MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

United Nations and its Organizations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

On the reforms of structures and processes, the biggest discussions has been on the functioning of the

(A) Security Council.
(B) Health of the infants
(C) Child mortality rate
(D) Nuclear weapon possession
Answer:
(A) Security Council.

Explanation:
The Security Council has primary responsibility, under the United Nations Charter, for the maintenance of international peace and security. It is for the Security Council to determine when and where a UN peace operation should be deployed.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 2.

The US, Japan, Germany, France, the UK, Italy, Canada and Russia are the:

(A) G8 members
(B) D8 members
(C) Cold War countries
(D) Dominating members
Answer:
(A) G8 members

Explanation:
The Group of Eight + Five (G8 + 5) was an international group that consisted of the leaders of the heads of government from the G8 nations (Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States), plus the heads of government of the five ‚eading emerging economies (Brazil, China, India, Mexico, and South Africa).

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 3.

The Secretary-General – Ban 1(1-Moon from South Korea is the …………… Secretary-General of the UN.

(A) Fifth
(B) Sixth
(C) Seventh
(D) Eighth
Answer:
(D) Eighth

Explanation:
Ban Ki-moon is a South Korean politician and diplomat who served as the eighth Secretary-General of the United Nations from January 2007 to December 2016.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 4.

Arrange the following in the chronological order:

(i) Establishment of Human Rights Council
(ii) Yalta Conference
(iii) Atlantic Charter
(iv) India join the UN
(A) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(B) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Answer:
(B) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

Explanation:
(i) The Atlantic Charter issued on 14 August 1941.
(ii) Yalta Conference held on 11 February 1945.
(iii) On 26 June 1945, India join the UN.
(iv) Human Rights Council established on 15 March 2006.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 5.

In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution related to:

(A) UN Security Council
(B) UNESCO
(C) UNICEF
(D) World Bank
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Question 6.

The non-permanent members are elected in a manner so thai they represent at the of the world.

(A) races
(B) sections
(C) continents
(D) grievances
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 7.

The non-permanent members of the Security Coundl do not have the:

(A) Veto power
(B) Election power
(C) Military power
(D) Judiciary power
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
The United Nations Security Council “Veto power” refers to the power of the five permanent members of the UN Security Council (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States) to veto any “substantive” resolution.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 8.

With the disappearance of the Soviet Union, the US stands as the only:

(A) Major power
(B) Master power
(C) Superpower
(D) Inner power
Answer:
(C) Superpower

Question 9

draws the global media’s attention to …………. human rights abuses.

(A) Human Rights Power
(B) Human Rights Watch
(C) Human Rights People
(D) Human Rights Torch
Answer:
(B) Human Rights Watch

Explanation:
Human Rights Watch defends the rights of people worldwide. It scrupulously investigate abuses, expose the facts widely, and pressure those with  power to respect rights and secure justice.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 10.

The UN is an body.

(A) indigenous
(B) imperfect
(C) impressive
(D) imperative
Answer:
(B) imperfect

Explanation:
In UN, the power of the US and its veto within the organisation split the rest of the world and to reduce opposition to its policies.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 11.

Which institution became the successor of the League of Nations?

(A) WHO
(B) UNICEF
(C) UN
(D) SAARC
Answer:
(C) UN

Explanation:
The UN was established in 1945 after the Second World War as successor to the League of Nations.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 12.

How many states signed United Nations Charter in 1945?

(A) 55
(B) 39
(C) 67
(D) 50
Answer:
(D) 50

Explanation:
The Charter was signed on 26 June 1945 by 50 countries; Filand signed on 15 October 1945.

Question 13.

What is the objective of UN?

(A) To prevent international conflict and facilitate co-operation among states.
(B) To boost the trade among the member nations.
(C) To procure the best medical help during the time of pandemic.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(A) To prevent international conflict and facilitate co-operation among states.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Explanation:
The UNs objective is to prevent international conflict and to facilitate cooperation among states. It was founded with the hope that it would act to stop the conflicts between states escalating into war and, if war broke out, to limit the extent of hostilities. The UN was intended to bring countries together to improve the prospects of sedal and economic development all over the world.

Question 14.

Which one of the following is the permanent member of UN?

(A) India
(B) China
(C) Sweden
(D) Ireland
Answer:
(B) China

Explanation:
The UN’s objective is to prevent international conflict and to facilitate cooperation among states. It was founded with the hope that it would act to stop the conflicts between states escalating into war and, if war broke out, to limit the extent of hostilities. The UN was intended to bring countries together to improve the prospects of social and economic development all over the world.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 14.

Which one of the following is the permanent member of UN?

(A) India
(B) China
(C) Sweden
(D) Ireland
Answer:
(B) China

Explanation:
The UN Security Council has five permanent members Le. China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States. the United Kingdom and the United Slates.

Question 16.

Who was the Secretary of UN in 1997?

(A) Bill Clinton
(B) General Kofi Annan
(C) George W Bush
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) General Kofi Annan

Explanation:
Kofi Annan (Ghana) held the office from January 1997 to December 2006.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 17.

When was UNESCO established?

(A) 6th November, 1946
(B) 5th November, 1945
(C) 4th November 1946
(D) 25th December 1946
Answer:
(C) 4th November 1946

Explanation:
The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) was established on 4 November 1946 which aims to contribute to the building of a culture of peace, the eradication of poverty, sustainable development and intercultural  dialogue through education, the sciences, 1 culture, communication and information.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 18.

Where is the head quarter of UNICEF?

(A) Tokyo
(B) Chicago
(C) Los Angeles
(D) New York
Answer:
(D) New York

Explanation:
UNICEF founded on 11 December, 1946 at New York, an agency responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.

Question 19.

The WHO has played a leading role in …………

(A) public health achievement
(B) economic development
(C) children’s health
(D) resolving disputes among the nations
Answer:
(A) public health achievement

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Explanation:
The World I lealth Organization (WHO) plays an essential role in the global governance of health and disease; due to its core global functions of establishing, monitoring and enforcing international norms and standards, and coordinating multiple actors toward common goals.

Question 20

Which U.N. agency concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology?

(A) The UN Committee on Disarmament
(B) International Atomic Energy Agency
(C) UN International Safeguard Committee
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) The UN Committee on Disarmament

Explanation:
The main functions of the IAEA are to: encourage and assist research, development and practical application of atomic energy for peaceful uses throughout the world; establish and administer safeguards designed to ensure that such activity assisted by the Agency is not used to further any military purpose.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 21.

“The United Nations was not created to take humanity to the heaven, but to save it from the hell.” Who made this statement?

(A) Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru
(B) Kofi Annan
(C) Ban Ki-moon
(D) Dag HammarskjoId
Answer:
(D) Dag HammarskjoId

Explanation:
By making this statement he means that International organisations are there to resolve the conflicts between countries without going to war. They can discuss contentious issues and find peaceful solutions.

Question 22.

Who is the single largest contributor to UN?

(A) China
(B) India
(C) US
(D) Europe
Answer:
(C) US

Explanation:
The United States is the largest provider of financial contributions to the United Nations, providing 22 percent of the entire UN budget in 2020.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions:
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion: Indeed, even though this is rarely noticed, most conflicts and differences are resolved without going to war.
Reason: The role of an international organization can be important in this context.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
The role of international organizations is helping to set the international agenda, mediating political bargaining, providing a place for political initiatives and acting as catalysts for the coalition-formation. They facilitate cooperation and coordination among member nations.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 2.

Assertion: International organizations only solve the disputes among the countries.
Reason: International organizations are helpful in another way. Nations can usually see that there are some things they must do together. There are issues that are so challenging that they can only be dealt with when everyone works together. Disease is an example.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
International organizations, apart from resolving disputes, can play an important role to deal with the other issues like poverty, pandemic or any natural disaster which needs international attention.

Question 3.

Assertion: The First World War encouraged the world to invest in an international organization to deal with conflict.
Reason: Many believed that such an organization would help the world to avoid war.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
After witnessing the devastating effects of the war, countries of the world were in favour of building an organization which can negotiate in the disputes and find alternative ways to resolve the issues. UN is the result of such efforts.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 4.

Assertion: With the end of the Cold War, we can see that the UN may have a slightly different role.
Reason: As the United States and its allies emerged victorious, there was concern amongst many governments and peoples that the Western countries led by the US would be so powerful that there would be no check against their wishes and desires.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
After the Cold War ended, there was a rapid increase in the number of peacekeeping operations. With a new consensus and a common sense of purpose, the Security Council authorized a total of 20 new operations between 1989 and 1994, raising the number of peacekeepers from 11,000 to 75,000.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 5.

Assertion: India supports an increase in the number of both permanent and non-permanent members of UN.
Reason: India itself also wishes to be a permanent member in a restructured UN.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
India joined the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) as a non-permanent member on January 4, beginning a tenure of two years. But New Delhi hopes that this time its presence in the UNSC will help move the organization towards the ultimate reform: a permanent seat on the UNSC for India.

Question 6.

Assertion: Despite India’s wish to be a permanent veto-wielding member of the UN, some countries question its inclusion. [K]
Reason: Neighboring Pakistan, with which India has troubled relations, is not the only country that is reluctant to see India become a permanent veto member of the Security Council.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
India desires to be a permanent member of the UN Security Council but many countries question the issue of India’s inclusion as a permanent member. It is not just Pakistan which is opposing India’s permanent membership, other countries are also questioning it on the basis of India’s nuclear weapons capability.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 7.

Assertion: Within the UN, the influence of the US is considerable. @
Reason: UN often supports US in every decision, be it even to attack any nation without the consent of UN.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
The United States of America is a charter member of the United Nations and one of five permanent members of the UN Security Council. On matters of international peace and security, the UN’s role has been central to several top U.S. foreign policy priorities. UN peacekeepers help prevent conflict and protect civilians around the globe, at a fraction of the cost of sending U.S. troops.

Question 8.

Assertion: Amnesty International is an NGO that campaigns for the protection of human rights all over the world. [R]
Reason: It promotes respect for all the human rights in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Amnesty has grown from seeking the release of political prisoners to upholding the whole spectrum of human rights. Our work protects and empowers people – from abolishing the death penalty to protecting sexual and reproductive rights, and from combating discrimination to defending refugees and migrants’ rights.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 9.

Assertion: The UN is an imperfect body, but without it the world would be worse off.
Reason: Given the growing connections and links between societies and issues-what we often call ‘interdependence’-it is hard to imagine how more than seven billion people would live together without an organization such as the UN.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The UN accomplishes this by working to prevent conflict, helping parties in conflict make peace, deploying peacekeepers, and creating the conditions to allow peace to hold and flourish. The UN Security Council has the primary responsibility for international peace and security.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 10.

Assertion: The UN is not a great balance to the US.
Reason: The UN can and has served to bring the US and the rest of the world into discussions over various issues.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 11.

Assertion: US power cannot be easily checked.
Reason: US can undermine UN legally if she has to attack any of the countries of the world.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: There is no such clause in UN that allows US to undermine UN. But we have seen in the past that US has been dominating UN, e.g., US attack on Iraq, 2003.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 12.

Assertion: The fact that the UN is physically located within the US territory gives Washington additional sources of influence.
Reason: Within the UN, the influence of the US is considerable.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations - 1

Question 1.

What does this cartoon depict?

(A) UN’s influence on the world
(B) USA’s influence on UN
(C) US Hegemony
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) USA’s influence on UN

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 2.

