CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4

BoardCBSE
ClassXII
SubjectChemistry
Sample Paper SetPaper 4
CategoryCBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
  • Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
  • Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
  • Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
  • Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
  • Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions 

Question 1.
Name the compound which shows frenkel as well as schottky defect.

Question 2.
Arrange the following according to increasing boiling point: 2-Bromobutane, 2-Bromo-2- methyl propane, 1-Bromopropane and 1-Bromobutane.

Question 3.
A gas is passed through suspension of AgCl in water leads to dissolution of AgCl. Name the gas.

Question 4.
What causes Brownian movement?

Question 5.
Write structure of toluidine.

Question 6.
Give the magnetic behaviour of the following complexes
(a) [CO(NH3)6]3+
(b) [Ni(CN)4]2-

Question 7.
Write the chemical reaction for the following preparations:
(a) Sodium chromate from chromite ore
(b) Potassium permangnate from potassium mangnate
OR
Complete the following chemical equations:

  1. MnO4 (aq) + S2O2-3
  2. Cr2O2-7 + I \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \)

Question 8.
Write the mechanism of the following reaction:
CH2 = CH2 \(\underrightarrow { { dil.H }_{ 2 }{ SO }_{ 4 } } \) CH3CH2OH

Question 9.
From the given cells:
Ni-Cd cell, Mercury cell, Fuel cell and Dry cell. Answer the following:

  1. Which can be used in transistor?
  2. Which can be used to produce energy most efficiently?
  3. Which cell has longer life?
  4. Which cell is used in quartz watches?

Question 10.
Distiniguish between order and molecularity of a chemical reaction.

Question 11.
The rate constant for a first order reaction becomes eight times when the temperature is increased from 360 K to 400 K. Calculate the activation energy for the reaction.

Question 12.
Complete the following reactions:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.12.1

Question 13.
An element crystallises in f.c.c. lattice with cell edge of 250 pm. Calculate the density of 300 g of this element that contains 2 x 1024 atoms.

Question 14.
Explain the following terms:

  1. Electrophoresis
  2. Dialysis
  3. Tyndall effect

Question 15.
Give reasons for:

  1. Cd2+ salts are white in colour.
  2. Out of Mn3+ and Cr3+, Mn3+ is a stronger oxidising agent.
  3. Actinoids are known as rare earth elements.

Question 16.
Carry out the following conversions:
(a) Benzene to m-nitro acetophenone
(b) Benzaldehyde to benzophenone
(c) Propanone to propene

Question 17.

  1. Why is froth floatation process selected for the concentration of sulphide ores?
  2. What is the role of NaCN in froth floatation process?
  3. Discuss the role of SiO2 in extraction of Cu from copper matte?

Question 18.
Write the Nemst equation and calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K.
Sn/Sn2+ (0.050 M) || H+(0.020 M) | H2(s) (1 bar) | Pt(s)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.18.1

Question 19.

  1. Name the water soluble component of starch.
  2. Define peptide linkage
  3. Name an amine hormone

Question 20.

  1. How is double salt different from co-ordination compounds?
  2. What are primary and secondary valencies according to Werner’s theory?
  3. Write the IUPAC name for ionisation isomer of [Co(CH3NH2)2(NH3)3Br] SO4.

Question 21.
Give the structure of A, B and C in the following reactions:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.21.1

Question 22.
(a) Write the monomer of
(i) Glyptal
(ii) Neoprene
(b) Arrange the following according to increasing intermolecular forces: Elastomers, fibres, thermoplastics.

Question 23.
Shilpa, a domestic helper of Mrs. Reeta, had a wound on her leg but she was negligent for the same. Reeta applied dettol on her wound and asked her to go to the doctor if it does not get cured. Answer the following questions:

  1. What type of substance can be used for external injuries (like cuts, currents etc.)?
  2. Name the components of dettol.
  3. Name two more substance used for the same purpose.
  4. What are values displayed by Mrs. Reeta?

Question 24.
(a) Why is there a larger difference in the boiling points of butanal and butan-l-ol?
(b) Distinguish between
(i) Ethanal and propanal
(ii) methanamine and N-methylmethanamine
(c) Arrange according to the increasing order of their acidic strength:
C6H5COOH, FCH2COOH, NO2CH2COOH
(d) Carboxylic acid does not give nucleophilic addition reaction like carbonyl compounds. Explain.

OR
An organic compound having molecular formula (C9H10O) forms 2, 4-DNP derivative, reduces tollen’s reagent and undergoes cannizaro reaction. On vigrous oxidation it gives 1, 2, 4 benzene tricarboxylic acid. Identify the compound and write all reactions involved in this process.

Question 25.
(a) When 1.92 g of sulphur was dissolved in 100 grams of CS2, the freezing point will be lowered by 0.383 K. Calculate the formula of Sx associated in CS2.
(Kf for CS2 = 3.83 K kg mol-1, Atomic mass of S = 32 g mol-1)
(b) Define Van’t Hoff factor. What is its value for dimerisation of ethanoic acid in benzene?

OR
The vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ are 450 and 700 mm. Hg at 350 K respectively. Find out the composition of the liquid mixture if total vapour pressure is 600 mm Hg. Also find the composition of the vapours of these liquids in vapour phase.

Question 26.
(a) Account for the following:
(i) H3PO3 is a diprotic acid
(ii) Decomposition of O3 molecule is a spontaneous process
(iii) Noble gases have low boiling point.
(b) Draw the structure of
(a) XeF4
(b) PCl4
OR

  1. Why are halogens coloured?
  2. What inspired M. Bartlett for carrying out reactions with xenon?
  3. Arrange the following in the order of property indicated against each set:
    1. HF, HCl, HBr, HI (Increasing B. Pt)
    2. H3PO2, H3PO4, H3PO3 (Increasing acidic nature)
    3. NH3, PH3, AsH3 (Increasing Bond angle)

Answers

Answer 1.
AgBr.

Answer 2.
1-Bromopropane < 2-Bromo-2-methyl propane < 2-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane

Answer 3.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.3

Answer 4.
Unbalanced bombardment of particles of dispersion medium with particles of dispersed phase causes Brownian movement.

Answer 5.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.5

Answer 6.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.6

Answer 7.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.7
OR

  1. MnO4 + S2O2-3 → MnO2 + SO2-4 + 2OH
  2. Cr2O2-7 + I \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \) Cr3+ + I2 + H2O

Answer 8.
H2SO4 + H2O → H3O+ + HSO4
Protonation of ethene
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.8.1
Addition of water
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.8.2

Answer 9.

  1. Dry cell
  2. Fuel cell
  3. Ni-Cd cell
  4. Mercury cell

Answer 10.

OrderMolecularity
(i) It is the sum of powers of all the reactants present in the rate law equation.(i) It is the sum of powers of all the reactants present in the law of mass action equation.
(ii) It is based on experiment.(ii) It is based on balanced chemical reaction.
(iii) It can be zero, fraction, positive and a negative integer(iii) It cannot be zero or fraction, only positive integral value is possible.
(iv) Applicable for all types of reactions.(iv) Applicable only for elementary reactions.

Answer 11.
If rate constant at 360 K is K, then at 400 K it will be 8K.
From Arrhenius equation
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.11

Answer 12.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.12.2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.12.3

Answer 13.
From question:
Z = 4
a = 250 pm = 250 × 10-10 cm
mass of sample = 300 g
Number of particles in sample = 2 × 1024 atoms
Since d = \(\frac { Zm }{ { a }^{ 3 }n } \)
where m = mass of sample, n = no. of particles in the sample
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.13
d = 38.4 g/cm3

Answer 14.

  1. Electrophoresis : The movement of colloidal particles towards oppositely charged electrode in an electric field is called electrophoresis.
  2. Dialysis : It is the process of eliminating dissolved substances from a colloidal solution by means of diffusion through a suitable membrane.
  3. Tyndall effect : When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution placed in dark, the path of light becomes visible on viewing from right angle to the direction of passage of light. It is due to scattering of light by particles of dispersion phase and this effect is known as Tyndall effect.

Answer 15.

  1. Cd2+ ion posses 4d10 electronic configuration it means there is no unpaired electron and due to this Cd2+ salts are white in colour.
  2. Mn2+ has 3d5, half filled stable electronic configuration. As a result Mn3+ acts as a stronger oxidising agent than Cr3+ which has half filled f configuration which makes Cr3+ more stable and it does not act as an oxidising agent.
  3. Other than first five elements belonging to actinoide series all are prepared in laboratory by nuclear transmutation, so they are known as rare earth elements.

Answer 16.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.16

Answer 17.

  1. Sulphide ores are preferentially wetted by oil and easily come out as froth, so froth floatation process is used for such ores.
  2. NaCN prevents the formation of undesirable froth, hence it acts as a depressent during froth floatation process.
    For example, during the concentration of PbS, ZnS is prevented to come as the froth by NaCN by making a complex.
    NaCN + ZnS → Na2[ZnCN)4] + Na2S
  3. SiO2 combines with FeO present in copper matte to form the slag.
    FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3

Answer 18.
For the given cell
Reaction at anode: Sn → Sn2+ + 2e
Reaction at cathode: 2H+ + 2e → H2(g)
Net reaction: Sn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Sn2+(aq) + H2(g)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.18

Answer 19.

  1. Amylase is the water soluble part of starch. (It is a straight chain polymer of a-glucose attached with a-glycosidic linkage)
  2. The amino acids are linked with one another through
    CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.19
    linkage (amide linkage) which is known as peptide linkage in protein chemistry.
  3. Thyroxine

Answer 20.

  1. Double salts as well as co-ordination compounds are formed by the combination of two or more stable compounds in stoichiometric ratio. But double salt get dissociated into constituent simple ions completely when dissolved in water. On the other hand complex ions present in co-ordination compounds do not get dissociated into constituent ions. Examples- double salt- Mohr salt, Potash atom
    Complexes – [Fe(CN)6]4 and K2[PtCl6]
  2. Ionisable valencies are normally known as primary valency. On the other hand non ionisable valencies are known as secondary valencies.
  3. Ionisation isomer of given complex is [Co(CH3NH2) (NH3)3Br] SO4
    IUPAC Name : Triammine dimethanminebromocobalt (III) sulphate

Answer 21.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.21.2

Answer 22.
(a) (i) Glyptal
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.22.1
(ii) Neoprene
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.22.2
(b) Elastomers < Thermoplastics < fibres

Answer 23.

  1. Antiseptics
  2. Chloroxylenol, pine oil, isopropanol, castor oil, soap and water.
  3. Iodoform, Tincture of iodine (2-3% I2 solution in ethanol-water mixture), soframycine, furacine etc. (any two)
  4. Concern for others, knowledge of chemistry, helping and advising nature, equality for all etc.

Answer 24.
(a) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in butan-1-ol which is a stronger attracting force than simple dipole-dipole interatomic interactions of butanal. Hence boiling point of butanol is much higher.
(b) (i)

Reagent

Ethanal

Propanal

NaOH + I2

heat

Yellow ppt. of CHI3 will form

No such precipitation

(ii)

Reagent

Methanamine

N-methylmethanamine

CHCl3 + KOH

Heat

Foul smelling substance will form

No such smell

(c) C6H5COOH < NO2CH2COOH < FCH2COOH (acidic strength)
(d) In carboxylic acids there is no carbonyl group like aldehydes and ketones, carboxylic group is altogether a different group due to the following resonance structures.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.24.1
OR
Since compound (C4H10O)gives 2, 4-DNP derivative and reduces tollen’s reagent, it means it is an aldehyde. On vigrous oxidation it gives 1, 2, 4 benzene tricarboxylic acid, it means other than CHO group there will be two alkyl (methyl) groups on 2 and 4 position w.r.t. CHO on benzene ring. So, the given compound is:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.24.2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.24.3

Answer 25.
(a) mass of solute (wB) = 1.92 g, mass of solvent (wA) = 100 g
∆Tf = 0.383 K
Kf = 3.83 K Kg mol-1 for CS2
To find the formula of S
So the formula of sulphur will be Sx.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.25.1

(b) Van’t Hoff factor: It is represented by i and it is to account for the extent of dissociation or association of a solute in a solution. This factor i is defined as
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.25.2
For ethanoic acid in benzene:
i = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

OR
From question
PA° = 450 mm Hg,
PB° = 700 mm Hg
PTotal = 600 mm Hg
It is to be found that xA = ?, xB = ?
If mol fraction in vapour phase is yA and yB respectively, they also need to be found,
From Raoult’s law
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.25.3

Answer 26.
(a) (i) H3PO3 posses 2 OH groups, so it is diprotic
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.26.1
(iii) Among noble gas molecules, there is weak intermolecular van der waals forces only.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 Q.26.2

OR

  1. Halogens absorb light in visible region, hence they are coloured.
  2. On the basis of his experiment of O2 and PtF6 in which O2 form 02+ ions in which ionisation energy of O2 equal to 1175 kJ/mol, hence same reaction may be possible with xenon having ionisation energy 1170 kJ. This thought inspired N. Bartlett to carry out experiments between Xe and PtF6 to form Xe[PtF6].
    Xe + PtF6 → Xe [PtF6]
    1. HCl < HBr < HI < HF
    2. H3PO4 < H3PO3 < H3PO2
    3. ASH3 < PH3 < NH3

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5

BoardCBSE
ClassXII
SubjectEnglish Core
Sample Paper SetPaper 5
CategoryCBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3
hours Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

  • This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
  • Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
  • Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

1. For four days, I walked through the narrow lanes of the old city, enjoying the romance of being in a city where history still lives — in its cobblestone streets and in its people riding asses, carrying vine leaves and palm as they once did during the time of Christ.

2. This is Jerusalem, home to the sacred sites of Christianity, Islam and Judaism. This is the place that houses the church of the Holy Sepulchre, the place where Jesus was finally laid to rest. This is also the site of Christ’s crucifixion, burial and resurrection.

3. Built by the Roman Emperor Constantine at the site of an earlier temple to Aphrodite, it is the most venerated Christian shrine in the world. And justifiably so. Here, within the church, are the last five stations of the cross, the 10th station where Jesus was stripped of his clothes, the 11th where he was nailed to the cross, the 12th where he died on the cross, the 13th where the body was removed from the cross, and the 14th, his tomb.

4. For all this weighty tradition, the approach and entrance to the church is nondescript. You have to ask for directions. Even to the devout Christian pilgrims walking along the Via Dolorosa — the Way of Sorrows — first nine stations look clueless. Then a courtyard appears, hemmed in by other buildings and a doorway to one side. This leads to a vast area of huge stone architecture.

5. Immediately inside the entrance is your first stop. It’s the stone of anointing: this is the place, according to Greek tradition, where Christ was removed from the cross. The Roman Catholics, however, believe it to be the spot where Jesus’ body was prepared for burial by Joseph.

6. What happened next? Jesus was buried. He was taken to a place outside the city of Jerusalem where other graves existed and there, he was buried in a cave. However, all that is long gone, destroyed by continued attacks and rebuilding; what remains is the massive — and impressive — Rotunda (a round building with a dome) that Emperor Constantine built. Under this, and right in the centre of the Rotunda, is the structure that contains the Holy Sepulchre.

7. “HQW do you know that this is Jesus’ tomb ?” I asked one of the pilgrims standing next to me. He was clueless, more interested, like the rest of them, in the novelty of it all and in photographing it, than in its history or tradition.

8. At the start of the first century, the place was a disused quarry outside the city walls. According to the gospels, Jesus’ crucifixion occurred ‘at a place outside the city walls with graves nearby ’. Archaeologists have discovered tombs from that era, so the site is compatible with the biblical period.

9. The structure at the site is a marble tomb built over the original burial chamber. It has two rooms, and you enter four at a time into the first of these, the Chapel of the Angel. Here the angel is supposed to have sat on a stone to recount Christ’s resurrection. A low door made of white marble, partly worn away by pilgrims’ hands, leads to a smaller chamber inside. This is the ‘room of the tomb’, the place where Jesus was buried.

10. We entered in a single file. On my right was a large marble slab that covered the original rock bench on which the body of Jesus was laid. A woman knelt and prayed. Her eyes were wet with tears. She pressed her face against the slab to hide them, but it only made it worse. (Delhi, All India, Foreign 2015)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

(a) How does Jerusalem still retain the charm of the ancient era?

  1. There are narrow lanes.
  2. Roads are paved with cobblestones.
  3. People can be seen riding asses.
  4. All of the above.

(b) Holy Sepulchre is sacred to:

  1. Christianity.
  2. Islam.
  3. Judaism.
  4. Both (i) and (iii).

(c) Why does one have to constantly ask for directions to the church?

  1. Its lanes are narrow.
  2. Entrance to the church is nondescript.
  3. People are not tourist-friendly.
  4. Everyone is lost in enjoying the romance of the place.

(d) Where was Jesus buried? ‘

  1. In a cave
  2. At a place outside the city
  3. In the Holy Sepulchre
  4. Both (i) and (ii)

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(e) What is the Greek belief about the ‘stone of anointing’?
(f) Why did Emperor Constantine build the Rotunda?
(g) What is the general attitude of the pilgrims?
(h) How is the site compatible with the biblical period?
(i) Why did the pilgrims enter the ‘room of the tomb’ in a single file?
(j) Why did ‘a woman’ try to hide her tears?

III. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(а) A large grave (para 3)
(b) Having no interesting features/dull (para 4)

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10 Marks)

1. Dussehra and Diwali leave us in a mess-physically speaking. After all the lavish indulgences, our body literally sends signals that it is time we slowed down. And there is a way out—remove the toxins.

2. Most people believe that going on a detox trip is like suffering a crash diet and a method to lose weight, which is wrong notion. Nutrition head of Gold’s Gym, Ashwini Sukumar explains that detoxification has its roots in traditional Chinese medicines that has also been used in ancient India, Asia and Egypt. It is the body’s natural, ongoing process if neutralizing or eliminating toxins from the body. “A detox diet post Diwali blast is for those who want to bring their bodies back to its original condition following festival fun. You may decide to use a detox plan as a regular thing when you begin to feel the benefits and can use the principles again, depending on the extent of detox you are looking to achieve,” she explains.

3. She also explains that it is necessary and important to go on a detox diet after binging on your favourite food. “Many chemicals we ingest daily, through food, water and air, are deposited as fat cells in our bodies. A diet that lacks certain nutrients may also impair our natural ability to detoxify chemicals, which further leads to their build-up in the body. So, it is necessary to go on a detox diet to cleanse all that.” states Ashwini. The benefits include improved digestion, and increased concentration and clarity.

4. Many people also go on such diets to lose weight, is it a good thing? We ask. “If you fast for several days, you will shed weight, no question. But typically, most of the weight loss is water loss and some of it may be muscle tissue. Fasting or detoxing for longer periods can also slow down your metabolism, making it harder to keep the weight off or lose weight later.

5. While, director of Wellness Chi-health, Sheela Krishnaswamy says, “Modern medicine has no scientific belief in detox diets because the liver, kidneys, colon and skin remove waste products from our body on a daily basis, irrespective of what we may eat. But alternate therapists endorse detox diets very strongly, especially after a season of dietary excesses.”

6. She also points out that working on such diets is a new concept. “Earlier women used to prepare sweets and snacks at home. They always knew what ingredients they would use and the preparation would also involve tedious work. Even if they binge, the physical ‘ work that was involved during the preparation of these festivals would help them to cut down on the fat. But now everything is available on the shelf and of late, people prefer buying sweets at stores, where the calorie content is high,” she states.

7. So what does a typical detox process entail? “Cut back on sugary stuff. Have lot of vegetables, fruit juices, coconut water and exercise if you have gained weight. But, remember to detox only for a day or two. “Don’t go on a continuous crash, it will harm your body,” she warns.

I. Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) Detoxing should be done for :

  1. weight loss
  2. religious reasons around festivals
  3. eliminating toxins
  4. bringing the body back to its original condition

(b) The writer gives the example of the practice of making sweets at home to prove :

  1. homemade sweets are better than the ones available in the market.
  2. women loved to make them at home.
  3. the tedious and physical work required to make them balanced the calorie intake.
  4. that detox is much needed in today’s sedentary lifestyle.

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 5 = 5 Marks)

(c) What is the wrong notion harboured by most people about detox diets?
(d) Is it a good to go on an extended diet to lose weight? Why?
(e) Why is it necessary to go on a detox diet?
(f) What comprises the detox process ?
(g) Why does modern science not believe in detox diet?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 3 = 3 Marks)

(a) intake (para 3)
(b) slow or dull (para 6)
(c) weaken (para 3)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

Stress is arguably the greatest killer in the world today. Stress per se does not kill but it leads to several other medical conditions that are killers such as diabetes, hypertension, heart problems, and ulcers. It is important to understand that stress does not occur overnight. It builds up over a period of time. Second, stress knows no gender bias. It affects both men and women. Third, stress has begun to strike early. Youngsters and school students  also fall prey early and this affects them for a very long time. Fourth, stress also has no industry bias. Lastly, stress has begem to take its toll even in areas like sports earlier considered stress busters.

Stress is a mental condition, not one of the body. From a behavioural disease in the past, it has now become pathological since it causes stress changes in the normal physiology of the body. Regardless of how stress is viewed in other systems of medicine, acupuncture tends to classify stress in three ways. First are what can be called over-anticipators— perfectionists and workaholics. These are inveterate chasers of work and when they do not hdve anything to do, they start worrying. The second category is hyperactive people, either children or adults. The third can be called the “doubting Thomases”. They are among the high-risk category of the stress-prone people.

All systems of medicine say the thinking, memory and ‘mind’ are seated in the brain. But in acupuncture, the mind is situated in the Heart Meridian. The heart houses the mind. So anything concerned with behavioural problems, that too in a stressed stage, will see the Heart Meridian being hyperactive, which naturally leads to a stressed state in the brain. For, such people, either adults or children, the Heart Meridian is stimulated for 15 days (30 minutes a day). After a gap of two to eight days, the procedure has to be repeated. After about 90 days, the patient generally becomes normal. Over-anticipators remain mentally active during nights leading to insomnia. Stimulation of their Pericardium Meridian along their Heart Meridian eases their mind and they get a good night’s sleep after 60 sittings. Sometimes over anxiety leads to nightmares and dreams. Disturbance in the Liver Meridian may cause this. This problem is also solved by a 60-day session.

Acupuncture says that when the Gall Bladder Meridian is not working properly, the person will become indecisive. The more they are indecisive, the more confused they become and they go into a state of unidentified stress. For such patients, the Gall Bladder Meridian will be stimulated for 15 days and after a gap of 2-8 days, the procedure will be repeated. A total of 60 days treatment will be required.

Most medical systems work at how to “manage” stress. Consequently it is kept at minimal levels without it being eliminated. However, in Acupuncture, because of superior etiology, causes for the conditions are known. Thus, for these vulnerable groups, Acupuncture is a pure definitive and time bound system.

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)

B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
Very soon your school is going to be the center for CBSE examinations. You have seen that during lunch break students of junior classes keep going around the examination halls and make all kinds of noises. You are Navtej/Navita, Head Boy / Head Girl, Akash Public School, Ajmer. Write a notice in 50 words warning such students not to go near the examination rooms. (Foreign 2014) (4 Marks)
OR
Fireworks and crackers are known to create pollution during festivals. As an environmentalist design a poster in about 50 words to create awareness of their ill effects. (All India (C) 2015)

Question 5.
You are Arun/Arti, Raja Road, Kanpur. You had placed an order with Ram Book Depot, 4 Mall Road, Delhi for the supply of two books. You wanted to give them as a gift to a friend of yours. On receiving them you were disappointed to find that the books were damaged. Write a complaint letter in 120-150 words to the manager, about your problem. (All India (C) 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
You are Sudhir/ Sita. The Head Boy/Head Girl of ABC Public School, Jayanagar, Bangalore. An excursion has been planned from your school to Mysore. Write a letter to the Secretary, Ace Youth Hostel, Mysore requesting him to provide accommodation for 15 girls and 20 boys for three days. (120-150 words) (Delhi 2014)

Question 6.
Students can contribute significantly to socially useful productive activities like tree plantation, cleanliness, adult literacy, etc. Write an article in 150- 200 words on ‘Students and Social Service’ to be published in the local magazine. You are Jagriti/Jagan. (Delhi 2014) (10 Marks)
OR
You are Jagriti/Jagan, a student of Arunodaya Academy. Your first term examinations are approaching. Write a speech to be delivered in the school assembly on tips for success in examinations.

Question 7.
The social service league of your school celebrated Diwali in a novel way by collecting money and discarded clothes and distributing them along with sweets and crackers to the children at a local orphanage. Write a report in about 150¬200 words for your school magazine as Praneet / Preeti, Secretary of your club. (10 Marks)
OR
You are Winnie/William. The Book Fair which lasted for a month in your city was the topic of all book lovers. Write a report on it for a local daily in about 150-200 words.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow : (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth (All India (C) 2015)
Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,
Of all the unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways
Made for our searching: yes, in spite of all,
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall
From our dark spirits.

(a) Name the poem.
(b) Give one cause of human suffering.
(c) What moves the pall away from our lives?
(d) What does the word ‘gloomy’ mean?

OR

and felt that
old
familiar ache, my childhood’s fear,
but all I said was, see you soon,
Amma,
all I did was smile and smile and
smile.

(a) Name the poem.
(b) What was the poet’s childhood fear?
(c) What does her smile signify?
(d) What does the word ‘ache’ mean?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: (4 × 3 = 12 Marks)

(a) At the dining table why did Zitkala- Sa begin to cry when others started eating? (All India 2016)
(b) What will happen when aunt Jennifer is dead? (Foreign 2015)
(c) What does the poem ‘Keeping Quiet’ teach us? (All India (C) 2015)
(d) What was the bulletin board news that caused a change in the school (The Last Lesson)? (All India (C) 2015)
(e) Why did the servants leave Dr. Sadao’s household?
(f) What explanation did ‘McLeery’ give for carrying the rubber tube in Evans’ cell?

Question 10.
Giving bribe is an evil practice. How did the tiger king bribe the British officer to save his kingdom? How do you view this act of his? (120-150 words) (Delhi, Foreign 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
How did Dr. Sadao help the POW to escape? What humanitarian values do you find in his act? (Delhi, Foreign 2015)

Question 11.
Describe the difficulties the bangle makers of Firozabad have to face in their lives? (120-150 words) (Delhi 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
The order from Berlin aroused a particular zeal in the school. Comment. (Foreign 2015)

Question 12.
As a scientist, how is Kemp different from Griffin? (120-150 words) (Foreign 2015) (6 marks)
OR
Bring out the character of Priscilla in the novel, Silas Marner. (120-150 words)

Question 13.
What disadvantages did Griffin face due to invisibility? (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
In what way did Godfrey change in the novel, Silas Marner? (120-150 words)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.

I. (a) (iv) All of the above
(b) (i) Christianity
(c) (ii) Entrance to the church is nondescript
(d) (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

II. (e) According to the Greek belief, the stone of anointing is the place where Christ was removed from the cross.
(f) The graves were destroyed by continued attacks and rebuilding. So, Emperor Constantine converted the cave, where Jesus was buried, into the Rotunda to save , the Holy Sepulchre.
(g) The general pilgrims are more interested in the novelty of Jesus’ tomb and in photographing it. They have no interest in its history or tradition.
(h) As per the gospel, Jesus’ crucifixion took place at place outside the city walls. There were graves nearby. In the beginning of the first century, this place was a disused quarry outside the city walls. The archaeologists have discovered tombs from that era.
(i) The ‘room of tomb’ was a smaller chamber inside the Rotunda. It has a low door made of white marble. It is the place where Jesus was buried.
(j) Jesus sacrificed his life to make this world a happy place to live in. The woman did not want to show that she was sad and miserable.

III. (a) Tomb (b) Nondescript

Answer 2.

I. (a) (iii) eliminating toxins
(b) (iv) that detox is much needed in today’s sedentary lifestyle.

II. (c) The wrong notion harboured by most people about detox diets is that a detox trip is like suffering a crash diet and a method to lose weight.
(d) Most weight that is shed during the extended diet period is that due to water.
(e) It is good to go on a detox diet as the benefits include improved digestion, and increased concentration and clarity.
(f) The detoxing process involves cutting back on sugary stuff, having a lot of vegetables, fruit juices, coconut water and exercising.
(g) Modern science has no belief in detox diets because it believes that the liver, kidneys, colon and skin remove waste products from our body on a daily basis, irrespective of what we eat.

III. (a) ingest (b) tedious (c) Impair

Answer 3.
A TITLE: Acupuncture: A Sure Shot Panacea for Stress

NOTES:

1. stress—alarming facts :

(a) greatest killer
(b) cause of dibts., ulcer
(c) striking youngsters too
(d) does not occur overnight

2. Acupuncture:
(a) an antidote to stress
(b) superior etiology, causes of stress known
(c) reliable, time bound system
(d) classifies humans into three groups:

  1. over-anticipators, perfectionists
  2. hyperactive people
  3. doubting Thomases

3. How acupuncture works for perfectionists:

(a) heart meridian stimltd for 15 days
(b) procedr reptd after 8 days
(c) cures in 90 days

4. For over-anticipators:

(a) Pericardium meridian hrt meridian stmltd
(b) nightmares and dreams cured by stmltn of liver meridian

5. Cure for doubt and confusion:

(a) gall bladder stmltd
(b) cure in 60 days

Key to Abbreviations
hrt : heart
Dibts : diabetes
Stmltd : stimulated
stmltn : stimulant
Procedr : procedure
Reptd : repeated

B. SUMMARY

Stress builds up gradually and is the cause of hypertension and diabetes. Today it is striking even the young. Acupuncture helps cure stress in a reliable and time bound way. It classifies humans into perfectionists, hypertensive and doubters. To cure perfectionists their heart meridian is stimulated. For over-anticipators the pericardium and heart meridian are stimulated and cure is possible in ninety days. Liver meridian is stimulated to cure nightmares and dreams. To cure confusion, and doubt the gall bladder is stimulated for sixty days.

Answer 4.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5 1
Answer 5.

A-4, Raja Road
Kanpur
8th September, 20××

Sub: Receipt of damaged books

Dear Sir,

I regret very much to inform you that the books sent by you in execution of my order dated 27 August, (‘River of Smoke’ by Amitav Ghosh) is in a damaged condition and (Word Power by Norman Lewis ) is wanting in 8 pages (pp. 113-120). These are therefore, returned to you in a registered cover.

May I request you to replace them at your convenience and to enclose in your order the cost of the postage stamps I had to buy in sending them back?

Soliciting early compliance.

Yours sincerely
Arun

OR

ABC Public School
Jayanagar, Bangalore
15th September, 20××
The Secretary
Ace Youth Hostel
Mysore

Sub : Accommodation required Dear Sir

Our school has planned an excursion to Mysore in the coming autumn break from 7- 10 October. We are a group of 15 girls and twenty boys. We need separate accommodation for boys and girls on a twin- sharing basis. You are requested to book clean, comfortable rooms with all facilities as per our requirement. Kindly ensure that the rooms are on the same floor, adjacent to each other and have a balcony.

You are requested to intimate the charges and confirm the booking by 20th September. Thank you

Yours sincerely
Sudhir
Head Boy

Answer 6.

Students and Social Service
By Jagan

Students are not separate from society. They are also social beings like other classes of people. So it should not be assumed that students should just study, play and appear for examinations. In India where the poor and underprivileged are so many, social service has a great importance and a very large scope too. They can help the nation in multiple ways. They can work for the removal of illiteracy. Cleanliness is a big challenge in our nation. Students can teach the masses about healthcare and sanitation. They can even look into the sanitation of their own area. They can take active part in the national scheme of afforestation. Students should keep in mind one thing—Charity begins at home. It is a student’s first and foremost duty to serve his parents, brothers and sisters, his kith and kin. Then serve the masses. By doing social service students can give back to society what they have received from it. Social service also elevates one spiritually.

Thank you.

OR

Good morning, respected Principal, teachers and my dear friends! Today, I am going to give some tips for success in examinations. If you’re one of the those people who get stressed out when it comes to taking exams then I have a few tips for you that will help you to succeed well in the upcoming first term examinations. Firstly, look after your health. It’s stressful to cram so much information into your brain and also try to get on with the rest of your life. You’ll end up burning the candle at both ends, so to speak, and this can seriously damage your health. Looking after your health means that you should be getting adequate rest. Eat and drink sensibly and in moderation, exercise your body and spend quality time on yourself. I suggest that you set yourself a program and stick to it as much as possible. Studying for 20 minutes at a time and then a 10 minute break is ideal for optimum learning. If you find your mind begins to wander then it’s time for a rest. Do one thing at a time. Plan beforehand which subject you’re going to study and don’t waver. If you get interrupted, put it to one side until you’re ready to deal with it. I am sure with these tips you will pass the exams with flying colours.

Thank you.

Answer 7.

Diwali Celebrations at Sanmati Bal Niketan
By Praneet

10th October, Delhi,

In the month of October, ‘Diwali Fest’ was organized under the Social Service Club of ABC Public School. The students were asked to donate clothes, sweets crackers and money for the inmates of Sanmati Bal Niketan. The collection carried on for a whole week from October 3 to October 9. The funds and goods collected from this activity were donated to the orphanage. 30 students of the social service club visited the orphanage on October 10 , with the goods. They were welcomed by the students of the orphanage.

They presented a short cultural programme for the visitors. Then they interacted with our students on a variety of issues. They happily ate the sweets that the club members had taken with them.

A 12 year old orphan, Jeetu said, “We need a water purifier as the water here is quite dirty.” The visit brought big smiles on the faces of the underprivileged children. It also sensitized our club members to the problems of the less privileged.

OR

Visit to a Book Fair
By Winnie

Delhi, 2nd February, 20xx: Delhi Book Fair at Pragati Maidan was inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 1st February, 20xx. The book fair lasted for a month. There were a lot of beautifully decorated bookstalls. All book stalls were full of various kinds of books. Thousands of book-lovers were looking for their favorite books. Some popular writers like Arundhati Roy, were present at some book stalls and their fans surrounded them. Some of the book-lovers were taking autographs from their favorite writers. Free buses made it easy for the visitors to reach the stalls of their choice.

This year books on tourism were in great demand. Besides, novels, science fictions, travelogues and children’s books were in great demand too. Attractive discounts delighted the book lovers.

There was a food corner in the fair. The tired visitors easily got relief by taking food and spending some time there.

A visitor remarked “I am a regular visitor but this time the arrangements are really good”. The overall arrangement of the book fair was very enjoyable. It proved to be enriching for all book lovers.

Answer 8.

(a) The poem is ‘A thing of Beauty’.
(b) One cause of human suffering is lack of noble natures.
(c) A thing of beauty lifts the pall from our lives.
(d) ‘Gloomy’ means dark, depressing and dull.

OR

(a) The poem is ‘My mother at Sixty-Six’.
(b) The poet’s childhood fear was separation from the mother.
(c) Her smile signifies how she hides her pain and fear from the mother hoping to convey to her that all is well.
(d) The word ‘ache’ means a dull pain, pang.

Answer 9.

(a) Zitkala-sa, the narrator felt quite uncomfortable in the dining room. A small bell was tapped by the white woman. She pulled her chair out and sat on it. She was the only one seated there as she could not remember the instructions. A second bell was sounded. All were seated. A ‘paleface woman’ watched her disapprovingly. Then everyone started eating. All these activities confused her. She felt quite uncomfortable and uneasy as she was not used to such mannerisms.

(b) Even after aunt Jennifer’s death she will not get freed from the mental shackles imposed on her by marriage. In contrast the tigers in the panel will go on jumping proud and unafraid as before.

(c) The poem Keeping Quiet teaches human beings to stop all worldly activities for a while and spend few moments in quiet introspection. It will help us to understand ourselves. We are in troubles because we always remain in hurry and rush. We should withdraw ourselves from all undesirable actions and remain quiet. It will bring all together and a feeling of understanding will develop.

(d) The bulletin board displayed a German order that from the next day the citizens of Alsace shall not be permitted to speak French. German would become the official language as Alsace had been conquered by the Germans. So the teaching of French had been discontinued.

(e) All the servants including the gardener didn’t like Sadao’s efforts to save an American. America was at war with Japan. Tom was their enemy. The two servants were frightened at what their master had told them. They thought that their master should not heal the wound of that white man. The white man must die. If their master healed what the gun and the sea did, they would take revenge on them. Yumi refused to wash a white man. They feared that they may be arrested for conniving with Dr. Sadao to save a traitor.

(f) When the wily McLeery, who had come to the prison to invigilate the examination, was asked to explain the rubber tube that he carried, he explained that since he suffered from haemorrhoids he needed the tube to sit on and thus relieve the discomfort.

Answer 10.
Bribery is indeed a social evil which degrades society. At one time the tiger king was in danger of losing his throne. A high ranking British officer visited Pratibandapuram. He was very fond of hunting tigers and being photographed with them. He was refused permission to hunt tigers in Pratibandapuram as the king needed them to disprove the prophecy. Since he had prevented such a high ranking officer from fulfilling his desire, the Maharaja stood in danger of losing his kingdom itself. The Maharaja had to please the high ranking British officer. Samples of expensive diamond rings of different designs were brought from a famous jeweler in Calcutta. The Maharaja sent all the 50 rings to the British officer’s good lady. The lady accepted the whole lot. The Maharaja lost three lakh rupees but managed to retain his kingdom. This act was evil as well as foolish on the part of the king. Had he been less superstitious he would never have seen this day.

OR

Dr. Sadao had given a new lease of life to the American prisoner of war. He didn’t want to throw him into the jaws of death again. He asked the young soldier to take his private boat at night. He should row in the cover of darkness to a little deserted island nearby. The young American could live there until he saw a Korean fishing boat pass by. Food, bottled water and two quilts were put inside the boat. If the food ran out, he could signal two flashes.

He was not to signal in darkness because he could be seen. The young American came down into the darkness of the garden and escaped. Sadao was a doctor. And for a doctor saving a dying man is the foremost priority. Despite his dislike of American people and ways he rose above all narrow prejudices and responded to the call of his duty and above all, humanity. Besides, he was very pragmatic and intelligent.

Answer 11.
Firozabad is famous for its bangles. Every other family in the town is engaged in this profession. Bangle-making is not confined to adults only. Over 20,000 children join their parents in this job. They work illegally in the glass furnaces with high temperatures. They are exposed to all health-hazards. These factories are in stinking lanes choked with garbage. They work in dingy rooms with no windows and outlets for fresh air. Their eyes are more adjusted to the dark than to the light outside. That is why many of them end up losing their eyesight before they become adults.

The bangle-workers have fallen in a web of poverty. They can’t organise themselves into a cooperative. They have fallen into a vicious circle of ‘sahukars’, middlemen and the police. It seems the bangle-workers of Firozabad are condemned to poverty and perpetual exploitation.

OR

A shocking order had come from Berlin. Two French speaking districts of Alsace and Lorraine were under German occupation. German language was imposed on the people of Alsace. It hurt the pride of the people. M. Hamel, a school teacher, declared that it was his last lesson in French. He would leave the place for good. A new master would replace him to teach German. The news aroused patriotic feelings in students as well as the villagers. The village elders came to the school to listen to the last lesson in French. He called French the most beautiful, clearest and the most logical language. He expressed his dismay that the people of Alsace were quite indifferent to the learning of French. He called upon them to guard it among themselves and never forget it. Everyone listened to him with rapt attention and respect.

Answer 12.
Both Griffin and Dr. Kemp were scientists who had attended the same institution, however they differ in their temperaments, attitudes towards scientific research, life, and humanity. While for Dr. Kemp scientific research is about contributing towards the welfare of all humanity, for Griffin it is however a means of self-aggrandizement and showing to others who is in control of the world! For Griffin, invisibility is a way of taking revenge on a world that did not recognize his brilliance. This obsession with power invests his character with a violent streak which keeps appearing throughout the novel. For example his hitting the landlord in chapter 24, and his setting fire to his lodgings at Oxford street. Griffin has no scruples about robbing his own father when he runs out of money to fund his research without any remorse for his father who commits suicide. While Kemp is the voice of conscience and ethics, Griffin symbolizes-ambition devoid of ethics.

OR

Priscilla, Nancy’s sister, is likeable for her good sense and strong character. She seems happily resigned to a life of caring for their father, and encourages Nancy’s marriage and happiness. Nancy wishes that Priscilla’s clothes and her own always match because they are sisters, and Priscilla unselfishly has them in the colors that will favor Nancy, rather than herself. Priscilla is rather plain and frumpy. She is “Square-shouldered, clumsy, high featured”. She is loyal and loving to her family. Priscilla is “good-natured self forgetful” and has a lot of common sense. She is a cheerful person. Priscilla is a spinster and therefore decides to take over her father’s farm. She loves farming. This also implies that she is bored of normal life. She buries herself in farming because she has no children.

Answer 13.
Once he became invisible, Griffin realized that it had serious drawbacks that he had never forseen. He found that it was hard for him even to walk, for he could not see his legs. Even though people could not see him, dogs were attracted to him. They would bark at him. He could not walk in crowds, for he would be felt. He often got hurt unknowingly by people. It was really hard for him in every season other than summer. In rain and snow, there would be an outline of him and it was very difficult to remain naked in cold weather. Ironically, if he wore clothes, he became visible and if he didn’t, he ran the risk of dying due to the chill of England.

OR

Godfrey is weak-willed and usually unable to think of much beyond his immediate material comfort. As a young man he married an opium addict, Molly Farren, with whom he had a daughter. This secret marriage and Godfrey’s handling of it demonstrate the mixture of guilt and moral cowardice that keep him paralyzed. Godfrey consented to the marriage largely out of guilt and keeps the marriage. Godfrey is generally passive and selfish. Godfrey is subject to constant blackmail from Dunsey, who knows of Godfrey’s secret marriage, and Godfrey is finally freed of his malicious brother simply by an accident. He is delivered from Molly when she freezes to death while on her way to Raveloe to expose their marriage to Godfrey’s family. Godfrey’s eventual confession to Nancy that Eppie is his daughter, is motivated simply by his fright after the discovery of Dunsey’s remains. By the time Godfrey changes and is finally ready to take responsibility for Eppie, she has already accepted Silas as her father.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 5 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5

BoardCBSE
ClassXII
SubjectBiology
Sample Paper SetPaper 5
CategoryCBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Biology is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. There are total 26 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer Type Questions of one mark each.
  3. Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer Type Questions of two marks each.
  4. Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer Type Questions of three marks each.
  5. Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four mark.
  6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer Type Questions of five marks each.
  7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examiner is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
  8. No. of printed pages are three.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
What is the number of chromosome in human zygote?

Question 2.
What is totipotency?

Question 3.
What are palindromic sequences?

Question 4.
What is Allen’s rule?

Question 5.
How do you define NPP?

SECTION-B

Question 6.
Write the transcription product sequence for
(a) 5 ‘ATGCACTGATCCAA 3’
(b) 3 ‘ GTACGTACGTAC 5’

Question 7.
Complete the table:

CrossRatio
Monohybrid……….
……….1:2:1

 Question 8.
What are the types of acquired immunity?

Question 9.
Which microbe converts milk to curd?

Question 10.
Give some examples of diseases and their insect vector.

OR

What are the different methods of breeding?

SECTION-C

Question 11.
List the salient features of DNA double helix model.

Question 12.
What is the fate of the product of fertilization in humans?

Question 13.
How was the genetic code elucidated?

Question 14.
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1.Explain this equation.

Question 15.
What are the different levels at which gene regulation can be achieved?

Question 16.
What are the primary lymphoid organs?

Question 17.
Explain gene therapy with an example?

Question 18.
Diagrammatically represent the replication of retrovirus.

Question 19.
How have cry proteins been utilized?

OR

Explain carbon cycle with diagram.

Question 20.
Explain two reasons for loss of biodiversity.

Question 21.
Give some adaptations of desert plants to survive the heat.

Question 22.
What does the picture represent?

SECTION-D

Question 23.
In art class the teacher asked Sunita to mix green and red paint and report on the combined colour formed. Sunita could not find red colour in her box and was scolded by the teacher who found it lying right in front. Suddenly Vijay realized that Sunita was not able to identify red colour and reported the matter to the teacher who was of the opinion that she lacked colour concept. After school was over, Vijay reported this matter to Sunita’s parents.                                                                                                (a) What values did Vijay possess?
(b) Did Sunita lack knowledge of colours? If not, give the biological reason for the same.
(c) Give the technical term for this type of inheritance. Explain with a typical example

SECTION-E

Question 24.
Explain with diagram the experiment that proved that DNA is a genetic material.

OR

Explain pollination by wind and water.

Question 25.
Give the journey of sperm formation with diagram. What are the hormones involved?

OR

Explain the technique of fingerprinting with diagram.

Question 26.
What is parasitism? What are the types?

OR

What are ecosystem services?

Answers

SECTION-A

Answer 1.
46

Answer 2.
Capacity of generating a whole plant from cell/explant is called totipotency.

Answer 3.
The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs on the two strands that reads the same when orientation of reading is kept same

Answer 4.
Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This is known as Allen’s rule.

Answer 5.
NPP stands for Net Primary Productivity. It is the available biomass for the consumption by heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers) NPP = GPP – R. Where ‘GPP’ is Gross Primary Productivity, ‘R’ is Respiration losses.

SECTION-B

Answer 6.
(a) 3 ‘TACGTGACTAGGTT 5’                                      ‘
(b) 5 ‘AUGCACUGAUCCAA 3 ’

Answer 7.

CrossRatio
Monohybrid3:1
Incomplete dominance1:2:1

Answer 8.
1. Antibody mediated immunity or humoral immune response by the production of antibodies against antigens.
2. Cell mediated immunity initiated by T lymphocytes.

Answer 9.
Micro-organisms such as Lactobacillus and others commonly called lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd. During growth, the LAB produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins. A small amount of curd added to the fresh milk as inoculum or starter contain millions of LAB, which at suitable temperatures multiply, thus converting milk to curd.

Answer 10.
(1) Malaria – female Anopheles mosquito
(2) Dengue or Chikungunya – Aedes mosquito.

OR

Different methods of breeding are:
(a) Inbreeding;
(b) Out breeding;
(c) Out crossing;
(d) Cross breeding; and
(e) Interspecific hybridisation

SECTION-C

Answer 11.
The salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA are as follows:

  1. It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by sugar phosphate, and the bases project inside.
  2. The two chains have anti-parallel polarity. It means, if one chain has the polarity 5’→3′, the other has
    3′ → 5′.
  3. The base in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond (H-bonds) forming base pairs (bp). Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine from opposite strand and vice-versa. Similarly, Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with three H-bonds. As a result, always a purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine. This generates approximately uniform between the two strands of the helix.
  4. The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This, in addition to H-bonds, confersstability of the helical structure.

Answer 12.
The product of fertilization is the zygote. The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct called cleavage towards the uterus and forms 2,4,8,16 daughter cells called blastomeres. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula. The morula continues to divide and transforms into blastocyst as it moves further into the uterus. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and an inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass. The trophoblast layer then gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass gets differentiated as the embryo. After attachment the uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst. As a result, the blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. This is called implantation and it leads to pregnancy.

Answer 13.
Har Govind Khorana, Marshall Nirenberg and Severo Ochoa elucidated the genetic code. Genetic Code directs the sequence of amino acids during protein synthesis of proteins. The chemical method was developed by Har Gobind Khorana to synthesise RNA molecules with defined combinations of bases (homopolymers and copolymers). Marshall Nirenberg’s cell-free system for protein synthesis finally helped the code to be deciphered. Further, Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide phosphoryalse) was also helpful in polymerizing RNA with defined sequences in a template independent manner (enzymatic synthesis of RNA). This finally gave rise to the checker-board, for genetic code. The salient features of genetic code are as follows:
(a) The codon is triplet 43 = 64. (61 codons code for amino and 3 codons do not code for any amino acids, hence they function as stop codons.)
(b) One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence, it is unambiguous and specific.
(c) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate.
(d) The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion. There are no punctuations.
(e) The code is nearly universal: for example, from bacteria to human UUU would code for Phenylalanine (phe).
(f) AUG has dual functions. It codes for Methionine (met), and it also as initiator codon

Answer 14.
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, equation represents the gene frequency of a given population as stated by Hardy-Weinberg law. It states that the frequencies of allele in a given population are stable and constant.
Where p2 = frequency of homozygous dominant alleles (AA).
q2 = frequency of homozygous recessive alleles (aa).
2pq = frequency of heterozygous alleles (Aa).
This is also referred to as genetic equilibrium and is a binomial expansion of (p + q)2.

Answer 15.
Gene regulation could be exerted at

  1. Transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript).
  2. Processing level (regulation of splicing).
  3. Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm.
  4. Translational Level.

Answer 16.
The primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and thymus where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes. Both provide micro-environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.

The thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breastbone. The thymus is quite large at the time of birth but keeps reducing in size with age and by the time puberty is attained, it reduces to a very small size.

Answer 17.
Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in child/embryo. Here, genes are inserted into a person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease. Correction of a genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.

The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This disorder is caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase. In some children, ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection. Both of these approaches are not completely curative.

Answer 18.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5.1

Answer 19.
The Bt toxin is coded by a gene named cry protein. The proteins encoded by the genes crylAc and crylAb control the cotton bollworms that of crylAb control com borer. B. thuringiensis  forms protein crystals during a particular phase of their growth. These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein. The Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxin but once an insect ingest 1 the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise the crystals. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create pores that cause cell swelling and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect.

OR

Carbon cycling occurs through atmosphere, ocean and through living and dead organisms. A considerable amount of carbon returns to the atmosphere as CO2 through respiratory activities of the producers and consumers. Decomposers also contribute substantially to CO2 pool by their processing of waste materials and dead organic matter of land oceans. Some amount of the fixed carbon is lost to sediments and removed from circulation. Burning of wood, forest fire and combustion of organic matter, fossil fuel, volcanic activity are additional sources for releasing CO2 in the atmosphere.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5.2

Answer 20.
Two reasons for the loss of biodiversity are:
1. Habital Loss and Fragmentation:
The degradation of many habitats by pollution also threatens the survival of many species. When large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to various human activities, mammals and birds requiring large territories and certain animals with migratory habits are badly affected, leading to population declines.

2. Co-extinctions: When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory way also become extinct. When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate. Another example is the case of a coevolved plant-pollinator mutualism where Extinction of one invariably leads to the extinction of the other.

Answer 21.
Some adaptive features that the desert plants have are:

  1. Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces.
  2. Their stomata arranged in deep pits to minimize water loss through transpiration.
  3. Special photosynthetic pathway (CAM) enables their stomata to remain closed during day time.
  4. Some plants like opuntia, have no leaves-they are reduced to spines-and the photosynthetic function is taken over by the flattened stems

Answer 22.
The following picture represents the global biodiversity
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5.3
Fishes have the maximum global biodiversity in the phylum vertebrates followed by birds, reptiles, amphibians and mammals.

SECTION-D

Answer 23.
(a) Vijay was alert, curious, clever and a responsible child.
(b) According to the teacher, Sunita lacks the concept of colours. When she could not identify red colour, it proved to be a case of colour blindness. It is a sex linked inherited disorder.
(c) This is a human disease which causes the loss of ability to differentiate between red and green colour. The gene for this red-green colour blindness is present on X chromosome. Colour blindness is recessive to normal vision. If a colour blind man (XcY) marries a girl with normal vision (XX), the daughters would have normal vision but would be a carrier, while sons would also be normal. If the carrier girl (heterozygous for colour blindness, XcX) now marries a colour blind XcY the off spring would show 50% females and 50% males. Of the females, 50% would be the carrier for colour blindness and the rest 50% would be colour blind. Of the males, 50% would have normal vision and the 50% would be colour blind.

SECTION-E

Answer 24.
Hershey and Chase grew some viruses on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus and some others on medium that contained radioactive sulfur. Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus but not protein. Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contained radioactive protein but not radioactive DNA because DNA does not contain sulfur. Radioactive phages were allowed to attach to E. coli bacteria. Then, as the infection proceeded, the viral coats were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a blender. The virus particles were separated from the bacteria by spinning them in a centrifuge. Bacteria which were infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive, indicating that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria. Bacteria that were infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive. This indicates that proteins did not enter the bacteria from the viruses. DNA is therefore the genetic material that is passed from virus to bacteria.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5.4

Pollination By Wind:
(a) Wind pollination requires that the pollen grains are light and non-sticky so that they can be transported in wind currents.
(b) Possess well-exposed stamens so that the pollens are easily dispersed into wind currents.
(c) Ltirgc and feathery stigma to easily trap air-bome pollen grains.
(d) Have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence.
(e) Quite common in grasses.

Pollination By Water: 
(a) Water pollination is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to mostly monocotyledons.
(b) Water is a regular mode of transport for the male gametes among the lower plant groups such as algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes.
(c) Some examples of water pollinated plants are Vallisneria and Hydrilla which grow in fresh water and several marine sea-grasses such as Zostera.
(d) In Vallisneria, the female flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk and the male flowers or pollen grains are released on the surface of water. They are carried passively by water currents some of them eventually reach the female flowers and the stigma.
(e) In sea grasses, female flowers remain submerged in water and the pollen grains are released inside the water.
(f) Pollen grains in many such species are long, ribbon like and they are carried passively inside the water; some of them reach the stigma and achieve pollination. In most of the water- pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting by a mucilaginous covering.

Answer 25.
In testis, the immature male germ cells (spermatogonia) produce sperms by spermatogenesis that begins at puberty. The spermatogonia (sing, spermatogonium) present on the inside wall of seminiferous tubules multiply by mitotic division and increase in numbers. Each spermatogonium is diploid and contains 46 chromosomes. Some of the spermatogonia called primary spermatocytes periodically undergo meiosis. A primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division (reduction division) leading to formation of two equal, haploid cells called secondary spermatocytes, which have only 23 chromosomes each. The secondary spermatocytes undergo the second meiotic division to produce four equal, haploid spermatids. The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called spermiogenesis. After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in Sertoli cells, and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called sperimation.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5.5
The hormones involved are:

  1. GnRH – Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
  2. LH – Luteinising Hormone
  3. FSH – Follicle Stimulating Hormone.

OR

DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.

• These repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during density gradient centrifugation.

  • The bulk DNA forms a major peak and the other small peaks are reffered to as satellite DNA.
  • Depending on base composition (A : T rich or G:C rich), length of segment, and number of repetitive units, the satellite DNA is classified into many categories, such as micro- satellities, mini-satellites etc.
  • These sequences normally do not code for any proteins, but they form a large portion of human genome.
  • These sequence show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting.

The technique of DNA fingerprinting involves the following steps: 

  1. Isolation of DNA, i.e., extraction from the nuclei of the different possible cells.
  2. The DNA molecules are digested with the help of enzyme restriction endonuclease (called chemical knife) that cuts them into fragments. The fragments of DNA also contains the VNTRs.
  3. The fragments are separated according to the size by the gel electrophoresis.
  4. Multiplication of fragments of a particular size having VNTRs through PCR technique.
    Here they are treated with alkaline chemicals to split them into single stranded DNAs.
  5. Blotting/transferring of separated fragments of a single stranded DNA to a nylon membrane.
    CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5.6
  6. Radioactive DNA probes having repeated base sequences complementary to possible VNTRs are poured over the nylon membrane. Some of them will bind to the single stranded VNTRs. Hybridisation of DNA with probes is called Southern Blotting. The nylon membrane is washed to remove extra probes.
  7. Autoradiography: An X-ray film is exposed to the nylon membrane to mark the place where the radioactive DNA probes have bound to the DNA fragments. These places are marked as dark bands when X-ray film is developed.
  8. The dark bands so formed on X-ray film represent the DNA fingerprints (= DNA profiles).

Answer 26.
Parasitism is an interspecies relationship in which one organism gets benefitted and the other is harmed. Parasites evolve special adaptations such as the loss of unnecessary sense organs, presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on to the host, loss of digestive system and high reproductive capacity. The life cycles of parasistes are often complex, involving one or two intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate parasitisation of its primary host. The human liver fluke (a trematode parasite) depends on two intermediate hosts (a snail and a fish) to complete its life cycle. The malarial parasite needs a vector (mosquito) to spread to other hosts.

There are three types of parasitism:

(1) Ecoparasitsm: Parasites feeding on the external surface of the host organism. For example the lice on humans and ticks on dogs, marine fish are infested with ectoparasitic copepods and, cuscuta found growing on hedge plants, to derive its nutrition from the host plant which it parasitizes.

(2) Endoparasitism: Parasites living inside the host body at different sites, /.<?., liver, kidney, lungs, red blood cells etc. The life cycles of endoparasites are more complex because of their extreme specialisation. Their morphological and anatomical features are greatly simplified while emphasising their reproductive potential.

(3) Brood parasitism: Parasitisism in which birds lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host incubate them. The eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.

OR

The benefits that people obtain from ecosystems are termed as ecosystem services. The four categories of ecosystem services are supporting, provisioning, regulating and cultural. These services forms a base for a wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic goods and services. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services, the soil formation accounts for about 50 percent, and contributions of other services like recreation and nutrient cycling, are less than 10 per cent each. The cost of climate regulation and habitat for wildlife are about 6 per cent each. Examples of such services are as follows:
(a) Healthy Forest ecosystems.
(b) Purify air and water.
(c) Mitigate droughts and floods.
(d) Cycle nutrients.
(e) Generate fertile soils.
(f) Provide wildlife habitat.
(g) Maintain biodiversity.
(h) Pollinate crops.
(i) Provide storage site for carbon.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 5, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7

BoardCBSE
ClassXII
SubjectGeography
Sample Paper SetPaper 7
CategoryCBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  • There are 22 questions in all.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
  • Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
  • Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
  • Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labeling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
  • Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
  • Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
What is the basic goal of development?

Question 2.
Which country has the lowest sex ratio in the world?

Question 3.
Name two activities on which the earliest human beings were dependent for their sustenance.

Question 4.
Name the navigational canal that serves as a gateway of Commerce for both the continents of Asia and Europe.

Question 5.
Name any two states of India where Green Revolution strategy of agricultural development has largely been successful.

Question 6.
Which port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugh River?

Question 7.
Which plant was located on the basis of proximity to raw materials?

Question 8.
Explain any three characteristics of collective farming in the world.

Question 9.
Describe the main features of Addis Ababa, the capital city of Ethiopia.

Question 10.
Jute is a fibre crop grown in India. Discuss.

Question 11.
Study the following map carefully and answer the questions that follows.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1 11
(i) Name the state in which this steel plant is located.
(ii) Name one source each of coal and iron-ore for this plant.
(iii) Mention the source of water for this plant.

Question 12.
Define the term ‘Cio-energy’. Mention any four points of significance of Bio-energy.

Question 13.
In the rural areas, male selective out-migration leaving their wives behind puts extra physical as well mental pressure on the women. By which human values such social problems can be minimised or resolved?

Question 14.
Discuss the important characteristics of the economic activities of hunting and gathering practised in the world.

Question 15.
What is the importance of dairy farming? Why is it mainly practised near urban and industrial centres of the world? Explain.

Question 16.
Name any two countries through which river Rhine flows. Mention two cities between which this river is navigable. Explain the economic significance of River Rhine.

Question 17.
Explain the five types of urban settlements of the world classified on the basis of size, functions and services available.

Question 18.
What do you understand by non-metallic minerals? Discuss mica as non-metallic minerals. In which areas of India it is produced?

Question 19.
There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements in India. Explain with examples.

Question 20.
“Inspite of numerous rivers in India, inland water ways are poorly developed.” Discuss its causes

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A mega city
(B) An International Airport
(C) A major seaport
(D Largest country of the continent
(E) An area having highest density of population

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) An oil refinery situated in Andhra Pradesh.
(ii) An International airport of Gujarat.
(iii) The leading producer state of Jowar

Answers

Answer 1.
The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.

Answer 2.
United Arab Emirates.

Answer 3.
Hunting and Gathering.

Answer 4.
Suez Canal.

Answer 5.
Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

Answer 6.
Kolkata

Answer 7.
Rourkela Steel Plant

Answer 8.
(i) Collective farming was introduced in erstwhile Soviet Union to improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural production for self sufficiency.
(ii) The farmers used-to pool in all their resources like land, livestock and labour. They were allowed to retain very small plots to grow crops in order to meet their daily requirements.
(iii) Yearly targets were set by the government and the produce was sold to the state at fixed prices. Produce in excess of the fixed amount was distributed among the members or sold in the market.

Answer 9.
(i) Adis Ababa is a new city which was established in 1878. The whole city is located on a hill-valley topography. Its road pattern bears the influence of the local topography. The roads radiate from the govt headquarter Piazza, Arat, and Amist Kilo roundabouts.
(ii) Mercato has markets which grew with time and is supposed to be the largest market between Cairo and Johannesburg.
(iii) A multi-faculty university, a medical college, a number of good schools make Addis Ababa, an educational centre. It is a terminal station for Djibouti-Adis Ababa rail route. Bole airport is a relatively new airport.

Answer 10.
(i) Jute is used for making coarse cloth, bags, sacks and decorative items. It is a cash crop in West Bengal and adjoining eastern parts of the country.
(ii) India lost large jute growing areas to East Pakistan during partition. India produces about three fifth of jute production of the world. West Bengal accounts for about three fourth of the production in the country.
(iii) Bihar and Assam are other jute growing areas. Being concentrated in few states it accounts for only about 0.5 percent of total cropped area in the country.

Answer 11.
(i) Chhatisgarh
(ii) Coal comes from-Korba and Iron ore- from Dalli-Rajhara.
(iii) Water comes from ‘Tanduladam’.

Answer 12.
(a) Bio-energy refers to energy derived from biological products which includes agricultural It residues.
(b) (i) Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion.
(ii) It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking.
(iii) It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy.
(iv) It will improve economic life of rural areas in developing countries; reduce environmental pollution, enhance self-reliance and reduce pressure on fuel wood.

Answer 13.
(i) Social Awakening.
(ii) Respect and equality.
(iii) Women empowerment.

Answer 14.
(i) The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance.
They subsisted on animals which they hunted and the edible plants which they gathered ‘ from forests in the vicinity.
(ii) Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting.
(iii) The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrow, the number of animals killed was limited.
(iv) Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic condition. It involves primitive : societies. They exploit both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for food, shelter and clothing.
(v) Such activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at very low level k of technology. The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.

Answer 15.
(a) Dairy farming is capital intensive. It is the most developed form of keeping milch animals. It provides milk, butter, cheese etc.
(b) (i) It is practised near the markets-urban areas and industrial centres.
(ii) They provide neighbourhood market for fresh milk and others dairy products.
(iii) Urban centres provide its transportation facility to send another parts where they are in need in very less time.
(iv) In urban or near urban, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation process have increased the duration of storage of various diary products.

Answer 16.
(a) The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands.
(b) River Rhine is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam to Basel.
(c) (i) It flows through a rich coal field and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
(ii) Dusseldorf is the Rhine port for this region. Huge tonnage moves along the stretch south of Ruhr. This water way is the world’s most heavily used.
(iii) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea Route.

Answer 17.
(i) Administrative Towns: Such towns are the national capitals; house the administrative offices of central governments, as-Canberra, New Delhi.
(ii) Industrial Towns: Towns which are rich in industries are known as industrial towns- Pittsburg, Jamshedpur, Kanpur.
(iii) Commercial Towns: The towns which are famous for their commercialised activities worldwide are Mumbai, London, Singapore, Shanghai.
(iv) Transport Towns: The towns which are the major centres of transport facilities that to be provided all around. Singapore, Baghdad, Cairo, New York.
(v) Cultural Towns: Places of pilgrimage, such as Jerusalem, Mecca, Jagannath Puri, and Varanasi are considered cultural towns. These centres are of great religious importance.

Answer 18.
(a) Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin such as fossil fuels also known as mineral fuels, which are derived from the buried animal and plant life as coal and petroleum. Mica, limestone and graphite, they are inorganic metallic minerals in origin.
(b) (i) Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries. It can be split into a
very thin sheets which are tough and flexible.
(c) (i) High quality mica is obtained in Jharkhand, which is in a belt extending over a distance
about 150 km in length and about 22 km in width in lower Hazaribagh plateau.
(ii) Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh produces the best quality mica. In Rajasthan its belt extends for about 320 kms from Jaipur to Bhilwara and around Udaipur.
(iii) Mica deposits also occur in Mysore and Hasan districts of Karnataka. In Tamil Nadu- Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, Madurai and Kanyakumari are the main areas where mica is found.
Other than these areas, others are Alleppy in Kerala, Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Purulia and Bankura in West Bengal.

Answer 19.
(a) Physical Features:
(i) Nature of Terrain
(ii) Altitude,
(iii) climate
(iv) Availability of water
(b) Cultural and Ethnic factors:
(i) Social structure,
(ii) Caste and religion
(c) Security factors: Defence against thefts and robberies.

Answer 20.
(i) Seasonal fluctuations in the volume of water level of most rivers.
(ii) Higher silting in the rivers is a threatening problem.
(iii) Make the reduction in water level due to diversion of water through canals etc for irrigation.
(iv) Lack of mechanised vessels and undulating topography.
(v) A great competition of roads, railways in the regards of convenience, to be provided the passengers as well as traders.

Answer 21.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1 21a

Answer 22.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1 22a

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4

BoardCBSE
ClassXII
SubjectEnglish Core
Sample Paper SetPaper 4
CategoryCBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

  • This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
  • Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
  • Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

1. Too many parents these days can’t say no. As a result, they find themselves raising ‘children’ who respond greedily to the advertisements aimed right at them. Even getting what they want doesn’t satisfy some kids; they only want more. Now, a growing number of psychologists, educators and parents think it’s time to stop the madness and start teaching kids about what’s really important: values like hard work, contentment, honesty and compassion. The struggle to set limits has never been toughter—and the stakes have never been higher. One recent study of adults who were overindulged as children, paints a discouraging picture of their future: when given too much too soon, they grow up to be adults who have difficulty coping with life’s disappointments. They also have distorted sense of entitlement that gets in the way of success in the work place and in relationship.

2. Psychologists say that parents who overindulge their kids, set them up to be more vulnerable to future anxiety and depression. Today’s parents themselves raised on values of thrift and self-sacrifice, grew up in a culture where no was a household word. Today’s kids want much more, partly because there is so much more to want. The oldest members of this generation were born in the late 1980s, just as PCs and video games were making their assault on the family room. They think of MP3 players and flat screen TV as essential utilities, and they have developed strategies to get them. One survey of teenagers found that when they crave for something new, most expect to ask nine times before their parents give in. By every measure, parents are shelling out record amounts. In the heat of this buying blitz, even parents who desperately need to say no find themselves reaching for their credit cards.

3. Today’s parents aren’t equipped to deal with the problem. Many of them, raised in the 1960s and 1970s, swore they’d act differently. Many even wear the same designed clothes as their kids and listen to the same music. And they work for more hours; at the end of a long wee, it’s tempting to buy peace with ‘yes’ and not mar precious family time with conflict. Anxiety about future is another factor. How do well intentioned parents say no to all the sports gear and arts and language lessons they believe will help their kids thrive in an increasingly competitive world? Express agree: too much love won’t spoil a child. Too few limits will.

4. What parents need to find, is a balance between the advantages of an affluent society and the critical life lessons that come from waiting, saving and working hard to achieve goals. That search for balance has to start early. Children need limits on their behaviour because they feel better and more secure when they live within a secured structure. Older children learn self-control by watching how others, especially parents act. Learning how to overcome challenges is essential to become a successful adult. Few parents ask kids to do chores. They think their kids are already overburdened by social and academic pressure. Every individual can be of service to others, and life has meaning beyond one’s own immediate happiness. That means parents eager to teach values have to take a long, hard look at their own. (Delhi 2014)

I. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (9 Marks)

(a) What values do parents and teachers want children to learn? 2
(b) What are the results of giving the children too much too soon? 2
(c) Why do today’s children want more? 1
(d) What is the balance which the parents need to have in today’s world? 2
(e) What is the necessity to set limits for children? 2

II. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 3 = 3 Marks)

(a) a feeling of satisfaction (para 1)
(b) valuable (para 3)
(c) important (para 4)

Question 2.
Read the following poem carefully. (10 Marks)

To the Men of England

1. Men of England, wherefore plough
For the lords who lay ye low?
Wherefore weave with toil and care
The rich robes your tyrants wear?

2. Wherefore feed and clothe and save
From the cradle to the grave
Those ungrateful drones who would
Drain your sweat—nay, drink your blood?

3. Wherefore, Bees of England, forge
Many a weapon, chain, and scourge,
That these stingless drones may spoil
The forced produce of your toil?

4. Have ye leisure, comfort, calm,
Shelter, food, love’s gentle balm?
Or what is it ye buy so dear
With your pain and with your fear?

5. The seed ye sow, another reaps;
The wealth ye find, another keeps;
The robes ye weave, another wears;
The arms ye forge, another bears.

6. Sow seed—but let no tyrant reap:
Find wealth—let no imposter heap:
Weave robes—let not the idle wear:
Forge arms—in your defence to bear.

7. Shrink to your cellars, holes, and cells—
In hall ye deck another dwells.
Why shake the chains ye wrought? Ye see
The steel ye tempered glance on ye.

8. With plough and spade and hoe and loom
Trace your grave and build your tomb
And weave your winding-sheet—till fair
England be your Sepulchre.

By Percy Bysshe Shelley

I. Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option : (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) ‘Lords’ in the second line refers to :

  1. god
  2. money lenders
  3. rich masters
  4. headman

(b) The figure of speech in the phrase ‘Bees of England’ is :

  1. simile
  2. metaphor
  3. repetition
  4. personification

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(c) What is the theme of the poem ‘To the Men of England’?
(d) Why must the workers revolt?
(e) Why are the idle rich called ‘drones’?
(f) Why is the worker’s lot sad?
(g) Which phrase strongly conveys the idea of the worker’s entire life?
(h) What does the poet wish to convey by the phrase ‘nay, drink your blood’?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) to decorate (line 26)
(b) tomb (line 32)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

I remember my childhood as being generally happy and can recall experiencing some of the most carefree times of my life. But I can also remember, even more vividly, moments of being deeply frightened. As a child, I was truly terrified of the dark and getting lost. These fears were very real and caused me some extremely uncomfortable moments. Maybe it was the strange way things looked and sounded in my familiar room at night that scared me so much. There was never total darkness, but a street light or passing car lights made clothes hung over a chair take on the shape of an unknown beast. Out of the comer of my eye, I saw curtains move when there was no breeze. A tiny creak in the floor would sound a hundred times louder than in the daylight and my imagination would take over, creating burglars and monsters. Darkness always made me feel helpless. My heart would pound and I would lie very still so that ‘the enemy’ wouldn’t discover me. Another childhood fear mine was that I would get lost, especially on the way home from school. Every morning, I got on the school bus right near my home — that was no problem. After school, thought, when all the buses were lined up along the curve, I was terrified that I would get on the wrong one and be taken to some unfamiliar neighbourhood. I would scan the bus for the faces of my friends, make sure that the bus driver was the same one that had been there in the morning, and even then ask the others over and over again to be sure I was in the right bus. On school or family trips to an amusement park or a museum, I wouldn’t let the leaders out of my sight. And of course, I was never very adventurous when it came to taking walks or hikes because I would go only where I was sure I would never get lost.

Perhaps, one of the worst fears I had as a child was that of not being liked or accepted by others. First of all, I was quite shy. Secondly, I worried constantly about my looks, thinking people wouldn’t like me because I was too fat or wore braces. I tried to wear ‘the right clothes’ and had intense arguments with my mother over the importance of wearing flats instead of saddled shoes to school. Being popular was very important to me then and the fear of not being liked was a powerful one.

One of the processes of evolving from a child to an adult is being able to recognize and overcome our fears. I have learnt that darkness does not have to take on a life of own, that others can help me when I am lost and that friendliness and sincerity will encourage people to like me. Understanding the things that scared us as children helps to cope with our lives as adult. (Delhi 2014)

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)

B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
You are the secretary of the welfare association of your colony. An unfortunate incident of dowry death has occurred in your colony. Design a poster in not more than 50 words highlighting the evils of the dowry system to create awareness among the people. (Delhi 2014) (4 Marks)
OR
You are a businessman who wants to set up a small garment shop in your city. Draft an advertisement seeking a suitable space for rent, to be published in the ‘Wanted Accomodation’ column of a local newspaper. Write the advertisement in not more than 50 words. (Delhi 2014)

Question 5.
You are Ketan Panday of 63, Civil Lines, Delhi. You saw an advertisement in the Hindu for the post of accountant in a reputed firm. Write an application in 120-150 words to the Area Manager of Gayatri Consultants, 2 Barakhamba Road, New Delhi, giving your detailed biodata. (Delhi (C) 2015) (6 Marks)

OR

You are awaiting your class 12 results. Meanwhile you would like to do a short term course on personality development. Write a letter to the Director, Personal Care, Hyderabad, enquiring about the course details. You are Kailash/Kusum of 148, Model Town, Delhi. (120-150 words)

Question 6.
In all big cities road rage has become a serious problem. A minor scratch, a little push, or a small brushing past can lead to a scuffle sometimes resulting even in murder. Write an article in 150-200 words on road rage. You are Ketan/Karuna. (10 Marks)

OR

Education has always been a noble profession. Our ancestors received their learning at gurukuls and ashrams. Even In the past pathshalas (schools) were associated with places of worship. Today, education is fasts becoming commercialised. Parents have to shell out a lot of money on coaching classes, tuition fees, etc. Write an article in 150-200 words on ‘The State of Education Today’. You are karun/karuna. (All India 2016)

Question 7.
The Lions Club and Apollo Hospital, Chennai organised a blood donation camp in your school. You reached there as a reporter. Write a report to be published in your school magazine in 150-200 words. (10 Marks)
OR
You are Nishant/Nisha, a student of class-XII. You are asked to participate in the debate competition and speak in favour of motion — Joint Family is the most appropriate way of life. Your debate should not exceed 200 words.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow : (Delhi 2014) (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

When Aunt is dead, her terrified hands will lie
Still ringed with ordeals she was mastered by.
The tigers in the panel that she made
Will go on prancing, proud and unafraid.

(a) Who is the aunt mentioned here?
(b) Why is she ringed with ordeals?
(c) What is the difference between her and the tigers?
(d) Name the poet.

OR

It would be an exotic moment (Delhi (C) 2015)
without rush, without engines;
we would all be together
in a sudden strangeness.

(a) Which exotic moment is referred to in these lines?
(b) Why would the moment be strange?
(c) What does the poet advocate in the poem?
(d) What does the poet mean by the word ‘engines’?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: (4 × 3 = 12 Marks)

(a) What is the misadventure that William Douglas talks about? (NCERT)
(b) Is Saheb happy working at the tea stall? Explain. (NCERT)
(c) What were the poet’s feelings as she drove to Kochi airport? (Delhi (C) 2015)
(d) Why are Aunt Jennifer’s hands ‘terrified’?
(e) Why did Jackson ask Stephens to take Evans’s razor and nail-scissors out of the cell after he finished shaving?
(f) What was the fate of the man who locked himself up in his room? Why does Mr. Lamb give this example? (All India 2016)

Question 10.
Douglas fully realized the truth of Roosevelt’s statement ‘All we have to fear is fear itself.’ How did this realization help him brush aside his fear and become an expert swimmer? (120-150 words) (Delhi 2014) (6 Marks)
OR
Do you think truth prevails against all odds? Why do you think Gandhi considered the Champaran episode to be a turning point in his life?

Question 11.
Reflecting on the story what did you feel about Evans’ having the last laugh. (120-150 words) (NCERT) (6 marks)
OR
Why js an adult’s perspective on life different from that of a child’s? (NCERT)

Question 12.
Why did Mrs. Hall think that her conversational advances were ill-timed? (120¬150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
Marvel is the only character in ‘The Invisible Man, who interacts with Griffin and gains something. Comment. (120-150 words) (All India 2016)

Question 13.
Silas Mamer lost his hoard of gold. Describe the circumstances under which his ‘gold’ is restored to him in the form of Eppie. (120-150 words) (Foreign 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
How did Griffin make himself completely invisible at coach and horses? (120-150 words) (Foreign 2015)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
I. (a) Parents and teachers want the children to learn the values like hardwork, contentment, honesty, compassion and setting limits.
(b) If children are given too much too soon, they would not be able to cope with life’s disappointments.
(c) Today’s children want more as there are more goods available in the market.
(d) The parents have to balance the advantages of an affluent society and critical life lessons.
(e) Living within limits make the children feel safe and in a secured structure.

II. (a) contentment (b) precious (c) critical

Answer 2.
I. (a) (iii) rich masters (b) (iv) metaphor
II. (c) The poem is a passionate plea for social justice.
(d) The workers must revolt against their rich masters as they exploit and bring them down.
(e) The idle rich are called drones because they live off the labour of others.
(f) The worker’s lot is sad because they are deprived of the fruit of their labour.
(g) The phrase ‘cradle to the grave’ conveys this idea.
(h) The phrase conveys the heartlessness, and savagery of the rich masters who are impervious to the plight of the masses whom they exploit incessantly.

III. (a) deck (b) sepulchre

Answer 3.

A. TITLE: My Childhood Fears

NOTES :

1. narrator’s childhood

  1. generally happy
  2. often marked by fear

2. foremost fear due to overactive imagintn.

  1. strange appearance of familiar things
  2. strange sounds
  3. darkness
  4. creaking doors

3. fear of getting lost

  1. feared boarding wrong bus
  2. made sure that the driver and frnds. were the same
  3. remained close to group leaders on trips

4. fear of being unpop.

  1. was shy
  2. worried about looks

5. lessons learnt

  1. overcoming fears—part of growing up
  2. understanding our fears imp. to ovrcm. them

Key to Abbreviations

imagintn : imagination
frnds : friends
unpop : unpopular
imp : important
ovrcm : overcome

B. SUMMARY

The narrator had a generally happy childhood though it was not without some fears. His foremost fear was due to an overactive imagination . He feared the strange sounds and appearance of things. Darkness, creaking doors frightened him much. He also feared getting lost. He feared boarding the wrong bus, and would check the faces of the driver and his friends to ensure that he was on the right bus. He was shy and feared being unpopular. He has learnt the needs to understand one’s fears to overcome them.

Answer 4.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4 1

Answer 5.

63, Civil Lines
Delhi
19th September, 2016
Gayatri Consultants
2 Barakhamba Road
New Delhi

Sub: Application for the post of a librarian

Dedr Sir,

With reference to your advertisement in ‘The Hindu’ dated 7th September, 20×× inviting applications for the position of an accountant, I hereby offer my candidature for the same. As regards my qualifications and experience, I am enclosing my bio-data to enable you to make an assessment of my suitability for the given post. In case my application is considered, I will be available for the interview at any time suitable to you.

If selected, I assure you that I shall work with utmost dedication and sincerity to your full satisfaction.

Hoping for a favourable response.
Yours faithfully
Ketan Panday
Enclosure: Bio-Data
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4 2

OR

148, Model Town
Delhi
7th April, 20××
The Director
Personal Care
Hyderabad

Sub: Enquiry regarding personality development course.

Sir

I am waiting for my class 12 board results which are due around the end of May. I am keenly interested in pursuing a course in personality development in this intervening time, from your prestigious institution.

You are requested to address the following queries regarding the course :

  • When can I join?
  • What is the duration of the course?
  • What is the batch strength?
  • What is the number of classes per week?
  • What is the duration of the classes?
  • What is the fees?

You are requested to reply at your earliest convenience to enable me to enroll for the course at the earliest.

Thank you

Yours sincerely
Kailash

Answer 6.

Road Rage: A Growing Menace
By Karuna

Any emotion of violence while driving can be called road rage or driver fury. Everyone knows the perils of road rage. It has been featured on TV shows, in movies, and even in video games. But what’s really the psychology behind the road rage phenomenon and what causes road rage and aggressive driving? A predisposition to road rage is cultivated as early as childhood. Drivers grow up being socialized into a culture of hostility rather than mutual support and peace.

Road rage can be controlled by cognitive therapy. One can immediately make loud funny noises or wailing, or if you prefer, burst out singing in a loud voice. These are the ways drivers can distract themselves from feelings of road rage. After a few seconds start talking to yourself. Give yourself all the rational reasons for not doing anything and to just forget the situation counting yourself lucky. Convince yourself you are more of a human being if you forgive, forget, and live to get to your destination without a side stop at the hospital or police station.”

Such avoidance techniques and proper education can work to help most drivers avoid road rage.

OR

The State of Education Today
By Karan

Education was something that was always driven by devotion and thought. Helped by their own volition, teachers were successful potters moulding men and women into good citizens. Sadly, today the department of education has been corrupted by the commercialization of education that manufactures solipsists but doesn’t nurture altruists. While it is true that education must evolve as time passes but commercialization of education is the worst thing that could ever have happened. In a race to excel more than most of one’s competitors, coaching classes along with other institutions have become a resort for the ‘betterment’ of students’ academic performances. They are perceived as simultaneously a compulsion, and criticized a lot for spoiling education, students’ lives, standard of schools, etc. Due to the attending of coaching classes by almost all students in cities, the interest of school teachers to impart knowledge to students has now started dipping gradually.

It is sad how the poor parents have been doubly- burdened. They have to shell out the exorbitant school fees along with the hefty, hourly charges of tuition classes. In fact taking extra tuitions is a matter of pride among the student group. Students are in fact relying on the tuition centers and not their own ability to study the books. They need to understand that there is no substitute for self study, not even tuition classes.

Answer 7.
Blood Donation Camp At Parag International School

Reported by Jaya Prakash

Nagpur, 20th March, 20××: A one day medical camp was organised in the school with the help of Lions Club and Apollo Hospital. 75 people were benefited in the one-day medical camp organised jointly by the Lion Club and Apollo Hospitals, Chennai. 50 Doctors with an equal number of Paramedical staff arrived at the school at 10 a.m. Students had already lined up to donate blood. Around 20 staff members were also ready to donate blood. The team was welcomed by the school principal Ms. Murti and her team of staff members. First of all they were served tea and a light breakfast. Then they set about collecting blood. The students had already been briefed about it. The team of doctors was happy to see the enthusiasm among the school children. Few parents had also arrived by the end of the day. The head doctor, Dr. Satish appreciated the efforts made by the school for this noble cause and thanked everybody for putting their share in this noble cause. Lions Club had made elaborate arrangements and the medical staff was provided by the Apollo Hospital, Chennai. The blood donation camp was a huge success.

OR

Respected Chairperson, honourable judges, members of staff and friends!

I, Nishant stand before you to speak for the motion on ‘Joint Family is the most appropriate way of life’ in the context of our age-old culture. We know that our culture lays much emphasis on human values of love, affection, pity, mercy, sympathy, help, compassion etc. Human life and survival are the most important aspects of life. Such a way of life is possible only in a joint family. In a joint family, the eldest member has all the worries of caretake of his entire family. In return he is respected and is honourable for all. Children and women are paid due attention as they are the future of the family lineage. Duties are shared as the joint family becomes a fine example of the division of labour. The weak and the old are equally looked after. Thus the joint family becomes the most desirable way of life in which members progress and are helped by all. Cooperation, sharing of work, taking care of the children, the weak and the elderly are its important aspects. The old don’t become victims of negligence as they become in a nuclear family

Answer 8.

(a) The aunt mentioned here is the narrator’s aunt Jennifer.
(b) She will be ringed with ordeals as she is surrounded by the problems of her married life. It seems that she will get no respite even after her death.
(c) Jennifer’s ‘tigers’ will go on jumping ahead, proud and unafraid. While the aunt will remain caught up in the mental and social shackles of matrimony.
(d) The poet is Adrienne Rich.

OR

(a) When we will be silent and still, it would be an exotic moment.
(b) For some time all humanity will be at a stand still. It will thus be strange as such a thing is unusual.
(c) The poet advocates peace, silence and rest for all human beings.
(d) ‘Engines’ refers to all the machines that humans have created to make lives easier.

Answer 9.

(a) At the age of ten or eleven William O. Douglas decided to learn how to swim at the Y.M.C.A pool because it was only two or three feet deep at the shallow end. He had an aversion to water but he felt comfortable when he paddled with his new water wings in the water. One day he went to the pool when no one else was there. He was waiting for others to come. Then there came a big bruiser of a boy and yelled; “Hi, skinny! How’d you liked to be ducked?” With that he picked Douglas and ducked him into the deep land. He landed in a sitting position, swallowed water and went at once to the bottom. He feared to be drowned. This misadventure caused a lot of trouble to Douglas.

(b) Saheb now works in a tea stall down the road. He is paid 800 rupees and all his meals. Bpt even then he doesn’t seem to be happy. The steel canister he carries now is heavier than the plastic bag he used to carry on his shoulders. He is ‘no longer his own master’. He is just a servant. So he is not happy working at the tea stall.

(c) The poetess realised the deep pain in her heart to see her mother’s face like that of a corpse. The poetess put that thought away by looking at the outside world.

(d) Aunt Jennifer’s hands are ‘terrified’ as she still bears the cruel burdens of her not so happy wedded life.

(e) The senior prison officer Jackson didn’t want to take any chance with ‘Evans the Breaker’. He asked Stephens to take away his razor and nail scissors after he had finished shaving. With the razor Evans could cut his throat. He could also use the razor and the nail-scissors as weapons against the invigilator McLeery.

(f) There was a man who was afraid of everything. A bus might run over him. A donkey might kick him to death. So he went into his room. He locked the door and stayed there. A picture fell off the wall on to his head and killed him. Mr Lamb doesn’t want Derry to alienate himself. He wanted Derry to embrace life fearlessly.

Answer 10.
Roosevelt has appropriately said, “All we have to fear is fear itself.” It implies that we fear from fear. Those who have undergone this experience of fear, can only appreciate its worth. William O. Douglas has faced it twice in life. He had a terrible fear of water. He could not go for swimming, canoeing, boating and rafting, etc. He realised that it would ruin his life since it was following and haunting him wherever he went. Fear is our hard core enemy. We must get rid of it at the earliest like Douglas. He hired an instructor to train himself properly. When he got rid of his fear, he checked his training repeatedly by swimming alone several times. When he was sure that no shred of fear remained in his psyche, he finally celebrated his victory over his fear.

OR

It is true that truth will always win despite all odds. Gandhiji was a great believer of truthful living and his handling of the Champaran case amply proved this point.

The Champaran episode proved to be a turning point in the life of Gandhi. He knew the atrocities of the landlord and the share croppers were to plant 15 percent of their holding with indigo and surrender the entire harvest to them as rent. In the meantime, Germany had developed synthetic indigo. Thus the price of the natural indigo would fall in the market sharply. The landlords had obtained agreements from the sharecroppers to pay compensation. Gandhi took up the cause of the poor peasants and he fought against the cruel injustice of the landlord.

Immediately Gandhi proceeded to investigate the facts but an official notice ordered him to quit Champaran immediately. As a result of this struggle, an official commission was set up that declared to refund the money to the sharecroppers. 25 percent of the money was to be paid to the sharecroppers. The British realised that the Indians are self-reliant and the foreigners could not order them in their land. Thus the Champaran episode was a turning point in his life as well in India.

Answer 11.
In ‘Evans Tries An O-Level’ we see a battle of patience and nerves. The Governor and his staff are outwitted by the wily Evans. In this tug of war, Evans proves to be the natural winner. He easily slips out of the net that had been laid to arrest him.

All precautions had been taken to ensure that Evans would not escape. No one wanted to take any chance with ‘Evans the Breaker’. The examination was to be conducted in the cell itself. One of the parsons Mr McLeery was to invigilate. The senior officer Jackson and Stephens had made all necessary arrangements. Evans’s razor and nail-scissors were also taken away. They could be used for cutting his throat or injuring McLeery.

But Evans frustrated all their plans. He could hide a false beard, a pair of spectacles, and some weapon in his cell. Actually, he managed to keep McLeery securely bound and gagged in his study in Broad Street. He had been there since 8.15 a.m. This meant that McLeery never went to prison. Secondly, it was Evans who impersonated McLeery and stayed in the cell. The last act of folly of the Governor was enough to let Evans slip out of their custody.

OR

Children look at this world from a different perspective. Their perspective on life reflects simplicity and innocence and anxiety to be accepted by peers. Jo has a deep sympathy for Roger Skunk. Roger’s bad smell kept all little animals away from him. The wizard made Roger smell of roses. He was happy. Other little animals were now attracted towards him. Jo’s main anger is against the “stupid mommy” of Roger Skunk. It was she who forced the wizard to make Roger Skunk smell very bad again. The hero of the story is always a role model for children. The tender-hearted Jo is shocked at the attitude of that ‘stupid’ mommy. She wants that Roger’s mommy must be punished. The wizard must hit on her head hard with his magic wand.

According to Jack, Roger’s mother doesn’t deserve such a bad punishment. For her Roger must smell like her son. For her the natural identity of Roger is priceless.

Answer 12.
When Mrs. Hall came to the visitor’s room to lay the table, she was surprised to see her visitor still wore his hat and coat, staring out of the window. She noticed that the melting snow from his shoulders dripped upon the carpet. She offered to take his coat and hat for drying but the visitor refused without turning himself. She tried to extend her conversation by saying that the room would be warmer soon. But the visitor made no answer and turned his face away from her. Mrs. Hall felt that the visitor must be tired and would like to be left alone. So she felt that her conversational advances were ill-timed and she whisked out of the room.

OR

Though marvel is the fat, local tramp, who appears to be good for nothing, he is not without intelligence. He is smart enough to realize when he stands to gain. In fact he alone truly gains due to his association with Griffin. His stories that he tells to the press bring him sympathy. In the end, after Griffin dies he finds himself in possession of Griffin’s research recorded in his books and all his stolen money. He also purchases an inn. He regales his customers by narrating to them the stories of the invisible man. He is shrewd enough to keep the books under wraps, perhaps waiting for the right customer. It is ironical that while a genius like Griffin met an undignified death, Marvel once a lazy idler \ comes into money and a respectable life.

Answer 13.

Silas had come to distrust people after his bitter experience in Raveloe. In Lantern Yard he immerses himself in weaving and the money thus earned gave much solace to him. After Dunstan steals Silas’ gold in Lantern Yard, Silas is heartbroken. He would often open his door in the unreasonable hope that it would return to him or some news of it would come to him, but to no avail. On the night of Christmas after Molly poisons herself, her little daughter, strays her towards the light that comes from Silas’s house. Silas saw her as a Christmas gift, the stolen ‘gold’ that was restored to him. He named her Eppie. To convey how invaluable Eppie was to Silas, George Eliot symbolically equates Silas’ lost gold with Eppie.

OR

At the Coach and Horses, Griffin had a showdown with Mrs. Hall on the issue of nonpayment of her dues. Griffin was forced to tell the gathering that he was indeed invisible. He removed the bandage from his head and as he proceeded further, Hall brought Jaffers, the police constable, into Coach and Horses. Jaffers tried to handcuff him. Griffin misled him by promising to surrender himself without the handcuff. In the meanwhile he quickly took off his shoes, socks, coat and trousers. Now he was completely invisible. In a naked state he had the advantage over all others, though he was chilled to the bone in the freezing cold of February.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.