CBSE

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 9 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 9 Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

• The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
• All questions are compulsory. However an internal choice will be provided in two questions of 3 marks each and one question of five marks.
• All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 2 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
• Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
• Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
• Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
• Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are two-marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief

Questions
SECTION-A

Question 1.
Define law of constant proportion.

Question 2.
State Newton’s Second law of Motion.

Question 3.
If one mole of carbon atoms weigh 12 g, what is the mass of 1 atom of carbon?

Question 4.
How is the process of diffusion in liquids different from that in solids?

Question 5.
Define energy. Name and define its S.I unit.

Question 6.
Calculate the number of atoms in 120 g of calcium and 120 g of iron. Which one has more number of atoms and how much is the difference?
(Given Atomic mass of calcium =40 u, Iron=56 u)

Question 7.
Define velocity and acceleration. Is it possible for a body to have a zero velocity but constant acceleration. Justify your answer.
OR
A boy drops a ball from a cliff 122.5 m high. Find :
(a) How long does it take the ball to fall to the ground?
(b) How far does it fall in the 1 st 3 seconds?
(c) How fast is it going at the end of 3 seconds?

Question 8.

1. Name the group of organisms which commonly cause infectious diseases.
2. Mention any two diseases that can be prevented by immunisation.

Question 9.
Explain the necessity of crop variety improvement in food production.
OR

1. What is the name of the competent plants that grows along with crops?
2. Why do farmers remove weeds from crop field?
3. Mention one control measure by which weeds can be destroyed.

Question 10.

1. A sound wave has a frequency of 2kHz and wavelength of 45 cm, it takes 4 seconds to travel. Calculate the distance it travels in 4 seconds?
2. If any explosion takes place at the bottom of the lake, what type of shock waves in the water will be produced.

Question 11.
Explain symbiosis and give an example.

Question 12.

1. Define Kinetic energy.
2. A stone of mass 2 kg is falling from rest from the top of a steep hill. What will be its kinetic energy after 5 sec? (g = 10 ms^-2)

Question 13.
A water tanker was completely filled with water. Abhishek saw the driver covering the mouth of the tanker with a lid. He immediately stopped the driver from doing so and told him that the tanker can lose balance while moving and can overtum/topple.

1. Why will the tanker overturn, if its lid is closed?
2. If the moving tanker with more than half-filled with water, applies sudden brake in which direction will the water fall.
3. What values of Abhishek is seen in the above case?

Question 14.
(a) A household consume 1 kW h of energy per day. How much energy is this in joules?
(b) A person carrying 10 bricks, each of mass 2.5 kg on his head moves to a height of 20 meter in 50 Seconds. Calculate the power spent in carrying bricks by the person? (g = 10 m/s²)

Question 15.
A body of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10 m/s, what is its kinetic energy when it is thrown? Find its potential energy when it reaches at the highest point. Also find the maximum height attained by the body. (g 10 m/s²)

Question 16.
Cite an experiment to show that sound needs a material medium for its propagation.

Question 17.
Why is AIDS considered to be a syndrome and not a disease?

Question 18.
Establish the relationship between speed of sound, its wavelength and frequency. If velocity of sound in air is 340 m/sec. Calculate the
(a) Wavelength when frequency is 256 Hz.
(b) Frequency when wavelength is 0.85 meter.

Question 19.
(a) What is uniform circular motion?
(b) An athlete runs on a circular track, whose radius is 50 m with a constant speed. It takes 50 seconds to reach the point B which is just opposite from the starting point A. Find

1. the distance covered
2. the displacement
3. the speed.

Question 20.
(a) Illustrate Rutherford’s experiment to explain the model of an atom.
(b) Atomic number of an element is 17. Identify the element, write its electronic configuration & mention its valency.
OR
Which separation technique you will apply for the separation of the following mixtures?

1. Oil from water.
2. Camphor from sand.
3. Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
4. Metal pieces from engine oil of a car.
5. Cream from milk.

Question 21.
Explain ‘potential energy’ in your own words and give an example of it. State the S.I. unit of potential energy. Derive an expression for potential energy of an object of mass ‘m’ that has been raised to a height ‘h’ from the ground.
A body of mass 20 kg is lifted up by 10 meters. Calculate its potential energy. If this body is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy just before it touches the ground. (Take g = 10m/s²)

SECTION-B

Question 22.
The law of conservation of mass for the reaction between sodium bicarbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid can be verified only when it is carried in a closed container, explain why?

Question 23.
Biologists think that arthropoda are the most successful of all animals because of which feature?

Question 24.
State two precautions while measuring the volume of the cylinder.

Question 25.
What happens when dilute sulphuric acid is added to a compound of iron and sulphur?

Question 26.
In the reaction between copper sulphate and sodium sulphide solutions, when 15.9 g copper sulphate completely reacts with 7.8 g of sodium sulphide it is observed that 9.5 g of copper sulphide is formed. What is mass of sodium sulphate solution formed?

Question 27.
Name the stages in life cycle of mosquito.

Answers
SECTION-A

Answer 1.
In a chemical compound prepared by any method always contains the same elements in the fixed ratio by mass.

Answer 2.
The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force directly in the direction of the applied force.

Answer 3.
1 mole of C = 12 g
1 mole of C = 6.022 × 10²³ Atoms
6.022 × 10²³ atoms of C = 12 g
1 Atom of C = \(\frac { { 12 } }{ { 6.022\times 10 }^{ 23 } }\)
= 1.99 x 10^-23 g

Answer 4.
The rate of diffusion in liquids is higher than that in solids because particles of liquids move freely.
Particles of liquids have larger intermolecular spaces than the particles in solid state.

Answer 5.
Energy is defined as the capacity of an object to do work. SI unit of energy is joule.
Energy possessed by a body is said to be 1 joule if it can displace an object by 1 m by applying a force of 1 N in the direction of force.

Answer 6.
1 mole of Ca = 40 g
No. of atoms of Calcium = No. of moles × 6.022 × 10²³

Answer 7.
Velocity: Rate of change of displacement.
Acceleration: Rate of change of velocity of a moving body.
When a body is released, its initial velocity, i.e. w = 0 but
g = 10m/s². Hence it is possible for a body to have zero velocity but constant acceleration.
OR

Answer 8.

1. Group of organisms causing infectious diseases are:
   • Virus
   • Bacteria
   • Fungi
   • Protozoa
   • Multicellular Worms
2. • Tetanus
   • Polio

Answer 9.

1. Higher yield
2. Improved quality
3. Biotic and abiotic resistance
4. Change in maturity duration
5. Desirable agronomic traits
6. Wider adaptability of crops (or any six relevant traits)

OR

1. Weeds. Example-Xanthium
2. They extract the nutrients from the soil that are meant for the crop plant.
3. By manual weeding or by applying weedicides.

Answer 10.

1. v = 330 ms^-1, t = 6 s
   D = \(\frac { vt }{ 2 }\) = \((\frac { 330\times 6 }{ 2 } )\) = 990 m
2. Longitudinal waves will be produced.

Answer 11.
Symbiosis refers to association between two organisms which benefit mutually from each other. Lichens is a symbiotic life form composed of algae and fungi.

Answer 12.

1. Energy due to the motion of a body is called kinetic energy.
   K.E = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
2. m = 2 Kg, t = 5 s
   Velocity after 5 s (v) = 0 + 10 × 5
   = 50 m/s
   Therefore, K.E = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) × 2 × (50)²
   = 2500 Joule = 2.5 KJ

Answer 13.

1. The moving tanker completely filled with water is in the inertia of motion, both water and tanker experiences momentum. On applying sudden brakes the tanker will come to rest but the water will continue to remain in the state of motion and hence the tanker will lose the balance and topple.
2. The water will fall forward.
3. Abhishek shows the value of being intelligent, having scientific knowledge, helpful and caring.

Answer 14.
(a) 1 kW h = 3.6 × 10⁶ Joules

Answer 15.

Answer 16.
Description:
Take an electric bell and an airtight glass jar. The electric bell is suspended inside the airtight glass jar, which is connected to a vacuum pump.

Working:

1. When we press the switch, we’ll be able to hear the bell.
2. When the air in the jar is pumped out gradually, the sound becomes feeble although the same amount of current is flowing through the bell.
3. When the air is removed completely, we’ll not be able to hear the sound of the bell.

Conclusion:
This experiment shows that sound requires a medium for its propagation.

Answer 17.
AIDS is considered as a syndrome because the AIDS virus damages the immune system of the body and the body can no longer fight against even the minor infections. Any small health problem can become a major infection and damage the entire organ or a system. The effect of disease becomes very severe and complex, at times killing the person from AIDS. Hence there is no specific disease symptoms for AIDS, but it results in a complex diseases and ultimately leads to death.

Answer 18.

Answer 19.
(a) When a body moves in a circular path with uniform speed, its motion is called uniform circular motion.
(b) Radius = 50 m
Time = 50 s

1. The distance covered by an athlete A to B i.e., semicircle of the track
∴ Circumference = 2 πr
∴ Half-circumference = πr
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 50
∴ Distance = 157.14 m

2. Displacement from A to B is diameter AB
d= 2r
∴ d= 2 × 50= 100 m

3. Speed = ?
Speed = \(\frac { Distance }{ time }\) = \(\frac { 157.14 }{ 50 }\) = 3.143
∴ Speed = 3.143 m/s

Answer 20.
(a) Rutherford’s scattering experiment
He selected very thin gold foil to be bombarded with fast moving a-particles – which were positively charged ‘He’ ions.
The fast moving a-particles have a considerable amount of K.E. to hit the gold atoms
Observations

• Most of the a-particles passed straight through the foil without any deflection.
• One out of 20,000 particles appeared to rebound.

Inference

• There is a positively centre inside the atom called nucleus.
• The electrons revolve around the nucleus in well defined orbits.
• The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.

(b) Atomic number is 17
Element is chlorine
Electronic configuration – 2, 8, 7; valency – 1
OR

1. Separating funnel
2. Sublimation
3. Evaporation/crystallisation
4. Magnetic separator
5. Centrifugation

Answer 21.
‘Energy possessed by object by virtue of its position or configuration’ (to be explained in candidate’s own words).
Example: Stretched string of bow/ a stone lifted to a certain height (or any other appropriate example).
S.I. unit-joule

Let an static object of mass, m be raised to a height h above the ground.
Then, Force required to raise the object = Weight of the object
= mg
Now, Work done on the object, W = Force × displacement
= mg × h
This work done is the stored potential energy of the object,
∴ P.E. = mgh
As the object falls down, m = 20 kg; g = 10 m/s²; h = 10 m
∴ P.E. = mgh = 20 kg × 10 m/s² × 10 m
P.E. = 2000 J
Its P.E. gets converted to K.E.
Kinetic energy just before it touches = 2000 J

SECTION-B

Answer 22.
In an open container, the gaseous product, carbon dioxide will escape into the atmosphere and the observed final mass will be less than the actual final mass.

Answer 23.
Presence of chitinous covering that prevents desiccation.

Answer 24.

1. The measuring cylinder should be kept on the plain flat surface.
2. The lower meniscus of water and the eye level should be parallel and in straight line.

Answer 25.
‘The compound, iron sulphide reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to form hydrogen sulphide gas. This gas is a colourless gas with the smell of rotten eggs.

Answer 26.
Mass of (copper sulphate + sodium sulphide) = Mass of (copper sulphide + sodium sulphate)
15.9g + 7.8 g = 9.5 g + x
x = 23.7g

Answer 27.
The stages during the life cycle of mosquito is:

• eggs
• larva
• pupa
• adult.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme, as prescribed by the CBSE, is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
In which book was the idea of one person one vote mentioned?

Question 2:
Who were Jadidists?

Question 3:
Which are the two houses of the parliament?

Question 4:
Name the island countries which are our southern neighbors.

Question 5:
Define asset of a country.

Question 6:
What are fair price shops?

Question 7:
Define poverty line.

Question 8:
How was France emerged as republic under Jacobins?

Question 9:
Write a note on Stalin’s collectivization programme.

Question 10:
What are the disadvantages of an electoral competition?

Question 11:
Why do we say that the role of Prime Minister in a coalition government has many constraints?

Question 12:
Name the fundamental rights provided by the Indian Constitution to its citizens?

Question 13:
How was the northern plains of India formed?

Question 14:
Write a note on the peninsular rivers.

Question 15:
How are disguised and seasonal unemployment different?

Question 16:
Explain the term social exclusion.

Question 17:
Mention any three factors of production.

Question 18:
What are the advantages of the Green revolution?

Question 19:
Discuss the consequences of Nazism in Germany.

Question 20:
What is shifting cultivation? Why were the European foresters unwilling to follow it?
OR
Why did the Massai community lost their land?
OR
Indian farmers were reluctant to grow opium. Explain.

Question 21:
How are democratic and non- democratic form of government different?

Question 22:
“There is need for constitution in every country”. Comment.

Question 23:
Write a note on the tropical deciduous forests.

Question 24:
Explain the occupational structure of India.

Question 25:
Write any five differences between traditional and modem farming methods.

Question 26:
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of world:
(a) One of the central powers of the First World War.
(b) One of the axis powers of the Second World War.

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India. Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) Western most point of India.
(b) Dachigam wildlife sanctuary.
(c) Wettest place in India.

Answers

Answer 1:
Rousseau mentioned the idea of one person one vote in the book named “The social contract”.

Answer 2:
They were the Muslim reformers in the Russian empire.

Answer 3:
The houses of the parliament are the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Answer 4:
Sri Lanka and the Maldives islands are island countries and our southern neighbours.

Answer 5:
Asset of a country means the working population of a country.

Answer 6:
These are the ration shops opened by the government of India to provide food grains to the poor people at subsidized rate.

Answer 7:
It is an imaginary line based on income and consumption to know that who are poor in the society.

Answer 8:
They were the most radical groups formed in the wake of the French revolution. They were unhappy and angered by the shortage of food grains supply and high prices. As a rgsult they stormed the palace of Tuileries. They killed the king guard’s and made the king hostage for hours. This incident caused election and all the people of 21 years and above got the voting rights. Finally the new convention was formed and France was declared a republic.

Answer 9:
Stalin’s collectivization programme was a step to solve the problem of food shortage. This policy eliminated Kulaks and established state owned farms. The peasants were forced to work in the Kolkhoj. According to this programme policy of deportation and severe punishment was followed.

Answer 10:
The three demerits of the electoral competition are:

1. The different parties and candidates use dirty tricks to win the elections.
2. These political parties and leaders put allegations on each other.
3. Electoral competition causes disunity.

Answer 11:
Yes, it is true to say that the role of Prime Minister in a coalition government has many constraints.

1. The Prime Minister cannot take sole decision.
2. He has to accommodate different social groups and coalition partners in his party.
3. He has to listen the views of all the partners.

Answer 12:
The following are the various fundamental rights provided by the Indian Constitution to its citizens:

1. Right to equality
2. Right to freedom
3. Right against exploitation
4. Right to freedom of religion
5. Cultural and educational Rights
6. Right to constitutional remedies

Answer 13:
When the Indo-Australian plate collided with the Eurasian plate a large depression was formed in between. Gradually this was filled with the sediments deposited by the rivers from the north and south. This resulted in the formation of an extensive flat land called the northern plains of India.

Answer 14:
Three features of the peninsular rivers are:

1. The Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, the Narmada and the Tapi are the important rivers of the peninsular plateau. These rivers originate from the peninsular India.
2. These rivers are seasonal in nature.
3. These rivers drain into the Bay of Bengal except the Narmada and the Tapi which drain into the Arabian Sea.

Answer 15:
Disguised unemployment: When more than required people are working then the extra people engaged, these are called disguised unemployed. This type of unemployment is found in the agricultural fields. They don’t have job opportunities elsewhere so they are sharing the labour effort with their family members.
Seasonal hunger: It is related to the cycles of food growing and harvesting. People face seasonal hunger in the rural areas because of seasonal nature of agricultural activities.

Answer 16:
The term social exclusion is used to describe those who are excluded from the society on the basis of caste, religion and economic backwardness. They live in the fringes. They don’t enjoy the benefits of the society’ which the upper caste people or rich people enjoy. They are not allowed to come in contact with the upper caste people.

Answer 17:
Basically there are four factors of production- land, labour, physical capital and human capital.

1. Land: It is the basic requirement for any kind of production either agricultural or industrial.
2. Labour: For production we need cheap and skilled labour. So that cost of production will be low.
3. Physical capital: It is of two types- fixed capital and working capital. Fixed capital includes tools and machines whereas working capital includes raw materials and money in hand.

Answer 18:
Green revolution benefitted the Indian agriculture in different ways:

1. Green revolution helped in modernizing agriculture.
2. It helped in bringing newer ways of production like tools and machines.
3. It helped in bringing food security in the country.

Answer 19:
The consequences of Nazism in Germany were as follows:

1. Democracy was destroyed and Germany became dictatorial state.
2. Economic recovery was given the priority with the aim at full production and full employment.
3. Germany left the League of Nations in 1933.
4. To control and order the society in their own way special surveillance and security forces were formed.
5. An exclusive racial community of pure Aryans was established because they believed in the concept of survival of the fittest.

Answer 20:
Shifting cultivation is a type of cultivation in which the farmers degrade the forest and bum it there only to clear and make a fresh patch of land to be used for cultivation. Seeds are sown with the onset of monsoon and is harvested in the month of October-November. These plots were used for cultivation for few years and then kept fallow for many years for the forest to grow.
In Europe farmers did not want to follow this type of agriculture because they felt that if they will practice this type of cultivation then the land will not be able to produce the type of timber which was needed for railways. The second reason to not practice this type of cultivation was fear of forest fire. They thought that while burning the forest, the flames may spread to other parts of the forests.

OR

The Massai community lost their land due to the following reasons:

1. Territorial possessions by the European powers was the basic reason behind losing their grazing land.
2. In 1885, Massailand was divided between British Kenya and German Tanganyika.
3. The productive grazing lands were allotted for white settlement and the Massai were forced to shift to the arid land.
4. The pasturelands were converted into the cultivated lands due to agricultural expansion.
5. Large areas of the grazing lands were declared reserved and the Massai people were not allowed to enter there for any business.

OR

Indian farmers were reluctant to grow opium due to the following reasons:

1. They had to use their best fertile land to grow opium.
2. They were using their fertile land for the crop cultivation.
3. It was difficult and time consuming to grow opium.
4. They had to pay high rent for the land.
5. The opium cultivation was not profitable for them as they were paid low for opium.

Answer 21:
Democratic and non- democratic form of government can be differentiated on the following grounds:

1. In the democratic government the elected people rule the country whereas in the non- democratic government people cannot choose their rulers.
2. In the democratic government citizens enjoy various freedoms whereas in the non- demociratic government freedom depends on the rulers.
3. In the democratic government representatives come in power after free and fair election whereas in the non-democratic government there is no such way to choose their representatives.
4. In the democratic government there is political equality whereas in the non-democratic government there is no political equality.
5. The democratic government functions according to the constitutional laws whereas the non-democratic government functions according to their will.

Answer 22:
The constitution is needed in a country due to the following reasons:

1. To build trust and coordination among the people to live with peace and harmony.
2. To specify the formation and the powers of the government.
3. To define the duties and responsibilities of different organs of the government.
4. To know the rights and duties of the people.
5. To protect the minorities and the weaker sections of the society.

Answer 23:
The following are the characteristics of the tropical deciduous forests:

1. The tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread in India.
2. They also called the monsoon forests.
3. They are found in the areas receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.
4. Trees of the tropical deciduous forests shed their leaves in the dry summer for 6 to 8 weeks.
5. Lion, tiger, pig, deer and elephants are the common animals of these forests.

Answer 24:
The occupational structure of India:

1. It is the distribution of population according to different types of occupation.
2. The different occupations can be grouped into three different categories – primary, secondary and tertiary.
3. Primary activities includes agriculture related activities, secondary activities includes manufacturing related activities and tertiary activities includes service related activities.
4. In India 64% people are engaged in the primary, 13% in the secondary and 20% in the tertiary activities.
5. There is a shift taking place from primary to secondary and tertiary.

Answer 25:
The following are the differences between the modem farming and the traditional farming:

1. In modem farming latest tools and machines are used whereas in the traditional farming primitive tools are used for farming.
2. In modem farming HYV seeds are used whereas in traditional farming simple seeds are used.
3. In modem farming chemical fertilisers and pesticides are used whereas in traditional farming natural manures are used.
4. Modem farming gives more yield than the traditional farming.
5. The land is used more intensively in the modem farming than the traditional farming.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme, as prescribed by the CBSE, is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
What was the reason for increasing the taxes by the French government?

Question 2:
What do you mean by the term proportional representation?

Question 3:
Define referendum.

Question 4:
Name the types of states in India during British Time.

Question 5:
Name the different factors of production.

Question 6:
What are the investments done in humans to make them a resource?

Question 7:
Define seasonal hunger.

Question 8:
What were the causes of subsistence crisis in France during the old regime?

Question 9:
Write a note on the division of workers in social groups in Russia.

Question 10:
How can democracy be criticized?

Question 11:
Give a brief description about Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 12:
How can you say that the Election Commission in India is independent and powerful?

Question 13:
Write a note on the river called Dakshin Ganga.

Question 14:
Which factors decides the climate of any place?

Question 15:
Mention any three non-farm activities in the village Palampur.

Question 16:
How are the market activities different from the non- market activities?

Question 17:
What are the causes of poverty in India.

Question 18:
Explain the dimensions of food security.

Question 19:
Discuss the steps taken against the Jews between 1933-1939.

Question 20:
What were the causes that led to the decline of forest area in the Indian sub-continent between 1880 and 1920?
OR
Write a note on the movement of pastorals in the mountains.
OR
What were the effects of open field system in England?

Question 21:
How are the political executives different from the permanent executives?

Question 22:
“International covenant has contributed to the expansion of rights”. Justify.

Question 23:
How are the Western Ghats different from the Eastern Ghats?

Question 24:
Population is a dynamic phenomenon. Justify.

Question 25:
What do you mean by the term food security? Discuss the role of green revolution in food security in India.

Question 26:
Identify these places and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of France:
(a) Marseiles
(b) Bordeaux

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) Rajaji wildlife sanctuary
(b) The Chhotanagpur plateau
(c) State having lowest density of population.

Answers

Answer 1:
The French Government increased the taxes to meet the regular expenses of maintaining army, the court, the government offices and the universities.

Answer 2:
Proportional representation is an electoral system in which political groups get the number of seats in the legislature in proportion to the number of votes

Answer 3:
It is a system of direct voting in which the people are asked to accept or reject a proposal entirely.

Answer 4:
The two types of states in India before 1947 were – the princely states and the provincial.

Answer 5:
Land, labour, physical capital and human capital are together called factors of production.

Answer 6:
The two investments done in humans to make them a resource are- education and skill formation.

Answer 7:
Seasonal hunger is related to the cycles of food growing and harvesting. People face seasonal hunger in the rural areas because of seasonal nature of agricultural activities.

Answer 8:
The causes of subsistence crisis in France during old regime were:

1. There was increasing demand for the food grains due to the increase in the population.
2. The price of bread increased because the production of food grains was not increasing.
3. As the prices were rising but the wages were not.

Answer 9:
The following is the explanation of the division of workers in the social groups in Russia:

1. Some of them were closely associated with the villages while others settled in cities.
2. Metal workers in Russia were more skilled than other workers.
3. Females were also working in the factories along with the males but they were paid low.

Answer 10:
Democracy can be criticized on the following basis:

1. There is high political competition therefore there is no morality.
2. There is a situation of instability in case the leaders keep changing.
3. Decision making in democracy is a big problem as so many people have to be consulted.

Answer 11:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was bom in Bihar. He was elected as the President of the constituent assembly. He played an important role in the Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar. He was the first President of independent India.

Answer 12:
Yes, it is true to say that the Election Commission in India is independent and powerful. It is due to the following reasons:

1. The election commission can express his disapproval to the government.
2. The election commission can order for a repoll in case of unfair polling at a particular booth or the entire constituency.
3. All the government officers have to work under the control of the election commission when they are on election duty.

Answer 13:
The three characteristics of the river called Dakshin Ganga are:

1. The Godavari River is called the Dakshin Ganga, which is having the largest river basin in the peninsular.
2. The Godavari rises in the Nasik district of Maharashtra and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
3. The Puma, the Wardha, the Pranhita, the Manjara are the main tributaries of the river Godavari.

Answer 14:
There are various factors affecting the climate of any place. The most important are as follows:

1. Latitude: If a place is near to the equator then it will have high temperature and humidity. As we move towards the pole temperature decreases.
2. Relief: The high altitude areas will have cold climate and the low altitude areas will have comparatively hot climate.
3. Distance from the sea: Places located near to the sea will have the moderating influence of the sea whereas places away from the oceans will have extreme climate.

Answer 15:
The following is the explanation for the non-farm activities in the village Palampur:

1. Dairy farming: Some people in the village Palampur do dairy farming. They rear cattle and feed them on grass, jowar and bajra. They have collection cum chilling centres in the nearby cities.
2. Small-scale manufacturing: It is done with simple production methods carried out at homes with the help of family members.
3. Transport: There are different means of transport in Palampur used to ferry people.

Answer 16:
The following are the three differences between market and non-market activities:

1. Market activities includes the activities related to the production and consumption whereas the non-market activities includes non-economic activities.
2. Market activities are performed to earn some money whereas non-market activities are performed for self-consumption.
3. A doctor in a hospital is performing market activity whereas a farmer producing crops for self-consumption is a non-market activity?

Answer 17:
The causes for poverty in India are:

1. Low level of economic growth in the pre independence time.
2. High growth rate of population.
3. Unequal distribution of land and other resources among the people.

Answer 18:
The three different dimensions of poverty are:

1. Availability: It means the food grains are available in the country through production or import or the previous year stock.
2. Accessibility: It means food grains are within reach of all the people of the country.
3. Affordability: It means all the people of the country are able to afford i.e., can buy the nutritious food grains.

Answer 19:
The steps taken against the Jews between 1933-1939 were:

1. Only the Germans will be enjoying the protection of the state.
2. The Jews were not allowed to marry with the Germans.
3. Extra marital relations between the Jews and the Germans were declared crime.
4. Jews were discarded from the government services.
5. Jews were not allowed to fly flags.

Answer 20:
The different causes that led to the decline of forest area in the Indian sub-continent between 1880 and 1920 were:

1. Wood was needed for the development of railways. It was needed to run locomotives, to lay the railway lines and sleepers.
2. The demand for wood increased in England for shipbuilding as they were facing shortage of timber for the royal navy.
3. The forest areas were degraded for raising commercial crops like cotton, jute, wheat etc.
4. The British government thought that the forest areas are unproductive and should be converted into agricultural lands so that they can get surplus food grains and expected revenues also.
5. Even the Adivasi’s and the peasants were also totally dependent on the forest for their livelihood. So they also contributed in the depletion of the forest areas.

OR

There are so many pastoralists in the mountainous parts of India.
The Gujjars and Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir were the herders of sheep and goats. They moved in a group called Kafila. During the summer they move to the upper heights of the mountains and during the winter they were back to the valleys.
The Gaddi shepherds of the Himachal Pradesh moved to the low hills of the shivaliks during winter and to Lahul and Spiti in summer.
The Bhotiyas, Sherpas, Kinnauris and other pastoral communities practiced the same cyclic movement between the summer and the winter pastures.

OR

The open field system affected the women in England in various ways. Now they had to pasture their cows and graze their sheeps, collected fuelwood for fire and fruits for food and fished in the rivers and ponds. Now these peasant women were in a better position than before. With this system of open field these women were able to supplement their family income. This system was also helpful for them in their bad times when the crops failed.

Answer 21:
The political executives can be differentiated from the permanent executives on the following grounds:

1. The political executives are elected by the people of the country whereas the permanent executives are the civil servants.
2. The political executives consists of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers whereas the permanent executives incudes IAS, IFS, IPS etc.
3. The political executives are elected for a fixed tenure whereas the permanent executives are appointed for a long period.
4. The political executives are responsive whereas the permanent executives are not responsive.
5. The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives.

Answer 22:
It is true to say that International covenant has contributed to the expansion of rights. It helped and binds its signatory countries in providing some socio-economic and cultural rights. These are:

1. Right to work which gives says that people are free to work and earn their livelihood.
2. Right to safe and healthy working conditions.
3. Right to adequate standard of living.
4. Right to social security.
5. Right to education.

Answer 23:
The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats can be differentiated on the following basis:

1. The Western Ghats are the western margins of the Deccan plateau whereas the Eastern Ghats are the eastern margins of the Deccan plateau.
2. The Western Ghats are discontinuous whereas the Eastern Ghats are irregular and dissected.
3. The Western Ghats causes orographic rainfall whereas the Eastern Ghats causes cyclonic rainfall.
4. The Western Ghats have higher elevation than the Eastern Ghats.
5. The important rivers draining the Western Ghats are the Narmada and the Tapi whereas the Eastern Ghats are drained by the major rivers like the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

Answer 24:
The various factors responsible for the population change are birth rate, death rate and migration.

1. Birth rate: Birth rate can be defined as the number of live births per thousand in a particular year. If the birth rate of a country is high then it will cause a high growth rate if it is assisted by the low death rate. If the birth rate is low then there will be low change in the population.
2. Death rate: Death rate can be defined as the number of deaths per thousand live birth in a particular year. If the death rate of a country is high then it will cause a low population growth rate and if it is low then the population growth will be high.
3. Migration: It is defined as the movement of people from one place to another due to the push factors like unemployment, lack of health and education etc., and the pull factors of a place like better health and educational facilities, job opportunities etc. both the factors will bring a change in the population.

Answer 25:
Food security can be defined as the availability, accessibility and the affordability of food to all people at all times. The condition of agriculture in India before independence was not good and so was the total production. So that time people were facing the problem of food insecurity. The major step taken by the government after independence to improve the condition of agriculture was the introduction of green revolution in 1960s.
With the introduction of green revolution Indian farmers started using the HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, modem tools and machines in agriculture which helped in increasing the crop production to a new heights. Then after the government of India started the buffer stock and the rationing system to provide food grains to all the people which helped in maintaining food security in India.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
Define the term old regime.

Question 2:
What is a genocidal war?

Question 3:
Write the full form of RTI.

Question 4:
How is the Suez Canal important for India?

Question 5:
What do you mean by the term yield?

Question 6:
Define market activities.

Question 7:
Write the full form of PMRY.

Question 8:
Write about the reasons for the turmoil in France.

Question 9:
Write the view points of the radicals.

Question 10:
Why is the democracy called the best form of government?

Question 11:
“There is a need for the constitution in every country”. Explain.

Question 12:
What choices are given to the voters during election?

Question 13:
Write about the bhabar belt of the northern plain.

Question 14:
Explain any three factors affecting the climate of any place.

Question 15:
How did the spread of electricity help the farmers of Palampur?

Question 16:
National Population Policy in India plays an important role. Discuss.

Question 17:
How is the poverty line in India estimated?

Question 18:
Explain the two dimensions of hunger.

Question 19:
Write a note on the foreign policy of Hitler.

Question 20:
Comment on the colonial management of forests in Bastar and in Java.
OR
Write about the movements of the pastoral nomads on the plateaus.
OR
The situation of England was critical after the end of the Napoleonic wars. Explain.

Question 21:
How is the Lok sabha different from the Rajya sabha?

Question 22:
Elaborate the statement “The scope of rights has expanded in recent times”.

Question 23:
Discuss the formation of the Himalayas.

Question 24:
Why is the population considered as a pivotal element in social studies?

Question 25:
Explain the rationing system in India.

Question 26:
Identify these places and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of France:
(a) Paris
(b) Nantes

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) State having highest sex ratio in India.
(b) Coromandal coast
(c) Mahendragiri

Answers

Answer 1:
Before 1789, the term ‘old regime’ was used to describe the society and the institutions.

Answer 2:
Killing on large scale which eliminated the large section of people are termed as genocidal war.

Answer 3:
RTI stands for right to information. According to this right we can seek information from the government department related to public work.

Answer 4:
It was opened in 1869 which reduced the distance between India and Europe by 7000kms.

Answer 5:
It is the total production in a cropping season.

Answer 6:
Activities for which people get remuneration or get paid are called market activities.

Answer 7:
It stands for Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana.

Answer 8:
The reasons for the turmoil in France were:

1. There was bad harvest due to the severe winter which resulted in the rising prices of bread. The bakers and the hoarded suppliers taken the benefit of this shortage. The women had to stand in long queue for long hours. So they stormed into the shops.
2.  There was a rumour that army would be ordered to open fire upon the citizens. This caused agitation among the people and they decided to form a militia.
3. In search of the arms agitated people broke into number of government buildings and destroyed the prison of Bastille on 14th july 1789.

Answer 9:
The radicals were of the following viewpoints:

1. They wanted a government formed and chosen by the majority of the population.
2. They were in support of women suffragette movements.
3. They were not in favour of concentration of wealth in few hands.

Answer 10:
Due to the following reasons democracy is considered the best form of government:

1. In democratic form of government, the government is responsive to the needs of the people.
2. Democratic government respect peoples wishes, gives an environment to live together with peace and harmony.
3. Democratic government allows ways of correcting its mistakes.

Answer 11:
Need of the constitution can be supported by the following reasons:

1. A constitution generates a degree of trust and give space to people to live together with peace and harmony.
2. It defines and builts relationship between the different organs of the government.
3. It protects the interest of minorities in the country.

Answer 12:
Some of the choices given to the voters during elections are:

1. Voters’can chose their representatives who can make laws for them.
2. Voters can chose their representatives who can form the government and take the major decisions.
3. Voters can chose the party whose policies are strong and for the welfare of the society.

Answer 13:
(a) It is one of the four divisions of the northern plains.
(b) It is to the south of the shivaliks in a width of 8 -16 kms.
(c) Rivers deposit pebbles in this region and rivers disappear in this bhabar belt.

Answer 14:
There are various factors affecting the climate of any place. The most important are as follows:

1. Latitude: If a place is near to the equator then it will have high temperature and humidity. As we move towards the pole temperature decreases.
2. Relief: The high altitude areas will have cold climate and the low altitude areas will have comparatively hot climate.
3. Distance from the sea: Places located near to the sea will have the moderating influence of the sea whereas places away from the oceans will have extreme climate.

Answer 15:
This is true to say that the spread of electricity helped the farmers of Palampyr because then after the farmers changed the system of irrigation from Persian wheels to electric run tube wells. This change also helped in increasing their total agricultural production from 1300 to 3200 kg per hectare. Now they don’t have to be dependent on the monsoon. They can irrigate the field much faster than earlier.

Answer 16:
(a) According to NPP 2000 there is free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years.
(b) It aims at bringing down the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
(c) It aims to achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.

Answer 17:
It is an imaginary line to demarcate poor and rich on different basis such as income, consumption etc. In India poverty line is estimated after every five years by conducting surveys by the National Sample Survey Organization.
On the basis of calorie intake per person per day calorie intake is 2400 in the rural areas and it is 2100 in the urban areas. It is set high for the rural areas because they are more engaged in physical work.
On the basis of income poverty line is fixed ₹816 per person per month for the rural areas whereas it is bit high for the urban areas i.e., ₹1000. It is so because the prices of the essential products in the urban areas are higher.

Answer 18:
The two different dimensions of hunger are:
(a) Seasonal hunger:

• It is related to the cycles of food growing and harvesting.
• People face seasonal hunger in the rural areas because of seasonal nature of agricultural activities.

(b) Chronic hunger:

• It is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quality or quantity.
• In the urban areas it occurs because of casual labour, very low income and inability to buy food.

Answer 19:
Hitler brought a major change in the foreign policy of Germany just after coming to power. The changes are as follows:

1. In 1933, Germany moved out of the League of Nations.
2. Again in 1936 he reoccupied Rhineland.
3. In 1938, he captured Austria.
4. Gradually he captured the erst while country of Czechoslovakia.
5. He followed the policy of war and annexation to come out of the economic crisis that the country was facing.

Answer 20:
The colonial management of forests in Bastar and Java had the following similarities:
In Bastar the colonial government reserved 2/3 rd of the forests, put a ban on shifting cultivation, hunting and collection of forest produce. Almost the same forest management policy was there in Java. Here the villagers were not allowed for grazing cattle, transporting goods without the permit or travelling on forest roads.
In Bastar the villagers were not allowed to stay in the reserved forests and had to work free for the forest department and help them in cutting and transporting the trees. In Java also, the villagers had to pay rent on the land being cultivated initially. But later on some villages were exempted from paying rent if they provide free labour and helping the government in cutting and transporting timber.

OR

Pastoral nomads were the people who moved from one place to another with their livestock for their livelihood. They were not settled at one place. The features of the pastoral nomads are as follows:

1. They had to adjust with the seasonal changes. When the pasturelands get exhausted they moved to another place.
2. They moved to the coastal areas in dry season and came back to the plateau areas.
3. They had relationship with the farmers so that their herds could graze in the harvested fields.
4. They did different occupations like cultivation, trade and herding etc.

OR

It is true to say that the situation of England was critical after the end of the Napoleonic wars. It was due to the following reasons:

1. After the Napoleonic wars the soldiers were returning to their homes and wanted some alternate job to survive.
2. They were facing the problem of agricultural depression as the grains were exported from Europe resulted in the falling prices.
3. Landowners in Europe were reducing the land area under cultivation. As a result they reduced the wages and also the labourers were retrenched.
4. Due to war and downfall in agriculture there was large scale unemployment in the country.
5. In the rural areas of England riot was spread by captain swing.

Answer 21:
The following are the difference points for the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha:

1. Generally the ordinary bill needs to be passed in both the houses but if there is any difference then the final decision will be taken in a joint session. As there are more members in the Lok Sabha than the Rajya Sabha, so the views of Lok Sabha will prevail.
2. In case of money bills Lok Sabha is more powerful than that of Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha cannot reject the money related bills if the Lok Sabha has already passed it. Within 14 days Rajya Sabha has to reply on that with or without any suggestion. Even after it is in the hand of Lok Sabha to do the changes or not.
3. Lok Sabha having the power of using “no confidence” which Rajya Sabha does not have.

Answer 22:
Due to the following changes at national and international level it is true to say that the scope of rights has expanded in recent times:

1. Right to freedom of press, right to information, right to education are the rights derived from the fundamental rights.
2. The Government of India has introduced free and compulsory education to all the children up to the age of 14 years.
3. Right to property, right to vote are also enriched by the government.
4. Human rights, international movements and covenants has also contributed to the expansion of rights.
5. Some newer rights has been given to the people like- right to privacy, right to environment, right to food, water, health care and housing.

Answer 23:
Millions of years ago all the land parts of the earth were together called Pangea. The northern landmass was called Angaraland and the southern landmass was called Gondwanaland. There was a Tethys sea in between these two land parts in which the rivers from the north and the rivers from the south were depositing sediments. Later, the peninsular plateau got separated from the gondwanaland due to the convectional currents and moved towards the north. Now the Indo- Australian plate was moving towards the much bigger Eurasian plate. This collision resulted in the rise of the sediments which were deposited in the Tethys Sea. Thus this whole process resulted in the formation of the Himalayas.

Answer 24:
Yes, it is true that population is a pivotal element in social studies.

1. It is the people who make and use the resources and are themselves as a resource.
2. It is the point of reference from which all other elements are observed and derive their significance.
3. To understand and appreciate all aspects of the environment, the number, distribution, growth and qualities are very important.
4. It is the people who develop the society and the economy.
5. Human beings are the producers and the consumers of the earth’s resource. Hence, it is important to know their number, distribution and characteristics.

Answer 25:
The food security system of India is carefully designed to ensure the availability of food to all the people at all the times. The food security system is composed of the following two components:

• Buffer stock: It is the stock of food grains like rice and wheat procured by the government through the food corporation of India (FCI). The FCI purchases rice and wheat from the areas of surplus food production at a pre- announced price called minimum support price (MSP).
• Public distribution system: This is a system of distribution of food grains among the poorer sections of the society basically those who are below poverty line. This is done through the ration shops which are also called fair price shops.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 9 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 9 Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

• The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
• All questions are compulsory. However an internal choice will be provided in two questions of 3 marks each and one question of five marks.
• All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 2 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
• Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
• Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
• Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
• Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are two-marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief

Questions
SECTION-A

Question 1.
What is the charge and mass of proton?

Question 2.
What is haemocoel? Which group of animals have haemocoel?

Question 3.
The number of electrons in the outermost shell of chlorine is 7. What is its valency and why?

Question 4.
How will you differentiate between a primitive organism from the advanced organisms?

Question 5.
Explain why feather falls slowly than a coin under gravity through air.

Question 6.
State one feature that is similar and one feature that is dissimilar with respect to mitochondria and plastids.

Question 7.
What is meant by the term mole? Calculate the number of moles in
(a) 3.011 × 10²³ atoms of C
(b) 32 g of oxygen gas
[N_A = 6.022 × 10²³ mol^-1, At. Mass of O = 16 u and C = 12 u]

Question 8.
State the distinguishing characteristics of the division Thallophyta.
OR
State three ways in which phloem is different from Xylem.

Question 9.
List the names of three diseases caused by virus stating their mode of communication in each mode.
OR

1. Why is making of anti-viral medicines harder than anti-bacterial medicines?
2. How can we prevent the exposure to infectious microbes?

Question 10.
Define pressure and its S.I. Unit. The dimensions of a metallic cuboid are 30 cm × 20 cm × 15 cm and its mass is 30 kg. If the acceleration due to gravity be 10 m/sec², Calculate the pressure exerted by the cuboid, when it is resting on the face having sides 20cm × 15 cm on a table.

Question 11.
State the law of conservation of momentum. Why a person is hit harder when he falls on a hard floor than when he falls on a heap of sand from the same height?
A bullet of mass 20 g is fired horizontally with a velocity 100 m/s from a pistol of mass 1.5 kg. Calculate the recoil velocity of the pistol.

Question 12.
Give an example in each case where work done by a force is:

1. Zero
2. Positive
3. Negative

Question 13.
A goldsmith measured the purity of gold by using a special measuring device. He told the customer that there was impurity present in gold ornament that he wanted to buy and it was not 22 carats but 18 carats jewellery.

1. How can we find the purity of gold?
2. What is the unit of relative density?
3. What value of goldsmith is reflected in this act?

Question 14.
Silver nitrate solution was mixed with 5 g of sodium chloride solution to verify the law of conservation of mass. 8.1 gram of silver chloride was formed and sodium nitrate formed was equal to half of the amount of silver nitrate solution used. What is the amount of AgNO₃ used and NaNO₃ formed.

Question 15.

1. Why are the roofs and walls of an auditorium hall generally covered with sound absorbent materials?
2. The sound of ringing bell inside a vacuum chamber can’t be heard. Why?

Question 16.
A silver ornament of mass ‘m’ grams is polished with gold equivalent to 1% of the mass of silver. Compute the ratio of the number of atoms of gold and silver in the ornament.

Question 17.
Explain the structure of the human ear with the help of a diagram.

Question 18.
What do you mean by work? Give an example of negative work done? What is the work done to increase the velocity of a car from 18 km/hr to 90 km/hr, if the mass of the car is 2000 kg.

Question 19.

1. State two factors on which the magnitude of buoyant force acting on a body immersed in a fluid depends.
2. Will the buoyant force exerted by a liquid increase, if its volume is increased?
3. Name some devices based on the Archimedes principle.

Question 20.
Continuous addition of fertilisers to the soil destroys its fertility. Long term fertilisers use is substituted with the various cropping pattern to maintain the fertility of the soil. Discuss few cropping patterns, their techniques and benefits.
OR

1. Define vaccine. Name two vaccines given to children.
2. What is antibiotic penicillin? Explain its functioning.

Question 21.

1. List four main processes involved in the water cycle.
2. Give a diagrammatic representation of Nitrogen cycle in nature.

SECTION-B

Question 22.
The length, breadth and height of a cuboid of mass m kg are 5 cm, 3 cm and 2 cm respectively. Calculate the surface area of the surface where the pressure on the floor will be maximum.

Question 23.
Write the difference between male and female cone of Pinus?

Question 24.
In a chemical reaction, sodium carbonate (5.3 g) reacts with and ethanoic acid (6 g) forms (8.2 g) sodium ethanoate, (2.2 g) carbon dioxide and (0.9 g) water.
Does the product formed follow the law of conservation of mass.

Question 25.
In a plant, name two features which you would examine to categorise it into a monocot or a dicot plant.

Question 26.
How does a cockroach adapt itself to a wide range of habitats?

Question 27.
What are the different adulterants commonly found in foods?

Answers
SECTION-A

Answer 1.
Proton has positive charge. Its mass is 1.675 × 10^-27 kg.

Answer 2.
Haemocoel is a pseudocoel with blood. It is found in arthropods and molluscs.

Answer 3.
Its valency is one because it can gain one electron to become stable like its nearest noble gases argon.

Answer 4.
The group of organisms which have ancient body designs and have not changed much are called “primitive” organisms. They are different from the advanced organisms as advanced organisms are group of organisms which have acquired their particular body designs recently.

Answer 5.
Air resistance depends on the surface area which is more in case of feather.

Answer 6.
Similar feature: Both have their own DNA and ribosome to synthesise their own proteins.
Dissimilar feature: Mitochondria is the site of cellular respiration and release energy, while plastids with chlorophyll are centre for photosynthesis and store energy.

Answer 7.
Mole is defined as the counting unit at atomic & molecular level and is equal to 6.022 × 10²³ atoms which is the number of atoms 12 g of ₁₂C isotope.

Answer 8.
The characteristic features of the division Thallophyta are:

• The plant body consists of individual thallus.
• The sex organs are single celled.
• After fertilisation, no embryo is formed.

OR

• Phloem allows the movement of materials in both the directions and Xylem allows the movement in only one direction(upwards).
• Phloem transports food from leaves to all parts of the plant body and Xylem transports water and minerals from roots to all the parts of the plant body.
• Phloem does not use suction pull force like xylem and it does not many dead cells as xylem has.

Answer 9.

• Jaundice – Contaminated food and water.
• Rabies – Saliva of infected animal.
• AIDS – Through sexual contact, blood transfusion, reusing the contaminated needle, from infected mother to the foetus.

OR
1. Antibiotics block the bacterial process that builds the cell wall in bacteria. As a result, the growing bacteria become unable to make cell wall and dies away easily. Viruses do not have any biochemical mechanism of their own. They enter our cells and use our machinery for their life processes. Therefore making of anti-viral medicine is difficult than anti-bacterial medicine.

2. We can prevent exposure to airborne microbes by providing living conditions that are not overcrowded. Exposure to waterborne microbes can be prevented by providing safe . drinking water. This can be done by proper scientific way of treating the water to kill any microbial contamination. Exposure to vector-borne microbes can be prevented by living in a clean environment.

Answer 10.
Pressure is defined as thrust per unit area (or force acting per unit area). Its SI unit is Pascal, (Pa)
m = 30 kg
A = 20 cm × 15 cm = 300 cm²
= 0.03 m²
g = 10 m/s²
p = \(\frac { mg }{ V }\) = \(\frac { 30\times 10 }{ 0.03 }\)
= 10⁴ Pa

Answer 11.
Law of conservation of momentum: The sum of the momenta of the two objects before collision is equal to the sun of the momenta after collision, provided there is no external unbalanced force acting on them.
When a person falls on the hard floor, he is brought to rest in a very short interval of time, so a greater force come into play.
On the other hand when he falls on a heap of sand, he is brought to rest in a longer time, so lesser force come into play/explanation in terms of momentum.

Total momentum before firing (pistol & bullet) = 0
Total momentum after firing (of pistol & bullet) is
= 0.02 kg × ( 100 m s^-1) + 1.5 kg × v ms^-1
= (2 + 1.5 v) kg ms^-1
Total momenta after firing = total momenta before firing
2 + 1.5 v = 0
1.5 v = -2
∴ v = 1.33 m/s

Answer 12.

1. work done by gravity on a rolling ball.
2. hitting a stationary ball.
3. work done by a friction of a rolling bail.

Answer 13.

1. The purity of gold can be found out by knowing the density of the gold.
2. Relative density does not have any unit.
3. Goldsmith showed the value of honesty and he is trustworthy.

Answer 14.
Let the mass of AgNO₃ used be x.
Then, mass of NaNO₃ formed will be \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\)
Mass of reactants = Mass of products
x + 5 = 8.1 + \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\)
\(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) = 3.1
x = 6.10 g
Mass of AgNO₃ Used = 6.10 g
Mass of NaNO₃ formed = \(\frac { 6.10 }{ 2 }\) = 3.05 g

Answer 15.

1. If absorbent materials are absent then there will be multiple echoes, due to which sound cannot be heard clearly.
2. Sound waves are mechanical waves and cannot travel through vaccum.

Answer 16.

Answer 17.

(a) Outer Ear: Pinna, auditory canal and tymphanic membrane.

• Pinna – It collects the sound from the surroundings.
• Auditory Canal – The sound waves collected pass through this canal.
• Tymphanic Membrane – It is a thin membrane which receives the vibrations of sound. A compression reaches the ear drum, the pressure on the outside of the membrane increases and pushes the ear drum inwards, and moves out when the rarefaction reaches the ear drum.

(b) Middle Ear: Consists of three small bones called hammer, anvil and stirrup. The vibrations are received by these three bones and the strength of vibrations is increased i.e., the sound is amplified and passed to inner ear.
(c) Inner Ear: It consist of cochlea and auditory nerve. Cochlea receives the amplified vibrations and convert them into electrical signals. These electrical signals are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve and brain interprets the signals as sound.

Answer 18.
Work is said to be done when the force applied on an object moves it in its own direction.
Example of negative work done – When a body is sliding on a surface, work done by force of friction is negative.

Answer 19.

1. Buoyant force = Weight of liquid displaced
   = (Volume of the liquid displaced) × (Density of liquid) × (Acceleration due to gravity)
   So, density of liquid and volume of the liquid displaced affects the buoyant force.
2. Buoyant force exerted by liquid does not depend upon its volume.
   So, the buoyant force will not increase on increasing the volume of the liquid.
3. Hydrometer and lactometer are based on Archimedes’ principle. Submarines are also designed according to Archimedes’ principle.

Answer 20.
Three different cropping patterns, namely mixed cropping, inter-cropping and crop-rotation are generally practised.
1. Mixed cropping allows two or more crops to be owed simultaneously on the same piece of land. Wheat and gram, wheat and mustard, groundnut and sunflower etc. are some common examples of crops grown through mixed cropping. Crops are chosen in such a way that they require different amounts of minerals.

2. Inter-cropping allows farmers to grow two or more crops simultaneously in the same field in a definite pattern. For example, cauliflower and chilli plants are grown together in alternating rows on a single field. To ensure that maximum utilisation of the nutrients applied, crops are selected in such a way that their nutrient requirements are different. Other examples of crops grown through inter-cropping include soyabean and maize, finger millet (bajra) and cow-pea (lobia) etc.

3. Crop-rotation is the practice of growing two or more varieties of crops in the same field in sequential seasons. A common example of crop-rotation is to cultivate maize followed . by soyabean. This system helps in protecting crops from pests and diseases. The crops selected, vary in nutrient requirements. This ensures complete and uniform utilisation of the nutrients applied.
OR

1. Vaccine is a chemical/drug given in advance to a body to give immunity against certain diseases.
   Two vaccines given to children are:
   • BCG – for tuberculosis prevention
   • Polio drops – for polio prevention
2. Antibiotic penicillin is a vaccine which blocks the bacterial processes that build the cell wall when the bacteria infects a living person. Due to this drug, the bacteria is unable to make a protective cell wall and it dies away easily. It is used to cure the diseases and infections caused by bacteria.

Answer 21.
1. Evaporation – Condensation – Transpiration – Precipitation
2.

SECTION-B

Answer 22.
Surface having dimensions 3 cm and 2 cm, respectively, having surface area = (3 × 2) cm² has more pressure,
∵ Pressure is inversely proportional to area. If area is less, pressure is more.

Answer 23.

• Female cones are large and woody.
• Male cones are smaller and tender.

Answer 24.
Sodium carbonate + Ethanoic acid → Sodium ethanoate + Carbon Dioxide + Water.

∵ It follows the law of conservation of mass.

Answer 25.
In any given plant to classify it as monocot or dicot, we need to see the venation in leaves, reticulated net like pattern refers to dicot plant and parallel venation refers to monocot plant.

Answer 26.
Cockraoch has a hard exoskeleton that serves many functions, including protection from water, loss and physical injury and internally required for muscle attachment, which results in tremendous leverage and strength. It also undergoes hibernation during unfavorable conditions.

Answer 27.
The commonly used adulterants in food are:

• Black pepper – dry seeds of papaya
• Honey – Jaggery
• Mustard seeds – argemone seeds
• Red chilli powder – red brick powder

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