What have been the reasons for immense influence of US on UN?

(A) USA’s economic superiority
(B) USA’s weapon capacity
(C) UN’s head quarter is in USA and USA’s financial contribution to UN.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) UN’s head quarter is in USA and USA’s financial contribution to UN.

Explanation:
Although the United States continues to play a leadership role at the UN, it has also accumulated massive arrears in its payments to the UN, owing the world organization approximately $1 billion, far more than any other member state.

Question 3.

Why this cartoon is not relevant today?

(A) Because all the countries have their powerful organizations.
(B) US is now not as powerful as it used to as the new centres of power emerged.
(C) Iraq and Mghanistan war ha affected US economy.
(D) UN has become more powerful.
Answer:
(B) US is now not as powerful as it used to as the new centres of power emerged.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 4.

How has US dominated the world?

(A) By its trade and commerce
(B) By its technology
(C) By its advancement in space research.
(D) By dominating military, economy and cultural aspects of the other nations.
Answer:
(D) By dominating military, economy and cultural aspects of the other nations.

II. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follows:
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organisation that oversees those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level. The IMF has 189 member countries (as on 12 April 2016) but they do not enjoy an equal say. The G-7 members US (16.52%), Japan (6.15%), Germany (5.32%), France (4.03%), UK (4.03%), Italy (3.02%) and Canada (2.22%) have 41.29% of the votes. China (6.09%), India (2.64%), Russia (2.59%) Brazil (2.22%) and Saudi Arabia (2.02%) are the other major members.

The World Bank was created during the Second World War in 1944. Its activities are focused on the developing countries. It works for human development (education, health), agriculture and rural development (irrigation, rural services), environmental protection (pollution reduction, establishing and enforcing regulations), infrastructure (roads, urban regeneration, and electricity) and governance (anti-corruption, development of legal institutions).

It provides loans and grants to the member-countries. In this way, it exercises enormous influence on the economic policies of developing countries. It is often criticised for setting the economic agenda of the poorer nations, attaching stringent conditions to its loans and forcing free market reforms.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 1.

As per April 2016, how many members did IMF have?

(A) 187
(B) 189
(C) 188
(D) 190
Answer:
(B) 189

Question 2.

What is the share of Canada in IMF?

(A) 2.22%
(B) 2.23%
(C) 2.20%
(D) 3.00%
Answer:
(A) 2.22%

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 3.

When was the inception of World Bank?

(A) 1949
(B) 1950
(C) 1944
(D) 1952
Answer:
(C) 1944

Explanation:
Founded in 1944, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development-soon called the World Bank-has expanded to a closely associated group of five development institutions. Originally, its loans helped rebuild 1 countries devastated by World War II.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 4.

The World Bank is criticized for what?

(A) For not providing loans to poorer nations.
(B) For interfering in the internal issues of the developing countries.
(C) For poor guidance on economic issues.
(D) For setting the economic agenda of the poorer nations, attaching stringent conditions to its loans and forcing free market reforms.
Answer:
(D) For setting the economic agenda of the poorer nations, attaching stringent conditions to its loans and forcing free market reforms.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Explanation:
Critics of the World Bank argue that structural adjustment loans are a mechanism of forcing free market economics on countries through coercion. Countries with a debt crisis, whatever their other characteristics, agree to the bank’s package of legal and economic reforms, and the bank agrees to lend them money.

III. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations - 2

Question 1.

What is represented by the cartoon?

(A) Poverty in the third world countries
(B) Poverty in South African countries
(C) Humanitarian crisis in Darfur, Sudan.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) Humanitarian crisis in Darfur, Sudan.

Explanation:
Darfur, the western region of Sudan, has been in a state of humanitarian crisis since 2003. The current conflict in Darfur is complex, caused by a host of political, social, economic and environmental problems. Hundreds of thousands of people have died and more than 8.5 million people are affected by the crisis.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 2.

What type of crises is shown in the cartoon?

(A) Pandemic
(B) Epidemic
(C) Starvation and genocide
(D) War crisis
Answer:
(C) Starvation and genocide

Question 3.

What message is conveyed by the cartoon?

(A) That international NGOs only debated about the issue and never sent any aid
(B) Urgent requirement of help
(C) International attention over the issue
(D) Deteriorating conditions of Sudan
Answer:
(A) That international NGOs only debated about the issue and never sent any aid

Question 4.

What was the cause of Darfur crisis?

(A) War
(B) Famine
(C) Environmental degradation and violence
(D) Colonization of the country
Answer:
(C) Environmental degradation and violence

Explanation:
Conflict between pastoralists and sedentary farmers, caused in part by environmental pressures and changing land ownership patterns, was an important cause of the Darfur violence.

IV. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follows:
India has supported the restructuring of the UN on several grounds. It believes that a strengthened and revitalised UN is desirable in a changing world. India also supports an enhanced role for the UN in promoting development and cooperation among states. India believes that development should be central to the UN’s agenda as it is a vital precondition for the maintenance of international peace and security.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

One of India’s major concerns has been the composition of the Security Council, which has remained largely static while the UN General Assembly membership has expanded considerably. India considers that this has harmed the representative character of the Security Council. It also argues that an expanded Council, with more representation, will enjoy greater support in the world community. India supports an increase in the number of both permanent and non-permanent members.

Its representatives have argued that the activities of the Security Council have greatly expanded in the past few years. The success of the Security Council’s actions depends upon the political support of the international community. Any plan for restructuring of the Security Council should, therefore, be broad-based. For example, the Security Council should have more developing countries in it.

Question 1.

According to India, how the development should be if it is proposed by UN?

(A) Central to the UN’s agenda
(B) Central to the superpowers of the world
(C) Central to the developing nations
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Central to the UN’s agenda

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 2.

What has been one of India’s major concerns?

(A) Terrorism
(B) Corruption
(C) The Security Council
(D) Genera Assembly
Answer:
(C) The Security Council

Explanation:
India has said that the U.N. Security Council is finding itself unable to act effectively to address increasingly complex issues of international peace and security as it lacked inclusivity of those who need to be members of the powerful organ of the world body.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 3.

Where India suggests UN should include more countries to represent?

(A) In the Security Council
(B) In the General Assembly
(C) In UN
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) In the Security Coun

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 4.

How, according to India, should be the plan for restructuring of the Security Council?

(A) Broad based
(B) Large scale
(C) More elaborative
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Broad based

V. Read the following case and answer the questions that follows:
International Organizations (IOs) are formal institutional structures transcending national boundaries which are created by multilateral agreement among nation-states. Their purpose is to foster international cooperation in areas such as: security, law, economic, social matters and diplomacy.

IOs are subdivided between Intergovernmental Organizations (IGOs) and Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs); Intergovernmental Organizations are entities created with sufficient organizational structure and autonomy to provide formal, ongoing, multilateral processes of decision making between states, along with the capacity to execute the collective of their member (states).

NGOs are non-state voluntary organizations formed by individuals to achieve a common purpose, often oriented beyond themselves or to the public good. The development and expansion of these large representative bodies date back to the end of the World War II, where there was a need for world reconstruction through International Relations.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Since then, there has been an incremental rise of organizations that work on different socio-political and economic aspects with various and specific aims in approaching states, societies, groups and individuals.

Based on these key definitions, it is an attempt to explain how important are IOs and the extent to which they have an impact on global politics and international relations through an analysis of two main IR scholar theories namely Realism and Liberalism.

Moreover, to understand the impact of IOs, these theories will be explored and analysed through contexts of different and conflicting realist and liberalists thinkers upon their view on these institutional structures. It will also distinguish and compare the two theories and determine which is more relevant to the contemporary world international relations.

Question 1.

What is the purpose of International Organisations?

(A) To foster economic ties of the developed nations
(B) To foster international cooperation
(C) To eradicate terrorism
(D) To foster health care
Answer:
(B) To foster international cooperation

Explanation:
The role of international organizations is helping to set the international agenda, mediating political bargaining, providing a place for political initiatives and acting as catalysts for the coalition- formation. They facilitate cooperation and coordination among member nations.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 2.

What are the sub divisions of International Organisations?

(A) State-governmental and Non-governmental
(B) Private and Public
(C) Governmental and Public
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Explanation:
It is usual to distinguish between three main types of “international organization”, namely: inter-governmental organizations, international non-governmental organizations, and multinational enterprises.

Question 3.

Where can we find the development and expansion of these organisations?

(A) At the end of first world war
(B) At the beginning of second world war
(C) At the end of second world war
(D) In 2003
Answer:
(C) At the end of second world war

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 5 United Nations and its Organizations

Question 4.

Which two main IR scholars theories are mentioned here?

(A) Realism and Liberalism
(B) Capitalism and Socialism
(C) Feminism and Humanism
(D) Human Rights and Welfare
Answer:
(A) Realism and Liberalism

Explanation:
Traditionally there have been two central theories of IR: liberalism and realism. Although they have come under great challenge from other theories, they remain central to the discipline. At its height, liberalism in IR was referred to as a ‘utopian’ theory and is still recognised as such to some degree today.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

South Asia and the Contemporary World Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

The expression ‘South Asia’ usually includes:

(A) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka
(B) Bangladesh, Ukraine, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka
(C) Bangladesh, Bhutan, Utopia, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Melbourne, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(A) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 2

………….. is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.

(A) Authorization
(B) Democracy
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Socialism
Answer:
(B) Democracy

Explanation:
In 2006, a successful uprising led to restoration of democracy and reduced the king to a nominal position, from the experience of Bangladesh and Nepal, we can say that democracy is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.

Question 3.

Choose the wrong statement:

(A) Six- point proposal of Sheikh Mujibur Rehman for greater autonomy to East Pakistan.
(B) India and Pakistan conduct nuclear tests in 1998.
(C) SAFTA signed at the 7th SAARC Summit in Islamabad.
(D) India and Bangladesh sign the Farakka Treaty for sharing of the Ganga waters in 1996.
Answer:
(C) SAFTA signed at the 7th SAARC Summit in Islamabad.

Explanation: The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) is the free trade arrangement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). 11 was signed at the 12th SAARC summit in Islamabad, Pakistan.

Question 4.

Which factors contributed to Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy? [CBSE SQR 2020-21]

(A) Dominance of the military
(B) Dominance of the clergy
(C) Dominance of the landowning aristocracy
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 5

…………… gave up the office because of the popular dissatisfaction against him.

(A) Zubaida Jalal Khan
(B) General Ayub Khan
(C) Imran Khan
(D) Benazir Bhutto
Answer:
(B) General Ayub Khan

Question 6.

East Pakistan broke away to emerge as an independent country called:

(A) Bangladesh
(B) Burma
(C) West Pakistan
(D) Afghanistan
Answer:
(A) Bangladesh

Explanation:
As of 16 December 1971, Last Pakistan was separated from West Pakistan and became the newly independent state of Bangladesh.

Question 7.

In 2001, General Musharraf got himself elected as the:

(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Defence Minister
(D) Foreign Affair Minister
Answer:
(B) Prime Minister

Explanation:
After President Rafiq Tarar’s resignation, Musharraf formally appointed himself as President on 20 June 2001.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 8.

Which one of the following statements about the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is false?

(A) Politics in Sri Lanka openly favoured the Sinhalas.
(B) Interests of Tamils were neglected.
(C) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam were supported by the SAARC countries.
(D) There was no political equality in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
(C) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam were supported by the SAARC countries.

Question 9.

LTTE stands for:

(A) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(B) Lieutenant Tigers of Tamil Estate
(C) Lifelong Tigers of Tamil Estrangement
(D) Liberation Terror of Tamil Estate
Answer:
(A) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam

Explanation:
Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) was an organisation of Sri Lankan Tamils. The objective of the organisation was to establish an independent socialist Tamil state called Tamil Eelam in the North and the East provinces of the Sri Lanka.

Question 10.

Sri Lanka has retained democracy since its independence in:

(A) 1938
(B) 1948
(C) 1958
(D) 1968
Answer:
(B) 1948

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 11.

Kashmir and the Indian province of Jammu and Kashmir are divided by the:

(A) Line of Control
(B) Line of Commons
(C) Line of Connect
(D) Line of Capricorn
Answer:
(A) Line of Control

Explanation:
The line of Control (LoC) is a geographical line lying between India and Pakistan’s controlled parts of the former (under the British) Jammu and Kashmir and controlled by the army. This line is not actually a legally recognized international boundary but prevails as per de facto.

Question 12.

India’s relations with the Maldives remains:

(A) warm and cordial
(B) sour and unhappy
(C) bitter and cold
(D) unfriendly E
Answer:
(A) warm and cordial

Explanation: India and Maldives are neighbours sharing a maritime border. Relations have been friendly and close in strategic, economic and military cooperation. India continues to contribute in maintaining security on the island nation.

Question 13.

Until 1960, India-Pakistan were locked in a fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the:

(A) Ravi basin
(B) Beas basin
(C) Indus basin
(D) Satluj basin
Answer:
(C) Indus basin

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Explanation:
India and Pakistan always have had problems over the sharing of river waters. Until I960, they were locked in a fierce argument over the use of the rivers of Indus basin.

Question 14.

Which of the following countries is not included in South Asia?

(A)Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
Answer:
(C) China

Question 15.

What type of government was in Nepal till 2006?

(A) Constitutional monarchy
(B) Democratic
(C) Liberal communist
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Constitutional monarchy

Explanation:
A mass civil protest was launched by a coalition of the maoists and the political parties in 2006, which forced the king to stepped down and established a democratic republic by 2008.

Question 16.

The Maldives was a Sultanate till

(A) 1969
(B) 1978
(C) 1960
(D) 1968
Answer:
(D) 1968

Explanation:
The Maldives was a Sultanate till 1968 when it was transformed into a republic with a presidential form of government.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 17.

Which party in Maldives dominates the politics?

(A) Communist Party
(B) Liberal Democratic Party
(C) The Maldivian Democratic Party
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The Maldivian Democratic Party

Explanation:
The Maldivian Democratic Party is the first political party formed in the Republic of Maldives with a total membership of 29,277 individuals as of June 2018. It is a party with its staled goal being the promotion of human rights and democracy in the Maldives.

Question 18.

When was the democracy strengthened in Maldives?

(A) 2003
(B) 2005
(C) 2003
(D) 2001
Answer:
(B) 2005

Question 19.

When did General Ayub Khan take over the administration of Pakistan?

(A) After the adaptation of constitution
(B) After the independence of Pakistan
(C) After the first election
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) After the adaptation of constitution

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Explanation:
On October 7, when the President of Pakistan Iskander Mir/.a abrogated the Constitution of Pakistan and declared martial law, and on October 27, Mir/a himself was deposed by Gen. Ayub Khan, the Commander- in-Chief of the Pakistan Army.

Question 20.

During which General’s reign Pakistan faced Bangladesh crisis?

(A) Ayub Khan
(B) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(C) YahyaKhan
(D) Benazir Bhutto
Answer:
(C) YahyaKhan

Question 21.

When was Bhutto Government removed?

(A) 1967
(B) 1977
(C) 1987
(D) 1990
Answer:
(B) 1977

Question 22.

When was the demand of democratic constitution accepted by the king of Nepal?

(A) 1991
(B) 1990
(C) 1992
(D) 1995
Answer:
(B) 1990

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 23.

What step was taken by the king of Nepal in 2002?

(A) abolished monarchy
(B) abolished constitution
(C) abolished parliament and dismissed democracy
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) abolished parliament and dismissed democracy

Explanation:
In 2002, the King abolished the Parliament and dismissed the government, thus ending even the limited democracy that existed in Nepal.

Question 24.

Who dominated the politics in Sri Lanka after 1948?

(A) Forces that represented the interest of the majority Sinhala community.
(B) People of Tamil Sri Lanka
(C) LTTE
(D) There was no one party or community dominance at all
Answer:
(A) Forces that represented the interest of the majority Sinhala community

Question 25.

Who were Sinhala hostile to?

(A) Local people
(B) LTTE
(C) Government
(D) Tamils migrated from India
Answer:
(A) Local people

Explanation:
Sinhala were hostile to a large 1 number of ‘Iamils who had migrated from I India to Sri Lanka and settled there.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 26.

Which territory was the issue for the Indo- Pak war 1947-48 and 1965?

(A) Kashmir
(B) Parts of Gujarat
(C) It was a political rivalry
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Kashmir

Explanation:
The stale of Jammu and Kashmir, which had a predominantly Muslim population but a Hindu leader, shared borders with both India and West Pakistan. The argument over which nation would incorporate the state led to the first lndia-Pakistan War in 1947-48 and ended with L:N mediation.

Question 27.

Why did India and Pakistan fight a war in 1971?

(A) over the issue of Kashmir
(B) over the issue of Kargil
(C) over the issue of Bangladesh
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) over the issue of Bangladesh

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 28.

What is the major issue between governments of India and Bangladesh?

(A) Water dispute
(B) Industrialisation
(C) Terrorism
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Water dispute

Explanation:
Water dispute is one of the major problems between the two countries. Sharing of the water on a permanent basis is a major thrust of Bangladesh. India and Bangladesh share 54 common rivers and have an agreement on the sharing of waters of river Ganga during lean season.

Question 29.

Why does the Indian Government expresses a displeasure with Nepal at times?

(A) Because Nepal interprets the borders of India.
(B) Because of illegal smuggling of drugs from Nepal.
(C) Because of Nepal’s dry political approach.
(D) Because the warm relationship between Nepal and China.
Answer:
(D) Because the warm relationship between Nepal and China.

Explanation:
The government of India has often expressed displeasure at the warm relationship between Nepal and China and at the Nepal government’s inaction against anti- Indian elements.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 1.

Assertion: Despite the mixed record of the democratic experience, the people in all these countries share the aspiration for democracy.
Reason: A recent survey of the attitudes of the people in the five big countries of the region showed that there is widespread support for democracy in all these countries.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them as a democratic government, it is people’s own government and makes them believe that it is suitable for heir country as it is a legitimate government.

Question 2.

Assertion: Various countries in South Asia do not have the same kind of political systems.
Reason: Despite many problems and limitations, Sri Lanka and India have successfully operated a democratic system since their independence from
the British.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Despite of the frequent ups and downs in the governments of South Asia, Sri Lanka and India managed to maintain their democratic status. The path to democracy was not easy for both of them, but thev have overcome every obstacle to attain stability in democracy.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 3.

Assertion: Pakistan and Bangladesh have experienced both civilian and military rulers.
Reason: Bangladesh remained a democracy in the post-Cold War period. Pakistan began the post-Cold War period with successive democratic governments under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif respectively. But it suffered a military coup in 1999.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Both the countries have many a times experienced military as well as democratic rule. Governments in both these countries were never stable. These frequent upheavals have affected their political, social and economic development.

Question 4.

Assertion: Bhutan never became a constitutional monarchy.
Reason: Under the leadership of the king, Bhutan emerged as a multi-party democracy.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
Bhutan became a constitutional monarchy in 2008. This happened under the leadership of the king. Bhutan emerged as a multi-party democracy.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 5.

Assertion: General Ayub Khan had to give up office when there was popular dissatisfaction against his rule.
Reason: This gave way to a military takeover once again under General Yahya Khan

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Yahya Khan succeeded Ayub Khan as President when the latter resigned his office in March 1969. Hence, Pakistan was yet to see another military rule.

Question 6.

Assertion: General Pervez Musharraf removed Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif in 2001.
Reason: Pakistan continued to enjoy the status of being a democratic nation.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
After the removal of Nawaz Sharif in 2000, Pakistan no longer remained a democratic nation. General Parvez Musharraf imposed a military rule over Pakistan.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 7.

Assertion: Pakistan gave an independent status to Bangladesh without any conflict.
Reason: Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from 1947 to 1971.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
The Last Pakistan Renaissance Socielv advocated the creation of a sovereign stale in eastern British India. The violent crackdown bv the Pakistan Army led to Awami League lender Sheikh Mujibur Rahman declaring Last Pakistan’s independence as the state of Bangladesh on 26 March 1971. Thus was not without anv conflict.

Question 8.

Assertion: Bangladesh drafted its constitution declaring faith in secularism, democracy and socialism.
Reason: However, in 1975 Sheikh Mujib got the constitution amended to shift from the parliamentary to presidential form of government.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
After achieving victory, Bangladesh’s constitution, drafted in 1972, stated Four State Principles as the character of 1 the new state. They would be Nationalism, Democracy, Secularism and Socialism. I he Bangladesh parliament in 1477 amended the constitution bv changing the Four Slate Principles.

Question 9.

Assertion: Political parties and the common people of Nepal have wanted a more open and responsive system of government.
Reason: The king accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution in 1990, in the wake of a strong pro-democracy movement.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
It has seen three major movements, the Revolution of 1951, Jana Andolan and oktanlro Andolan which ultimately abolished the Shah monarchy, transitioned Nepal towards a republic and reintroduced multi-party bicameral democracy.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 10.

Assertion: Democratic governments had a short and troubled career.
Reason: India continued to enjoy democratic status since its inception. It is considered to be among the best democracies of the world.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
It depends upon the leaders of | the nation whether the country enjoys the i democratic status and for how long. In the case of Indian politics, it had newer tried curbing the fundamental rights of the people. While, in case of Pakistan, the country had faced major upheavals in the politics. It never remained a consistent democratic nation.

Question 11.

Assertion: In April 2006, there were massive, country wide, pro-democracy protests.
Reason: The largely non-violent movement was led by the Seven Party Alliance (SPA), the Maoists and social activists.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Civil War in Nepal lasted between 1996 and 2006. The Nepalese Civil war was a dispute between the Nepalese government and the Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist) whereby each side went up in arms. The I dispute was started by the communist parly  who wanted to overthrow the Nepalese Monarchy.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 12.

Assertion: The Maoist groups agreed to suspend armed struggle.
Reason: In 2008, Nepal became a democratic republic after abolishing the monarchy

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
On May 28, 2008, the newly elected Constituent Assembly declared Nepal a Federal Democratic Republic, abolishing the 240 year-old monarchy. The Constituent Assembly made significant progress to accomplish the mandate of writing a new- democratic constitution of Nepal during its first 4 years term.

Question 13.

Assertion: Sinhala were hostile to a large number of Tamils who had migrated from India to Sri Lanka and settled there. This migration continued even after independence.
Reason: The Sinhala nationalists thought that Sri Lanka should not give ‘concessions’ to the Tamils because Sri Lanka belongs to the Sinhala people only.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
The combination of religious and ethnic differences continues to create violent conflicts between the parties although they have shared Sri Lanka for innumerable centuries. Religious tension intensifies the struggle for supremacy between Tamils and Sinhalese.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 14.

