A) the antiparallel nature
(B) the semi-conservative nature
(C) uniform width throughout DNA
(D) uniform length in all DNA
Answer:
(C) uniform width throughout DNA

Explanation :
The diameter of the strand is al-ways constant due to a pairing of purine (ad-enine and guanine) and pyrimidine (cytosine and thymine). This specific bonding gives uniform width to the DNA.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

MCQ On Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Question 5.

The net electric charge on DNA and histones is

(A) both positive
(B) both negative
(C) negative and positive, respectively
(D) zero
Answer:
(C) negative and positive, respectively

Explanation :
DMA consists of a nitrogenous base, pentose .sugar and a phosphate group. DNA has negative charge due to the presence of phosphate group. Histones are rich in the basic amino acids lysine and arginine, which carry positive charges in their side chains. Therefore, histones are positively charged.

MCQ Of Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Class 12 Question 6.

The first genetic material could be

(A) protein
(B) carbohydrates
(C) DNA
(D) RNA
Answer:
(D) RNA

Explanation :
RNA was the first genetic material. There is now enough evidence to suggest hat essential life processes e.g., metabolism, translation and splicing, evolved from RNA. RNA is used to act as a genetic material as well as a catalyst (there are some important s ” biochemical reactions in living systems that are catalysed by RNA catalysis and not by protein enzymes). But, RNA being a catalyst was y reactive and hence unstable. Therefore, DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more stable. DNA being double-stranded and having complementary strand, further resists changes by evolving a process of repair.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Molecular Basis Of Inheritance MCQ Class 12 Question 7.

With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes

(A) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
(B) exons appear, but introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
(C) introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature RNA.
(D) both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA.
Answer:
(B) exons appear, but introns do not appear in the mature RNA.

Explanation :
In eukaryotes, the mono-cistron- ic structural genes have interrupted coding sequences, that is, the genes in eukaryotes are Split. The coding sequences or expressed se-quences are defined as exons. These sequences (exons) appear in mature or processed RNA, thus exons are interrupted by introns or inter-vening sequences which do not appear in ma-ture or processed RNA.

Biology Class 12 Chapter 6 MCQ Question 8.

Which of the following are the functions of RNA?

(A) It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesising polypeptides.
(B) It carries amino acids to ribosomes.
(C) It is a constituent component of ribosomes.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation :
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA), messenger RNA (mRNA) and transfer RNA “(tRNA) are major classes of RNAs that are ” involved in gene expression. rRNAs bind protein molecules and give rise to ribosomes. RNA carries coded information for translation into polypeptide formation. RNA – is also called soluble or adaptor RNA and carries amino acids to mRNA during protein synthesis.

MCQ Of Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 Question 9.

While analyzing the DNA of an organism a total number of 5,386 nucleotides were found out of which the proportion of different bases were: Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%, and Thymine = 17%. Considering Chargaff’s rule, it can be concluded that

(A) it is a double-stranded circular DNA.
(B) it is single-stranded DNA.
(C) it is a double-stranded linear DNA.
(D) no conclusion can be drawn.
Answer:
(B) it is single-stranded DNA.

Explanation :
According to Chargaff’s rules of base pairing, (i) The amount of adenine is always equal to the amount of thymine and the amount of guanine is always equal to the amount of cytosine, (ii) Adenine is joined to thymine with two hydrogen bonds and guanine is joined to cytosine by three hydrogen bonds, (iii) The ratio of adenine to thymine and that of guanine to cytosine is always equal to one, that is., AG: TC = 1. In the given or¬ganism, the DNA is not following the Chargaff’s rule, hence it can be concluded that it is a single-stranded DNA, not double-stranded.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Question 10.

If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5′-ATGAATG-3′, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be

(A) 5′-AUGAAUG-3′
(B) 5′-UACUUAC-3′
(C) 5′-CAUUCAU-3’
(D) 5′-GUAAGUA-3′
Answer:
(A) 5′-AUGAAUG-3′

Explanation :
5′-ATGAATG-3′ (coding strand) I ! 5′-TAC ITAC-3′ (complementary strand) 5-AU- I l GAAUG-3′ (RNA)

Class 12 Molecular Basis Of Inheritance MCQ Question 11.

One of the following is true with respect to AUG.

(A) It codes for methionine only.
(B) It is also an initiation codon.
(C) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Polypeptide synthesis is signaled by two initiation codons – commonly AUG or methionine codon and rarely GUG or valine codon. AUG serves two main functions. It signals the start of translation and codes for the incorporation of the methionine into the growing polypeptide chain. AUG codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Biology Class 12 Chapter 6 MCQs Question 12.

The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at

(A) 3′ (downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit.
(B) 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit.
(C) the 5′ (upstream) end.
(D) the 3′ (downstream) end.
Answer:
(B) 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit.

Explanation :
The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at 5’ (up-stream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit. The promoter is the binding site for RNA polymerase for initiation of transcription.

Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 13.

Which of the following steps in transcription is catalyzed by RNA polymerase?

(A) Initiation
(B) Elongation
(C) Termination
(D) All of the above 0
Answer:
(B) Elongation

Explanation :
The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase helps in transcription by catalyzing the polymerization in only one direction (i.e., 5′-3′).

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

MCQ On Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Class 12 Question 14.

In some viruses, DNA is synthesized by using RNA as a template. Such a DNA is called

(A) A-DNA
(B) B-DNA
(C) cDNA
(D) rDNA
Answer:
(C) cDNA

Explanation :
In some viruses, like retro-virus- (e.g., HIV), an en/yme called reverse Iranscriptase is used to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template. This process is termed reverse transcription.

Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 MCQ Question 15.

To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to

(A) the smaller ribosomal subunit.
(B) the larger ribosomal subunit.
(C) the whole ribosome.
(D) No such specificity exists.
Answer:
(A) the smaller ribosomal subunit.

Explanation :
The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins. In its inactive state, it exists as two subunits, a large subunit, and a small subunit. When the smaller subunit encounters the mRNA, the process of translation of the mRNA to protein begins.

MCQ Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 Question 16.

Control of gene expression takes place at the level of

(A) DNA-replication
(B) transcription
(C) translation
(D) None of the above 0
Answer:
(B) transcription

Explanation :
Gene expression, which results in a in the formation of a polypeptide, can be regulated at several levels. In eukaryotes, the regulation occurs at the transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript), processing level (regulation of splicing), and transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm, and translational level. While in prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for control of gene expression.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

MCQ Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Class 12 Question 17.

Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that interact with RNA polymerase and affect its role in transcription. Which of the following statements is correct about regulatory protein?

(A) They only increase expression.
(B) They only decrease expression.
(C) They interact with RNA polymerase, but do not affect the expression.
(D) They can act both as activators and as repressors.
Answer:
(D) They can act both as activators and as repressors.

Explanation:
Regulatory proteins, the accessory proteins that interact with RNA polymerase and affect its role in transcription. It controls the functions of structural genes and are called regulatory genes. Promoters, terminators, operators and repressdr are some important reg-ulatory genes. They can act both as activators and as repressors.

Class 12 Biology Ch 6 MCQ Question 18.

The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes

(A) the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region.
(B) the promoter and the terminator gene.
(C) the structural gene and the terminator regions.
(D) the structural gene only.
Answer:
(C) the structural gene and the terminator regions.

Explanation :
The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes the structural gene and the terminator regions. RNA polymerase consists of a number of subunits, including a sigma factor (transcription factor) that catalyses the process of transcription. It recognises the start signals or promoter region on DNA which then along with RNA polymerase binds to promoter to initiate the transcription. In eukaryotes there are three RNA polymerases I, II and III. The process includes a proofreading mechanism.

Class 12 Biology Molecular Basis Of Inheritance MCQ Question 19.

Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino add?

(A) GUU, GCU – Alanine
(B) UAG, UGA – stop
(C) AUG, ACG – Start/methionine
(D) UUA, UCA – Leudne
Answer:
(B) UAG, UGA – stop

Explanation :
Three codons UAG, UAA, and GGA are the stop or termination codons.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

MCQs On Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Class 12 Question 20.

Which one of the following is not a part of the transcription unit in DNA?

(A) The inducer
(B) A terminator
(C) A promoter
(D) The structural gene
Answer:
(A) The inducer

Explanation :
The segment of DNA that takes part in transcription is called transcription unit, It has three components. (i) a promoter (ii) the If structural gene and (iii) a terminator.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Chapter 6 Class 12 Biology MCQ Question 1.

Assertion (A): In RNA uracil is present at the place of thymine.
Reason (R): 5-methyl uracil is chemical name of thymine.

Answer:
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation:
Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. Since the half-life of the RNA molecule shorter uracil would suffice to achieve the function of RNA. On the other hand, DNA remains same until cell dies/divides. The functions of thymine and uracil are the same.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Chargaff s rule is applicable to RNA.
Reason (R): RNA contains deoxyribose sugar in them.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation :
According to Chargaffs is rule £ the DNA helix contain equal molar ratio of A & T,G & C …… This does not apply to RNA, as uracil is present in RNA instead of DNA. RNA contains ribose sugar in them.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The enzyme involved in the continuous replication of PNA strand is DNA polymerase.
Reason (R): The polarity of the template strand is 3’→5′.

Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Explanation :
DNA polymerase en/.vme is responsible for synthesizing DNA, they add nucleotides one by one to the growing DNA chain, adding those which are complementary to the template. The template strand has polarh ity in 3’→5′.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are non-functional.
Reason (R): Methyl guanosine triphosphate is attached to 5’ – end of hnRNA.

Answer:
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation:
Primary transcripts contain both introns and exons, in which introns are non-coding parts.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 5.

Assertion (A): In Griffith’s experiment, the dead R strain bacteria were capable of causing the transformation of the live S-strain bacteria.
Reason(R): The S-strain is non-virulent strain.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation :
It was concluded by the transforming principle, that bacteria is transferred from heat-killed S-strain to live R-strain which is nonvirulent.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): Termination codons or stop codons are UAA, UAG, and UGA.
Reason (R): Stop codons represent termination of translation.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
Both assertion and reason are true, slop codons are also known as non-sense code for an amino add. If they are not present, then protein synthesis will continue and result in defective protein.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Aminoacylation is an essential step for the synthesis of protein.
Reason (R): It is the process of adding an activated amino add to the acceptor arm of a transfer RNA.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
Both assertion and reason true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A). This attachment is an es-sential step in the synthesis of protein. Bril attachment is brought by aminoacvI-t-RNA synthetase.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Genetic codes are commaless.
Reason (R): Genetic codes are overlapping.

Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Explanation:
Genetic codes arc commaless, bul ‘t they are not overlapping as no single base lake part in the formation of more than one codon, therefore Lhey are non-overlapping.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): The newly formed mRNA has same sequence as the coding strand of transcriptional unit with uracil present at place of thymine.
Reason (R): The rule of complementarity guides the formation of DNA and RNA.

Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation :
The sequence of mRNA will be identical to the given sequence of coding strands except for the presence of uracil in place of thymine in mRNA.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting is applied in paternity testing in case of disputes.
Reason(R): It employs the principle of polymorphism in DNA sequences as polymorphisms are inheritable from parent to child.

Answer:
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Case-based MCQs

Attempt any four sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following and answer the question Question l to Question S. given below:
The lac operon consists of a regulation gene and three structural genes. The lactose acts as inducer. In the presence of an Inducer such as lactose, the repressor is in inactivated during the interaction. This allows RNA polymerase access to the promoter and transcription proceeds. The repressor is synthesized which in turn binds with the operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon.

Question 1.

When the process of Lac operon is blocked by a repressor it represents:

(A) Positive regulation
(B) Negative regulation
(C) sometimes positive sometimes negative
(D) both positive and negative regulation
Answer:
(B) Negative regulation

Explanation :
The lac operon regulation can be in both negative and positive ways. It is a negative control system because expression is typically blocked by an active repressor (the lac repressor) that turns off transcription. And when CAP (catabolite gene activating protein) binds upstream of this operator region near the promoter and transcription increases, this is an example of a positive system.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 2.

Identify the correct sequence of the structural genes in the lac operon.

(A) lacA-lacZ-lacY
(B) lacZ-lacA-lacY
(C) lacZ-lacY-lacA
(D) lacA-lacY-lacZ
Answer:
(C) lacZ-lacY-lacA

Explanation :
The lac operon consists of structural genes, and a promoter, terminator, regulator, and operator. The three structural genes are lacZ, lacY, and lace.

Question 3.

Which of the following statement is true in reference to the lac operon process in E.coli?

(i) Galactosidase is the only enzyme produced in large quantities when lac operon is turned on
(ii) The messenger RNA in lac operon is a polycistronic mRNA

(A) Only i is correct
(B) Only ii is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) None of them are correct
Answer:
(B) Only ii is correct

Explanation :
The messenger RNA produced by transcription carries information for the synthesis of all three proteins found in all three structural genes. Hence, it is a polycistronic messenger RNA.

Question 4.

What provides a binding site to RNA polymerase?

(A) Exons
(B) Promoter
(C) Inducer
(D) Repressor
Answer:
(B) Promoter

Explanation :
Promoter helps in starting the process transcription and provides a binding site to RNA polymerase.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 5.

The lac operon of E. coli contains genes involved in lactose metabolism. It’s expressed only when lactose is (1) and glucose is (2).

(A) 1: Present, 2: Absent
(B) 1: Absent, 2: Present
(C) 1: More, 2: less
(D) 1: repressed, 2: promoted
Answer:
(A) 1: Present, 2: Absent

Explanation:
The lac operon of E. coli contains genes involved in lactose metabolism. It’s ex-pressed only when lactose is present and glucose is absent.

II. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same :
DNA, a long polymer of a deoxyribonucleotide. Altmann and these substances to be acidic hence he named nucleic acid. The basic unit of DNA is a nucleotide which has three components nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar (deoxyribose), and a phosphate group. There are two types of nitrogenous bases in DNA, Purine, and Pyrimidine. Watson and F. Crick proposed a double helix model for the structure of DNA. There are four types of DNA i.e., A, B, C, Z.

Question 1.

Which DNA form has maximum number of base pairs per turn?

(A) A-DNA
(B) B-DNA
(C) C-DNA
(D) Z-DNA.
Answer:
(D) Z-DNA.

Explanation :
Z DNA is the zigzag DNA that has maximum number of base pairs per turn. It is left-handed helix. There are 12 base pairs per turn, with a rise of 0.38 nm per base pair.

Question 2.

Which among the following does not confer stability to the helical structure of DNA?

(A) Phosphodiester bond
(B) H-bond
(C) N-glycosidic linakge
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(C) N-glycosidic linkage

Explanation :
N-glycosidic linkage in DNA is the nitrogen carbon linkage between the nitrogen of purine or pyrimidine bases and the carbon of the sugar group. This bond does not provide stability.

Question 3.

Cytidine is a :

(A) Nucleoside
(B) Nitrogen base
(C) Nucleotide
(D) Common dinucleotide in DNA and RNA.
Answer:
(A) Nucleoside

Explanation :
Cytosine (C) is a pyrimidine i.e., a nitrogenous base. A combination of a nitrogenous base (purine or pyrimidine) with a pen-tose sugar is known as a nucleoside. Thus, the combination of cytosine with ribose sugar results in the formation of a nucleoside called as cytidine.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 4.

Heaviest molecule of protoplasm is :

(A) Lipids
(B) Proteins
(C) DNA
(D) RNA.
Answer:
(C) DNA

Explanation :
The heaviest molecule in the protoplasm is DNA. DNA is a compound of very high molecular weight (over one million), it has a giant molecule made of smaller molecules linked together, but its molecular weight is variable.

Question 5.

Phosphoric acid is found in :

(A) Nucleic acids
(B) NAD and FAD
(C) Phosphoprotein
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Explanation:
Phosphoric acid. H3P04 provides the unit that holds the various segments of the nucleic acid chain to each other. It is present in all the three I;e: Nucleic acids; NAD and FAD; Phosphoprotein.

III. The DNA replication is semi-conservative is proved by an experiment conducted by Meselson and Stahl in 1958. To perform their experiment they use heavy nitrogen (15N) in E. coli. The process of replication in living cells requires a set of enzymes. The main enzyme is DNA-dependent DNA polymerase. The DNA-A-dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization only in one direction, that is 5→3′. In eukaryotes, the replication of DNA takes place at the S-phase of the cell cycle.

Question 1.

Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive but not radioactive.

(A) DNA, protein
(B) Protein, DNA
(C) RNA, Nucleoside
(D) mRNA, Protein
Answer:
(A) DNA, protein

Explanation:
DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Hershey and Chase (1952). They worked with viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages. They worked to discover whether it was protein or DNA from the virus that entered the bacteria. They grew some viruses on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus and some others on a medium that contained sulfur. Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus but protein does not. Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contained radioactive protein but not radioactive DNA because DNA does not contain sulfur.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 2.

During DNA replication, the breaking of H-bonds is performed by:

(A) Topoisomerase
(B) Gyrase
(C) Helicases
(D) None.
Answer:
(C) Helicases

Explanation :
DNA replication starts with un-winding of DNA duplexes which are held together by hydrogen bonds. Helicases move along the double-stranded DNA and separate the strands by breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs.

Question 3.

How many types of DNA polymerases are associated with eukaryotic cell?

(A) Three
(B) Six
(C) Five
(D) One.
Answer:
(C) Five

Explanation :
5 types of DNA polymerases are associated with a eukaryotic cells.

Question 4.

DNA replication is :

(A) Semi-conservative, continuous
(B) Semi-continuous, conservative
(C) Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous
(D) Conservative.
Answer:
(C) Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous

Explanation :
DNA replication is said to be semi-conservative because of the process of replication, where the resulting double helix is composed of both an old strand and a new strand. … The two resulting double helices, which each contain one “old” strand and one “new” strand of DNA, are identical to the initial double helix.
Due to this reason, replication occurs continuously on one strand and discontinuously on the other strand. This is known as the semi-discontinuous mode of replication. Every new DNA molecule that is formed has a new and an old strand of the DNA. Thus, during DNA replication, entirely new DNA copies are not generated.

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Feminism is a bidirectional flow of information.
Reason (R): It requires DNA dependent RNA polymerase enzyme.

Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Explanation :
Teminism is popularly known as 1 reverse transcription, i.c., DNA can be synthe sized by RNA.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Ray Optics MCQ Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 1.

The direction of ray of light incident on a concave mirror is shown by PQ while directions in which the ray would travel after reflection is shown by four rays marked 1,2,3 and 4 (Figure). Which of the four rays correctly shows the direction of reflected ray?

Ray Optics MCQ Class 12 Chapter 9
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer:
(B) 2

Explanation:
Incidence ray PQ is coming through principal focus F so it must be parallel to principal axis, that is, either 2 or 4. As it is a concave mirror so, ray cannot go behind the mirror so ray (4) is discarded. So, ray 2 is the reflected ray that verifies answer

Ray Optics Class 12 MCQ Chapter 9 Question 2.

A car is moving with at a constant speed of 60 km fr1 on a straight road. Looking at the rear-view mirror, the driver finds that the car following him is at a distance of 100 m and is approaching with a speed of 5 km h1. In order to keep track of the car in the rear, the driver begins to glance alternatively at the rear and side mirror of his car after every 2 s till the other car overtakes. If the the following statement (s) is/are correct?

(A ) The speed of the car in the rear is 65 km/h.
(B) In the side mirror the car in the rear would appear to approach with a speed of 5 km fr1 to the driver of the leading car.
(C) In the rear view mirror the speed of the approaching car would appear to decrease as the distance between the cars decreases.
(D) In the side mirror, the speed of the approaching car would appear to increase as the distance between the cars decreases.
Answer:
(D) In the side mirror, the speed of the approaching car would appear to increase as the distance between the cars decreases.

Explanation:
When rear car approaches, initially it appears at rest as image is formed at focus. When car approaches nearer this speed will appear to increase.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

MCQ On Ray Optics Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 3.

When an object is placed between / and 2f of a concave mirror, the image formed is

(A) Real, diminished
(B) Real, magnified
(C) Virtual, diminished
(D) Virtual, magnified
Answer:
(B) Real, magnified

Explanation:
When an object is placed between /and 2fof a concave mirror, the image is formed beyond 2/. The image is real and magnified.

MCQ Of Ray Optics Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 4.

……………… mirror has real focus.

(A) Concave
(B) Convex
(C) Plane
(D) all of the above
Answer:
(A) Concave

Explanation:
In concave mirror, parallel rays after reflection from the mirror actually meet at a point. This point is is known is focus. Hence the focus is real.

Ray Optics Class 12 MCQs With Answers Question 5.

In two positions concave mirror produces magnified image of given object. The positions are

(A) (i) At C, (ii) at F
(B) (i) Between F and C, (ii) Between P and F
(C) (i) Beyond C, (ii) Between P and F
(D) (i) At C, (ii) between P and F
Answer:
(B) (i) Between F and C, (ii) Between P and F

Explanation:
When the object is placed between C and F in front of a concave mirror, the imager is formed beyond C. Image is magnified, real and inverted.
When the object is placed between P and F in front of a concave mirror, the image is formed behind the mirror. Image is magnified, virtual and erect.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Ray Optics MCQs Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 6.

Convex mirrors are preferred over plane mirrors as rear view mirror in automobile since

(A) the image formed is magnified.
(B) the image formed is real.
(C) the field of view is large.
(D) it is light weight.
Answer:
(C) the field of view is large.

Explanation:
Convex mirrors are preferred over plane mirrors as rear view mirror in automobile since these mirrors have larger field of view compared to plane and concave mirror.

Ray Optics MCQ Questions Pdf Class 12 Question 7.

The focal length of a concave mirror is f. An object is placed at a distance x fron the focus. The magnification is

(A ) (f + x)/f
(B) f/x
(C) x/f
(D) f/(f+x)
Answer:
(B) f/x

Explanation:
u = f + x
Using mirror formula,
l/v + 1/u = 1/f Or, 1/υ – l/(f + x) = -1/f
∴ υ = -f(f + x)/x
So, the magnification = |m| – υ/u= f/x

MCQ On Ray Optics Class 12 Pdf Question 8.

In a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance Xj from the focus. Image if formed at a distance x2 from the focus. The focal length of the mirror is

(A) x1x2.
(B) x1 + x2.
(C) x1/x2.
(D) None of these
Answer:
(D) None of these

Explanation:
u = f + x1
υ = f + x2
f = uυ/(u + υ )
or f = \(\frac{\left(f+x_{1}\right)\left(f+x_{2}\right)}{\left(f+x_{1}\right)+\left(f+x_{2}\right)}\)
0r f2 = x1x2 or f = \(\sqrt{x_{1} \dot{x}_{2}}\)

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

MCQ Ray Optics Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 9.

The phenomena involved in the reflection of radio waves by ionosphere are similar to

(A) reflection of light by a plane mirror.
(B) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage.
(C) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow.
(D) scattering of light by the particles of air.
Answer:
(B) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage.

Explanation:
Radiowaves are reflected by a layer of atmosphere called the Ionosphere, so they can reach distant parts of the Earth. The reflection of radiowaves by ionosphere is due to total internal reflection. It is the same as total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage, that is, angle of incidence is greater than critical angle.

Ionosphere is transparent optical medium and radiowave is reflected back. Reflection through transparent surface is total internal reflection so that internal reflection of radio wave takes place.

Optics Class 12 MCQ Chapter 9 Question 10.

The optical density of turpentine is higher than that of water while its mass density is lower. Figure shows a layer of turpentine floating over water in a container. For which one of the four rays incident on turpentine in Figure, the path shown is correct?

Ray Optics Class 12 MCQ Chapter 9

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer:
(B) 2

Explanation:
μA < μr > μw
As inddence ray passes from air to turpentine to water it means, from rare to denser then denser to rarer so first it bends towards normal then away from normal so the path shown is correct for ray (2).

Optics MCQ Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 11.

A short pulse of white light is inddent from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is

(A) blue.
(B) green.
(C) violet.
(D) red.
Answer:
(D) red.

Explanation:
As we know that the velodty of wave is:
υ = vλ
When light ray goes from one medium to other medium, the frequency of light remains unchanged. So, υ ∝ λ or greater the wavelength, greater the speed. And, the light of red colour is of highest wavelength and therefore of highest speed. So, after travelling through the slab, the red colour emerges first.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Ray Optics And Optical Instruments MCQ Question 12.

Therc are certain materials developed laboratories which have a negative refractive index (Figure). A ray incident from air (medium 1) into such a medium (medium 2) shall follow a path given by:

MCQ On Ray Optics Class 12 Chapter 9

Explanation:
The negative refractive index materials are those in which inddent materials are those in which inddent ray from air (medium 1) to them refract or bends differently or opposite and symmetric to normal to that of positive refractive index medium.
MCQ Of Ray Optics Class 12 Chapter 9

Optics MCQ With Answers Class 12 Question 13.

The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If the refractive index of the material of the lens be 1.5, it will

(A) act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its curved side.
(B) act as a concave lens for the objects that lie on its curved side.
(C) act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies.
(D) act as a concave lens irrespective of side on which the object lies.
Ans:
(C) act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies.

Explanation: =
As we know the relations between f, μ, R1 and R2 is known as lens maker’s formula:
\(\frac {1}{f}\) = (μ – 1)\(\left(\frac{1}{R_{1}}-\frac{1}{R_{2}}\right)\)
R1 = ∞ , R2 = -R
f = \(\frac{R}{(\mu-1)}\)

Given that
R = 20 cm,
μ = 1.5
Put the values;
f = \(\frac {1}{μ – 1}\) = \(\frac {20}{15 – 1}\) 40cm
As f > 0, it means converging nature of the So, lens act as a conv lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies.

Class 12 Physics Ray Optics MCQ Question 14.

Radius of curvature of human eye is 0.78 cm. For an object at infinity, image is formed at 3cm behind the refracting surface. The refractive index of eye is –

(A) 1.35
(B) 3
(C) 6.2
(D) I
Answer:
(A) 1.35

Explanation:
\(\frac{\mu_{2}}{v}-\frac{\mu_{1}}{u}=\frac{\mu_{2}-\mu_{1}}{R}\)
Puffing υ = 3 cm
μ1 = 1
u = ∞
R = 0.78 cm
\(\frac{\mu_{2}}{3}-\frac{1}{\infty}=\frac{\mu_{2}-1}{0.78}\)
∴ μ2 = 1.35

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 MCQ Question 15.

The relationship between angle of incidence i, prism of angle A and angle of minimum deviation for a triangular prism is

(A) A + δm = i
(B) A + δm = 2i
(C) A + δm/2 = i
(D) 2A + δm = i
Answer:
(B) A + δm = 2i

Explanation:
For refraction through prism,
i1 + i2 = 8 + A and r1 + r2 = A
For minimum deviation,
i1 = i2 = i and r1 = r2 = r
So, 2i = (A + δm)/2
A + δm = 2i

Ray Optics MCQ Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 16.

Which of the following graphs is the correct angle of incidence vs. angle of deviation graph?

Ray Optics Class 12 MCQs With Answers
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Class 12 Ray Optics MCQ Chapter 9 Question 16.

Magnifying power of a microscope depends on

(A) colour of light.
(B) focal length of objective and colour of light.
(C) focal length of eyepiece and colour of light.
(D) focal length of eyepiece and objective.
Answer:
(D) focal length of eyepiece and objective.

Explanation:
Magnification = m ∝ 1/f0fe
So, magnifying power of a microscope depends on focal length of eyepiece and objective only.

Optics MCQ Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 17.

Magnifying power of a telescope is –

(A) 1/f0fe
(B) f0/fe
(C) fe/f0
(D) f0 fe
Answer:
(B) f0/fe

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

MCQ On Optics Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 18.

If m1 and m2 be the linear magnifications of the objective and eyepiece of a compound microscope, then the magnifying power of the compound microscope is

(A) m1 + m2
(B) m1 – m2
(C) m1 x m2
(D) (m1 + m2)/2
Answer:
(C) m1 x m2

Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 MCQs Question 19.

In a compound microscope, image produced by objective is …………… and the image produced by eyepiece is ………..

(A) Real, real
(B) Virtual, virtual
(C) Real, virtual
(D) Virtual, real
Answer:
(C) Real, virtual

Question 20.

Reflecting telescope utilises ……….

(A) Convex mirror
(B) Concave mirror
(C) Plane mirror
(D) Prism
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Question 21.

The magnifying power of a telescope is M. If the focal length of the eyepiece is halved, the magnifying power will become

(A) M/2
(B) 4M
(C) M/4
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Explanation:
Magnifying power is inversely proportional to the focal length of eyepiece. So, if focal length of the eyepiece is halved, the magnification will be ZM.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 22.

You are given the following 3 lenses. Two construct an astronomical telescope which one will you used as eyepiece and which one as objective?

Ray Optics MCQs Class 12 Chapter 9
(A) L1, L2
(B) L2, L1
(C) L2, L3
(D) L3, LI
Answer:
(B) L2, L1

Explanation:
The objective should have large aperture and large focal length while eyepiece should have small aperture and small focal length.

Assertion And Reason Based MCQs (1 Mark each)

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is True

Question 1.

Assertion (A): A convex mirror cannot form real images.
Reason (R): Convex mirror converges the parallel rays that are incident on it.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Convex mirror always form virtual image. So, the assertion is true. Parallel rays incident on convex mirror do not actually meet. They get reflected in such a manner that their extension meet at a point. So, the reason is false.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): The focal length of a concave mirror is/and an object is placed at a distance x from the focus. The magnification produced by the mirror is fix.
Reason (R): magnification = size of image / size of object

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
u = f + x
Using mirror formula, l/υ + 1/u = 1/f
Or, l/υ – 1/(f + x) = -1/f
∴v = -f(f + x)/x
Magnification (m) = size of image / size of object = – υ/u
|m|= \(\frac{f(f+x)}{x} \times \frac{1}{f+x}\) = f/x
So, the assertion and reason both are true and the reason properly explains the assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 3.

Assertion (A): The mirror formula l/υ + 1/u = l/f is valid for mirrors of small aperture.
Reason (R): Laws of reflection of light is valid for only plane surface and not for large spherical surface.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
The mirror formula is derived under the consideration that the incident rays are paraxial which means that the rays lie very close to the principal axis. Hence the mirror aperture is considered to be small. So, the assertion is true. Laws of reflection is valid for any surface plane or spherical. Hence the reason is false.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): Air bubbles shine in water.
Reason (R): Air bubbles shine in water due to refraction of light.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Air bubbles shine in water due to total internal reflection. Total internal reflection is a special case of refraction when light passes from denser medium (water) to rarer medium (air inside the bubble) and angle of incidence is more than the critical angle. So, the reason is also true. The reason also explains the assertion properly.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): A diamond of refractive index \(\sqrt{6}\) is immersed in a liquid of refractive index \(\sqrt{3}\) . If light travels from diamond to liquid, total internal reflection will take place when angle of incidence is 30°.
Reason (R): μ = 1/sin C, where p is the refractive index of diamond with respect to the liquid

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
Refractive index of diamond with respect to the liquid is \(\sqrt{6}\)/ \(\sqrt{3}\) = \(\sqrt{2}\) So, critical angle for the diamond-liquid pair of media is sin -1(1/ \(\sqrt{2}\) ) = 45°.
For total internal reflection, angle of incidence should be greater that critical angle. Since angle of incidence is 30°, total internal reflection cannot take place. So, the assertion is false. But the reason is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 6.

Assertion (A): A double convex air bubble is formed within a glass slab. The air bubble behaves like a converging lens.
Reason (R): Refractive index of glass is more that the refractive index of air.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
Speed of light is slower in glass compared to that in air. Hence the refractive index of glass is more than that of air. So the reason is true.
When a double convex air bubble is formed within a glass slab, the refractive index of the medium of the bubble is less than the refractive index of the surrounding medium. Hence the lens will not behave like a converging lens. It will behave like a diverging lens. So, the assertion is false.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): The scattering of light while passing through a true solution is called Tyndall effect.
Reason (R): Intensity of scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of wavelength.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
When light is passed through a true solution does not occur. Scattering occurs when light is passed through a colloidal solution. So, the assertion is false. In Rayleigh scattering intensity of scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of wavelength, blue light is scattered mush more strongly than red light. Hence the reason is true.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): A convex lens of focal length 30 cm can’t be used as a simple microscope in normal setting.
Reason (R): For normal setting, the angular magnification of simple microscope is M = \(\frac {D}{f}\)

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
For normal adjustment, a 30 cm lens final image cannot form image at the near point (25 cm from the eye). So the statement is true. For image at infinity, angular magnification of simple microscope is given by M = D/f.
So, the reason is also true. But reason does not explain the assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 9.

Assertion (A): If the objective lens and the eyepiece lens of a microscope are interchanged, it works as a telescope.
Reason (R): Objective lens of telescope require large focal length and eyepiece lens require small focal length.

Answer:
(D) A is false and R is True

Explanation:
Magnification of microscope is inversely proportional to focal lengths of the objective lens and the eyepiece lens. Hence both the focal lengths are small. On the other hand, the magnification of the microscope is inversely proportional to the focal lengths of the eyepiece lens and directly proportional to the objective lens. So, the focal length of the objective lens is large and the focal length of the eyepiece lens is small. Hence, if the objective lens and the eyepiece lens of a microscope are interchanged that will not meet the criterion of the telescope. So, the reason is true. But the assertion is false.

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Convex lens behaves like a simple microscope.
Reason (R): For larger magnifying power, the focal length of the convex lens should be small.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Convex lens behaves like a simple microscope. The assertion is true. The magnifying power of a convex lens is expressed as:
For least distance of distinct vision, m = 1 + D/f
For relaxed eye, m = D/f Since / is in the denominator, for larger magnifying power, focal length should be small. So, the reason is also correct and it is the assertion.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts out of 5. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

Sparking Brilliance of Diamond:
The total internal reflection of the light is used in polishing diamonds to create a sparking brilliance. By polishing the diamond with specific cuts, it is adjusted the most of the light rays approaching the surface are incident with an angle of incidence more than critical angle. Hence, they suffer multiple reflections and ultimately come out of diamond from the top. This gives the diamond a sparking brilliance.
Ray Optics MCQ Questions Pdf Class 12

Question 1.

Light cannot easily escape a diamond without multiple internal reflections. This is because:

(A) its critical angle with reference to air is too large.
(B) its critical angle with reference to air is too small.
(C) the diamond is transparent.
(D) rays always enter at angle greater than critical angle.
Answer:
(B) its critical angle with reference to air is too small.

Explanation:
Light cannot easily escape a diamond, because its critical angle with air is too small. Most of the reflections are total and it is cut so that light can exit only in particular direction thus light is concentrated inside and making the diamond sparkle.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 2.

The critical angle for a diamond is 24.4°. Then its refractive index is:

(A) 2.42
(B) 0.413
(C) 1
(D) 1.413
Answer:
(A) 2.42

Explanation:
Refractive index = 1/ sin C
C = critical angle = 24.4
∴μ = 1/sin 24.4 = 1/0.4131 = 2.42

Question 3.

The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut diamond is that:

(A) it has low refractive index.
(B) it has high transparency.
(C) it has high refractive index.
(D) it is very hard.
Answer:
(C) it has high refractive index.

Explanation:
The brilliance of diamond is due to its too small critical angle with air. As the critical angle become smaller, value of sine of critical angle also become small and hence refractive index increases (since p= 1/sinC). So, the basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut diamond is its high refractive index.

Question 4.

A diamond is immersed in a liquid with a refractive index greater than water. Then the critical angle for total internal reflection will:

(A) depend on the nature of the liquid.
(B) decrease.
(C) remains the same.
(D) increase.
Answer:
(D) increase.

Explanation:
A diamond is immersed in a liquid with a refractive index greater than water. Then the critical angle for total interned reflection will increase. This is because, as the refractive index of outer medium increases, the refracted ray bends less away from normal. So, angle of incidence should increase more to achieve 90° angle of refraction.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 5.

The following diagram shows same diamond cut in two different shapes.

MCQ On Ray Optics Class 12 Pdf
The brilliance of diamond in the second diamond will be:
(A) less than the first.
(B) greater than first.
(C) same as first.
(D) will depend on the intensity of light.
Answer:
(A) less than the first.

Explanation:
The brilliance of diamond in the second diamond will be less than the first since in the second case, no total internal reflection has taken place.

II. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

Photometry:
The measurement of light as perceived by human eye is called photometry. Photometry is measurement of a physiological phenomenon, being the stimulus of light as received by the human eye, transmitted by the optic nerves and analysed by the brain. The main physical quantities in photometry are (i) the luminous intensity of the source, (ii) the luminous flux or flow of light from the source and (iii) illuminance of the surface. The SI unit of luminous intensity (I) is candela (cd).

The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given direction, of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency 540 x 1012 Hz and that has a radiant intensity in that direction of 1/683 watt per steradian. If a light source emits one candela of luminous intensity into a solid angle of one steradian, the total luminous flux emitted into that solid angle is one lumen (lm). A standard 100 watt incandescent light bulb emits approximately 1700 lumens.

Question 1.

What is photometry?

(A) Measurement of light as perceived by human eye
(B) Measurement of number of photons emerging from a light source
(C) Measurement of electrons emitted by photosensitive surface
(D) Measurement of photosensitivity
Answer:
(A) Measurement of light as perceived by human eye

Explanation:
The measurement of light as perceived by human eye is called photometry.

Question 2.

Light received by human eye is analysed by:

(A) retina
(B) brain
(C) optic nerve
(D) nervous system
Answer:
(B) brain

Explanation:
Light received by the human eye, transmitted by the optic nerves and analysed by the brain.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 3.

The SI unit of luminous intensity is:

(A) Dioptre
(B) Steradian
(C) Candela
(D) Lumen
Answer:
(C) Candela

Explanation:
The SI unit of luminous intensity is candela (cd).

Question 4.

Unit of luminous flux is:

(A) Candela
(B) Steradian
(C) Nit
(D) Lumen
Answer:
(D) Lumen

Explanation:
The total luminous flux emitted into a solid angle is one lumen (lm).

Question 5.

A standard 100 watt incandescent light bulb emits approximately:

(A) 1700 Lumen
(B) 700 Lumen
(C) 1200 Lumen
(D) 1000 Lumen
Answer:
(A) 1700 Lumen

Explanation:
A standard 100 watt incandescent light bulb emits approximately 1700 lumens.

III. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

Optical Fibre:
Optical fibre works on the principle of total internal reflection. Light rays can be used to transmit a huge amount of data, but there is a problem here – the light rays travel in straight lines. So unless we have a long straight wire without any bends at all, harnessing this advantage will be very tedious. Instead, the optical cables are designed such that they bend all the light rays’ inwards (using TIR). Light rays travel continuously, bouncing off the optical fibre walls and transmitting end to end data. It is usually made of plastic or glass.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Modes of transmission:
Single-mode fibre is used for long-distance transmission, while multi¬mode fiber is used for shorter distances. The outer cladding of these fibres needs better protection than metal wires. Although light signals do degrade over progressing distances due to absorption and scattering. Then, optical Regenerator system is necessary to boost the signal.

Types of Optical Fibres:
The types of optical fibers depend on the refractive index, materials used, and mode of propagation of light. The classification based on the refractive index is as follows:

Step Index Fibres:
It consists of a core surrounded by the cladding, which has a single uniform index of refraction. Graded Index Fibres: The refractive index of the optical fibre decreases as the radial distance from the fibre axis increases.

Question 1.

Optical fibre works on the principle of:

(A) scattering of light.
(B) diffraction of light.
(C) total internal reflection of light.
(D) dispersion of light.
Answer:
(C) total internal reflection of light.

Explanation:
The optical fibre works on the principle of total internal reflection.

Question 2.

For long-distance transmission:

(A) single mode fibre is used.
(B) multi-mode fibre is used.
(C) both single mode and multi-mode are used.
(D) any one of single mode or multi-mode may be used.
Answer:
(A) single mode fibre is used.

Explanation:
Single-mode fibre is used for long-distance transmission, while multi-mode fibre is used for shorter distances.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 3.

Optical fibre is made of:

(A) copper
(B) semiconductor
(C) plastic or glass
(D) superconductors
Answer:
(C) plastic or glass

Explanation:
Optical fibre is usually made of plastic or glass, so that light rays can travel continuously, bouncing off the optical fibre walls and can be transmitting end to end data.

Question 4.

In graded index optical fibre:

(A) the refractive index of the optical fibre increases as the radial distance from the fibre axis increases.
(B) the refractive index of the optical fibre decreases as the radial distance from the fibre axis increases.
(C) the refractive index of the optical fibre remains same throughout.
(D) inner side of cladding is mirrored to ensure reflection.
Answer:
(B) the refractive index of the optical fibre decreases as the radial distance from the fibre axis increases.

Explanation:
In graded index fibres, the refractive index of the optical fibre decreases as the radial distance from the fibre axis increases.

Question 5.

Light signal through optical fibre may degrade due to:

(A) refraction.
(B) refraction and reflection.
(C) diffraction and scattering.
(D) scattering and absorption.
Answer:
(D) scattering and absorption.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Explanation:
Light signals do degrade over progressing distances due to absorption and scattering.

IV. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

Negative Refractive Index:
One of the most fundamental phenomena in optics is refraction. When a beam of light crosses the interface between two different materials, its path is altered depending on the difference in the refractive indices of the materials. The greater the difference, the greater the refraction of the beam. For all known naturally occurring materials the refractive index assumes only positive values. But does this have to be the case? In 1967, Soviet physicist Victor Veselago hypothesized that a material with a negative refractive index could exist without violating any of the laws of physics.

Veselago predicted that this remarkable material would exhibit a wide variety of new optical phenomena. However, until recently no one had found such a material and Veselago’s ideas had remained untested. Recently, meta-material samples are being tested for negative refractive index. But the experiments show significant losses and this could be an intrinsic property of negative- index materials. Snell’s law is satisfied for the materials having a negative refractive index, but the direction of the refracted light ray is ‘mirror-imaged’ about the normal to the surface.

MCQ Ray Optics Class 12 Chapter 9

There will be an interesting difference in image formation if a vessel is filled with “negative water” having refractive index – 1.33 instead of regular water having refractive index 1.33. Say, there is a fish in a vessel filled with negative water. The position of the fish is such that the observer cannot see it due to normal refraction since the refracted ray does not reach to his eye.
But due to negative refraction, he will be able to see it since the refracted ray now reaches his eye.
Optics Class 12 MCQ Chapter 9

Question 1.

Who hypothesized that a material may have negative refractive index ?

(A) Joseph Von Fraunhofer
(B) Augustin-Jean Fresnel
(C) Thomas Moore
(D) Victor Veselago
Answer:
(D) Victor Veselago

Explanation:
In 1967, Soviet physicist Victor Veselago hypothesized that a material with a negative refractive index could exist without violating any of the laws of physics.

Question 2.

Is Snell’s law applicable for negative refraction ?

(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Unpredictable
(D) Yes, only for normal incidence
Answer:
(A) Yes

Explanation:
Snell’s law is satisfied for the materials having a negative refractive index, but the direction of the refracted light ray is ‘mirror-imaged’ about the normal to the surface.

Question 3.

A ray in incident on normal glass and “negative glass” at an angle 60°. If the magnitude of angle of refraction in normal glass is 45° then, what will be the magnitude of angle of refraction in the “negative glass”?

(A) Less than 45°
(B) More than 45°
(C) 45°
(D) Unpredictable
Answer:
(C) 45°

Explanation:
The magnitude of angle of refraction in normal “negative glass’ will also be 45°, but the direction of the refracted light ray is ‘mirror-imaged’ about the normal to the surface.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 4.

When the angle of incidence will be equal to angle of refraction for material having negative refraction index?

(A) When angle of incidence = 90°
(B) When angle of incidence = 0°
(C) It will vary from material to material
(D) It is never possible
Answer:
(B) When angle of incidence = 0°

Explanation:
Like normal refraction, for material having negative refraction index also when the angle of incidence is equal to 0°, then angle of refraction will be equal to angle of incidence i.e. 0°.

Question 5.

Which of the following is the intrinsic property of negative-index materials?

(A) Significant gain of light energy due to refraction
(B) No loss of light energy due to refraction
(C) Significant loss of light energy due to refraction
(D) Loss of energy due to refraction in intermittent
Answer:
(C) Significant loss of light energy due to refraction

Explanation:
Recently, meta-material samples are being tested for negative refractive index. The experiments show significant losses and this is an intrinsic property of negative index materials.

V. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

First Surface Mirror:
Normally we use back surface mirrors. These are considered low precision mirrors because they actually have two reflecting surfaces. The first reflecting surface is the initial surface on the pane of glass where a small percentage of light is reflected off the surface. The second reflecting surface is the aluminium coating where a high percentage of light is reflected off the surface.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments - 13
This dual reflection effect of a low precision mirror causes a loss of contrast and image distortion that is undesirable in high precision applications like rear projection systems, scanners and reflecting telescopes. In these cases good image quality is highly preferred, and this is where a front surface mirror is desired for clarity and single image reflection. First surface mirrors are quite common in professional optics.

However, compared with back surface mirrors, they have the important disadvantage of being substantially more sensitive. The front surface may be touched, and a metal coating on the front surface is substantially more sensitive than a bare glass surface. For example, fingerprints can easily cause oxidation of the metal.. Also, moisture or aggressive gases may cause oxidation of the mirror coating.

Question 1.

Precision of back surface mirrors is:

(A) high.
(B) low.
(C) depends on intensity of light.
(D) similar to first surface mirror.
Answer:
(B) low.

Explanation:
Normally, we use back surface mirrors. These are considered low precision mirrors because they actually have two reflecting surfaces.

Question 2.

Light incident on back surface mirror suffers:

(A) two reflections.
(B) one reflection.
(C) two reflections and two refractions.
(D) one refraction and one reflection.
Answer:
(C) two reflections and two refractions.

Explanation:
This dual reflection and refraction effect of a low precision, mirror causes a loss of contrast and image distortion.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments - 14

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Question 3.

In professional optics:

(A) first surface mirrors are used.
(B) back surface mirrors are used.
(C) both type of mirrors are used.
(D) mirrors are not used.
Answer:
(A) first surface mirrors are used.

Explanation:
First surface mirrors are quite common in professional optics.

Question 4.

The image formed of the front coated mirror:

(A) suffers astigmatism
(B) is brilliant
(C) has low contrast
(D) is a dual image
Answer:
(C) has low contrast

Explanation:
The front surface mirror produces bright, distinct and distortion-less image. No ghost image is formed.

Question 5.

The front surface coating:

(A) is susceptible to moisture.
(B) is not so sensitive.
(C) is worse than back surface coating.
(D) cannot prevent dual reflection.
Answer:
(A) is susceptible to moisture.

Explanation:
The front surface mirror is substantially more sensitive than a bare glass surface. For example, fingerprints can easily cause oxidation of the metaL Also, moisture or aggressive gases may cause oxidation of die mirror coating.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Principles of Inheritance and Variation Class 12 MCQ Questions With Answers

Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 MCQ Question 1.

The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by:

(A) test cross
(B) dihybrid cross
(C) pedigree analysis
(D) back cross.
Answer:
(A) test cross

Explanation :
In the least crossing, an organism showing a dominant phenotype whose phenotype is to be determined (Whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for that trait) is crossed with a recessive parent.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Principle Of Inheritance And Variation MCQ Class 12 Question 2.

F2 Generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1: 2 :1. It represents a case of:

(A) Co-dominance
(B) Dihybrid cross.
(C) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
(D) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
Answer:
(C) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance

Explanation :
Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance shows both genotypic and phenotypic ratio as same (1: 2:1).

Chapter 5 Biology Class 12 MCQs Question 3.

Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched.

(A) Starch synthesis in pea: Multiple alleles
(B) ABO blood grouping: Co-dominance
(C) Flower colour in Snapdragon: Incomplete dominance
(D) T.H. Morgan: Linkage
Answer:
(A) Starch synthesis in pea: Multiple alleles

Explanation :
Starch synthesis in pea seed is controlled by one gene which has two alleles (B and b). Pleiotropy is shown by B gene.

Principles Of Inheritance And Variation Class 12 MCQ Question 4.

A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. What would be the genotypes of both the parents?

(A) TT and Tt
(B) Tt and Tt
(C) TT and TT
(D) Tt and tt
Answer:
(B) Tt and Tt

Explanation :
The genotypes of both the parents are Tt and Tt. Refer the given cross between true-breeding, tall plants and true-breeding dwarf plants.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 MCQ
When true-breeding plants were crossed to each other, this is called a parental cross and offspring comprise the first filial or Fx – generation. When the members of the F1 – generation were crossed, this produced the F2 generation or second filial generation. A cross between true-breeding tall and dwarf plants of the parent generation yield phenotypically tall plants. The cross between TT and Tt is called back cross, which results into two homozygous and two heterozygous dominant gametes. The cross between Tt and tt is called test cross f which results into 1:1 ratio of gametes.

Principles Of Inheritance And Variation MCQ Class 12 Question 5.

Person having genotype IAIB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of

(A) pleiotropy.
(B) co-dominance.
(C) segregation.
(D) incomplete dominance.
Answer:
(B) co-dominance.

Explanation :
ABO blood grouping in humans is an example of co-dominance. ABO blood groups are controlled by gene I. Gene I has three alleles IA, IB, and P. When IA, and IB are present together; both express equally and produce the surface antigens A and B, whereas is the recessive allele and does not produce any antigen. Pleiotropy referred the genetic effect of a single gene on multiple phenotypic traits. Incomplete dominance does not completely dominate another allele. Segregation is the separation of alleles during the process of gametogenesis. This is the basis of reappearance of recessive characters in F2 generation.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Question 6.

Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the

(A) non-homologous chromosomes.
(B) homologous chromosomes.
(C) extranuclear genetic element.
(D) same chromosome.
Answer:
(A) non-homologous chromosomes.

Explanation :
Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the non-homologous chromosome. According to law of independent assortment when two or more characteristics are inherited, individual hereditary factors assort independently of one another during gamete production, giving different characters an equal opportunity of occurring together. It can be illustrated by the dihybrid cross (a cross between two true-breeding parents) that express different traits for two characteristics. When the genes are on separate chromosomes, the two alleles of one gene (A and a) will segregate into gametes independently of the two alleles of the other gene (B and b). Equal numbers of four different gametes will form AB, aB, Ab, ab. But if the two genes are on the same chromosome, then they will be linked and will segregate together during meiosis, producing only two kinds of gametes. Homologous chromosomes are essentially similar in size but not identical. Each carries the same genetic information in same order but the alleles for each trait may not be the same. Extranuclear genetic elements (also called as plasmids) shows the pattern of maternal inheritance.
Principle Of Inheritance And Variation MCQ Class 12

Homologous chromosomes are essentially sim¬ilar in size but not identical. Each carries the same genetic information in same order but the alleles for each trait may not be the same. Extranuclear genetic elements (also called as plasmids) shows the pattern of maternal inheritance.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

MCQ Of Chapter 5 Biology Class 12 Question 7.

Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called

(A) multiple allelism.
(B) mosaicism.
(C) pleiotropy.
(D) polygeny.
Answer:
(C) pleiotropy.

Explanation :
Pleiotropy is a phenomenon in which a single gene affects multiple effects. Sometimes, one trait will be very evident and others will be less evident, e.g., a gene for white eye in Drosophila also affect the shape of organs in male responsible for sperm storage as well as other structures. Similarly, sickle-cell anaemic individuals suffer from a number of problems, all of which are pleiotropic effects of the sickle-cell alleles. Multiple allelism is the state of having more than two alternative contrasting characters controlled by multiple alleles at a single genetic locus, e.g. ABO blood group. Mosaicism describes the occurrence of cells that differ in their genetic component from other cells of the body. Polygeny refers to a single characteristic that is controlled by more than two genes, (it is also known as multifactorial inheritance).

Biology Class 12 Chapter 5 MCQs Question 8.

All genes located on the same chromosome

(A) form different groups depending upon their relative distance.
(B) form one linkage group.
(C) will not from any linkage groups.
(D) form interactive groups that affect the phenotype.
Answer:
(B) form one linkage group.

Explanation :
All the genes, present on a particular chromosome form a linkage group. The number of linkage group of a species corresponds to the total number of different chromosomes of that species. It is not simply the number of chromosomes in haploid set. For example, in human male, there are 22 pairs of autosomes and X and Y sex chromosomes, that is, 24 linkage groups and in females = 22 pairs autosomes + 2X-chromosomes, that is, 23 linkage groups.

Chapter 5 Class 12 Biology MCQ Question 9.

Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows

(A) a direct relationship.
(B) an inverse relationship.
(C) a parallel relationship.
(D) no relationship.
Answer:
(A) a direct relationship.

Explanation :
Crossing over separates genes away from each other. So, the physical distance between the two genes and percentage of recombination shows a direct relationship. More the distance between two genes, more is the frequency of crossing over between them and hence more is the percentage of recombination.

Chapter 5 MCQ Class 12 Biology Question 10.

Which of the following will not result in variations among siblings?

(A) Independent assortment of genes
(B) Crossing over
(C) Linkage
(D) Mutation
Answer:
(C) Linkage

Explanation :
Linkage may be defined as the relationship between genes on the same chromosome that causes them to be inherited together, therefore it will not result in variations among siblings. In linkage, there is a tendency to maintain the parental gene recombination except for occasional crossovers. Independent assortment of genes means that allele pairs separate during the formation of gametes independently; it means that traits are transmitted to offspring independently of one another. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes. It is one of the final phases of genetic recombination. Mutation is the sudden inheritable change in genetic material of an organism which transfers to next generation.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 5 Question 11.

Females with Turner’s syndrome have

(A) less developed breasts
(B) rudimentary ovaries
(C) small sized uterus
(D) all of these.
Answer:
(D) all of these.

Explanation :
Features of females with Turner’s syndrome; Ovaries are rudimentary, lack of other secondary sexual characters, dwarf, mentally retarded.

Biology Class 12 Chapter 5 MCQ Question 12.

ZZ / ZW type of sex determination is seen in

(A) Platypus
(B) snails.
(C) cockroach
(D) peacock
Answer:
(D) peacock

Explanation :
ZZ/ ZW type of sex determination is seen in birds, reptiles and fish. Thus, peacock shows ZZ/ZW sex determination type. In this type, female has heteromorphic (ZW) sex chromosomes and the male has homomorphic (ZZ) sex chromosomes. In Platypus the sex determination is of XX-XY type in which both; male and females has ten sex chromosome each. The male has XY, XY, XY, XY, XY and female has XX, XX, XX, XX, XX. In snails, the sex determination is environmentally induced, while in cockroaches it is of XX-XO types. In this type Y-chromosome is absent. In this the presence puffs unpaired X-chromosomes determines the masculine sex.

Class 12 Biology Ch 5 MCQ Question 13.

In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 chromosomes and the others have 18 chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome-bearing organisms are

(A) males and females, respectively.
(B) females and males, respectively.
(C) all males.
(D) all females.
Answer:
(A) males and females, respectively.

Explanation:
In certain taxon of insects, 17 and ii 18 chromosome bearing organisms are males s and females respectively. Because insects have XO type of sex determination method. In certain insects, such as cockroach, and some – roundworms lack Y-chromosomes so that the male has only one sex chromosome, that is, ‘X’ besides autosomes. This condition in the male is designated as XO (where O means absence; of one sex chromosome) and in the female it is xx.

Inheritance And Variation Class 12 MCQ Question 14.

What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development, Gynaecomastia, and is sterile?

(A) Turner’s syndrome
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Down’s syndrome
(D) Edward syndrome
Answer:
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Explanation :
Klinefelter’s syndrome is the genetic disorder which is caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY chromosome but only the son will be affected by the disease.

Class 12 Biology Principles Of Inheritance And Variation MCQ Question 15.

A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X-chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

(A) only daughters
(B) both sons and daughters
(C) only grandchildren
(D) only sons
Answer:
(B) both sons and daughters

Explanation :
Here is this case, the woman is a carrier. Both the son and daughter will inherit the X-chromosome but only the son will be diseased.

MCQs Of Chapter 5 Biology Class 12 Question 16.

A human female with Turner’s syndrome.

(A) has 45 chromosomes with XO.
(B) has, one additional X chromosome
(C) exhibits male characters.
(D) is afch&to produce children with normal husband
Answer:
(A) has 45 chromosomes with XO.

Explanation :
It is a disorder caused due to the absence of one of the X-chromosomes, i.e., 45 with XO.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Class 12 Biology MCQ Chapter 5 Question 17.

In XO type of sex determination

(A) males produce two different types of gametes
(B) females produce two different types of gametes
(C) males produce gametes with Y chromosome.
(D) females produce gametes with Y chromosome
Answer:
(A) males produce two different types of gametes

Explanation :
XO mechanism shows male heterogamety. Males produce two different types of gametes.

Question 18.

In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets codes for valine?

(A) GGG
(B) AAG
(C) GAA
(D) GUG
Answer:
(D) GUG

Explanation :
Sickle-cell anaemia is a recessive autosomal gene disorder. This disease is controlled by a single pair of allele HbA and HbS. It is caused due to inheritance of a defective allele coding for beta globulin. It results in the transformation of HbA into HbS in which glutamic acid (Glu) is replaced by valine (Val) at sixth position in each of two beta chains of haemoglobin. This substitution occurs due to the single base substitution of the beta-globin gene from GAG (Glu) to GUG (Val). Whereas, the other codes GGG, AAG. GAA to- not codes for valine.

Question 19.

If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is

(A) autosomal dominant.
(B) autosomal recessive.
(C) sex-linked dominant.
(D) sex-linked recessive.
Answer:
(D) sex-linked recessive.

Explanation :
If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is sex-linked recessive disease. Most sex-linked (X-linked) conditions are recessive. Because, in this condition, a person with two X-chromosomes (females) must have a change or mutation whereas in a person with one X-chromosomes (males), only one copy of a gene must have a mutation. A female with a mutation in one copy of a gene on the X-chromosome is said to be a ‘carrier’ for an X-linked condition. For X-linked recessive disorders, an unaffected carrier mother who has a mutation in a gene on the X-chromosome can transmit either the X-chromosome with this mutation or a normal X-chromosome to her children (as shown below in cross).

Chapter 5 Biology Class 12 MCQs
Autosomal dominant inheritance refers to the pattern of inheritance of a condition directly or indirectly due to a dominant faulty gene located on autosome. Autosomal recessive inheritance is caused directly or indirectly due ) to presence of recessive faulty gene copy on autosome. Sex-linked dominant is a rare trait, caused by a single abnormal gene on the X-chromosome.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 20.

Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 and 2n ± 2 are called

(A) aneuploidy.
(B) polyploidy.
(C) allopolyploidy.
(D) monosomy.
Answer:
(A) aneuploidy.

Explanation :
Aneuploidy is a condition in which a person has one or a few more number of chromosomes above or below the number of the normal chromosome. In this case, organism either gains or loses one or more chromosomes but not a complete set. Polyploidy is defined as the addition of entire set of chromosomes. It can be triploidy (3n), tetraploidy (4n), pentaploid (5n), etc. Allopolyploidy is the polyploidy in which chromosome sets are nonhomologous. In other words, we can say that the allopolyploids axe derived from a stock which is heterozygous. Monosomy is the process in which one chromosome is removed from diploid set of chromosomes (2n-l).

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Haemophilia is an autosomal disorder.
Reason (R): A haemophilic father can never pass the gene for haemophilia to his son.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation :
Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder in which X-chromosome has the haemophilic gene. A haemophilic father can never pass the gene for haemophilia to his son.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Sickle cell anaemia is an example of point mutation.
Reason (R): It is caused by addition or deletion of nitrogenous bases in the DNA or mRNA.

Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Explanation:
Sickle-cell anaemia is caused bv a single point mutation in the beta haemoglobin gene which converts a GAG, codon into GUG, which code for valine amino. acid rather than glutamic acid.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Grasshopper shows male heterogamety.
Reason (R): In grasshopper, males have one X only (XO type).

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
Explanation: Male grasshopper shows XO gametes wliile female grasshopper shows XX.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): The offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters shows only one character without any blending.
Reason (R): The factor controlling any character is discrete and independent.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation :
According to law of segregation or law of purity of gametes, factors or alleles of a pair segregate from each other during gamete formation, such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors and do not show any blending.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Cross of Fj individual with a recessive homozygous parent is test cross.
Reason (R): No recessive individuals are obtained in the monohybrid test cross progeny.

Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

Explanation :
In the monohybrid test cross progeny both heterozygous and recessive individuals are obtained in 1:1 ratio.

Question 6.

Assertion (A): ABO blood group in human beings is an example of multiple alleles.
Reason (R): It has three alleles for gene 1 i.e. IA, IB, i.

(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation :
Due to three different types of allele IA, IB, i in blood group, it shows multiple allelism.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): A cross between a red flower¬bearing plant and a white flower-bearing plant of Antirrhinum is a case of incomplete dominance.
Reason (R): This type of cross produces all plants having pink flowers.

Explanation :
The cross between white and red flower of Antirrhinum shows pink colour in the offspring plant i.e., neither white or red is completely dominant.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Crossing of F2 hybrid with the recessive parent is known as test cross.
Reason (R): Test cross helps to determine the unknown genotype by crossing it with the recessive parent.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation:
Crossing F1 with recessive parents will may inherit recessive genotypic characters as dominant characters in their offspring.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): The frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher in females than that in males.
Reason (R): In females, if only one X-chromosome of female possess allele for colour blind character she becomes the colour blind.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation: Colour blindness is X-linked sex inheritance. The frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher in males than that in the females because males have only one X chromosome therefore they develop colour blindness when their sole X- chromosome has the allele for it. Thus, males are more prone to colour blindness while females are carriers. For becoming colour blind, the female must have the allele for it in both her X-chromosomes and if only one X-chromosome of female possess allele for colour blind character she becomes the carrier for this characteristic.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 10.

Assertion (A): The chances of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases if the age of the mother is between 20 to 25.
Reason (R): The chances of having a child with Downs syndrome increases with the age of the mother because age adversely affects meiotic chromosome behaviour.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
Down’s syndrome increases if the age of the mother exceeds forty years because age adversely affects meiotic chromosome behaviour. Meiosis in the egg cells is not completed, until after fertilization. During this long gap (till meiosis is not completed) egg cells are arrested in prophase and chromosomes are unpaired. The greater the time they remain unpaired greater the chance for unpairing and chromosome non-disjunction.

Case-Based MCQs
Attempt any four sub-parts from each question. Each question carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same :
Down syndrome (sometimes called Down’s syndrome) is a condition in which a child is born with an extra copy of their 21st chromosome hence its other name, trisomy 21. The affected individual mental retarded, short statured with small round, head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth, Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.

Question 1.

The number of chromosomes a child with Down syndrome has is

(A) 45
(B) 46
(C) 47
(D) 48
Answer:
(C) 47

Explanation :
The affected person inherited with one extra copy of 21st chromosome that forms trisomy condition.

Question 2.

Down syndrome is

(A) Sex-linked
(B) Chromosomal
(C) dominant
(D) recessive
Answer:
(B) Chromosomal

Explanation:
Down syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder which can be inherited through normal parents in the child.

Question 3.

One of these traits is seen in a person with Down syndrome

(A) Upward slant eye
(B) Baldness
(C) Short stature
(D) Longneck
Answer:
(C) Short stature

Explanation :
The person affected with Down syndrome has symptoms like mental retarded, short-statured with small round, head, furrowed tongue etc.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 4.

Down Syndrome is an extra copy which chromosome

(A) 22nd chromosome
(B) 21st chromosome
(C) 45th chromosome
(D) 47th chromosome
Answer:
(B) 21st chromosome

Explanation :
Down Syndrome is due to extra copy of 21st chromosome forming trisomy condition.

Question 5.

Down syndrome is caused due to

(A) bacterial infection
(B) a chromosomal abnormality lack of oxygen supply to the brain during birth
(C) Viral infection
(D) a chromosomal abnormality
Answer:
(D) a chromosomal abnormality

Explanation :
Down syndrome is due to autosomal chromosome abnormality.

II. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same :
Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder where the body produces abnormal haemoglobin called haemoglobins. Red blood cells are normally flexible and round, but when the haemoglobin is defective, blood cells take on a “sickle” or crescent shape. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by mutations in a gene called HBB.
It is an inherited blood disorder that occurs if both the maternal and paternal copies of the HBB gene are defective. In other words, if an individual receives just one copy of the defective HBB gene, either from mother or father, then the individual has no sickle cell anaemia but has what is called “sickle cell trait”. People with sickle cell trait usually do not have any symptoms or problems but they can pass the mutated gene onto their children. Three inheritance scenarios can lead to a child having sickle cell anaemia :
→ Both parents have sickle cell trait
→ One parent has sickle cell anaemia and the other has sickle cell trait
→ Both parents have sickle cell anaemia

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 1.

Sickle cell anaemia is a/an ———— disease.

(A) X linked
(B) autosomal dominant
(C) autosomal recessive
(D) Y linked
Answer:
(C) autosomal recessive

Explanation :
Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disease, meaning that it only occurs if both the maternal and paternal copies of the HBB gene are defective.

Question 2.

If both parents have sickle cell trait, then there is ————- of the child having sickle cell anaemia.

(A) 25 % risk
(B) 50 % risk
(C) 75% risk
(D) No risk
Answer:
(A) 25 % risk

Explanation :
If both parents have sickle cell traits, there is a 25% chance with each pregnancy that the baby will have sickle cell anaemia. A child with sickle cell anaemia appears normal at birth.

Question 3.

If both parents have sickle cell trait, then there is ———- of the child having sickle cell trait.

(A) 25 % risk
(B) 50 % risk
(C) 75% risk
(D) No risk
Answer:
(B) 50 % risk

Explanation :
If both parents have sickle cell trait, there is a 50% chance with each pregnancy that The baby will have sickle cell trait, A child with sickle cell anemia appears normal at birth.

Question 4.

If one parent has sickle cell anaemia and the other has sickle cell trait, there is ——– that their children will have sickle cell anaemia and will have sickle cell trait.

(A) 25 % risk, 75% risk
(B) 50 % risk, 50% risk
(C) 75% risk, 25% risk
(D) No risk
Answer:
(B) 50 % risk, 50% risk

Explanation :
If one parent has sickle cell disease and one parent has sickle cell trait, there is a 50% chance that their children will be born with sickle cell disease. It is equally likely that any given child will get two HbA genes and be : completely unaffected.

Question 5
Principles Of Inheritance And Variation Class 12 MCQ

The following statements are drawn as conclusions from the above data (Kenya).

I. Patients with SCD (Sickle Cell Disease) are less likely to be infected with malaria.
II. Patients with SCD (Sickle Cell Disease) are more likely to be infected with malaria.
III. Over the years the percentage of people infected with malaria has been decreasing.
IV. Year 2000 saw the largest percentage difference between malaria patients with and without SCD. Choose from below the correct alternative.

(a) only I is true
(b) I and IV are true
(c) III and II are true
(d) I and III are true
Answer:
(d) I and III are true

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Explanation :
Patients with SCD (Sickle Cell Disease) are less likely to be infected with malaria. Several studies suggested lhal, in one way or another, sickle haemoglobin might get in the way of the Plasmodium parasite infecting red blood cells, reducing the number of parasites that actually infect the host and thus conferring some protection against the disease year 2000 saw the largest percentage difference between malaria patients with and without SCD.

III. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same :
Mutation is sudden, discontinuous variation in genotype of an organism due to a change in its chromosomes and genes. Variation in DNA is a result of mutation. It is of three types: Gene mutation, chromosomal aberrations and gametic mutation. Gametic mutation is a change in chromosome number that brings effect on the phenotype, it is of two types – aneuploidy and euploidy. Mutation can be artificially produced by certain agents called mutagen. There are two major types of mutagens: physical and chemical mutagen.

Question 1.

Aneuploidy which occurs due to loss of a complete homologous pair of chromosomes is :

(A) History
(B) Nullisomy
(C) Tetrasomy
(D) Euploidy
Answer:
(B) Nullisomy

Explanation:
Nullisomy the loss of both pairs of homologous chromosomes; individuals are called nullisomic and their chromosomal composition is 2N-2.

Question 2.

Substitution of a purine with another purine is known as ———- :

(A) Transversion
(B) Inversion
(C) Transition
(D) Translocation
Answer:
(C) Transition

Explanation :
When a purine base is replaced by another purine and pyrimidine by another pyrimidine, it is transition.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 3.

Which is the main category of mutation?

(A) Genetic mutation
(B) Somatic mutation
(C) Heterosis
(D) None of these.
Answer:
(A) Genetic mutation

Explanation :
Mutation is a change of the nucleotide sequence of the genome of an organism. It is a sudden inheritable change. A gene mutation is a permanent change in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene. It can occur in all type of cells even in virus and extrachromosomal plasmids.

Question 4.

Change in a sequence of nucleotides in DNA is known as

(A) Translation
(B) Recombination
(C) Mutation
(D) Transcription.
Answer:
(C) Mutation

Explanation :
Change in a sequence of nucleotides in DNA is known as mutation. A mutation involves a change in the sequence of nucleotides in a nucleic acid molecule.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Question 5.

Give one word for the following :
Type of mutation that arises due to change in a single base pair of DNA.

(A) Point mutation
(B) Somatic mutation
(C) Deletion
(D) Insertion
Answer:
(A) Point mutation

Explanation :
Point mutations refer to changes in the sequence of DNA bases and include substitutions, insertions, and deletions of one or more bases.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 Question 1.

A linearly polarized electromagnetic wave given as E = E0cos (kz-ωt) is incident normally on a perfectly reflecting infinite wall at z = a. Assuming that the material of the wall is optically inactive, the reflected wave will be given as

(A) Er = – E0\(\hat{i}\) cos (kz – ωt)
(B) Er = E0 \(\hat{i}\) cos (kz + ωt)
(C) Er = – E0 \(\hat{i}\) cos (kz + ωt)
(D) Er = E0 \(\hat{i}\) sin (kz – ωt)
Answer:
(B) Er = E0 \(\hat{i}\) cos (kz + ωt)

Explanation:
The phase of a wave changes by 180° or n radian after got reflected from a denser medium. But the type of waves remains identical. Therefore, for the reflected wave, we have
\(\hat{z}\) = \(\hat{-z}\), \(\hat{i}\) = \(\hat{-i}\) and additional phase of π in the incident wave. Incident electromagnetic wave.
Then,
E = E0(\(\hat{-i}\)) cos (kz – ωt)
Therefore, the reflected electromagnetic wave is given as:
Er = E0(\(\hat{i}\))cos[K(-z) – ωt + π]
[∴\(\hat{z}\) = \(\hat{-z}\) and \(\hat{i}\) = \(\hat{-i}\)]
= -E0 \(\hat{i}\) cos [π – (kz – ωt)]
= -E0 \(\hat{i}\) [-cos{(kz – ωt)}]
= E0 \(\hat{i}\) cos (kz – ωt)

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 MCQ Chapter 8 Question 2.

Light with an energy flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface has an area of 30 cm2, the total momentum delivered (for complete absorption) during 30 minutes is –

(A) 36 x 10-5 kg m/s.
(B) 36 x 10-4 kg m/s.
(C) 108 x 104kg m/s.
(D) 1.08 x 107 kg m/s.
Answer:
(B) 36 x 10-4 kg m/s.

Explanation:
Energy flux, ø = 20 W/cm2
Area A= 30 cm2,
time t = 30 x 60 sec
U = Total energy falling in t sec = Energy flux x Area x time = ø At
U= 20 x 30 x 30 x 60
Momentum of the incident light = \(\frac{u}{c}=\frac{20 \times 30 \times 30 \times 60}{3 \times 10^{8}}\) = 36 x 10-4kg-ms-1
As no reflection from the surface and for complete absorption, momentum of reflected radiation is zero.
Momentum delivered to surface = Change in momentum
= Pf – Pi = 0 – 36 x 10-4 kgm/s
= – 36 x 10-4 kg m/s
(-) sign shows the direction of momentum.

Electromagnetic Waves MCQ Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 3.

The electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming from 100 W bulb at a 3 m distance is E. The electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming from 50 W bulb at the same distance is E

(A) \(\frac {E}{2}\)
(B) 2E
(C) \(\frac{E}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(D) \(\sqrt{2} \mathrm{E}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{E}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Explanation:
We know that,
MCQ On Electromagnetic Waves Class 12

Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 MCQ Question 4.

If \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) represent electric and magnetic field vectors of the electromagnetic wave, the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along

(A) –
(B) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
(C) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)
(D) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(D) \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)

Explanation:
The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is perpendicular to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) both and by right thumb rule.

Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 MCQ Chapter 8

The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is perpendicular to The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is perpendicular to both and the electric field vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) magnetic field vector B, i.e., in the direction of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). Here, electromagnetic wave is along the z-direction which is given by the cross product of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\).

MCQs On Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 Question 5.

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an EM wave is

(A) c : 1
(B) c2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1
(D) \(\sqrt{c}\) : 1
Answer:
(C) 1 : 1

ExpIanation.
Average energy by electric field E0 is Uav
Electromagnetic Waves MCQ Chapter 8 Class 12

MCQ On Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 Question 6.

An EM wave radiates outwards from a dipole antenna, with E0 as the amplitude of its electric field vector. The electric field E0 which transports significant energy from the source falls off as –

(A) \(\frac{1}{r^{3}}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
(C) \(\frac {1}{r}\)
(D) remains constant
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)

Explanation:
A diode antenna radiates the electromagnetic waves outwards. The amplitude of electric field vector (E0) which transports significant energy from the source falls inversely as the distance (r) from the antenna. As we know that electromagnetic waves are radiated from dipole antenna and radiated energy, so E ∝ = \(\frac {1}{r}\)

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Electromagnetic Waves MCQs Class 12 Question 7.

In electromagnetic waves, the phase difference between magnetic and electric field vectors is –

(A) zero
(B) π
(C) π/2
(D) π/4
Answer:
(A) zero

Explanation:
Peaks of magnetic and electric waves of electromagnetic wave form at the same time. Hence, there is no phase difference between these two waves.

Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 8.

From Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to –

(A) an electric field
(B) an induced emf
(C) a magnetic field
(D) a magnetic torque.
Answer:
(C) a magnetic field

Explanation:
A changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force (emf) and, hence, an electric field. The direction of the emf opposes the change. The third Maxwell’s equations is Faraday’s law of induction, and includes Lenz’s law.

MCQ Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 Chapter 8 Question 9.

One requires 11 eV of energy to dissociate a carbon monoxide molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms. The minimum frequency of the appropriate electromagnetic radiation to achieve the dissociation lies in

(A) visible region
(B) infrared region
(C) ultraviolet region
(D) microwave region
Answer:
(C) ultraviolet region

Explanation:
E = 11 eV = 11 x 1.6 x 10-19
h = 6.62 x 10-34 Js
E = hv
v = \(\frac {E}{h}\) = \(\frac{11 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{6.62 \times 10^{-34}}\) = \(\frac{8.8 \times 10^{-19+34}}{3.31}\)
= \(\frac {880}{331}\) x 10-15 Hz=2.65 x 1015 Hz
This frequency radiation belongs to the ultraviolet region.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

MCQ Of Electromagnetic Waves Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 10.

The phenomenon which shows quantum nature of electromagnetic radiation is

(A) Piezoelectric effect
(B) Photoelectric effect
(C) Hall effect
(D) Tyndall effect
Answer:
(B) Photoelectric effect

Explanation:
Photoelectric effect allows us to perceive the quantum nature of light and I ultimately electromagnetic radiation.

MCQ Of Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 Question 11.

The electromagnetic radiations used for water purification and eye surgery is

(A) Infrared
(B) Microwave
(C) X-rays
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Explanation:
Ultraviolet rays are used for water purification and eye surgery.

Electromagnetic Waves MCQ Class 12 Question 12.

Electromagnetic wave having frequency 5 x 1011 Hz is

(A) Ultraviolet wave
(B) Radio wave
(C) Microwave
(D) X-rays
Answer:
(C) Microwave

Explanation:
Microwave frequency ranges from 1014 to 109 Hz.

Electromagnetic Waves MCQ Questions Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 13.

Proper arrangement of Gamma rays, Microwave, IR wave and UV rays in ascending order of frequency is

(A) Gamma rays > UV rays > IR rays > Microwave
(B) Microwave > IR rays > UV rays > Gamma rays
(C) UV rays > Gamma rays > Microwave > IR rays
(D) IR rays > UV rays > Microwave > Gamma rays
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
Frequency range of Gamma rays: 1022 – 1019 Hz Frequency range of UV rays: 1017 – 1015 Hz Frequency range of IR rays: 1014 -1012Hz Frequency range of Microwave: 1013-109 Hz

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Electromagnetic Waves MCQs Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 14.

In vacuum, the physical property which remains same for microwave of wavelength 1 mm and UV radiation 1600 A is

(A) Wavelength
(B) Frequency
(C) Speed
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Speed

Explanation:
All types of electromagnetic waves travel with speed of light in vacuum.

Electromagnetic Waves MCQ Pdf Chapter 8 Question 15.

In vacuum, the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave of frequency 5 x 1019Hz is

(A) 6 x 10-12m
(B) 3 x 10-8 m
(C) 1.6 x 1011 m
(D) 15 x 1027 m
Answer:
(A) 6 x 10-12m

Explanation:
λ = v/c = \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{5 \times 10^{19}}\)= 6 x 10-12m

Electromagnetic Wave MCQ Class 12 Chapter 8 Question 16.

Which one of the following statements are correct?

(A) X -rays are suitable for radar system and aircraft navigation.
(B) Water molecules readily absorb infrared radiation and their thermal motion increases.
(C) Microwaves are produced in Coolidge tube
(D) Gamma radiations generate due to electron transitions between upper and lower energy levels of heavy element when excited by electron bombardment
Answer:
(B) Water molecules readily absorb infrared radiation and their thermal motion increases.

Explanation:
Water molecules readily absorb infrared radiation and their thermal motion increases and therefore, they heat their surroundings.

Assertion And Reason Based MCQs (1 Mark each)

Directions:
In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is true

Class 12 Physics Electromagnetic Waves MCQ Question 1.

Assertion (A): Electromagnetic radiation exerts pressure.
Reason (R): Electromagnetic waves carry momentum and energy.

Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Explanation:
Electromagnetic radiation is composed of photons which has momentum (X/h) and energy (hv). When photon is incident on a surface, its momentum changes which gives rise to radiation pressure. So, the assertion and reason both are true but the reason does not explain the assertion.

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Electromagnetic wave does not require any medium to travel.
Reason (R): Electromagnetic wave cannot travel through any medium.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Electromagnetic waves are not mechanical waves. Hence, they do not require any medium to travel. It does not mean that electromagnetic wave cannot travel through a medium. Hence the assertion is true. But the reason is false.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Dipole oscillation produce electromagnetic waves.
Reason (R): Accelerated charge produce electromagnetic waves.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
A source of electromagnetic waves is accelerating charge, since accelerated charge produces both electric and magnetic field. Again according to Maxwells’ classical theory, dipole oscillation produces electromagnetic wave, since charges are accelerated. So, assertion and reason both are true and the reason explains the assertion.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): X-ray travels with the speed of light.
Reason (R): X-ray is an e.m. wave.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Velocity of all electromagnetic I wave is 3 x 108 m/s which is the velocity of I light. X-ray is an electromagnetic wave. So, it travels with the velocity 3 x 108 m/s which is the velocity of light. So, assertion and reason both are correct and reason properly explains the assertion.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Microwaves are considered suitable for radar system.
Reason (R): Microwaves are of shorter wavelength.

Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Wavelength of microwaves ranges from 10-3 to 0.1 m. Hence, it can be bounced from any small object. Hence, it is suitable for radar system. So, the assertion and reason both are true and the assertion is properly explained by the reason.

Question 6.

Assertion(A): The Ozone layer present at the top of stratosphere is very crucial for human survival.
Reason (R): Ozone layer prevents IR radiation.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Explanation:
There is a layer present at the top of stratosphere which is known as Ozone layer. This layer prevents UV radiations, mainly coming from the Sun, to reach Earth. UV radiation is harmful for human beings. So, the assertion is true. But the reason is false.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves having the smallest wavelength.
Reason (R): Gamma rays are having the lowest frequency.

Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves having the smallest wavelength. So, the assertion is true. Relation between wavelength and frequency is v = c/λ. c is the velocity of light and same for all electromagnetic waves. For Gamma rays wavelength being smallest, frequency will be highest. So, the reason is false.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any 4 sub-parts out of 5. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

Microwave oven:
The spectrum of electromagnetic radiation contains a part known as microwaves. These waves have frequency and energy smaller than visible light and wavelength larger than it. What is the principle of a microwave oven and how does it work ? Our objective is to cook food or warm it up. All food items such as fruit, vegetables, meat,

cereals, etc., contain water as a constituent. Now, what does it mean when we say that a certain object has become warmer? When the temperature of a body rises, the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules increases and the molecules travel or vibrate or rotate with higher energies. The frequency of rotation of water molecules is about 2.45 gigahertz (GHz). If water receives microwaves of this frequency, its molecules absorb this radiation, which is equivalent to heating up water.

These molecules share this energy with neighbouring food molecules, heating up the food. One should use porcelain vessels and non metal containers in a microwave oven because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric charges. Metals may also melt from heating. The porcelain container remains unaffected and cool, because its large molecules vibrate and rotate with much smaller frequencies, and thus cannot absorb microwaves.

Hence, they do not get eaten up. Thus, the basic principle of a microwave oven is to generate microwave radiation of appropriate frequency in the working space of the oven where we keep food. This way energy is not wasted in heating up the vessel. In the conventional heating method, the vessel on the burner gets heated first and then the food inside gets heated because of transfer of energy from the vessel. In the microwave oven, on the other hand, energy is directly delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food.

Question 1.

As compared to visible light microwave has frequency and energy:

(A) more than visible light.
(B) less than visible light.
(C) equal to visible light.
(D) Frequency is less but energy is more
Answer:
(B) less than visible light.

Explanation:
Microwaves have frequency and energy smaller than visible light and I wavelength larger than it.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 2.

When the temperature of a body rises:

(A) the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules increases.
(B) the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules decreases.
(C) the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules remains same.
(D) the random motion of atoms and molecules becomes streamlined.
Answer:
(A) the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules increases.

Explanation:
When the energy of the random motion of atoms and molecules of a substance increases and the molecules travel or vibrate or rotate with higher energies, the substance becomes hot.

Question 3.

The frequency of rotation of water molecules is about:

(A) 2.45 MHz.
(B) 2.45 kHz.
(C) 2.45 GHz.
(D) 2.45 THz.
Answer:
(C) 2.45 GHz.

Explanation:
The frequency of rotation of water molecules is about 2.45 gigahertz.

Question 4.

Why should one use porcelain vessels and non¬metal containers in a microwave oven ?

(A) Because it will get too much hot.
(B) Because it may crack due to high frequency.
(C) Because it will prevent the food items to become hot.
(D) Because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric charges.
Answer:
(D) Because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric charges.

Explanation:
One should use porcelain vessels and non-metal containers in a microwave oven because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric charges. Metals may also melt from heating. The porcelain container remains unaffected and cool, because its large molecules vibrate and rotate with much smaller frequencies and thus cannot absorb microwaves. Hence, they do not get heated up.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 5.

In the microwave oven,

(A) energy is directly delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food.
(B) the vessel gets heated first, and then the food grains inside.
(C) the vessel gets heated first and then the water molecules collect heat from the body of the vessel.
(D) energy is directly delivered to the food grains.
Answer:
(A) energy is directly delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food.

Explanation:
In the conventional heating method, the vessel on the burner gets heated first and then the food inside gets heated because of transfer of energy from the vessel. In the microwave oven, on the other hand, energy is directly delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food.

I. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

Laser:
Electromagnetic radiation is a natural phenomenon found in almost all areas of daily life, from radio waves to sunlight to x-rays. Laser radiation – like all light – is also a form of electromagnetic radiation. Electromagnetic radiation that has a wavelength between 380 nm and 780 nm is visible to the human eye and is commonly referred to as light. At wavelengths longer than 780 nm, optical radiation is termed infrared (IR) and is invisible to the eye.

At wavelengths shorter than 380 nm, optical radiation is termed ultraviolet (UV) and is also invisible to the eye. The term “laser light” refers to a much broader range of the electromagnetic spectrum that just the visible spectrum, anything between 150 nm up to 11000 nm (i.e. from the UV up to the far IR). The term laser is an acronym which stands for “light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”. Einstein explained the stimulated emission.

In an atom, electron may move to higher energy level by absorbing a photon. When the electron comes back to the lower energy level it releases the same photon. This is called spontaneous emission. This may also so happen that the excited electron absorbs another photon, releases two photons and returns to the lower energy state. This is known as stimulated emission.

Laser emission is therefore a light emission whose energy is used, in lithotripsy, for targeting and ablating the stone inside human body organ. Apart from medical usage, laser is used for optical disk drive, printer, barcode reader etc.

Question 1.

What is the full form of LASER ?

(A) Light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation
(B) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
(C) Light amplification by simultaneous emission of radiation
(D) Light amplified by synchronous emission of radiation
Answer:
(B) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

Explanation:
The term laser is an acronym which stands for “light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 2.

The “stimulated emission” is the process of:

(A) release of a photon when electron comes back from higher to lower energy level.
(B) release of two photons by absorbing one photon when electron comes back from higher to lower energy level.
(C) absorption of a photon when electron moves from lower to higher energy level.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) release of two photons by absorbing one photon when electron comes back from higher to lower energy level.

Explanation:
Einstein explained the stimulated emission. In an atom, electron may move to higher energy level by absorbing a photon. When the electron comes back to the lower energy level, it releases the same photon. This is called spontaneous emission. This may also so happen that the excited electron absorbs another photon, releases two photons and returns to the lower energy state. This is known as stimulated emission.

Question 3.

What is the range of amplitude of LASER?

(A) 150 nm – 400 nm
(B) 700 nm – 11000 nm
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both the above

Explanation:
The term “laser light” refers to a much broader range of the electromagnetic spectrum that just the visible spectrum, anything between 150 nm up to 11000 nm (i.e. from the UV up to the far IR).

Question 4.

Lithotripsy is:

(A) an industrial application.
(B) a medical application.
(C) laboratory application.
(D) process control application.
Answer:
(B) a medical application.

Explanation:
Laser emission is therefore a light emission whose energy is used, in lithotripsy, for targeting and ablating the stone inside human body organ.

Question 5.

LASER is used in:

(A) optical disk drive.
(B) transmitting satellite signal.
(C) radio communication.
(D) ionization.
Answer:
(A) optical disk drive.

Explanation:
An optical disc drive (ODD) is a disc drive that uses laser light or electromagnetic waves within or near the visible light spectrum as part of the process of reading or writing data to form optical discs.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

II. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:

Ozone layer depletion:
We are all exposed to UV radiation from the sun. The sun is by far the strongest source of ultraviolet radiation. UV radiation spectrum is divided into three regions called UVA, UVB and UVC. As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, all UVC and most UVB is absorbed by ozone, water vapour, oxygen and carbon dioxide.

UVA is not filtered as significantly by the atmosphere. The three types of UV radiation are classified according to their wavelength. They differ in their biological activity and the extent to which they can penetrate the skin. The shorter the wavelength, the more harmful the UV radiation.

The UV region covers the wavelength range 100-400 nm and is divided into three bands:

  • UVA (315-400 nm)
  • UVB (280-315 nm)
  • UVC (100-280 nm).

Short-wavelength UVC is the most damaging type of UV radiation. However, it is completely filtered by the atmosphere and does not reach the earth’s surface.UV level reaching the earth changes with latitude and altitude. UV levels are higher closer to the equator. Closer to the equator the sun’s rays have a shorter distance to travel through the atmosphere and therefore harmful UV radiation absorption is less.

With increasing altitude less atmosphere is available to absorb UV radiation. With every 1000 m in altitude, UV levels increase by approximately 10%. Ozone is a particularly effective absorber of UV radiation. As the ozone layer gets thinner, the protective filter activity is progressively reduced. Consequently, the people and the environment are exposed to higher levels of UV radiation, especially UVB. Ozone depletion is caused by human-made chemicals released into the atmosphere.

Question 1.

How many bands are there in UV radiation spectrum?

(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer:
(C) 3

Explanation:
There are 3 bands in UV spectrum – UVA, UVB, UVC.
UVA (315-400 run)
UVB (280-315 run)
UVC (100-280 nm).

Question 2.

Most harmful UV radiation band is

(A) UVA
(B) UVB
(C) UVC
(D) all of them
Answer:
(C) UVC

Explanation:
The shorter the wavelength, the more harmful the UV radiation. UVC has the shortest wavelength.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Question 3.

Which UV band is not absorbed by the atmosphere?

(A) UVA
(B) UVB
(C) UVC
(D) none of them
Answer:
(A) UVA

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 6 Electromagnetic Induction

Explanation:
UVA is not filtered significantly by the atmosphere.

Question 4.

Ozone layer depletion is caused by

(A) cosmic rays.
(B) human-made chemicals released into the atmosphere.
(C) electrical spark in the atmosphere.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) human-made chemicals released into the atmosphere.

Explanation:
Ozone depletion is caused by human-made chemicals released into the atmosphere.

Question 5.

UV level is –

(A) low at equator, high at poles.
(B) low at poles, high at equator.
(C) same at pole and equator.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) low at poles, high at equator.

Explanation:
UV level is higher at the equator compared to that at poles. Closer to the equator, the Sun’s rays have a shorter distance to travel through the atmosphere and therefore, harmful UV radiation absorption is less.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ Questions With Answers

Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ Question 1.

A national-level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in

(A) 1950s.
(B) 1960s.
(C) 1980s.
(D) 1990s.
Answer:
(A) 1950s.

Explanation :
A national-level approach to building up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in India in 1950s.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 MCQ Question 2.

Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within

(A) 72 hrs of coitus.
(B) 72 hrs of ovulation.
(C) 72 hrs af menstruation.
(D) 72 hrs of implantation.
Answer:
(A) 72 hrs of coitus.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Explanation:
Emergency contraceptives are fective if they are used within 72 hours of coitus. They can prevent unwanted pregnancies after unprotected sex, failed used of contraceptive devices or due to rape, etc. Two types of emergency contraceptives include emergen.

Reproductive Health MCQ Chapter 4 Question 3.

Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the

(A) suppression of gonadotropins.
(B) hyper-secretion of gonadotrophins.
(C) suppression of gametic transport.
(D) suppression of fertilisation.
Answer:
(A) suppression of gonadotropins.

Explanation :
Breast-feeding is one of the tern porary and natural contraceptive methods which reduce the secretion of oestrogen hormone and thereby suppress ovulation (release of egg) and cause amenorrhoea. The contraceptive effect of the lactational amenorrhoea method is a result of increased levels of prolactin. In this condition, production and secretion of gonadotrophin-releasing hormones are inhibited and result in low secretion of oestrogen. As ovulation cannot occur without a surge in oestrogen levels, and if a woman does not ovulate, pregnancy is prevented.

Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 MCQ Question 4.

Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.

(A) These are effective barriers for insemination.
(B) They do not interfere with coital act.
(C) These help in reducing the risk of STDs.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Explanation:
Condoms can both prevent pregnancy by stopping sperm from meeting an egg, They also protect against sexually-transmitted infections (STIs). Condoms act as a barrier method of contraception. They are made up of very thin latex (rubber) and are designed to prevent pregnancy by stopping sperm from meeting an egg. They do not interfere with coital act.

MCQ Of Reproductive Health Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 5.

The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is

(A) ovariectomy.
(B) hysterectomy.
(C) vasectomy.
(D) castration.
Answer:
(C) vasectomy.

Explanation :
Vasectomy is the correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method in male. During this procedure, vas deferens is cut down to prevent sperm from entering into the urethra and thereby preventing fertilisation. In female, this procedure is called tubectomy in which Fallopian tubes are held and blocked or severed and sealed, either of which prevents eggs from reaching the uterus for implantation. Removal of ovary; uterus and testes are called as ovariectomy, hysterectomy and cas tration respectively Vasectomy is the correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method in male. During this procedure, vas deferens is cut down to prevent sperm from entering into the urethra and thereby preventing fertilisation. In female, this procedure is called tubec tomy in which Fallopian tubes are held and blocked or severed and sealed, either of which prevents eggs from reaching the uterus for implantation. Removal of ovary uterus and testes are called as ovariectomy, hysterectomy and castration respectively.

MCQ Of Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 Question 6.

Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will

(A) cause rapid increase in growth rate.
(B) result in decline in growth rate.
(C) not cause significant change in growth rate.
(D) result in an explosive population/exp.
Answer:
(B) result in decline in growth rate.

Explanation :
Both IMR (infant mortality rate) and MMR (maternal mortality rate) are responsible for affecting the growth rate inversely It means decline in IMR, as well as MMR, will result in high population growth and vice versa. Hence, if there is an increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population mothers are there to give births to infants whereas the survival rate of infants becomes low. Therefore, in a particular population, increased IMR and decreased MMR will hinder their growth rate.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Biology Class 12 Chapter 4 MCQs Question 7.

In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count which technique will be suitable for fertilization?

(A) Intrauterine transfer
(B) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(C) Artificial Insemination
(D) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
Answer:
(C) Artificial Insemination

Explanation :
Artificial insemination (AI) is a technique in which the semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or the uterus.

Class 12 Reproductive Health MCQ Chapter 4 Question 8.

The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s:

(A) They suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms.
(B) They inhibit gametogenesis
(C) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(D) They inhibit ovulation
Answer:
(A) They suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms.

Explanation :
Cu++ in Cu releasing IUDs sup- 1 press sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperm.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Chapter 4 Class 12 Biology MCQ Question 1.

Assertion (A): Saheli is considered as an improved form of contraceptive for human females.
Reason (R): It is a non-steroidal preparation and is once a week pill.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
‘Saheli’ is considered as an improved of contractive for a human female because :
(i) It is a non-steroidal preparation.
(ii) It has lesser or no side effects.
(iii) It has a high contraceptive value.
(iv) It is once a week pill.

Biology Chapter 4 Class 12 MCQs Question 2.

Assertion (A): Lactational amenorrhoea (absence of menstruation) is a temporary contraceptive method.
Reason (R): It is based on the fact that ovulation and therefore the cycle do not occur during the period of intense lactation following parturition.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation:
‘I .actafional amenorrhoea means lack of menses resulting from breastfeeding. During this period high level of prolactin and a reduction of gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus suppress ovulation.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Biology Class 12 Chapter 4 MCQ Question 3.

Assertion (A): Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) technique is used to develop embryos in vitro.
Reason (R): In the ICSI technique, the sperm is directly injected into the ovum.

Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

Explanation :
Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. In infertility cases, artificial insemination (AI) techniques are used to cure the patient.

MCQ On Reproductive Health Class 12 Question 4.

Assertion (A): Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
Reason(R): Oral pills are very popular 19 contraceptives amongst the educated urban women.

Answer:
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation :
When the fertilization become successful then the woman becomes pregnant but it becomes terminated is some case intentionally if she is unmarried or not didn’t plan for babies in some case, abortion happens accidentally or negligence in case of pregnant mother.

MCQs Of Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 Question 5.

Assertion (A): Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the male.
Reason (R): These devices are made of rubber that is used to cover the cervical region.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation :
Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females to avoid pregnancies. These devices are made of rubber that is introduced into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry.

Case-Based MCQs

Attempt any four sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

I. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same :
The term sexually transmitted disease (STD) is applied to the group of diseases that spread by sexual contact. Some infections like hepatitis-B and HIV can spread by sharing injection needles, surgical instruments etc. Except for hepatitis-B, HIV infections, genital herpes, most of the STDs are completely curable if detected early and treated properly. Though all persons are vulnerable to these infections, their incidences are high in the age group of 15-24 years.

Reproductive Health MCQs Class 12 Question 1.

Which among the following is a venereal disease, caused by a virus, which also gets transmitted by blood contact?

(A) Gonorrhoea
(B) Syphilis
(C) Trichomoniasis
(D) Hepatitis-B.
Answer:
(D) Hepatitis-B.

Explanation :
Hepatitis B is a serious infection of he liver caused by a virus. Symptoms may include tiredness, loss of appetite, stomach discomfort and yellow skin. The virus is found in blood, semen, vaginal fluids and saliva.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Class 12 Biology Ch 4 MCQ Question 2.

Site of infection in a female suffering from Chlamydiosis?

(A) Urethra
(B) Ureters
(C) Cervix
(D) Peritoneum.
Answer:
(C) Cervix

Explanation:
The most common manifestation of chlamydia infection is infection of the cervix with inflammation (cervicitis) in women.

Class 12th Biology Chapter 4 MCQ Question 3.

AIDS is caused by HIV HTV is transmitted through:

(A) Handshake
(B) Blood contact
(C) Sexual contact
(D) Both (B) and (C).
Answer:
(D) Both (B) and (C).

Explanation :
HTV is transmitted Through the exchange of certain types of bodily fluids including blood, semen, breast milk, and vaginal fluids.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 MCQs Question 4.

Which among the following STDs is caused by a protozoan?

(A) Syphilis
(B) Gonorrhoea
(C) Chlamydiasis
(D) Trichomoniasis.
Answer:
(D) Trichomoniasis.

Explanation :
Trichomoniasis is a very common sexually transmitted disease (STD). It is caused by infection with a protozoan parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis.

Biology Ch 4 Class 12 MCQ Question 5.

Syphilis is an infectious disease caused by Treponema pallidum with 3 stages :

Column IColumn II
(a) Infections painless ulcers on the(I) First genitals
(b) Blindness, heart trouble, aortic(II) Second impairment
(c) Skin lesions, hair loss, swollen(III) Third joints

Answer:
(C) a-III, b-I, c-II

Explanation:
A person with first stage of syphi¬lis generally has a sore or sores at the original site of infection. These sores usually occur on or around the genitals. These sores are usually (but not always) firm, round, and painless. Symptoms of secondary syphilis include skin rash, swollen lymph nodes, and fever. Tertiary syphilis is associated with severe medical prob¬lems. It can affect the heart, brain, and other organs of the body.

II. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:
There are different methods for Birth control. They are contraceptives (natural or traditional), IUDs. Oral contraceptive injectables, implants and surgical methods. Surgical methods are permanent methods of family planning. The methods are operative procedures. MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is voluntary or intentional abortion, performed to end pregnancy before the completion of full term. MTP is mainly meant for removing unsustainable pregnancies.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Reproductive Health MCQ Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 1.

MTPs are considered safe up to weeks of pregnancy.

(A) 12
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 18.
Answer:
(A) 12

Explanation :
Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) or abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the foetus becomes viable. MTP is comparatively safe upto 12 weeks (the first trimester) of pregnancy. It becomes riskier after the first trimester period of pregnancy as the foetus becomes intimately associated with the maternal tissues.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Question 2.

Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?

(A) Cu-T
(B) LNG-20
(C) Multiload 375
(D) Implant.
Answer:
(B) LNG-20

Explanation :
IUDs are metal or plastic objects which are inserted by doctors in the uterus through the vagina. LNG-20 is one of the hor¬mone-releasing IUDs.

Question 3.

A sterilisation technique in females which prevent conception is:

(A) Vasectomy
(B) Condom
(C) Copper-T
(D) Tubectomy.
Answer:
(D) Tubectomy.

Explanation :
Tubectomy, also known as tubal sterilization, is a permanent method of contraception in women. It is a surgical process that blocks the fallopian tubes, thereby preventing the egg released by the ovary from reaching the uterus.

Question 4.

Which among the following chemicals is used under chemical methods for contraception?

(A) Lactic acid
(B) Citric add
(C) Boric add
(D) ll of these.
Answer:
(D) ll of these.

Explanation :
Most chemical contraceptives contain a variety of substances like spermicides (sperm-killing substances) and/or lactic and dtric add which in combination act as spermicide and thus contraceptives.

Directions: In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the corred choice as :
(A) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the current explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the corred explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
Reason (R): Castration cannot be considered as a contraception option.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation :
Surgical method blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent conception.

III. Read the following passage and answer any four questions given below:
Additional amenorrhea is also called as postpartum infertility. It occurs when a woman is not menstruating and fully breastfeeding. It is a temporary family planning method. It is a contraceptive method where the mother is informed and supported in how to use breastfeeding for contraception. As breastfeeding delays, the return of a mother’s ovulation (when the woman’s ovary releases an egg) and may make her infertile for six months or more.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Question 1.

A procedure misused for female foetid is:

(A) Amniocentesis
(B) Parturition
(C) Lactational amenorrhea
(D) Artificial insemination
Answer:
(A) Amniocentesis

Explanation: Amniocentesis is the technique of sex determination of embryo in pregnancy using amnestic flew from mothers womb.

Question 2.

Lactational amenorrhea is due to action of which hormone:

(A) Prolactin induced inhibition of GnRH
(B) Prolactin induced inhibition of FSH
(C) Oxytocin induced inhibition of GnRH
(D) Oxytocin induced inhibition of FSH
Answer:
(A) Prolactin induced inhibition of GnRH

Explanation :
Prolactin induced inhibition of GnRH

Question 3.

What is the meaning of lactational amenorrhea?

(A) Absence of menstruation
(B) Delay in ovulation during lactational period.
(C) Chances of contraception are almost nil up to six months following parturition.
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(D) All of these.

Explanation :
All of these points follow, the condition of lactational amenorrhea.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Question 4.

The only birth control that is 100% effective:

(A) Abstinence
(B) Natural family planning
(C) Birth Control pills
(D) Emergency contraceptive
Answer:
(A) Abstinence

Explanation :
Abstinence is the prevention of birth control by eliminating all the chances of fertilization of eggs with sperm.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers