CBSE Class 12

Here we are providing NCERT Solutions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poem 1 My Mother at Sixty-six. Students can get Class 12 English My Mother at Sixty-six NCERT Solutions, Questions and Answers designed by subject expert teachers.

Indigo NCERT Solutions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poem 1

My Mother at Sixty-six NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

My Mother at Sixty-six Think it out 

Question 1.
What do you think is the pain and the ache that the poet feels?
Answer:
The poet was driving back from her parent’s home to Cochin, and she gazed at her mother, sleeping, beside her. The poet felt agonized at the thought of her mother growing old. The realisation that her mother was inching towards death made the poet sad as she was plagued by the thought of losing her.

Question 2.
Why are the young trees described as ‘sprinting’?
Answer:
The poet, in order to distract her mind from the painful sight, looks out of the window. The trees outside her car window rushed past her as she drove ahead. On looking out from a moving vehicle, stationary objects seem to be moving in the opposite direction. Kamala Das compared the trees to young children, with boundless energy running past her window. She uses the poetic device of personification to achieve this comparison.

Question 3.
Why has the poet used the image of the merry children “spilling out of their homes”?
Answer:
The poet saw the children rushing out of their homes. The children were young and full of life, a sad contrast to her aged mother. They represented joyousness and vitality, a contrast to the ashen visage of the poet’s ageing mother. The image of the children lends a contrast to her mood.

Question 4.
Why has the mother been compared to the “late winter’s moon”?
Answer:
The ashen and pale visage of her mother led the poet to compare her mother with that of a late winter’s moon. The winter moon that had lost its luminosity and was waning is used as a simile to compare the mother’s old and pale countenance.

Question 5.
What do the parting words of the poet and her smile signify?
Answer:
The parting words of the poet and her smile signify her pain and fear of losing her mother. She tried to put on a brave front by hiding her fear behind a smile. She tried to hide her fear from her mother as she called out, “See you soon, Amma.” The smile also might mean a forced optimism which allowed her to believe that her mother might yet live for a long time

My Mother at Sixty-six Extra Questions and Answers

My Mother at Sixty-six  Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the words that convey the poet’s agony?
Answer:
Looking at her mother, drained of colour, the poet realizes that her mother had grown old and weak and had come to the end of her life. The words “familiar ache” universalizes the emotion. She talks of her mother’s frailty by comparing her to a “corpse”. She desired to dispel the pain by looking out of the car window. In the end, she was unable to speak; she could only smile.

Question 2.
Explain the contrasting situations in the poem? Why does the poet do so?
Answer:
The poem throws up various contrasts to drive home the idea and fear of the mother inching close to death. First, the mother’s lifelessness in the car is contrasted to the activity outside—the trees running, the children spilling out and the airport buzzing with activity. It contrasts with the sadness and pain in the car with the euphoric mood outside. The poet uses the contrast to highlight the dissimilarity of both the situations.

Question 3.
The mood and setting in the poem comes a full cycle. Explain.
Answer:
The poet begins with a concern and grief of the mother’s lifelessness in the car. The poet then describes the energy and jubilation outside. Once again, the mood recoils into sadness and worry, at the end of the poem, when the poet talks of her mother being pale like a late winter’s moon.

My Mother at Sixty-six Value Based Question

Question 1.
The poem deals with the subtleties of human relationships. Justify.
Answer:
The poem, “My Mother at Sixty-six” revolves around the theme of advancing age and the consequent fear of loss and separation. As the poet was on the way to airport in Cochin, she was struck by the realization that her mother was old and frail, and was overwhelmed by the fear of her parent’s impending death. She observed her mother, in her twilight years, pale and waning like the winter moon.

Like any other child, she too remembered having harboured the insecurity of losing a parent that seemed to be presently unfolding in her life. Beset with sorrow and insecurity, at the end of the poem, she bid goodbye to her aged mother at the airport. The poet undergoes the universal emotions of grief and fear of losing a parent to old age and death. Kamala Das’ eloquent and poignant verse brings out the motif of transience and passing time.

Give examples from the poem of the following poetic devices.

Simile
“… face ashen like that of a corpse
…pale as a late winter’s moon”

Personification
“.. .young trees sprinting”

Metaphor
“merry children spilling out”

Irony
“The green trees racing (inanimate) while the mother like a corpse”

Contrast
“The world replete with activity contrasted with the near lifeless mother”

Tautology
“I looked again at her, wan, pale”

Repetition
“smile and smile and smile…”

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 is the best study material for all the students. It not only prepares them for the board exams but also strengthens their concepts for competitive exams such as NEET and JEE.

The solutions are provided by subject mater experts and are accurate. The diagrammatic representations make it even easier for the students to understand. The students appearing for UP board, MP board, Gujarat board, CBSE find the NCERT Solutions beneficial while preparing for the exams.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life

This chapter deals with the principles of chemistry in everyday life. All the products such as soaps, detergents have an organic composition. All our daily activities are controlled by chemicals. This chapter gives some interesting facts about the products we use in our daily lives and how are they controlled by the chemicals.

The students are advised to go through the NCERT solutions for Class 12 Chemstry for better understanding of the concepts provided in the chapter.

NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1:
Sleeping pills are recommended by doctors to the patients suffering from sleeplessness but it is not advisable to take their doses without consultation with the doctor. Why?
Answer:
Sleeping pills contain drugs which may be tranquilizers or antidepressants. They affect the nervous system and induce sleep. However, if these doses are not properly controlled, they may create havoc. They even adversely affect the vital organs of the body. It is advisable to take these sleeping pills under the strict supervision of a doctor.

Question 2.
With refrence to which classification has the statement “ranitidine is an antacid”, been given?
Answer:
This statement refers to the classification of drugs according to pharmacological effect because any drug which will be used to neutralise the excess acid present in the stomach will be called an antacid.

Question 3.
Why do we require artificial sweetening agents?
Answer:
The commonly used sweetening agent i.e., sucrose is a carbohydrate with molecular formula C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁. Since it has high calorific value, it is not recommended to the patients, diabetics in particular which require low calorie diet. Most of the artificial sweeteners are better than sucrose but hardly provide any calories to the body. These are being used as substitutes of sugar.

Question 4.
Write chemical equations for preparing sodium soap from glyceryl oleate and glyceryl palmitate. Structural formulas of these compounds are given:
(i) (C₁₅H₃₁COO)₃C₃H₅ (Glyceryl palmitate)
(ii) (C₁₇H₃₃COO)₃ C₃H₅ (Glyceryl oleate)
Answer:

Question 5.
Label the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts in the following molecule which is a detergent. Also identify the functional group(s) present.

Answer:

NCERT Exercise

Question 1.
Why do we need to classify the drugs in different ways?
Answer:
Drugs have been classified in different ways depending

• upon their pharmacological effect
• upon their action on a particular biochemical process
• on the basis of their chemical structure
• on the basis of molecular targets.

For example, the classification of the drugs based on pharmacological effect is useful for doctors. The classification of drugs based on molecular targets is the most useful classification for medicinal chemists. Thus, drugs are classified in different ways to serve different purposes.

Question 2.
Explain the term, target molecules or drug targets as used in medicinal chemistry.
Answer:
In medicinal chemistry, drug targets refer to the key molecules involve in certain metabolic pathways that result in specific diseases Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids are examples of drug targets.
Drugs are chemical agents designed to inhibit these target molecules by binding with the active sites of the key molecules.

Question 3.
Name the macromolecules that are chosen as drug targets.
Answer:
The different macromolecules or biomolecules which are used as drug targets are carbohydrates, proteins, enzymes, nucleic acids. Out of these, enzymes are the most significant because their deficiency leads to many disorders in the body.

Question 4.
Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors?
Answer:
A medicine can bind to more than one receptor site, thus a medicine may be toxic for some receptor site Further, in most cases, medicines cause harmful effects when taken in a higher dose than recommended As a result, medicines may be poisonous in such cases Hence, medicines should not be taken without consulting doctors.

Question 5.
Define the term chemotherapy. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008)
Answer:
The branch of chemistry which deals with the treatment of diseases using chemicals is called chemotherapy.

Question 6.
Which forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active sites of enzymes?
Answer:
These are different intermolecular forces like dipolar forces, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals’ forces etc. The receptor targets have specific roles to perform. They help in transferring message from messengers to the cell. The messengers are in fact chemical compounds which are received by the active sites of the receptor proteins that project out of the surface. In order to accommodate these, the receptors may undergo a change in shape. The receptors are held by the active sites also called binding sites. Once the message is transferred to the cells.

Question 7.
While antacids and antiallergic drugs interfere with the function of histamines, why do these not interfere with the function of each other?
Answer:
They do not interfere with the functioning of each other because they work on different receptors in the body. Secretion of histamine causes allergy and acidity while antacid removes only acidity.

Question 8.
Low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure this problem ? Name two drugs (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2008 Supp.)
Answer:
Low level of noradrenaline which acts as a neurotransmitter reduces the signal sending ability to the nerves and the patient suffers from depression. Antidepressants are needed to give relief from depression. These are also called tranquilizers or neurologically active drugs. The two specific drugs are iproniazid and phenelzine.

Question 9.
What is meant by the term ‘broad-spectrum antibiotic? Explain.
Answer:
Broad-spectrum antibiotics are the drugs which are effective against a large number of harmful micro-organisms causing diseases.
Chloramphenicol It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic, isolated in 1947. It is rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and hence can be given orally. It is very effective against typhoid, dysentery, acute fever, certain form of urinary infections, meningitis and pneumonia.

Chloramphenicol is quite easy to synthesise. Therefore, most of the chloramphenicol available in the market is synthetic.

Question 10.
How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants? Give one example of each.
Answer:

Antiseptics and disinfectants are effective against micro-organisms However antiseptics are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts, ulcers, and diseased skin surfaces, while disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects such as floors, drainage system, instruments, etc Disinfectants are harmful to the living tissues.

Iodine is an example of a strong antiseptic Tincture of iodine (2-3 percent of the solution of iodine in the alcohol-water mixture) is applied to wounds 1 percent solution of phenol is used as a disinfectant.

Question 11.
Why are cimetidine and ranitidine better antacids than sodium bicarbonate or magnesium or aluminium hydroxides?
Answer:
Both sodium bicarbonate and hydroxides of magnesium or aluminium are very good antacids since they neutralise the acidity in the stomach. But their prolonged use can cause the secretion of excessive acid in the stomach. This may be quite harmful and may lead to the formation of ulcers. Both cimetidine and ranitidine are better salts without any side effects.

Question 12.
Name a substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant.
Answer:
Phenol can be used as an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant 0.2 percent solution of phenol is used as an antiseptic, while 1 percent of its solution is used as a disinfectant.

Question 13.
What are the main constituents of Dettol?
Answer:
The main constituents of antiseptic Dettol are chloroxylenol and terpenol.

Question 14.
What is the tincture of iodine? What is its use?
Answer:
Tincture of iodine is a 2-3 percent solution of iodine in an alcohol-water mixture It is applied to wounds as an antiseptic.

Question 15.
What are food preservatives?
Answer:
Chemical substances which are used to protect food against bacteria, yeasts and moulds are called preservatives. For example, sodium benzoate and sodium metabisulphite.

Question 16.
Why is the use of aspartame restricted to cold foods and drinks?
Answer:
Aspartame becomes unstable at cooking temperature This is the reason why its use is limited to cold foods and drinks.

Question 17.
What are artificial sweetening agents? Give two examples.
Answer:
Carbohydrates in the form of sugar (sucrose) are the traditional sweeteners and are the essential constituents of our diet. In the present lifestyle, people lack physical activities and exercise and it becomes rather difficult to burn the extra calories that are produced by the carbohydrates. Chemists have provided certain chemicals known as artificial sweeteners which provide the desired sweet taste io the food articles but hardly affect the calorie intake by the body. The most popular among the artificial sweeteners is saccharin which is nearly 550 times more sweet than the cane sugar. It is a boon for diabetic patients who don’t want to take carbohydrates (sugar) which is likely to increase the calories. It is in fact, a life saviour for these patients and is in the form of sodium or calcium salt which is water-soluble. These days, a number of other sweeteners are also available, e.g.. Aspartame, Alitame, Sucrolose etc.

(a) Aspartame: It is a very successful and commonly used artificial sweetener. As stated above, it is nearly 100 times as
sweet as cane sugar. However, it can be used in soft drinks and cold foods only since it decomposes upon heating. Chemically
aspartame is the methyl ester of dipeptide formed by the action of aspartic acid with phenylalanine.
(b) Sucrolose: The artificial sweetener as the name suggests is a trichioroderivative of sucrose. It is better, than
aspartame in the sense that it can be used in hot food at the cooking temperature, since it does not decompose on heating.
Moreover, it does not provide calories.

Question 18.
Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweets for a diabetic patient.
Answer:
Artificial sweetening agents such as saccharin, alitame, and aspartame can be used in preparing sweets for diabetic patients.

Question 19.
What problem arises by using alitame as an artificial sweetener?
Answer:
Alitame is no doubt, a very potent sweetener. Its sweetening capacity is more than 2000 times as compared to ordinary cane sugar or sucrose. But sometimes, it becomes quite difficult to control the sweetness level in the food which is actually desired.

Question 20.
Why are detergents called soapless soaps?
Answer:
Soaps work in soft water, they are not effective in hard water In contrast synthetic detergents work both in soft water and hard water Therefore, synthetic detergents are better than soaps.

Question 21.
Explain the following terms with suitable examples.
(a) Cationic detergents
(b) Anionic detergents
(c) Neutral detergents.
Answer:
1. Anionic Detergents: These detergents contain anionic hydrophilic groups. These are generally made from long-chain alcohols which are reacted with concentrated sulphuric acid to form alkyl hydrogen sulphates. These are then neutralised with alkali to give water-soluble salts.
A few examples are listed below :
Sodium Alkyl Sulphates: These are the sodium salts of sulphonic acid esters of long-chain aliphatic alcohols which normally contain 10 to 15 carbon atoms. The alcohols are formed from fats and oils as a result of hydrogenolysis.

Sodium Alkyl Benzene Suiphonates: A common detergent belonging to this class is Sod – p – dodecyl benzene sulphonate. It is obtained from benzene by reacting with dodecyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ acting as a catalyst.
The different steps involved are as follows :

2. Cationic Detergents: In these detergents, the hydrophilic group is of cationic nature. These are generally acetates, chlorides or bromides of quaternary ammonium CH CH CH B salts. The cationic part enclosed in the bracket contains a long hydrocarbon chain. These  detergents have germicidal qualities and are quite expensive as well, The cationic CH₃ detergents are present in hair conditioners. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide

3. Non-ionic or neutral Detergent: These detergents are simply long-chain organic compounds and are esters in nature. For example, stearic acid and polyethylene glycol react to form a non-ionic detergent.

Non-ionic detergents contain polar groups and form hydrogen bonds with water. Some dishwashing liquids contain non-ionic detergents.
The field of detergents is very vast because of their immense utility. Companies engaged in their manufacture are spending huge amounts of money to bring products of better quality.

Question 22.
What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable detergents? Give an example of each. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008, 2009)
Answer:
Bio-degradable detergents are degraded by bacteria. In them, the hydrocarbon chain is unbranded. They do not cause water pollution and are bitter. Example: Sodium lauryl sulphate.

Non-biodegradable detergents possess highly branched hydrocarbon chain so bacteria cannot degrade them easily. They cause water pollution. Example: Sodium 4-(l, 3, 5, 7-tetramethyl-actyl) benzene sulphonate.

Question 23.
Why do soaps not work in hard water?
Answer:
Hard water contains calcium and magnesium salts. Therefore, in hard water soaps get precipitated as calcium and magnesium soaps which being insoluble stick to the clothes as gummy mass.

Question 24.
Can you use soaps and synthetic detergents to check the hardness of water?
Answer:
Soaps can be used to check hardness of water as they will form insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium salts on reacting with hard water. Since detergents do not form any precipitate, they cannot check hardness of water.

Question 25.
Explain the cleansing action of soaps.
Answer:
In order to understand the cleansing action of soaps let us try to analyse how the clothes become dirty. They first become oily because of the perspiration coming out of the skin and also from the organic matter dispersed in the atmosphere. Dust particles stick to oil drops and the clothes become dirty. In order to wash these, they are dipped in water and soap is applied.

In solution, it dissociates to give carboxylate ions (RCOO^–) and the cations (Na⁺). The alkyl portion which contains a long chain of hydrocarbons is a tail pointing towards the oil drops while the COO portion is the head directed towards water. This is quite evident from the figure where the solid circles (.) represent the polar groups and the wavy lines represent the alkyl portions. This formation is known as micelle and helps in forming a stable emulsion of oil and water by acting as a bridge between the two. The oil droplets along with the particles of the dirt get detached from the fibres of the clothes and pass into the emulsion. In this manner, the clothes become free from dust or dirt. The cleansing action of the soap is depicted in the Fig. 5.15.

Question 26.
If the water contains dissolved calcium bicarbonate, out of soaps and synthetic detergents, which one will you use for cleaning clothes?
Answer:
Synthetic detergents are preferred for cleaning clothes When soaps are dissolved in water containing calcium ions, these ions form insoluble salts that are of no further use, however when synthetic detergents are dissolved in water containing calcium ions, these ions form soluble salts that act as cleaning agents.

Question 27.
Label the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts in the following compounds.
(a) CH₃(CH₂)₁₀CH₂OSO₃Na⁺
(b) CH₃(CH₂)₁₅-N⁺(CH₃)₃Br^–
(c) CH₃(CH₂)₁₆-COO(CH₂CH₂O)_nCH₂CH₂OH
Answer:

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

1. Humans reproduce___(asexually/ sexually).
2. Humans are ___(oviparous/ viviparous/ ovoviviparous).
3. Fertilisation is___in humans (external/internal).
4. Male and female gametes are___ (diploid/haploid).
5. Zygote is___(diploid/haploid).
6. The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called___
7. Ovulation is induced by a hormone called ___
8. The fusion of male and female gametes is called___
9. Fertilisation takes place in ___
10. Zygote divides to form___which is implanted in uterus.
11. The structure which provides vascular connection between foetus and uterus is called ___

Solution:

1. sexually;
2. viviparous;
3. internal;
4. haploid;
5. diploid;
6. ovulation;
7. LH;
8. fertilisation;
9. ampullary-isthmic junction of Fallopian tube;
10. blastocyst;
11. placenta

Question 2.
Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system.
Solution:

Question 3.
Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system.
Solution:

Question 4.
Write two major functions each of testis and ovary.
Solution:
Testis:

1. The seminiferous tubules of the testis produce sperm.
2. The Leydig cells of testis produce hormones such as androsterone and testosterone, together called androgens.

Ovary:

1. Produce ovum
2. Produce ovarian hormones such as estradiol, estrone, and estriol collectively called estrogens.

Question 5.
Describe the structure of a seminiferous tubule
Solution:
Seminiferous tubules are located in the testicles, and are the specific location of meiosis, and the subsequent creation of gametes, namely spermatozoa.

The lining of seminiferous tubules called germinal epithelium contains two types of cells – primary germ ceils which undergo spermatogenesis to form spermatozoa and columnar indifferent cells (derived from coelomic epithelium) which enlarge to form Sertoli cells. Sertoli cells function as nurse cells for providing nourishment to the developing spermatozoa, phagocvtise defective sperm and secrete protein hormone inhibin (which inhibits FSH secretion).

The seminiferous tubules are situated in testicular lobules. Both ends of the tubule are connected to the central region of the testis and form a network of small ductules called the rete testis.

Question 6.
What is spermatogenesis ? Briefly describe the process of spermatogenesis.
Solution:
Spermatogenesis is the process by which male spermatogonia develop into mature male gamete, spermatozoa. It starts at puberty and usually continues uninterrupted until death, although a slight decrease can be discerned in the quantity of produced sperm with increase in age. The process of spermatogenesis includes the formation of spermatogonia from germinal epithelium (primordial germ cell) through mitosis (multiplication phase). Finally they stop undergoing mitosis, grow and become primary spermatocytes (growth phase). Each spermatocyte undergoes meiosis (maturation phase). First maturation division is reductional, and produces two secondary spermatocytes. The latter divides by equational division (second maturation division) to form four haploid spermatids. Spermatids receive nourishment from the Sertoli cells to form sperms. This step is called spermiogenesis.

During this process one spermatogonium produces four sperms having half number of chromosomes.

Question 7.
Name the hormones involved in the regulation of spermatogenesis.
Solution:
The hormones involved in the regulation of spermatogenesis are:

• Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
• Luteinizing hormone (LH)
• Follicle-stimulating hormone
• Testosterone.

Question 8.
Define spermiogenesis and spermiation.
Solution:
The transformation of spermatid into sperm is called spermiogenesis. The release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.

Question 9.
Draw a labelled diagram of sperm
Solution:

Question 10.
What are the major components of seminal plasma?
Solution:
Secretions of prostate gland, seminal vesicle and Cowper’s gland and , sperms together constitute semen.

Question 11.
What are the major functions of male accessory ducts and glands?
Solution:
The main functions of male accessory ducts and glands are as follows:

1. Functions of accessory ducts:

• Rete Testis: They transport sperms from seminiferous tubule to Vas efferentia.
• Vas efferentia: Transports sperms to epdidymis.
• Epididymis: Sperms are stored here. Maturation of sperms occurs.
• Vas deference: Transports sperms from the epididymis to the urethra.

2. Functions of glands:

• Prostate gland: It produces milky secretion which forms a considerable part of the semen. It makes sperm motile.
• Bulbourethral gland: Its secretion makes the penis lubricated.
• Seminal vesicle: It secretes mucus and watery alkaline fluid which provide energy to the sperm.

Question 12.
What is oogenesis? Give a brief account of oogenesis.
Solution:
Oogenesis is the production and growth of the ova (egg cell) in the ovary. It starts only after the female has attained puberty. The process is induced by FSH from the anterior pituitary. It leads to the growth of a single Graafian follicle in one of the two ovaries every month. The developing ovary is colonised by primordial germ cells prior to birth which differentiate into oogonia. These enlarge within the follicle under the influence of mitotic division to form primary oocyte containing diploid number of chromosomes. These undergo reductional division (1st meiotic division) to form a secondary oocyte and first polar body. The secondary oocyte proceeds with meiosis II but the division gets arrested until fertilisation occurs. The ‘egg’ is released at secondary oocyte stage under the effect of LH. A second polar body is extruded. The first polar body may also divide to form two polar bodies of equal sizes which do not take part in reproduction and ultimately degenerates. During oogenesis one oogonium produces one ovum and three polar bodies. Polar bodies containing small amount of cytoplasm helps to retain sufficient amount of cytoplasm in the ovum which is essential for the development of early embryo. Formation of polar bodies maintains the half number of chromosomes in the ovum.

Question 13.
Draw a labelled diagram of a section through ovary.
Solution:

Question 14.
Draw a labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle ?
Solution:

Question 15.
Give the functions of the following.

1. Corpus luteum
2. Endometrium
3. Acrosome
4. Sperm tail
5. Fimbriae

Solution:
The functions of the following:

1. Corpus luteum secretes a large amount of progesterone which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium of the uterus.
2. Endometrium is necessary for the implantation of the fertillised ovum, for contributing towards the making of the placenta and other events of pregnancy.
3. Acrosome is filled with enzymes that help in dissolving the outer cover of the ovum and entry of sperm nucleus.
4. Sperm tail facilitates motility of the sperm essential for reaching the ovum to fertilize it.
5. Fimbriae are fingers-like projections at the mouth of fallopian tubules that help in the collection of the ovum after ovulation.

Question 16.
Identify True/False statements. Correct each false statement to make it true.

1. Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells.
2. Spermatozoa get nutrition from Sertoli cells.
3. Leydig cells are found in ovary.
4. Leydig cells synthesise androgens.
5. Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum.
6. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
7. Presence or absence of a hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity Or sexual experience.

Solution:

1. False: Androgens are produced by interstitial cells or Leydig cells.
2. True
3. False: Leydig’s cells are found in the testes (in between the seminiferous tubules).
4. True
5. False: Oogenesis takes place in the ovary.
6. True
7. True

Question 17.
What is the menstrual cycle? Which hormones regulate the menstrual cycle?
Solution:
The recurring cycle of physiological changes in the uterus, ovaries and other sexual structures that occur from the beginning of one menstrual period through the beginning of the next is called menstrual cycle. The beginning of menstruation is called menarche. Hormones involved in the regulation of menstrual cycle are pituitary or ovarian hormones. These are LH, FSH, estrogen and progesterone.

Question 18.
What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in the induction of parturition?
Solution:

• The process of delivering of the fully developed fetus or baby at the end of the pregnancy period through vigorous contraction of the uterus is called parturition.
• Estrogen (amount of estrogen is more than progesterone) and oxytocin are the hormones involved in the induction of parturition.

Question 19.
In our society, women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not correct?
Solution:
This is not correct that women in our society are often blamed for giving birth to daughters because the sex of the baby is determined by the father, not by the mother. As we know that the chromosome pattern in the human female is XX and that in the male is XY.

Therefore, all the haploid gametes produced by the female (ova) have the sex chromosome X whereas in the male gametes (sperms) the sex chromosome could be either X or Y, hence, 50 per cent of sperms carry the X chromosome while the other 50 per cent carry the Y. After fusion of the male and female gametes the zygote would carry either XX or XY depending on whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilised the ovum. The zygote carrying XX would develop into a female baby and XY would form a male.

Question 20.
How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month? How many eggs do you think would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins? Would your answer change if the twins born were fraternal?
Solution:
Each ovary develops a number of immature eggs associated with groups of other cells called follicles. Normally, in humans, only one egg is released at one time; occasionally, two or more erupt during the menstrual cycle. The egg erupts from the ovary on the 14th to 16th day of the approximately 28 day menstrual cycle. Identical twins occur when a single egg is fertilised to form one zygote (monozygotic) which then divides into two separate embryos. And if the twins were born fraternal two eggs are released. Fraternal twins (commonly known as “non-identical twins”) usually occur when two fertilised eggs are implanted in the uterine wall at the same time. The two eggs form two zygotes, and these twins are therefore also known as dizygotic as well as “binovular” twins.

Question 21.
How many eggs do you think were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies?
Solution:
One oogonium produces one ovum and three polar bodies. The ovum is the actual female gamete. The polar bodies take no part in reproduction and hence, soon degenerate. In human beings, ovum is released from the ovary in the secondary oocyte stage. So, six ova (eggs), were released by ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and Its Applications

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and Its Applications

Question 1.
Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because
(a) bacteria are resistant to the toxin
(b) toxin is immature
(c) toxin is inactive
(d) bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac.
Solution:
(c) Toxin is inactive: In bacteria, the toxin is present in an inactive form called prototoxin. This gets converted into the active form when it enters the salivary gland of insects having an alkaline medium.

Question 2.
What are transgenic bacteria? Illustrate using any one example.
Solution:
Transgenic bacteria are one that carries a transgene or a foreign gene of interest introduced using recombinant DNA technology. e. g., bacteria carrying the genes for human insulin.

In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.

Question 3.
Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the production of genetically modified crops.
Solution:
Advantages of genetically modified crops or transgenic crops are as follows :

• They are resistant to pests, herbicides and diseases.
• They help to reduce post-harvest losses.
• They enhance the nutritional value of food, e.g., a transgenic variety of rice (golden rice) is rich in vitamin A content.
• Some transgenic plants, e.g., poplar trees are used to clean up heavy metal pollution from contaminated soil.
• They are efficient in mineral usage and thus prevent early exhaustion of fertility of the soil.

Transgenic crops have several disadvantages also which are mentioned below:

• Bt toxins expressed in pollen grains of transgenic crops are harmful for useful varieties of insects, e.g., honey bees and butterflies.
• The foods produced by transgenic crops might cause toxicity and might result in allergies.
• The bacteria present in human alimentary canal can become resistant to concerned antibiotic by taking up antibiotic resistance gene present in genetically modified food and become difficult to manage.

Question 4.
What are Cry proteins? Name an organism that produces it. How has man exploited this protein to his benefit?
Solution:
Cry proteins are a group of toxic protein which are highly poisonous to deficient types of insects. It is produced by a soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. The genes controlling their formation are called cry genes eg:- Cry I Ab, Cry I Ac, Cry II Ab, The bacterium produces a protein in the crystal form of protoxin. Two cry genes have been incorporated in cotton (Bt cotton) while one has been introduced in corn (Bt corn) As a result Bt Cotton was disease resistant to bollworm and Bt corn was resistant to corn borer.

Question 5.
What is gene therapy? Illustrate using the example of adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Solution:
Gene therapy is the technique of genetic engineering used to replace a faulty gene with a normal, healthy functional gene. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 years old girl with adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA deficiency). This enzyme is very important for the immune system to function. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is caused due to a defect in the gene for the enzyme adenosine deaminase. SCID patient lacks functional T-lymphocytes and, therefore, fails to fight the infecting pathogens.

To perform gene therapy, lymphocytes are extracted from the patient’s bone marrow and a normal functional copy of human gene coding for ADA is introduced into these lymphocytes with the help of a retroviral vector. The cells so treated are reintroduced into the patient’s bone marrow. The lymphocytes produced by these cells contain functional ADA genes which reactivate the victim’s immune system. But, as these lymphocytes do not divide and are short-lived, so periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes is required. This problem can be overcome if stem cells are modified at an early embryonic stage.

Question 6.
Diagrammatically represent the experimental steps in cloning and expressing a human gene (say the gene for growth hormone) into a bacterium like E.coli?
Solution:
The given diagram represents the experimental steps in cloning and expressing a human gene for growth hormone into a bacterium E. coli.

Question 7.
Can you suggest a method to remove oil (hydrocarbon) from seeds based on your understanding of rDNA technology and the chemistry of oil?
Solution:
rDNA technology is a technique of genetic engineering that involves combining DNA from two different sources to produce recombined or recombinant DNA (rDNA). Oils are composed of glycerol and fatty acids. Thus, to produce oil-free seeds genes coding for glycerol or fatty acids should be identified and nucleotide sequences complementary to the sequence of these genes should be inserted adjacent to these genes in the early cells of the endosperm. During transcription, these complementary sequences will produce anti-sense RNAs to the RNAs produced by glycerol or fatty acids gene and will silence these genes. As a result, oil-free seeds will be produced.

Since glycerol is a common component of all the oils whereas various fatty acids combine with glycerol to form oils, thus it will be easier if we silence the gene for glycerol synthesis.

Question 8.
Find out from the internet what is golden rice.
Solution:
Golden rice is a GM rice with increased vitamin A content.

Question 9.
Does our blood have proteases and nucleases?
Solution:
Proteases occur naturally in all organisms. These enzymes are involved in a multitude of physiological reactions from simple digestion of food proteins to highly-regulated cascades (e.g., the blood-clotting cascade, the complement system, apoptotic pathways, and the invertebrate prophenoloxidase activating cascade). Proteases present in blood serum (thrombin, plasmin, Hageman factor, etc.) play important role in blood clotting, as well as in lysis of the clots, and the action of the immune system. Other proteases are present in leukocytes (elastase, cathepsin G) and play several different roles in metabolic control. Nucleases, such as deoxyribonucleases and ribonucleases are found in the blood which helps in the degradation of exogenous deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid circulating in the blood.

Question 10.
Consult the internet and find out how to make orally active protein pharmaceuticals. What is the major problem to be encountered?
Solution:
The problem is stomach enzymes and acids. Once you orally ingest a protein, the proteases in your stomach juices (trypsin, chymotrypsin, pepsin) will cleave the holy-hell out of your therapeutic protein and the acids will denature whatever’s left beyond all recognition. This is why proteins like insulin have to be injected.

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Here we are providing NCERT Solutions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 7 The Interview. Students can get Class 12 English The Interview NCERT Solutions, Questions and Answers designed by subject expert teachers.

The Interview NCERT Solutions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 7

The Interview NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

The Interview Think as you read 

Question 1.
What are some of the positive views on interviews?
Answer:
The positive views on interviews are that it is a medium of communication and a source of truth and information. Some even look at it as an art. These days we know about the celebrities and others through their interviews.

Question 2.
Why do most celebrity writers despise being interviewed?
Answer:
Most celebrity writers despise being interviewed because they look at interviews as an unwarranted intrusion into their lives. They feel that it diminishes them. They feel that they are wounded by interviews and lose a part of themselves. They consider interviews immoral and a crime, and an unwanted and unwelcome interruption in their personal life.

Question 3.
What is the belief in some primitive cultures about being photographed?
Answer:
Some primitive cultures consider taking a photographic portrait is like stealing the persons’s soul and diminishing him.

Question 4.
What do you understand by the expression ‘thumbprints on his windpipe’?
Answer:
Saul Bellow once described interviews as being like ‘thumbprints on his windpipe’. It means he treated interviews as a painful experience, as something that caught him by his windpipe, squeezed him and left indelible thumbprints on that. It also means that when the interviewer forces personal details from his interviewee, it becomes undesirable and cruel.

Question 5.
Who, in today’s world, is our chief source of information about personalities?
Answer:
The interviewer is the chief source of information in today’s world. Our most vivid impressions of our contemporaries are based on communication that comes from them. Thus, interviewers hold a position of power and influence.

The Interview Understanding the text

Question 1.
Do you think Umberto Eco likes being interviewed? Give reasons for your opinion.
Answer:
Umberto Eco does not think highly of interviewers who he thinks are a puzzled bunch of people. He has reasons for thinking so as they have often interpreted him as a novelist and clubbed him with Pen Clubs and writers, while he considers himself an academic scholar who attends academic conferences and writes novels on Sundays.

Question 2.
How does Eco find the time to write so much?
Answer:
Eco humorously states that there are a lot of empty spaces in his life. He calls them ‘interstices’. There are moments when one is waiting for the other. In that empty space, Eco laughingly states that he writes an article. Then he states that he is a professor who writes novels on Sundays.

Question 3.
What was distinctive about Eco’s academic writing style?
Answer:
Umberto’s writings have an ethical and philosophical element underlying them. His non-fictional writing work has a certain playful and personal quality about it. Even his writings for children deal with non-violence and peace. This style of writing makes reading his novels and essays interesting and being like the reading of most academic writings. His works are marked by an informal and narrative aspect.

Question 4.
Did Umberto Eco consider himself a novelist first or an academic scholar?
Answer:
Umberto identified himself with the academic community, a professor who attended academic conferences rather than meetings of Pen Clubs. In fact, he was quite unhappy that the people referred to him as a novelist.

Question 5.
What is the reason for the huge success of the novel, The Name of the Rose?
Answer:
The success of The Name of the Rose, though a mystery to the author himself, could possibly be because it offered a difficult reading experience to the kind of readers who do not want easy reading experiences and those who look at novels as a machine for generating interpretations. For the same reason, the sale of his novel was underestimated by his American publishers, while the readers actually enjoyed the difficult reading experience that was offered bv Umberto Eco by raising questions about truth and the order of the worid.

The Interview Extra Questions and Answers

The Interview Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Why did Lewis Carroll have a horror of the interviewer?
Answer:
Lewis Carroll was said to have had a just horror of the interviewer. It was his horror of being lionized which made him thus repel would-be acquaintances, interviewers, and those seeking his autographs. So, he never consented to be interviewed.

Question 2.
How did Rudyard Kipling look at interviews?
Answer:
Rudyard Kipling condemned interviews. His wife writes in her diary that Rudyard Kipling told the reporters that he called being interviewed as immoral and a crime like an offence against any person. It merited punishment. It was cowardly and vile.

Question 3.
How were Rudyard Kipling and H.G. Wells critical of interviews yet they indulged in interviewing others or being themselves interviewed?
Answer:
Rudyard Kipling criticized interviews yet he interviewed Mark Twain. H.G. Wells referred to an interview in 1894 as an ordeal. Yet he was a fairly frequent interviewee. He also interviewed Joseph Stalin forty years later.

Question 4.
How are interviews, despite their drawbacks, useful?
Answer:
Despite their drawbacks, interviews are a supremely serviceable medium of communication. We get ‘ our most vivid impressions of our contemporaries through interviews. Denis Brain writes that almost everything of moment reaches us through interviews.

Question 5.
What, according to Umberto Eco, is the one thing he does through his various pieces of writing?
Answer:
According to Eco, he is always pursuing his ethical, philosophical interests which are non-violence and peace, through his academic work, his novels and even his books for children. He uses his spare moments constructively.

Question 6.
Umberto Eco tells Mukund that he has a secret. What is that?
Answer:
Umberto Eco tells Mukund that he has a secret to reveal. He tells him that there are empty spaces in the universe, in all the atoms. If they are removed, the universe will shrink to the size of a fist. He calls these empty spaces interstices and he writes in these interstices.

Question 7.
How, according to one of Eco’s professors in Italy, do scholars do in their research? How is Eco’s approach different?
Answer:
According to one of Eco’s professors in Italy, scholars made a lot of false hypotheses. They correct them and at the end they put the conclusion. But Eco told the story of his research and included his trials and errors. His professor allowed the publication of Eco’s dissertation as a book.

Question 8.
What did Umberto Eco learn at the age of 22 that he pursued in his novels?
Answer:
At the age of 22, Umberto Eco understood that scholarly books should be written the way he had done, that is, they should be written by telling the story of the research. He means to say that they should have the narrative technique. That’s why he started writing novels so late—at the age of 50.

Question 9.
How did Eco start writing novels?
Answer:
Eco states that he started writing novels by accident. One day, he had nothing to do, so he started writing. He felt that novels probably satisfied his taste for narration and he produced five novels, including the famous The Name of the Rose.

Question 10.
Did Umberto Eco consider himself a novelist first or an academic scholar? Discuss briefly.
Answer:
Umberto Eco considered himself an academic scholar, a university professor who wrote novels on Sundays. If somebody said that he was a novelist, that bothered him. He participated in academic conferences and not the meetings of Pen Clubs and writers. He identified himself with academic community.

Question 11.
What makes Eco’s The Name of the Rose a very serious novel?
Answer:
The Name of the Rose is a very serious novel. It is a detective story at one level but it also delves into metaphysics, theology and medieval history. Due to these reasons it was greatly received by the public.

Question 12.
What, according to Eco, puzzles journalists and publishers?
Answer:
According to Umberto Eco, journalists and publishers are puzzled when something unexpected happens. They believe that people like trash and do not like difficult reading experiences. But Eco’s novel The Name of the Rose, a serious work, sold between 10 and 15 million copies. This puzzled them.

Question 13.
What is the reason for the huge success of the novel, The Name of the Rose?
Answer:
The reason for the huge success of the novel, according to Eco, is a mystery. Nobody can predict it. He states that if he had written the novel ten years earlier or ten years later, it wouldn’t have been the same. So, the time component, its narrative technique, its aspects of metaphysics, theology and medieval history, made it a grand success.

Question 14.
Do you think Umberto Eco likes being interviewed? Give reasons for your opinion.
Answer:
I think Eco likes being interviewed. His answers to Mukund’s questions are straightforward, precise and to the point. They are never wavering. He even mentions his preferences about TV shows. While answering he gets humorous and laughs. Nowhere does he say anything that may give us this sort of glimpse that he does not like being interviewed.

Question 15.
Is Umberto’s informal style consciously adopted or natural?
Answer:
Umberto’s doctoral thesis was a story of his research and a sum of his experience, his trials and errors. The thesis was appreciated and published as a book. Umberto then developed on his taste for narration and this narrative aspect lends an informal touch to all his essays and novels. It makes his style alive and reading his works is not dry and boring like the reading of other academic works.

Question 16.
Why did Umberto take to writing novels?
Answer:
Umberto took to writing novels to satisfy his taste for narration. He did not have even a single novel to his credit, till the age of 50. One day having nothing to do, he started writing a novel. Moreover, he thought that novels have more readership and he could reach a larger audience.

Question 17.
What made Roiand Barthes frustrated? What did he want to do?
Answer:
Eco s friend Roland Barthes was an essayist. He was not satisfied fully with his scholarly essays. He yearned to do some creative writing. He remained frustrated that he was as essayist and not novelist. But, unfortunately he died before he could do so.

Question 18.
How did Umberto Eco become spectacularly famous?
Answer:
Umberto Eco had earned a good reputation in the field of semiotics or the study of signs. His scholarly works were staggeringly large and wide ranging. But his spectacular fame came to him with his novel The Name of the Rose which stormed the world and sold more than 10 million copies.

Question 19.
What sort of TV programmes does Eco watch after dinner and why?
Answer:
After dinner, Eco watches light television programmes like Miami Vice and Emergency Room. These programmes do not tax his mind and he feels relaxed after a hard, day’s work. But he cannot watch such programmes the whole day.

Question 20.
Bring out Umberto Eco’s humility and modesty as evident in the chapter.
Answer:
Umberto Eco takes success in his stride and talks about his achievements in all modesty. He very humbly gives credit to the people’s capability of appreciating difficult reading experiences. Regarding doing so many things, he tells that it a fallicious impression, but at the end of the day, he is doing the same thing.

The Interview Long Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Interview as a communication genre is here to stay. Discuss with reference to the interview with Umberto Eco.
Answer:
The interview today is a communication genre that has come to stay. Its detractors—mostly celebrities— despise it as an intrusion into their lives. However, a good interview can be a source of truth, it is an excellent medium of communication and in the modern world our most vivid impressions of contemporaries are through interviews. It is through the interview that we learn about Eco’s diverse writings, his interest in the philosophy of non-violence and peace and his ability to put every spare moment to constructive use. At the interviewer’s prompting, he tells us why he writes scholarly works in an informal style and how he started writing novels. We realise that he is an academician at heart. He honestly talks of the success of his book as a mystery saying that it might •not have sold so well in another time.

Question 2.
How did Umberto Eco assess his style of writing in The Name of the Rose?
Answer:
Umberto Eco considered himself to be an academician who was happy writing novels on Sundays. Though he did not feel he was a novelist, he felt the novel fulfilled his desire for narration. In fact, he spoke of himself as a university professor who wrote novels on Sundays. The novel, according to him, enabled him to reach a larger audience. The Name of the Rose was a very serious novel. It was a detective story that delved into metaphysics, theology and medieval history’. It enjoyed a huge audience as, according to him, people did enjoy difficult reading experiences. Like him. many did not like easy experiences all the time. The novel deals with a period of medieval history and the publisher did not expect to sell so well in a state where nobody had studied Latin or seen a cathedral. He felt the timing was crucial. Perhaps its popularity would have been less, had it been written earlier or later. ‘

Question 3.
How do celebrity writers despise being interviewed as given in ‘The Interview’?
Answer:
Since its invention a little over 130 years ago, the interview has become commonplace journalism. Over the years, opinions about its functions, methods and merits vary considerably. Some say it is a source of truth and in practice, an art. Others despise it being an unwarranted intrusion into their lives. They feel it diminishes them. They equate it to taking a photographic portrait of somebody which in some primitive cultures mean ‘stealing the person’s soul.’ Some people feel wounded by interviews and lose part of themselves. They call it immoral, a crime and an assault. To some it is cowardly and vile or an ordeal.

Question 4.
How does Eco explain that he is convinced he is always doing the same thing?
Answer:
Umberto Eco explains to Mukund Padmanabhan in an interview that all the people have a lot of empty spaces. These he call ‘interstices’. He explains them through an example. He says that one is to come to him and is in an elevator and he is waiting for him. While waiting for the guest’s elevator to appear before him. he has already written an article. It means he writes in snatches of time. However, his creative ideas flow in his mind every time even when he is hosting his guest. Though he relaxes on Sundays, yet is very much busy to write novels. On other days he is busy with his academic work.

Question 5.
How does Mukund Padmanabhan comment on Eco’s academic writing style? What does Eco say about it?
Answer:
Mukund Padmanabhan states that Eco’s non-fictional writing, that is, his scholarly work has a certain playful and personal quality about it. It is a marked departure from a regular style. That regular style is invariably depersonalised and often dry and boring. To a question if he consciously adopted
an informal style, he cited the comments of one of the professors who examined and evaluated his first doctoral dissertation. The professor said that scholars learned a lot of a certain subject, then they made a lot of false hypotheses, then they corrected and put conclusions at the end. But Eco told the story of his research, including his trials and errors. At the age of 22, Eco understood that scholarly books should be written by telling the story of the research. His essays, therefore, have a narrative aspect. That is why, he wrote novels to satisfy his taste for narrative.

Question 6.
How does Mukund Padmanabhan impress you as an interviewer? Do you consider his interview with Umberto Eco a success?
Answer:
Mukund Padmanabhan’s interview with Umberto Eco tells about his capabilities as a successful interviewer. He does not encroach upon his privacy or embarrass him with personal questions. He does not come in-between the celebrity and the readers. His questions are well worded. His questions • draw out of him what his fans would like to know. The questions asked by Mukund cover all the aspects of his works and personality. Eco gives elaborated answers to all his questions. With every question, the interviewer withdraws to the background leaving the interviewee in the limelight. The whole interview does not appear to be an ordeal for the interviewee. In short it is crisp at the same time informal.

Question 7.
What are the opinions of some of the celebrities on interviews?
Answer:
Celebrities have often seen themselves as victims of interviews. In V.S. Naipaul’s opinion, interviews have left people wounded and part of them stolen. Lewis Carroll was in horror of the interviewer and he never consented to be interviewed. He often silenced all those who sought to interview him or ask for his autographs. Rudyard Kipling too held a very critical attitude towards interviews and disapproved of them after he was left almost wrecked by two reporters from Boston. According to his wife, since then he found interviews were vile, immoral and a crime. To H.G. Wells, being interviewed was an ordeal, while to Saul Bellow, interviews were like thumbprints on his windpipe, an extortion of personal details by an overbearing interviewer. They all seemed to be terrified of interviews.

Question 8.
How does the interview with Umberto Eco prove that the interview is the most commendable tool to elicit information about the interviewee?
Answer:
Mukund Padmanabhan from ‘The Hindu’ interviews Umberto Eco and proves that interview is the most commendable tool to elicit information about the interviewee.

Through his interview he reveals that Eco is a prolific writer and yet a man who is most modest about his achievements. He very humbly spells the secret of his varied and staggeringly voluminous works produced by him. When Mukund asks him about David Lodge’s remark that how one man can do all the things that Eco does’, Eco very modestly says it is a fallacious impression, in fact he has always been doing the same thing by pursuing the same philosophical ideas. He views himself as an academic, rather than a novelist. He admits that he has started writing novels by accident and writes novels on Sundays.