Assertion: The Sri Lankan problem involves people of Indian origin, and there is considerable pressure from the Tamil people in India to the effect that the Indian government should protect the interests of the Tamils in Sri Lanka.
Reason: The government of India has from time to time tried to negotiate with the Sri Lankan government on the Tamil question.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
The Indian intervention in the Sri Lankan Civil War was the deployment of the Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri Lanka intended to perform a peacekeeping role. The original intention was the Indian Pteace Keeping Force would not be involved in large scale military operations.

Question 15.

Assertion: The Sri Lankan crisis continued to be violent.
Reason: However, international actors, particularly the Scandinavian countries such as Norway and Iceland tried to bring the warring groups back to negotiations.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Because the Sri Lankan conflict has extended throughout multiple generations, it has severely impacted children’s lives and health. The Sri Lankan Civil War destroyed many homes and displaced thousands of people, causing  immense mental stress.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question16.

Assertion: India’s conflict with Pakistan is also over strategic issues like the control of the Siachen glacier and over acquisition of arms.
Reason: India and Pakistan never come face to face on the war field over these issues.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
Since Independence in 1947, India and Pakistan have been in four wars, including one undeclared war, and many border skirmishes and military stand-offs.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World - 1

Question 1.

What does lion in the cartoon represent?

(A) Sinhala community
(B) LTTE
(C) Indian Tamils
(D) Opposition party in Sri Lankan government
Answer:
(A) Sinhala community

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 2.

What does tiger in the cartoon represent?

(A) Sinhala community
(B) Sri Lankan rebels
(C) LTTE
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) LTTE

Explanation:
The Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam was a Tamil militant organization that was based in north-eastern Sri Lanka.

Question 3.

Which country’s problem is depicted here?

(A) Tamil Nadu in India
(B) South India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Indian Tamils
Answer:
(C) Sri Lanka

Question 4.

Which external powers that helped to resolve issues?

(A) France and Canada
(B) USA and Russia
(C) Pakistan
(D) Norway and Iceland
Answer:
(D) Norway and Iceland

Explanation:
Norway helped the LTTE – which was fighting for a Tamil homeland – and the Sri Lankan government to sign a ceasefire agreement (CFA) in February 2002 with a view to ending the country’s protracted ethnic conflict.

II. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
After Pakistan framed its first constitution, General Ayub Khan took over the administration of the country and soon got himself elected. He had to give up office when there was popular dissatisfaction against his rule. This gave way to a military takeover once again under General Yahya Khan. During Yahya’s military rule, Pakistan faced the Bangladesh crisis, and after a war with India in 1971, East Pakistan broke away to emerge as an independent country called Bangladesh.

After this, an elected government under the leadership of Zulfikar Ali Bhutto came to power in Pakistan from 1971 to 1977. The Bhutto government was removed by General Zia-ul-Haq in 1977. General Zia faced a pro-democracy movement from 1982 onwards and an elected democratic government was established once again in 1988 under the leadership of Benazir Bhutto. In the period that followed, Pakistani politics centred around the competition between her party, the Pakistan People’s Party, and the Muslim League.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

This phase of elective democracy lasted till 1999 when the army stepped in again and General Pervez Musharraf removed Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif. In 2001, General Musharraf got himself elected as the President. Pakistan continued to be ruled by the army, though the army rulers have held some elections to give their rule a democratic image. Since 2008, democratically elected leaders have been ruling Pakistan.

Question 1.

Pakistan’s first constitution was enacted by the Constituent Assembly in …………..

(A) 1956
(B) 1947
(C) 1962
(D) 1952
Answer:
(A) 1956

Question 2.

How long did Zulfikar Ali Bhutto’s Government lasted?

(A) 1971 to 1988
(B) 1971 to 1976
(C) 1971 to 1977
(D) 1971 to 1973
Answer:
(C) 1971 to 1977

Explanation:
Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto was a Pakistani barrister and politician who served as the 9th Prime Minister of Pakistan from 1971 to 1977.

Question 3.

Who removed Bhutto’s govt.? When?

(A) General Zia-ul-Haq, 1977
(B) General Yahya Khan, 1990
(C) Benazir Bhutto, 1976
(D) Asif Ali zardari, 2000
Answer:
(A) General Zia-ul-Haq, 1977

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Explanation:
Operation Fair Play was the code name for the 5 July 1977 coup by Pakistan Chief of Army Staff General Muhammad Zia-ul- Haq, overthrowing the government of Prime Minister Zulfikar Ali Bhutto.

Question 4.

Why democracy isn’t stable in Pakistan?

(A) It is a communist state.
(B) Military has all the power.
(C) People are anti-democracy.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) Military has all the power.

Explanation:
Since its independence, Pakistan’s system lias fluctuated between civilian and military governments at various time throughout its political history, mainly due to political instability, civil-military conflicts, political corruption, and the periodic coup d’etals by the military establishment.

III. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
The Sri Lankan problem involves people of Indian origin, and there is considerable pressure from the Tamil people in India to the effect that the Indian government should protect the interests of the Tamils in Sri Lanka. The government of India has from time to time tried to negotiate with the Sri Lankan government on the Tamil question. But in 1987, the government of India for the first time got directly involved in the Sri Lankan Tamil question. India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and sent troops to stabilise relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamils.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Eventually, the Indian Army got into a fight with the LTTE. The presence of Indian troops was also not liked much by the Sri LankAnswer: They saw this as an attempt by India to interfere in the internal affairs of Sri Lanka. In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri Lanka without attaining its objective. The Sri Lankan crisis continued to be violent. However, international actors, particularly the Scandinavian countries such as Norway and Iceland tried to bring the warring groups back to negotiations. Finally, the armed conflict came to an end, as the LTTE was vanquished in 2009.

Question 1.

Why was there a pressure of Indian Tamils to protect and safeguard the interests of Tamil living in Sri Lanka?

(A) Because Tamils living in Sri Lanka share the same ethnicity with Indian Tamils.
(B) Because the conflict in Sri Lanka involves people of Indian origin.
(C) Because Tamils from Sri Lanka are the ancestors of Indian Tamils.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Because the conflict in Sri Lanka involves people of Indian origin.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 2.

When did government of India directly got involve in the conflict of Sri Lanka?

(A) in 1987
(B) in 1988
(C) in 1990
(D) in 1989
Answer:
(A) in 1987

Question 3.

Who posed challenge to Indian Army in Sri Lanka?

(A) Local Tamils
(B) Indian Tamils
(C) LTTE
(D) Sri Lankan government
Answer:
(C) LTTE

Question 4.

When did IPKF have to abort the objective in Sri Lanka?

(A) 1989
(B) 1990
(C) 1999
(D) 2009
Answer:
(A) 1989

IV. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
Territorial disputes over the Kashmir region sparked two of the three major Indo- Pakistani wars in 1947 and 1965, and a limited war in 1999. Although both countries have maintained a fragile cease-fire since 2003, they regularly exchange fire across the contested border, known as the Line of Control. Both sides accuse the other of violating the cease-fire and claim to be shooting in response to attacks. An up-tick in border skirmishes that began in late 2016 and continued into 2018 killed dozens and displaced thousands of civilians on both sides of the Line of Control.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

In 2014, after India’s then newly elected Prime Minister Modi invited then Pakistani Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif to attend his inauguration, there were hopes that Modi’s government would pursue meaningful peace negotiations with Pakistan. However, after a brief period of optimism, relations turned sour once more when India cancelled talks with Pakistan’s foreign minister in August 2014 after the Pakistani high commissioner in India met with Kashmiri separatist leaders.

A series of openings continued throughout 2015, including an unscheduled December meeting on the side-lines of the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris. This led to a meeting between national security advisors in Bangkok a few days later, where the Kashmir dispute was discussed. Later in December, Prime Minister Modi made a surprise visit to Lahore to meet with Prime Minister Sharif, the first visit of an Indian leader to Pakistan in more than a decade.

Question 1.

In which years, according to this paragraph, India and Pakistan were involved in face to face conflicts?

(A) 1947,1965,1999
(B) 1971,1961,1999
(C) 1991,1999,2003
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) 1947,1965,1999

Question 2.

Till which year both the countries have maintained “fragile cease fire”?

(A) 2005
(B) 2003
(C) 1999
(D) 2016
Answer:
(B) 2003

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 4 South Asia and the Contemporary World

Question 3.

Under whose leadership in India, there was a hope of peace on LOC?

(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) NarendraModi
(D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(C) NarendraModi

Question 4.

When did PM Narendra Modi make a surprise visit to Pakistan?

(A) November 2015
(B) December 2015
(C) March 2015
(D) January 2015
Answer:
(B) December 2015

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Indian Politics: Trends and Developments Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

The Congress party had won as many as 415 seats in the Lok Sabha elections in:

(A) 1984
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1992
Answer:
(A) 1984

Question 2.

Bharatiya Janata Party was formed in:

(A) 1960
(B) 1970
(C) 1980
(D) 1990
Answer:
(C) 1980

Explanation:
The aftermath of the Emergency, the Bharatiya Jana Sangh had merged into the Janata Party. After the fall of the Janata Party and its break-up, the supporters of erstwhile Jana Sangh formed the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in 1980. It embraced ‘Gandhian Socialism’ as its ideology.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 3.

VHP stands for:

(A) Vishva Hindu Parishad
(B) Vishal Hindu Parishad
(C) Vishnu Hindu Parishad
(D) Vivek Hindu Parishad
Answer:
(A) Vishva Hindu Parishad

Explanation:
The Vishva Hindu Parishad is an Indian right-wing Hindu organization based on Hindu nationalism. The VHP was founded in 1964 by M. S. Golwalkar and S. S. Apte in I collaboration with Swami Chinmayananda.

Question 4.

dentify the Prime Minister of India from amongst the following who headed the first Coalition Government in India. (OD/Delhi, Set-I, 2019-20)

(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) VP Singh
(C) MorarjiDesai
(D) H.D. Deve Gowda
Answer:
(C) MorarjiDesai

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Explanation:
After 1989 the emergence of several parties in such a way that one or two parties did not get most of the votes or seats. This also meant that no single party secured a clear majority of seats in any Lok Sabha election held since 1989 till 2014.

Question 5.

With its pre-intended goal ………….. the NDA III Government started several Socio-economic welfare schemes to make development accessible to the masses.

(A) Jai JawanJaiKisan
(B) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan, Jai Vigyan
(C) SabkaSaath, SabkaVikas
(D) Garibi Hatao
Answer:
(C) SabkaSaath, SabkaVikas

Explanation:
In 2014, BJP government changed political scenario from caste and religion-based politics to development and governance- oriented politics. With its pre-intended goal Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, the NDA HI Government started several socio-economic welfare schemes to make development and governance accessible to the masses such as – Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Jan-Dhan Yojana, Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana, Kisan Pasal Bima Yojna, Beti Padhao, Desh Badhao, Ayushman Bharat Yojana, etc.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 6.

BJP led coalition of 2014 was also called as…

(A) Majority Coalition
(B) Surplus Majority Coalition
(C) Clear Majority Coalition
(D) Democratic Coalition
Answer:
(C) Clear Majority Coalition

Explanation:
In Lok Sabha Elections, 2014 BJP- led NDA claimed a landslide victory, making huge gains across the country. As results for all 543 Lok Sabha seats were announced, the NDA looked set to win 336 seats, not only far ahead of the half-way mark but also relishing a victory whose scale they had not themselves anticipated. For, incredibly, the BJP crossed the 272 mark comfortably on its own, without allies, winning 282 seats, a gain of 166.

Question 7.

Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated in:

(A) May 1991
(B) June 1991
(C) July 1991
(D) August 1991
Answer:
(A) May 1991

Question 8.

In the elections of 1991, Congress emerged as the:

(A) single weakest party
(B) single largest party
(C) single losing party
(D) single helpless party
Answer:
(B) single largest party

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Explanation:
In the elections of 1991, Congress emerged as the single largest party. Following Rajiv Gandhi’s death, the party chose Narsimha Rao as the Prime Minister.

Question 9.

H. D. Deve Gowda was the President of ……………… Party.

(A) Janata Dal
(B) Bharitya
(C) Congress
(D) NDA
Answer:
(A) Janata Dal

Question 10.

In which elections Congress was defeated in many small regions?

(A) 1969 elections
(B) 1989 elections
(C) 1999 elections
(D) 1990 elections
Answer:
(B) 1989 elections

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 11.

How did alliance governments emerge?

(A) When the government was formed by coalition
(B) Smaller parties went into a kind of contract with each other
(C) When there was a rift in the bigger political parties
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) When the government was formed by coalition

Question 12.

Who had recommended reservation for OBCs in jobs of Central Government?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Mandal Commission
Answer:
(D) Mandal Commission

Explanation:
The Mandal Commission submitted the report to the President on December 30, 1980. It recommended 27% reservation quota for OBC resulting in total 49.5% quota in government jobs and public universities.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 13

On which concept, the BJP (Bhartiya Janta Party) started mobilizing Hindus?

(A) Hindutva
(B) One nation one religion
(C) Sanatan Dharma
(D) Regionalism
Answer:
(A) Hindutva

Explanation:
Hindutva literally means ‘Hinduness’. It basically meant that to be members of the Indian nation, everyone must not only accept India as their ‘fatherland’ (pitrubhu) but also as their holy land (punyabhu). Believers of’Hindutva’ argue that a strong nation can be built only on the basis of a strong and united national culture. They also believe that in the case of India the Hindu culture alone can provide this base.

Question 14.

When were the doors of disputed Babri Mosque’s locked?

(A) 1980s
(B) 1960s
(C) 1950s
(D) 1940s
Answer:
(D) 1940s

Explanation:
Two years after India’s independence, an idol of Lord Ram mysteriously appeared inside the Babri Masjid. Police lodged a case and the city magistrate seized and locked the property.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 15.

If the opposition wants to oust the coalition government, what it has to prove?

(A) They have to prove that the coalition is no longer in majority
(B) They have to prove the inefficiency of the government
(C) They can demand mid elections
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) They have to prove that the coalition is no longer in majority

Question 16.

Which first coalition government was able to complete its five-year tenure?

(A) UPA govt, led by Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) NDA govt, led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) NDA govt, led by Narendra Modi
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) NDA govt, led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Explanation:
The first successful coalition government in India which completed the whole 5-year term was the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) led National Democratic Alliance with Atal Bihari Vajpayee as PM from 1999 to 2004.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 1.

Assertion: One of the developments was the rise of the ‘Mandal issue’ in national politics.
Reason: This followed the decision by the new National Front government in 1990, to implement the recommendation of the Mandal Commission that jobs in Central government should be reserved for the Other Backward Classes.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 2.

Assertion: A number of events culminated in the demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya (known as Babri Masjid) in December 1992.
Reason: The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991 led to a change in leadership of the Congress party.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
The country witnessed five developments that were to make a long-lasting impact on our politics. This event symbolised and triggered various changes in the politics of the country and intensified debates about the nature of Indian nationalism and secularism.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 3.

Assertion: Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated by a Sri Lankan Tamil linked to the LTTE when he was on an election campaign tour in Tamil Nadu.
Reason: In the elections of 1991, Congress shrunk to the smallest party in the assembly.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
In the elections of 1991, Congress I emerged as the single largest party.

Question 4.

Assertion: Elections in 1989 led to the defeat of the Congress party but did not result in a majority for any other party.
Reason: Though the Congress was the largest party in the Lok Sabha, it did not have a clear majority and therefore, it decided to sit in the opposition.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
In 1989 one or two parties did not get most of the votes or seats. No single party secured a clear majority of seats in any Lok Sabha election 1989.

Question 5.
Assertion: The BJP continued to consolidate its position in the elections of 1991 and 1996.
Reason: It emerged as the largest party in the 1996 election and was invited to form the government.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 6.

Assertion: The decision of the National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’.
Reason: This period saw the emergence of many parties that sought disastrous decisions and approach for OBCs.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
This period saw the emergence of I many parties that sought better opportunities I for OBCs in education and employment.

Question 7.

Assertion: The Mandal Commission was set up to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections of Indian society and recommend ways of identifying these ‘backward classes’.
Reason: The Commission gave its recommendations in 2000.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
The Commission gave its recommendations in 1980.

Question 8.

Assertion: The BJP continued to consolidate its position in the elections of 1991 and 1996.
Reason: It emerged as the largest party in the 1996 election and was invited to form the government.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 9.

Assertion: With the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been eleven governments at the Centre. Reason: The late 1960s, various sections had been leaving the Congress fold and forming separate political parties of their own.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 10.

Assertion: The decision of the National Front Government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’.
Reason: This period saw the emergence of many parties that sought disastrous decisions and approach for OBCs.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question 11.

Assertion: The Mandal Commission, or the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC), was established in India on 1979 by the Janata Party government under Prime Minister Morarji Desai.
Reason: It was formed to identify the socially or educationally backward classes to consider the question of seat reservations and quotas for people to redress caste discrimination, and used eleven social, economic, and educational indicators to determine backwardness.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study the cartoon given below and answer the following questions:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics Trends and Developments - 1

Question 1.

Identify the leader numbered 3 in the cartoon.

(A) Rajiv Gandhi
(B) L K Advani
(C) V P Singh
(D) Devi Lai
Answer:
(B) L K Advani

Question 2.

Which was the most controversial issue of the period related to leader no. 2 as Prime Minister of India?

(A) Implementation of emergency in the country
(B) Implementation of tax reforms
(C) Implementation of Mandal Commission’s recommendation
(D) Implementation of Foreign Direct Investment
Answer:
(C) Implementation of Mandal Commission’s recommendation

Question 3.

Who is leader numbered here? What was the result of elections 1989 led by him?

(A) V P Singh. He could not form the government at all.
(B) Rajiv Gandhi. Party reduced to from majority to minority in parliament.
(C) L K Advani. Party was able to secure reasonable seats in the parliament.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) Rajiv Gandhi. Party reduced to from majority to minority in parliament.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 4.

In 1989 elections, how many seats did Congress win?

(A) 145
(B) 157
(C) 180
(D) 415
Answer:
(A) 145

I. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follows:
The nineties also saw the emergence of powerful parties and movements that represented the Dalit and backward castes (Other Backward Classes or OBCs). Many of these parties represented powerful regional assertion as well. These parties played an important role in the United Front government that came to power in 1996. The United Front was similar to the National Front of 1989 for it included Janata Dal and several regional parties. This time the BJP did not support the government. The United Front government was supported by the Congress.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

This shows how unstable the political equations were. In 1989, both the Left and the BJP supported the National Front Government because they wanted to keep the Congress out of power. In 1996, the Left continued to support the non-Congress government but this time the Congress, supported it, as both the Congress and the Left wanted to keep the BJP out of power.

Question 1.

What is the full form of OBC?

(A) Other Backward Castes
(B) Other Backward Classes
(C) Other Below Classes
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Other Backward Classes

Explanation:
Other Backward Class (OBC) is a collective term used by the Government of India to classify castes which are educationally or socially disadvantaged.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 2.

When was the United Front Government formed?

(A)1997
(B) 1998
(C) 1990
(D) 1996
Answer:
(D) 1996

Explanation:
A coalition of 13 political parties formed in India after the 1996 general elections known as United Front government. The government was headed by two Prime Ministers from Janata Dal – H. D. Deve Gowda, and Inder K. Gujral.

Question 3.

Who supported the United Front Government?

(A) BJP
(B) Communist Party of India
(C) Congress
(D) NDA
Answer:
(C) Congress

Explanation:
The United Front (UF) government-a coalition of 13 parties-came to power in 1996 as a minority government with the support of the Congress Party.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 4.

The Left and Congress continued to support United Front government:

(A) because they wanted to keep BJP out of power.
(B) because this was the most stable government of that time.
(C) because it had the great support from people.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) because they wanted to keep BJP out of power.

II. Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the questions that follows:
Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been eleven governments at the Centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did not join the government.

In this new phase, any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997, the BJP- led coalition in 1998, the NDA in 1999, and the UPA in 2004 and 2009.

However, this trend changed in 2014. Let us connect this development with what we have learnt so far. The era of coalition governments may be seen as a long-term trend resulting from relatively silent changes that were taking place over the last few decades. In the 1980s, the Janata Dal brought together a similar combination of political groups with strong support among the OBCs.

The decision of the National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of ‘Other Backward Classes’. The intense national debate for and against reservation in jobs made people from the OBC communities more aware of this identity.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 1.

Why is a coalition government formed?

(A) To give other political parties a chance
(B) Because no single party has achieved an absolute majority after an election
(C) To display the democratic spirit
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Because no single party has achieved an absolute majority after an election

Question 2.

In which years, mentioned above, did NDA have coalition governments?

(A) 1999,2003,2008
(B) 1997,1998,1999
(C) 1998,2004,2009
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) 1997,1998,1999

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 3.

In which years UPA governments were formed?

(A) 2004,2009
(B) 2000,2005
(C) 2004,2007
(D) 2009,2014
Answer:
(A) 2004,2009

Question 4.

Which government took the decision to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission?

(A) UPA 2009
(B) NDA 2014
(C) United Front Government
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) United Front Government

Explanation:
The commission submitted the report to the president on December 30,1980. It recommended 27% reservation quota for OBC resulting in total 49.5% quota in government jobs and public universities. V. R Singh, the Prime Minister at the time, tried to implement its recommendations in August 1990 which led to protests.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

IV. Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follows:
Federalism is an instrument of power sharing between independent authorities’ viz. Union and State. Coalition government is also a means of power sharing. Logically both federalism and coalition government should be complimentary to each other. As the object of sharing of power is common in both, a student of politics or law may gather the impression that coalition government is always supportive of federal form of government or constitution and sometime also gives more opportunity for expression of ideas and democratic rights to small and regional parties.

In this way it seems that coalition government promotes democracy and representative administration. But there are some grey areas also of the coalition politics like sometimes the coalition which are formed after declaration of election which give rise to ‘horse trading’ for the purpose of proving majority on the floor of house of representatives. Vajpayee led National Democratic Alliance from 1999 to 2004. While some say that coalition governments generate more inclusive policies, others believe that coalitions impose constraints on policy making.

Question 1.

What, according to the above paragraph, is an instrument of power sharing?

(A) Only Federalism
(B) Only Coalition Government
(C) Both, Federalism and Coalition Government
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both, Federalism and Coalition Government

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 2.

What is common in both (Federalism and Coalition Government)?

(A) The object of sharing of power
(B) Students movements
(C) Authoritative regime
(D) Socialist ideology
Answer:
(A) The object of sharing of power

Question 3.

What is one of the “grey areas” of coalition politics?

(A) Its too fragile
(B) Citizens are not given advantage
(C) Horse trading
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) Horse trading

Explanation:
Anti Defection Law is known as I horse trading in Indian politics.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

Question 4.

Atal Bihari Vajpayee served as the PM of India from:

(A) 2000 to 2005
(B) 2003 to 2014
(C) 1999 to 2004
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) 1999 to 2004

Explanation:
Atal Bihari Vajpayee served three terms as the Prime Minister of India, first for a term of 13 days in 1996, then for a period of 13 months from 1998 to 1999, followed by a full term from 1999 to 2004.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 16 Indian Politics: Trends and Developments

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Democratic Resurgence Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

Find the odd one out in the context of Proclamation of Emergency.

(A) The call for ‘Total Revolution’
(B) The Railway Strike of 1974
(C) The Naxalite Movement
(D) The Allahabad High Court Verdict
Answer:
(C) The Naxalite Movement

Explanation:
Among all these options, the Naxalites movement were the movement of the Marxist and Leninist agricultural workers of West Bengal, Bihar and adjoining areas which organized massive agitation against economic injustice and inequality. The communist in the Naxalbari region forcibly occupied lands belonging to the richer zamindars.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 2.

State which of the following statements about emergency is incorrect:

(A) It was declared in 1975 by Indira Gandhi.
(B) It led to the suspension of all fundamental rights.
(C) It was proclaimed due to the deteriorating economic conditions.
(D) Many opposition leaders were arrested during the Emergency.
Answer:
(C) It was proclaimed due to the deteriorating economic conditions.

Explanation:
When emergency is proclaimed the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the Union government and the government also gets the power to restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights during the emergency

Question 3.

The Shah Commission was headed by:

(A) Justice K C Shah
(B) Justice J C Shah
(C) Justice M C Shah
(D) Justice D C Shah
Answer:
(B) Justice J C Shah

Explanation:
In May 1977, the Janata Party government appointed a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J. C. Shah, retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India, to inquire into several aspects of allegations of abuse of authority, excesses and malpractices committed and action taken in the wake of the Emergency proclaimed on the 25th June, 1975.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 4.

The elections turned into a referendum on the experience of the Emergency.

(A) 1969
(B) 1977
(C) 1979
(D) 1989
Answer:
(B) 1977

Explanation:
1977 elections turned into a referendum as since Independence it was the first time when the Congress party was defeated in the Lok Sabha elections.

Question 5.

The impact of the Emergency was felt most strongly in the ………….. part of the country.

(A) northern
(B) southern
(C) eastern
(D) western
Answer:
(A) northern

Explanation: After emergency, in Lok Sabha elections, 1977 Congress lost in every constituency in North Indian states (Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana and the Punjab) and could win only one seat each in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 6.

In the elections held immediately after Emergency, the Congress could win only seats in the Lok Sabha.

(A) 154
(B) 156
(C) 158
(D) 160
Answer:
(A) 154

Question 7.

During emergency, the relations of government and judiciary were:

(A) tensed
(B) cordial
(C) completely hostile
(D) there was no problem at all
Answer:
(A) tensed

Explanation:
This tension may be attributed to I the inability of the party system to incorporate I the aspirations of the people.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 8.

When did the economic situation of the country worsened?

(A) During 1966-67
(B) During 1988-90
(C) During 1980S
(D) During 1972-73
Answer:
(D) During 1972-73

Explanation:
India’s economic situation got worse during 1972-73 because of the following reasons:

  1. The Bangladesh crisis.
  2. War with Pakistan.
  3. The U.S government stopped all aid to India.
  4. Oil prices increased.
  5. High level of inflation.
  6. Low industrial growth and High unemployment
  7. Monsoons failed.
  8. Decline in agricultural productivity.

Question 9.

What was one of the possible reasons of India’s deteriorating economy?

(A) People stopped paying tax
(B) After Indo- Pak war 1971, US stopped the economic aid to India
(C) Corruption
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) After Indo- Pak war 1971, US stopped the economic aid to India

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Explanation:
After the war with Pakistan, the U.S Government stopped all aid to India. This led to an all-round increase in prices of commodities.

Question 10.

When did the Students’ Movements start in Gujarat?

(A) 1974
(B) 1970
(C) 1980
(D) 1988
Answer:
(A) 1974

Explanation:
In January 1974 students in Gujarat started an agitation against rising prices of food grains, cooking oil and other essential commodities, and against corruption in high places.

Question 11.

Who organised a nationwide Indira Gandhi to resign?

(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) Jay Prakash Narayan
(C) Lai Bahadur Sashtri
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Jay Prakash Narayan

Explanation:
Jayaprakash Narayan organised a nationwide Satyagraha forcing Indira Gandhi to resign on the basis of verdict of the Allahabad High Court.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 12.

When were the general elections held after emergency?

(A) 1978
(B) 1977
(C) 1980
(D) 1981
Answer:
(B) 1977

Explanation:
General elections were held in India between 16 and 20 March 1977 to elect the members of the 6th Lok Sabha. The elections took place during the Emergency period, which expired on 21 March 1977, shortly before the final results were announced.

Question 13.

Who became the Prime Minister after emergency?

(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Jay Prakash Narayan
(C) Lai Krishna Advani
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Morarji Desai

Explanation:
After the controversial emergency was lifted in 1977, the political parties of the opposition fought together against the Congress, under the umbrella of the Janata Party, and won the 1977 election. Desai was elected Prime Minister, and became the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 14.

Who succeeded Morarji Desai?

(A) Ram Manohar Lohia
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Answer:
(C) Chaudhary Charan Singh

Explanation:
The Janata Party Government could not bring about a fundamental change in policies from those pursued by the Congress. The Janata Party split and the government which was led by Morarji Desai lost its majority in less than 18 months. Another government headed by Charan Singh was formed on the assurance of the support of the Congress party.

Question 15.

What was the philosophy presented by Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya called?

(A) Integral Humanism
(B) Liberal Humanism
(C) One World One Nation
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Integral Humanism

Explanation:
Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya was a philosopher, sociologist, economist and politician. The philosophy presented by him is called ‘Integral Humanism’ which was intended to present an ‘indigenous socio-economic model’ in which human being remains at the centre of development.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion: Fundamental rights of the citizens were suspended till the continuance of National Emergency.
Reason: Due to different viewpoints of people about the imposition of Emergency, it is the most debatable and controversial topic of Indian politics.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
In response to rapidly changing political situation and JP Movement, the Government of India on 25th June, 1975 recommended the imposition of emergency. Freedom of Press and some of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens were suspended. However, there were numerous debates going on
in the country in favour and against emergency.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 2.

Assertion: According to few of the political parties in India, the emergency was necessary to control the deteriorating condition of the country politics.
Reason: The Communist Party of India supported emergency due to international interference by using students as weapons for destroying democracy of the country, such bans on protest to some extent were necessary.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Among the parties who supported 1 emergency was the Communist Party of India.
According to Communist party, there was a conspiracy to defame Indian democracy by using innocent students, making them protest and create a trouble to a democratic governance.

Question 3.

Assertion: The government suspended the Freedom of the Press and implemented press censorship during emergency.
Reason: Press used its freedom to provoke people to carry out unnecessary protests and demonstrations. Press was against the ruling government.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
The final decision to impose an emergency was proposed by Indira Gandhi, agreed upon by the president of India, and thereafter ratified by the cabinet and the parliament (from July to August 1975), based on the rationale that there were imminent internal and external threats to the Indian state. Censorship on media was a part of emergency. It was not done on the basis of any allegation.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 4.

Assertion: National Emergency can be declared under the Article 352, whereby the security of India is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
Reason: Denial of Fundamental rights and curtailment of freedom is not acceptable to the people of India.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Indeed Article 352 gives right to the government to declare the emergency in the country. But, there are procedures to be followed. The President decides whether the emergency should be declared in the country or not. During emergency, people’s democratic rights are banned and they may not Ire in this favour.

Question 5.

Assertion: Morarji Desai did not complete full term of Prime Ministership and was succeeded by Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Reason: Due to lack of a common programme and a constant direction, inability to change Congress policies and splits within the party; led to mid-term elections in 1980.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Controversial trials of prominent Congress leaders, including Indira Gandhi over Emergency-era abuses worsened the fortunes of his administration. In 1979, Raj Narain and Charan Singh pulled out of the Janata Party, forcing Desai to resign from office and retire from politics.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 6.

Assertion: In the elections of 1971, Congress had given the slogan of “Garibi Hatao” (remove poverty).
Reason: The social and economic condition in the country did not improve much after 1971-72.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
“Garibi Hatao” slogan was given by congress but it could never been achieved in real sense. Because after that, the economy has gone through rapid downfalls and the condition of the poor never improved.

Question 7.

Assertion: Lohia’s dynamic and uninhibited approach to various problems distinguished him from other political leaders.
Reason: Lohia’s ideology was largely copied by the communist party of China. He had nothing original of himself.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
Ram Manohar Lohia has been one of the main proponents of socialism in India. He championed the idea of ‘Democratic Socialism’ while associating his socialism with democracy. Lohia showed great originality in his enunciation of socialism.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 8.

Assertion: Upadhyaya identified nationalism, democracy and socialism as three principal ‘isms’ that affected the west.
Reason: Among these three ‘isms’ nationalism was the oldest and the strongest.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya was one of the most eminent philosopher, sociologist, economist and politician. The philosophy presented by him is called ‘Integral Humanism’ which was intended to present an ‘indigenous socio-economic model’ in which human being remains at the centre of development.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study tht carton cerrfully and give the answer to the question that follows
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence - 1

Question 1.

What does this picture depict?

(A) Military rule as the only sulution to the problems of the Country
(B) Deimxracy cannot go perallel with milllary rule
(C) Pliticians Supporting military rule
(D(None of the above
Answer:
(B) Deimxracy cannot go perallel with milllary rule

Explanation:
The military serves as a special government agency, which is supposed to implement, rather than formulate, policies that require the use of certain types of physical force. The purpose of the military is to defend society, not to define it.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 2.

Choose the correct option of the following to save democracy.

(A) At times military rule should be imposed to curb the violent crisis
(B) By focusing more on people’s fundamental rights, with the strong opposition in the parliament as well as in legislative assembly against the undemocratic practices
(C) By giving complete power to the President of the country
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) By focusing more on people’s fundamental rights, with the strong opposition in the parliament as well as in legislative assembly against the undemocratic practices

Explanation:
A good democracy is defined as an institutional structure that understands the liberty and equality of citizens through the correct functioning of the government and its method. Also, it is a regime that should completely satisfy the citizens with its result.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 3.

What are the problems faced by the democratic government?

(A) Corruption and inefficiency, role of anti social elements, growing economic and social inequalities, casteism and communalism
(B) Pressure from the non-democratic powerful nations to restrict the democratic rights of the citizens
(C) Pressure from the communist parties within the nation to impose socialism to eradicate the differences of economic distribution
(D) People despite of the differences, united and protesting against governments against the laws passed by them
Answer:
(A) Corruption and inefficiency, role of anti social elements, growing economic and social inequalities, casteism and communalism

Question 4.

Military rule and democracy can’t work together:

(A) because both give unnecessary freedom to people.
(B) because military and politicians keep on creating disputes for the nation.
(C) because, military rule imposes such restrictions wherein people’s fundamental rights are curbed.
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(C) because, military rule imposes such restrictions wherein people’s fundamental rights are curbed.

II. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follows:
Students’ protests in Gujarat and Bihar, both of which were Congress ruled States, had far reaching impact on the politics of the two States and national politics. In January 1974 students in Gujarat started an agitation against rising prices of food grains, cooking oil and other essential commodities, and against corruption in high places. The students’ protest was joined by major opposition parties and became widespread leading to the imposition of President’s rule in the state.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

The opposition parties demanded fresh elections to the state legislature. Morarji Desai, a prominent leader of Congress (O), who was the main rival of Indira Gandhi when he was in the Congress, announced that he would go on an indefinite fast if fresh elections were not held in the State. Under intense pressure from students, supported by the opposition political parties, assembly elections were held in Gujarat in June 1975. The Congress was defeated in this election.

Question 1.

When did the students start the protest in Gujarat?

(A) November 1974
(B) December 1974
(C) January 1974
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) January 1974

Question 2.

What was the implication of the Gujarat protest?

(A) Imposition of President’s rule
(B) Re-elections in Gujarat
(C) Students were arrested
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Imposition of President’s rule

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 3.

Which party did Morarji Desai belong?

(A) Congress
(B) Janata Dal
(C) Bhartiya Janata Party
(D) Congress
Answer:
(C) Bhartiya Janata Party

Question 4.

When did the assembly elections in Gujarat took place after the pressure of the protests?

(A) July 1975
(B) June 1975
(C) March 1973
(D) April 1974
Answer:
(B) June 1975

III. Read the following excerpt and answer the questions that follows:
In 1967 a peasant uprising took place in the Naxalbari police station area of Darjeeling hills district in West Bengal under the leadership of the local cadres of the Communist Party of India (Marxist). Beginning from the Naxalbari police station, the peasant movement spread to several states of India and came to be referred broadly as the Naxalite Movement.

In 1969, they broke off from the CPI (M) and a new party, Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) (CPI-ML), was formed under the leadership of Charu Majumdar. It argued that democracy in India was a sham and decided to adopt a strategy of protracted guerrilla warfare in order to lead to a revolution. Currently, about 75 districts in nine States are affected by Naxalite violence. Most of these are very backward areas inhabited by Adivasis.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 1.

In which area peasant uprising took place in 1967?

(A) Naxalbari police station
(B) Gujarat
(C) Haryana
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Naxalbari police station

Explanation:
Naxalbari uprising was an armed peasant revolt in 1967 in the Naxalbari block of the Siliguri subdivision in Darjeeling district, West Bengal, India.

Question 2.

What was this peasant movement called later?

(A) Maoist Movement
(B) Communist Movement
(C) Naxalite Movement
(D) Green Revolution
Answer:
(C) Naxalite Movement

Explanation:
The Naxalite-Maoist insurgency is an ongoing conflict between Maoist groups known as Naxalites or Naxals; a group of far- left radical communists, supportive of Maoist political sentiment and ideology and the Indian government.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 3.

Which party was formed under the leadership of Charu Majumdar?

(A) CPI – ML
(B) Communist Regime
(C) Socialist Party
(D) Janata Dal
Answer:
(A) CPI – ML

Question 4.

How many states are currently affected by the Naxalite Movement?

(A) Seven states
(B) Nine states
(C) Eleven states
(D) Ten states
Answer:
(B) Nine states

III. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follows:
Normally, it should have been held more than a year earlier. But in the summer of 1975, Indira Gandhi had imposed the Emergency, suspending Indian democracy and making fundamental rights inoperative. During the 19-months nightmare, she had postponed elections not once, but twice. And then, as abruptly and unexpectedly as she had issued the Emergency proclamation, on January 18, 1977, she announced that the Lok Sabha elections would take place in March.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

For this purpose, she relaxed the rules of the Emergency, lifted press censorship, permitted public meetings and released from jail tens of thousands of members of the political opposition. Some of her inveterate critics believe to this day that she opted for the elections because she believed, or was persuaded by her intelligence agencies to believe, that she would win. Even if this were so-which is doubtful because, for all her faults, she was not so naive-two major and unexpected events immediately after the announcement of the poll must have shattered any illusion.

Question 1.

When was the Emergency imposed in India?

(A) 1974
(B) 1975
(C) 1980
(D) 1979
Answer:
(B) 1975

Explanation:
On 12 June 1975, Justice lagmohan Lai Sinha of the Allahabad High Court passed a judgment declaring Indira Gandhi’s election to the Lok Sabha invalid. The opposition political parties pressed for Indira Gandhi’s resignation and organised a massive demonstration. I he response of the government was to declare a state of emergency. On 25 June 1975. the government declared emergency that there was a threat of internal disturbances.

Question 2.

When was the Lok Sabha elections date announced?

(A) 19th January
(B) 20th January
(C) 18th January
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) 18th January.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 13 Democratic Resurgence

Question 3.

For what purpose the rules of emergency were relaxed?

(A) In response of the public and political pressure
(B) For the elections of 1977
(C) To revoke emergency
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) For the elections of 1977

Question 4.

Who persuaded Indira Gandhi to believe that she will win 1977 elections?

(A) Her party
(B) Exit polls
(C) Her intelligence agencies
(D) Her self-instincts
Answer:
(C) Her intelligence agencies

Explanation:
It is commonly believed that Indira Gandhi called for elections because the Intelligence Bureau told her that she would win 330 seats.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Parties and the Party Systems in India Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

Whom would you like to identify the slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’ with?

(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Syndicate
(C) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(D) Nehru
Answer:
(C) Lai Bahadur Shastri

Explanation:
Jai Jawaan Jai Kisaan was a slogan given by the second Prime Minister of India Lai Bahadur Shastri in 1965 at a public gathering at Ramlila Maid an, Delhi.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 2.

Prime Minister Jawahar Lai Nehru passed away in May:

(A) 1954
(B) 1964
(C) 1974
(D) 1984
Answer:
(B) 1964

Question 3.

was unanimously chosen as the leader of the Congress Parliamentary Party after the death of Nehru.

(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(C) Morarji Desai
(D) Natarajan Annadurai

Answer:
(A) Indira Gandhi

Explanation:
When Nehru passed away, the then president, K. Kamraj, of the Congress party consulted party members and found that there was a consensus in favour of Lai Bahadur Shastri as he was a non-controversial leader from Uttar Pradesh who had been a Minister in Nehru’s cabinet for many years. Nehru had come to depend a lot on him in his last years.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question4.

In the decade of 1960’s, the Congress Party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi was affected by:

(A) Violence
(B) Defection
(C) Internal conflicts
(D) Censorship
Answer:
(C) Internal conflicts

Explanation:
Emergency applicable by Indira Gandhi has played a major role in creating internal conflicts.

Question 5.

The economic situation in 1967 triggered off:

(A) Price rise
(B) Price fall
(C) Economic progress
(D) Military rise
Answer:
(A) Price rise

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 6.

The had played a role in the installation of Indira Gandhi as the Prime Minister by ensuring her election as the leader of the Parliamentary Party.

(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Syndicate
(C) Opposition
(D) Economic conditions
Answer:
(B) Syndicate

Question 7.

The Syndicate wanted Indira Gandhi to act as a:

(A) strong leader
(B) puppet E
(C) financial backup
(D) face of the country
Answer:
(B) puppet E

Explanation:
The senior Congress leaders belief that her administrative and political inexperience would compel her to be dependent on them for support and guidance.

Question 8.

The Grand Alliance of opposition of 1971:

(A) got a combined tally of seats that was less than 40.
(B) had a clear ideological programme.
(C) had a grand finish in the 1970 elections.
(D) proved to be a great success.
Answer:
(A) got a combined tally of seats that was less than 40.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Explanation:
Grand Alliance was an alliance between Congress and CPI in which they won 352 seats out of 375.

Question 9.

Whom would you like to identify the slogan ‘Indira Hatao’ with?

(A) Syndicate
(B) Karpoori Thakur
(C) V V. Giri
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
(A) Syndicate

Explanation:
In 1971, Jayaprakash Narayan from opposition 0anta Party) gave the slogan Indira Hatao to crush Congress in Lok Sabha Elections, 1977.

Question 10.

Which period of Indian politics was referred to as “dangerous decade”?

(A) 1970s
(B) 1950s
(C) 1980s
(D) 1960s
Answer:
(D) 1960s

Explanation: This decade witnessed the transition of Indian politics from Nehru to Shastri to Indira Gandhi. The number of challenges like inequality, poverty, unemployment, religious and communal divide, and national security was witnessed during this decade.

Question 11.

For how many years Lai Bahadur Sashtri remained cabinet minister prior becoming the PM?

(A) four
(B) three
(C) five
(D) ten
Answer:
(D) ten

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 12.

Who gave slogan “Garibi Hatao”?

(A) Lai Bahadur Sashtri
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Indira Gandhi

Explanation:
In 1971, when Jayaprakash Narayan gave the slogan Indira Hatao to crush Congress in Lok Sabha Elections, 1977. In contrast to that Indira Gandhi Gave the slogan Garibi Hatao to generate a support base among the disadvantaged.

Question 13.

Why Indira Gandhi was called “Goongi Gudiya” in Indian Politics?

(A) Because people believed that she was a puppet of powerful leaders.
(B) Because she remained an inactive PM at that time.
(C) Because she lost the elections and there was a rift in the party.
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(A) Because people believed that she was a puppet of powerful leaders.

Explanation:
Indira Gandhi was called “Gongi Gudiya” because opposition felt that she is not taking any decisions on her own without the consent of the powerful leaders. Besides, the country was facing many problems like drought, famine, economic crises, decrease in agricultural produce, decrease in industrial production etc.

Question 14.

Why the results of general elections 1967 were called ‘political earthquake’?

(A) Because congress lost all the seats
(B) The elections were not at all successful
(C) The popularity of Congress had reduced by a large scale
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The popularity of Congress had reduced by a large scale

Explanation:
The results of the General Election of 1967 were a shock for the congress at the national and the state levels. Most of the ministers in Indira Gandhi’s cabinet lost the elections.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 15.

Whose name was proposed by the syndicate for the Presidential elections 1969?

(A) K Kamraj
(B) V V Giri
(C) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) N. Sanjeeva Reddy

Explanation:
In 1969, President Zakir Hussain’s death made the post of President of the India fell vacant. The ‘syndicate’ nominate the then speaker of the Lok Sabha, N. Sanjeeva Reddy, while Indira Gandhi retaliated by encouraging the then Vice-President, V. V Giri, to file his nomination.

Question 16.

When did congress party split into two groups?

(A) 1969
(B) 1979
(C) 1959
(D) 1960
Answer:
(A) 1969

Explanation:
The defeat of the official Congress candidate formalised the split in the party. By November 1969, the Congress group led by the ‘syndicate’ came to be referred to as the Congress (Organisation) and the group led by Indira Gandhi came to be called the Congress
Requisitionists). These two parties were also described as Old Congress and New Congress.

Question 17.

When Indira Gandhi recommended dissolution of Lok Sabha?

(A) December 1971
(B) November 1970
(C) December 1970
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) December 1970

Explanation: Indira Gandhi vigorously campaigned for implementing the existing land reform laws and undertook further land ceiling legislation. In order to end her dependence on other political parties and strengthen her party’s position in the Parliament, Indira Gandhi’s government recommended the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in December 1970.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 18.

In General Elections 1971 which party was supported by the majority of the voters?

(A) Congress (O)
(B) Congress (R)
(C) Congress (D)
(D) UPA
Answer:
(B) Congress (R)

Question 19.

What was the motto of Grand Alliance?

(A) Garibi Hatao
(B) Economy Badhao
(C) Corruption Hatao
(D) Indira Hatao
Answer:
(D) Indira Hata

Explanation:
To make matters worse for Indira Gandhi, all the major non-communist, non- Congress opposition parties (SSR PSFJ Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and the Bharatiya Kranti Dal) formed an electoral alliance known as the Grand Alliance.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of –
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion: Our leaders were conscious of the critical role of politics in any democracy.
Reason: They.did not see politics as a problem; they saw it as a way of solving the problems.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Explanation:
Every society needs to decide how it will govern and regulate itself. There are always different policy alternatives to choose from. There are different groups with different and conflicting aspirations. How do we resolve these differences? Democratic politics is an answer to this question. Our leaders meticulously chose what was right for the nation.

Question 2.

Assertion: It was not just the size of the country and the electorate that made this election unusual. The first general election was also the first big test of democracy in a poor and illiterate country. [A] Reason: At that time there were 17 crores eligible voters, who had to elect about 3,200 MLAs and 489 Members of Lok Sabha. Yet, the elections were conducted successfully.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Despite of the size of the voters, election commission was able to organize a nationwide election. It firmly believed in democracy and staked all the resources and labour to conduct the elections in a fair manner.

Question 3.

Assertion: The elections had to be postponed twice and finally held from October 1951 to February 1952.
Reason: But this election is referred to as the 1951 election since most parts of the country voted in January 1951.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
The elections had to be postponed. Since the majority of the population was able to vote in January 1952, it is referred as 1952 elections.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 4.

Assertion: The Indian National Congress was expected to lose this election.
Reason: The Congress party, as it was popularly known, had inherited the legacy of the national movement.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
This period was the inception of “One Party dominance” in the politics of India. There was no other party which could give congress a tough competition. Hence, Congress won the elections as expected.

Question 5.

Assertion: What distinguished the dominance of the Congress party in India from all the other cases was it happened under democratic conditions.
Reason: Many parties contested elections in conditions of free and fair elections and yet the Congress managed to win election after election.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
In the other cases the dominance of one party was ensured by compromising democracy. But Congress never restricted any party to compete in the elections. Elections were conducted peacefully and in a fair manner.

Question 6.

Assertion: The roots of the extraordinary success of the Congress party go back to the legacy of the freedom struggle. [0]
Reason: This was similar to the dominance the African National Congress has enjoyed in South Africa after the end of apartheid.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Indeed the dominance of Congress can be compared with that of the African National Congress. But Congress in India had the legacy of their struggle for freedom of India. Congress was seen as inheritor of the national movement.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 7.

Assertion: Congress evolved from its origins in 1785 as a pressure group for the newly educated, professional and commercial classes to a mass movement in the twentieth century.
Reason: Thus the Congress began as a party dominated by the English speaking, upper caste, upper middle-class and urban elite.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
Congress party evolved in 1885. Its initial members were from upper class, elites, and English-speaking class. But with every movement it launched, the common people from all the caste and class began to be included in Congress.

Question 8.

Assertion: Congress accommodated the
revolutionary and pacifist, conservative and radical, extremist and moderate and the right, left and all shades of the centre.
Reason: All these members had differences in deciding the party policies and launching freedom struggle.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
Though Congress had members from various ideologies and backgrounds. It managed to create a balance between them and as a result, all the freedom struggles launched by congress were responded by the people belonging to every strata of the society

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 9.

Assertion: The Communists failed to generate popular support for their position and were crushed by the armed forces.
Reason: This forced them to rethink their position. In 1951 the Communist Party abandoned the path of violent revolution and decided to participate in the approaching general elections.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 10.

Assertion: This coalition-like character of the Congress gave it an unusual strength.
Reason: Congress acted as an extremist as far as coalition politics is concerned and handled all the issues arbitrarily.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
Instead of being rigid in politics, Congress understood that compromise and inclusiveness are the hallmarks of a coalition. This strategy put the opposition in a difficulty

Question 11.

Assertion: The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was formed in 1986 with Shyama Prasad Mukherjee as its Founder-President.
Reason: It emphasized the idea of one country, one culture and one nation and believed that the country could become modern, progressive and strong on the basis of Indian culture and traditions.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was formed in 1951 by Shyama Prasad Mukherjee. It emphasized that the country can be modern by following Indian culture only. Its ideology was based on right wing politics.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 12.

Assertion: The factions took different ideological positions making the Congress appear as a grand centrist party.
Reason: The Bhartiya Jana Sangh called for a reunion of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat. The party was in forefront of the agitation to replace English with Hindi as the official language of India and was also opposed to the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Congress and Bhartiya Jana Sangh were the two different sides of the coin of Indian politics. Congress supported the idea of the secularism and was leaning towards the leftist ideology. Bhartiya Jana Sangh, since its inception, was of the ideology which never favoured any concessions to be given to the minorities. It had a very clear vision of Akhand Bharat.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India - 1

Question 1.

What does the cartoon represent?

(A) General elections 1989
(B) Midterm elections 1971
(C) The Presidential elections of 1969
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The Presidential elections of 1969

Question 2.

Why Indira Gandhi in the picture looks pleased?

(A) Because she can now impose emergency in the country.
(B) Because her nominee won.
(C) Because the person won was a relative to her.
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(B) Because her nominee won.

Question 3.

Identify the person wearing garland in winning position.

(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Chaudhary Charan singh
(C) KKamraj
(D) V V Giri
Answer:
(D) V V Giri

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 4.

Who is lying on the ground?

(A) N Sanjeeva Reddy
(B) K. Kamraj
(C) Jay Prakash Narayan
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) N Sanjeeva Reddy

II. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India - 2

Question 1.

The cartoon depicts the results of which elections?

(A) The results of 1989 elections
(B) The results of 1971 elections
(C) The results of 1969 elections
(D) The results of 1990 elections
Answer:
(B) The results of 1971 elections

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 2.

What was the outcome of these elections labelled as?

(A) The Great Finish
(B) An Extraordinary Finish
(C) Indira, the Iron Lady
(D) The Grand Finish
Answer:
(D) The Grand Finish

Question 3.

Who are depicted as the players in the cartoon?

(A) Congress’ leaders
(B) Communist Party of India’s leaders
(C) The then leading opposition figures
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The then leading opposition figures

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 4.

Which party did Indira Gandhi lead in 1971 elections?

(A) Congress (R)
(B) Congress (O)
(C) Congress United
(D) UPA .
Answer:
(A) Congress (R)

III. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follows:
Earlier, Lai Bahadur Shastri had resigned from the position of Railway Minister accepting moral responsibility for a major railway accident. Shastri was the country’s Prime Minister from 1964 to 1966. During Shastri’s brief Prime Ministership, the country faced two major challenges. While India was still recovering from the economic implications of the war with China; failed monsoons, drought and serious food crisis presented a grave challenge.

As discussed in the previous chapter, the country also faced a war with Pakistan in 1965. Shastri’s famous slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’, symbolised the country’s resolve to face both these challenges. Shastri’s Prime Ministership came to an abrupt end on 10 January, 1966, when he suddenly expired in Tashkent, then in USSR and currently the capital of Uzbekistan. He was there to discuss and sign an agreement with Muhammad Ayub Khan, the then President of Pakistan, to end the war.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 1.

Why Shastri resigned from the position of Railway Minister?

(A) Accepting moral responsibility for railway accident.
(B) He was forced to resign.
(C) His party lost elections.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(A) Accepting moral responsibility for railway accident.

Explanation:
Shastri ji was a Railway Minister under Jawaharlal Nehru’s cabinet. He gave his resignation when in August, 1956 a major railway accident happened in Mahabubnagar, Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.

What was the tenure of Shastri as a PM of India?

(A) 1966 to 1970
(B) 1967 to 1970
(C) 1964 to 1966
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) 1964 to 1966

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 3.

What two major crises India faced during Shastri’s tenure?

(A) Political and social crises.
(B) Economic and serious food crises.
(C) War and communalism.
(D) War and political crises.
Answer:
(B) Economic and serious food crises.

Question 4.

What was the famous slogan given by Shastri?

(A) “Aya Ram, Gaya Ram”
(B) ” Swachha Bharat, Swastha Bharat”
(C) “JaiJawan, JaiKisan”
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) “JaiJawan, JaiKisan”

Explanation:
Jai Jawaan Jai Kisaan was a slogan given by the second Prime Minister of India Lai Bahadur Shastri in 1965 at a public gathering at Ramlila Maidan, Delhi.

IV. Read the following excerpt and answer the questions that follows:
The dramatic nature of the political change would be more apparent to you at the State level. The Congress lost majority in as many as seven States. In two other States, defections prevented it from forming a government. These nine States where the Congress lost power were spread across the country – Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala. In Madras State (now called Tamil Nadu), a regional party – the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) – came to power by securing a clear majority.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

The DMK won power after having led a massive anti-Hindi agitation by students against the centre on the issue of imposition of Hindi as the official language. This was the first time, any non-Congress party had secured a majority of its own in any State. In the other eight States, coalition governments consisting of different non-Congress parties were formed. A popular saying was that one could take a train from Delhi to Howrah and not pass through a single Congress ruled State. It was a strange feeling for those who were used to seeing the Congress in power.

Question 1.

In how many states Congress lost majority?

(A) Five states
(B) Seven states
(C) Nine states
(D) Eleven states
Answer:
(B) Seven states

Question 2.

What is the current name of Madras?

(A) Telangana
(B) Chennai
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Tamil Nadu

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 3.

On what agenda DMK came into power in Tamil Nadu?

(A) Eradication of poverty.
(B) Agenda against one party dominance.
(C) Promise to increase educational institution.
(D) Against the imposition of Hindi as a national language.
Answer:
(D) Against the imposition of Hindi as a national language.

Question 4.

In how many states a coalition government of non-congress parties were formed?

(A) Eight
(B) Seven
(C) Six
(D) Ten
Answer:
(A) Eight

V. Read the paragraph given below and answer the questions that follows:
India’s grand old party, the Congress, faced its first major split as the old guard led by party President, S. Nijalingappa expelled Prime Minister Indira Gandhi from the party for “fostering a cult of personality”. The “Syndicate”, as the senior members were called, could not quite come to terms with the fact that the “Gungi Gudiya” (dumb doll)-their snide reference for Indira-had a mind of her own. The break was complete when Indira after proposing N.

Sanjeeva Reddy’s name for presidentship asked Congressmen to “vote according to their conscience”. V. V. Giri, the rebel Congress candidate won. When the communal temperature was at its peak in India, the country had a Muslim President and a Muslim Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

After serving as vice-president to the great Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan for five years, Zakir Hussain, an academic and former vice-chancellor of the Aligarh Muslim University, became the philosopher scholar’s successor at Rashtrapati Bhavan in 1967. Hussain, however, had one of the briefest terms as the country’s president as he died less than two years later. He was also the first Indian president to die in office.

Question 1.

Who was called “Gungi Gudiya”?

(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(C) S. Nijalingappa
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Indira Gandhi

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

Question 2.

Whose name was proposed for president by Indira Gandhi?

(A) V V Giri
(B) N Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) Indira Gandhi herself
Answer:
(B) N Sanjeeva Reddy

Question 3.

Who was the vice-president to Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan?

(A) V. V. Giri
(B) N Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Zakir Hussain

Question 4.

Who was the first president to die in the office?

(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(B) S. Nijalingappa
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Zakir Hussain

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers