CBSE Class 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which of the 3d series element of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation state?

Question 2.
Write IUPAC name of the following compound:
PhCH = CHCHO

Question 3.
In a reaction, 2A → Products, the concentration of reactant-‘A’ decreases from 0.5 mol L^-1 to 0.4 mol L^-1 in 10 minutes. Calculate the average rate during this time interval.

Question 4.
Write the structure and reaction for preparation of semicarbazone of cylcobutanone.

Question 5.
Write Freundlich’s relation for adsorpion in solution.

Question 6.
Complete the following reactions

1. AgCl (s) + NH₃ (aq) →
2. XeF₂ + H₂O →

OR

1. S + HNO₃ (conc.) →
2. P₄ + NaOH →

Question 7.
Define the following terms:

1. Isotonic solutions
2. Azeotropic solutions

Question 8.
Draw the structures of the following:
(a) IF^–₄
(b) PF⁺₄

Question 9.
For the following reaction,find the standard Gibbs energy.

Question 10.
Write the equation involved in the following reactions:

1. Coupling reaction
2. Ammonolysis

Question 11.
420 g of liquid A (molar mass 140 g mol^-1) was dissolved in 900 g of liquid B (molar mass 180 g mol^-1). The vapour pressure of pure liquid B was found to be 500 torr. Calculate the vapour pressure of pure liquid A and its vapour pressure in the solution, if the total vapour pressure of the solution is 487.5 torr.

Question 12.
The electric resistance of a column of 0.05 mol L^-1 NaOH solution of diameter 1 cm and length 50 cm is 5.55 × 10³ ohm. Calculate its resistivity, conductivity and molar conductivity.

Question 13.
Explain [Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ are of different colours in dilute solution.

Question 14.
Discuss the effect of temperature and pressure on the physisorption & chemisorption, in case of adsorption of gases on solid surface. Describe its applications in controlling humidity.

Question 15.
The initial concentration of N₂O₅ in the following first order reaction:
N₂O₅ (g) → 2NO₂ (g) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) O₂ (g) was 1.24 × 10^-2 mol L^-1 at 318 K
The concentration of N₂O₅ after 60 minutes was 0.20 × 10^-2 mol L^-1. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at 318 K.

Question 16.
Arrange according to the given instruction in increasing order:
(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂Br, CH₃CH₂ – CH₂ – Cl, CH₂ = CH – CH₂F (for S_N2 reaction)
(b) CH₃ = CH CH(Br) CH₃, CH₃CH₂CH (Br) CH₃, CH₂ = CH – Br (for S_N1 reaction)
(c) C₆H₅Cl, p-C₆H₄Cl(NO₂), C₆H₁₁Cl (cyclohexyl chloride) (for S_E reaction)

Question 17.
Write the reaction involved in the following process:
(a) Leaching of bauxite ore to prepare pure Alumina
(b) Refining of zirconium by Van-Arkel method
(c) Recovery of gold from its leached ore with NaCN solution.

Question 18.
Give the structures of A,B and C in the following reactions

Question 19.
Write the structures of the monomers of the following polymers:
(a) Nylon 6, 6
(b) PHBV
(c) Nylon, 2, 6

Question 20.
Answer the following questions:

1. Why do soap not work in hard water?
2. What are analgesics?
3. What are antacids?

Question 21.
Assign suitable reason for the following:

1. N₂ is less reactive at room temperature.
2. H₂S is less acidic than H₂Te.
3. Halogens are strong oxiding agents.

Question 22.
Carry out the following conversions in not more than 2 steps:
(a) Ethanol to 3-Hydroxybutanal
(b) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone
(c) Benzaldehyde to 3-phenyl propar -1-ol

Question 23.
Seeing the growing cases of diabetes and depression among young children, Mr. Lugani, the principal of a reputed school organised a seminar in which he invited parents and principals. They all resolved this issue by strictly banning junk food in schools and introducing healthy snacks and drinks like soup, lassi, milk etc. in school canteens. They also decided to make compulsory half an hour of daily physical activities for the students in the morning assembly. After six months Mr. Lugani conducted the health survey in most of the schools and discovered a tremendous improvement in the health of the students. After reading the above passage, answer the following question:

1. What are the values [at least two] displayed by Mr. Lugani?
2. As the student how can you spread awareness about such issues?
3. What are antidepressant drugs? Give one example.
4. Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweets for a diabetic patient.

Question 24.
Account for the following:
(a) La³⁺ (Z = 57) and Lu³⁺ (Z = 71) do not show any colour in the solution.
(b) There are irregularities in the electronic configuration of actinoids.
(c) There is great horizontal similarity in the properties of the transition elements than those of the main group elements.
(d) Write the reactions involved in preparation of KMnO₄ from pyrolusite ore.
OR

1. Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of lanthanoids with reference to:
   1. atomic size
   2. oxidation state
   3. chemical reactivity
2. Indicate the steps in the preparation of K₂Cr₂O₇ from chromite ore.

Question 25.
(a) Niobium (93 amu) crystallises in bcc structure. Its density is 8.55 g cm^-3. Calculate the atomic radii of niobium.
(b) What are the two main non stoichiometric defects? Name these defects and explain with a suitable example.
OR
(a) What is meant by intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors?
(b) If KCl is doped with 5 × 10^-2 mol % of TlCl₃, what is the concentration of cation vacancies.

Question 26.

(b) Nitration of phenol gives only o and p-product. Give reason
OR
(a) Identify A,B & C:

(b) (i) Anisole is treated with HI, what are the resultant products?
(ii) Write IUPAC name of salicylaldehyde.

Answers

Answer 1.
Mn (Manganese)

Answer 2.
3-Phenyl prop-2-enal

Answer 3.
Rate = \(\frac { 0.4-0.5 }{ 10 } =-\frac { 0.1 }{ 10 } \) = – 0.01 mol L^-1 minute^-1

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

where \(\frac { x }{ m }\) = mass of adsorbate per unit mass of adsorbent m
n = number of layers of adsorption
C = concentration (mol L^-1)
K = Constant for adsorption

Answer 6.

1. AgCl (s) + NH₃ (aq) → [Ag(NH₃)₂]Cl
2. 2XeF₂ + 2H₂O → 2Xe(g) + 4HF + O₂ (g)

OR

1. S + HNO₃ (conc.) → H₂SO₄ + NO₂ + H₂O
2. P₄ + NaOH → PH₃ + NaH₂PO₂

Answer 7.

1. Isotonic solutions : Two solutions having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic solutions.
2. Azeotropic solutions : Some liquids on mixing form azeotropes which are the binary mixtures having the same composition in liquid and in the vapour phase and boils at a constant temperature. Such solutions are known as azeotropic solutions.

Answer 8.

Answer 9.
The reaction is
2Cr(s) + 3Cd²⁺ (aq) → 2Cr³⁺(aq) + 3Cd(s)

= -0.40 V – (- 0.74 V) = + 0.34 V
Change in number of electrons = +6
ΔG° = – nFE°
= -6 × 96500 × 0.34 = 196860 J/mole

Answer 10.

1. Coupling reaction : When benzene diazonium chloride reacts with aniline or phenol, orange azo dye in formed. This reaction is known as coupling reaction.
   
2. Ammonolysis : When alkyl halide reacts with NH₃, amines are formed. Such reactions are known to be ammonolysis.
   C₂H₅Cl + NH₃ → C₂H₅NH₂ + HCl

Answer 11.

Answer 12.

Answer 13.
Fe (28) = [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s²
Fe²⁺ → [Ar] 3d⁶
Arrangement of electrons in [Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is as follows:

It does not have any unpaired electron so it is white in colour.

There are 4 unpaired electrons which makes this complex coloured.

Answer 14.
Effect of Temperature on physisorption and Chemisorption : On increasing the temperature, physisorption decreases due to increase in kinetic energy of adsorbate. On the other hand chemisorption increases initially with increase in temperature. The reason being it provides activation energy for the chemical adsorption and after that desorption takes place like physisorption.

Effect of pressure : On increasing the pressure physisorption increases initially with a very fast rate and slowly it decreases.
But in case of chemisorption initial increase in pressure increases the extent of adsorption, but after that the extent of adsorption becomes constant.

Applications of adsorption in controlling humidity : Silica gel adsorbs moisture from air which helps control humidity.

Answer 15.
From question: At 318 K,
At t = 0, [N₂O₅] = 1.24 × 10^-2 mol L^-1
At t = 60 minutes, [N₂O₅] = 0.20 × 10^-2 mol L^-1
Calculate K = ?
For a first order reaction

K = 0.03 min^-1

Answer 16.
(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂-Cl < CH₃CH₂CH₂Br < CH₂ = CH-CH₂F

Answer 17.
(a) Al₂O₃ + NaOH(aq) → Na[Al(OH)₄] (aq)
Na[Al(OH)₄ ] \(\xrightarrow [ { CO }_{ 2 } ]{ dilution }\) Al₂O₃ . xH₂O (s) + NaHCO₃
Al₂O₃ . xH₂O(s) \(\underrightarrow { 1470K } \) Al₂O₃ (s) + xH₂O
(b) Van Arkel process :

Answer 18.

Answer 19.

Answer 20.

1. Soap forms scum with hard water:
   
2. Analgesics : Class of drugs used to reduce pain without causing impairment of consciousness, mental confusion etc.
3. The drug which curtails excess acid formation in stomach, which causes irritation and pain are known as antacids.

Answer 21.

1. Due to strong triple bond (pπ-pπ multiple bonding) between two nitrogen atoms, it is less reactive at room temperature.
2. E-H bond length increases down the group, hence H₂Te is more acidic than H₂S.
3. Due to high electron gain enthalpy and lower bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens, these acts as strong oxidising agents.

Answer 22.

Answer 23.

1. Concern for health and well being of students, creating awareness, social responsibility, sense of belongingness etc.
2. As a student one can talk to friends, share it on social media, placing posters etc. on classroom and school notice board.
3. Tranquilizers are the antidepressant drugs. A few examples are → Iproniazid, phenelzine etc.
4. Sucralose

Answer 24.
(a)

1. Electronic configuration. La³⁺ → [Xe] 4f⁰ and Lu³⁺ → [Xe] 4f¹⁴
   Since in both of these ions there is no unpaired electron, so they do not show any colour in the solution.
2. Due to comparable energy of 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals, there is more irregularity in electronic configuration of actinoids.
3. In transition elements, electrons are filled in the same atomic orbital which has the poor shielding effect and hence there is not much difference in properies in a series. On the other hand, there is all together different properties of main group elements due to lack of d-orbitals, multiple bond formation, different bond enthalpy etc.

(b) Reactions involved in the preparation of KMnO₄ :

OR
(a) Comparison of Lanthanoids and Actinoids:

1. Atomic size : Atomic size of both the series decreases from left to right but decrease is more in case of actinoids from element to element due to poorer shielding effect of 5if electrons.
2. Oxidation state : Lanthanoids show +3 as general oxidation state except +2(Eu, Yb) and +4 (Ce etc.) for some elements. But actinoids show variable oxidation state from +3 to +7, (Although +3 and +4 are most common).
3. Chemical reactivity : Actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids due to bigger atomic size and lower ionisation energy as well as comparable energy of 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals, variable oxidation is also responsible for their more reactivity.

(b) Preparation of K₂Cr₂O₇ :
Step I: Chromite ore is mixed with Na₂CO₃ and heated to melt as O₂ gas is passed to give sodium chromate

Step II : Acidification of sodium chromate

Step III : Treatment with KCl

Answer 25.
(a) For bcc arrangement, Z = 2 and √3a = 4r.
density (d) – 8.55 g cm^-3, atomic mass = 93 g mol^-1 atomic radii = ?
d = \(\frac { ZM }{ { a }^{ 3 }{ N }_{ A } } \)

(b) Non stoichiometric defects are of two types, depending upon whether positive or negative ions are in excess. These defects are known as:

1. metal excess defect;
2. metal deficiency defect

1. Metal excess defect : When negative ion is missing from its lattice site and creates a hole which is occupied by the electron to maintain the electrical neutrality, e.g. NaCl crystals , turns yellow if excess of Na is present.
2. Metal deficiency defect : In many solids due to variable oxidation state it is difficult to prepare them in pure state and as a result there is a metal deficiency, e.g. due to Fe⁺² and Fe³⁺ state of iron, there are always chances of formation of compounds like Fe_0.95O, Fe_0.98O etc.
OR

(a) Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors : Pure substances like silicon and germanium shows an increase in electrical conductivity with increase in temperature and they are called intrinsic semiconductors.
On the other hand small quantity of arsenic boron, etc. when introduced in substances like silicon, germanium the conductivity of the substance is significantly increased and such substances are known as extrinsic semiconductors. These are the two types: n-type and p-type semiconductors.

(b) In TlCl₃, Tl³⁺ ions are there, to accomodate such ions in KCl lattice three K⁺ ions needs to be replaced for electrical neutrality. It means there will be two vacancies for each Tl³⁺ ion. Hence for
5 × 10^-2 mol % TlCl₃ doping → 2 × 5 × 10^-2 cation vacancies will be generated.
Concentration of cation Vacancies = 2 × \(\frac { { 5\times 10 }^{ -2 } }{ 100 } \) × 6.002 × 10²³ = 6.022 × 10²⁰

Answer 26.

(b) In resonance structures of phenol, negative charge appears on ortho and para position, hence electrophilic substitution reaction is possible only on these two positions.

OR

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
Mention the Second World War period and Korean War period.

Question 2.
What is a capitalist economy?

Question 3.
What is meant by hegemony?

Question 4.
Why was State Reorganisation Commission set up?

Question 5.
Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 195 ?

Question 6.
Give the significance of the following dates.
(i) 8 Aug. 19 7
(ii) 25 March 1957.

Question 7.
Mention the features of SAFTA.

Question 8.
What are the Millennium Development Goals?

Question 9.
“India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky.” Justify the statement.

Question 10.
What are the key conflicts associated with Orissa (Odisha) reserved iron resources?

Question 11.
Highlight any two/four major objectives of the Prime Minister Nehru’s foreign policy.

Question 12.
Write a note an Arms Race and its effects.

Question 13.
What were the important land reforms started by the Government of India? Why did some of them become unpopular in India?

Question 14.
What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental improvement.

Question 15.
Bring out three differences each between Socialist Party and the Communist Party and between Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Swatantra Party.

Question 16.
What are the various positions on the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir? Which of these do you think are justifiable? Give reasons for your answer.

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The Soviet system, however, became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. Lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech stifled people who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons. Most of the institutions of the Soviet state needed reform the one-party system represented by the communist party of the Soviet union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people. The party refused to recognise the urge of people in the fifteen different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own affairs including their cultural affairs. Although, on paper, Russia was only one of the fifteen republics then together constituted the USSR in reality Russia dominated everything, and people from other regions felt neglected and often suppressed.
(i) What was Soviet system?
(ii) How many republics formed Soviet Union?
(iii) Which republic dominated in the USSR?
(iv) Why did people become dissatisfied with the rule of Communist Party of Soviet Union?

Question 18.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Some people argue that it is strategically more prudent to take advantage of the opportunities that hegemony creates. For instance, raising economic growth rates requires increased trade, technology transfers and investment, which are best acquired by working with rather than against the hegemon. Thus, it is suggested that instead of engaging in activities opposed to hegemonic power, it may be advisable to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system. This is called the bandwagon strategy.
(i) What is prudent during a period of hegemony?
(ii) What benefits can be acquired within the hegemonic system?
(iii) What is the bandwagon strategy?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What does the cartoon represent?
(ii) What does the term ‘Tug of war’ refer to?
(iii) Who has been shown on the branches of tree?

Question 20.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Once an emergency is proclaimed, the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the union government. Secondly, the government also gets the power to curtail or restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights during the emergency. From the wording of the provisions of the Constitution, it is clear that an Emergency is seen as an extra¬ordinary condition in which normal democratic politics cannot function. Therefore, special powers are granted to the government.
(i) When was Emergency imposed?
(ii) Who recommended Emergency to be imposed and to whom?
(iii) Mention the implications of Emergency.

Question 21.
Study the following map of European Union and mark the new member countries and older member countries.

(i) Given the significance of the circle of stars for Europe.
(ii) Why are there 12 stars in the circle of the European Union flag?
(ii) Name any two members of the European Union.

Question 22.
How are the external powers influencing bilateral relations in South Asia? Take any one example to illustrate your point.
OR
Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN.

Question 23.
Looking at the Indian scenario, what type of security has been given priority in India, traditional or non-traditional? What examples could you cite to substantiate the arguments?
OR
What are the economic implications of globalisation? How has globalisation impacted on India with regard to this particular dimension?

Question 24.
Analyse any six consequences of the partition of India in 1947.
OR
What were the major differences in the approach towards development at the time of Independence? Has the debate been resolved?

Question 25.
Write a note on the war and peace with Pakistan.
OR
Discuss the major issue which led to the formal split of the Congress Party in 19 9.

Question 26.
“Emergency was a Blackmark in Indian History”? Comment.
OR
The Bharatiya Kisan Union is a leading organisation highlighting the plight of farmers. What were the issues addressed by it in the nineties and to what extent were they successful?

Question 27.
“The decade of 1980s witnessed tragic turn of events which complicated the problem of Punjab.” Justify the statement in the contest of Operation Blue Star.
OR
Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy. Drawing from India’s experience of last twenty years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system in India has.

Answers

Answer 1.
The Second World War 1939 – 45

Answer 2.
In this economy, land and productive assets are owned and controlled by the capitalists.

Answer 3.
An international system to dominate world by only one superpower.

Answer 4.
It was set up to look into the matter to redraw the boundaries of states.

Answer 5.
States were reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956 to maintain unity and integrity of the nation to avoid violence and conflicts among the people.

Answer 6.

1. 8 Aug. 1967 — ASEAN was established.
2. 25 March 1957 – Six countries signed the treaties of Rome to establish the European Economic Community (EEC) and the European Atomic Energy Community (EURATOM).

Answer 7.
South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by SAARC members in 2004 with the following features:

• Formation of Free Trade Zone for whole South Asia.
• To sustain mutual trade and cooperation among SAARC members.

Answer 8.
The Millennium Development Goals can be categorised as follows:

• Environmental Protection
• Promotion of globalisation
• Anti-terrorism initiatives
• Enhancement and protection of Human Rights.

Answer 9.
Because :

• Country’s vast size and electorates made these elections unusual.
• The year 1952, it was a big test for poor and illiterate country.
• Till then, democracy had been existed only in the prosperous countries mainly in Europe and North America where everyone was almost literate.

Answer 10.

• These iron resources lie in most underdeveloped and predominant tribal districts.
• Tribal population feared that the setting up of industries would mean displacement from their name and livelihood.
• The environmentalist feared to be polluted the environment due to mining and industrial activities.

Answer 11.

• The first objective was to follow NAM, not to join either the military blocs formed by USA or Soviet Union.
• To promote rapid economic development and maintain cordial relations with other nations.
• To prefect the territorial integrity.
• To preserve sovereignty of India and also respecting others sovereignty.

Answer 12.
As all the countries want to protect their military and economic interests to become powerful at international level, a stiff competition emerged among the nations. The powerful and weak both want to become more powerful by stocking arms including nuclear weapons. After the Second World War, it became worse as all the countries including developing nations spent a major portion of their budget on military alliances. The scientists have declared that this blind and unending arms race will harm the food, air and water and ultimately lead to devastation. Money spent on it should be used for welfare purpose.

Answer 13.
To get secure access to land for the poor section of the sociely since independence policies of land reform were implemented to benefit poor and landless poorer section of society. After that various land reforms have been done by the government. Some of them are:

• Abolition of Zamindari System
• Consolidation of small land holdings
• Putting an upper limit or ceiling on the maximum amount of land one can possess.

The main objective of the land reforms was to remove rural poverty and increase agricultural production, but it became unpopular because of the following reasons:

• Some of these land reforms could not be properly implemented because the land owners had both power and political influence.
• These land reforms were not defined into laws and remained only on papers.

Answer 14.
Environment refers to surroundings of a region which can be improved by taking following steps:

1. More focus should be on afforestation i.e. planting more trees to maintain ecological balance, prevent soil erosion and enhance water cycle also.
2. Eco-friendly industries should be set up as well as industries adherent should be disposed with scientific methods and industries should be established at far away places from populous/residential areas.

Answer 15.
(i) Differences between Socialist party and Communist party:

(ii) Defferences between Bharatiya jana Sangh and Swtatantra Party:

Answer 16.
On the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir, the following positions are states as:

1. Kashmiris were promised to make accession on reference of people after situation created by tribal invasion, becomes normal. But it has not been fulfilled, hence, it generated the demand for “Plebiscite”.
2. Sometimes, it was felt that special federal status guaranteed by Article 370 has been eroded practically which led the demand for restoration of autonomy or “Greater State Autonomy”.
3. It is felt that democracy, which is practised in rest of India has not been similarly institutionalised in Jammu and Kashmir.

We prefer the first position because ‘Plebiscite’ provides better opportunity to people of J & K to protect and sustain their regional autonomy in a very democratic manner.

Answer 17.

1. • Soviet system was bureaucratic and authoritarian making life difficult for citizens.
   • Soviet system lacked democracy and the freedom of speech of people was also snatched away.
2. 15 Republics
3. Russia
4. • Soviet Union had tight control over all institutions.
   • Soviet Union was unaccountable to people.
   • Soviet Union Refused 15 Republics to manage their own affairs.

Answer 18.

• To take advantage of opportunities that a hegemon creates.
• Increase trade, technology transgers and investment
• To extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system in place of being engaged in the opposed activities.

Answer 19.

• Cartoon represents dominance of the Congress which is being tug by opposition parties to throw the Congress out of power.
• ‘Tug of war’ refers to pulling out the Congress by criticism and mentioning its weaknesses in an honest and justified manner.
• Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru along with his Cabinet Ministers.

Answer 20.

1. 25 June 1975.
2. The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose Emergency to the President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
3. • The federal distribution of powes emains practically suspended.
   • All the powers ae concentrated in the hands of Union government.
   • The government also gets power to restrict all of any of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.

Answer 21.

1. The circle of stars stands for harmony and solidarity between the Europeans.
2. There are 12 stars in the circle of the European Union flag because, the no. 12 is considered the symbol of unity, perfection and completeness traditionally.
3. Lithuania and Poland.

Answer 22.
The external powers influence bilateral relations in South Asia because no region exists in the vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers:

1. China and the US remain key players in South Asian politics.
2. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant.
3. The demands of development and globalisation have brought the two Asian giants closer and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.
4. The Us enjoys good relations with both India and pakistan and works as a moderator in Indo-Pak relations.
5. Economic reforms and liberal economic policies in both the countries have increased the depth of American participation.
6. The large South Asian economy remains in the US and the huge size of population and markets of the region give America an added stake in the future of regional security and peace.

OR

In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution which reflected three main complaints—

• The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
• Its decisions reflect only Western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
• It lacks equitable representation. In view of these growing demands for the restructuring of the UN, on 1 January, 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an inquiry into how the UN should be reformed. How for instance, should new Security Council members be chosen?

In the years since then, the following are just some of the criteria that have been proposed for new permanent and non-permanent members of the Security Council. A new member, it has been suggested, should be a major economic power, a major military power, a substantial contributor to the UN budget, etc. Clearly, each of these criteria has some validity. Governments saw advantages in some criteria and disadvantages in others depending on their interests and aspirations.

It has also been suggested that the veto power of the five permanent members should be abolished. Many perceived the veto to be in conflict with the concept of democracy. But there is also a realisation that the permanent members are unlikely to agree to such a reform.

Answer 23.
India has faced traditional (military) and non-traditional threats to its security that have emerged from within as well as outside its borders.
Its security strategy has four broad components i.e.:

1. To strengthen its military capabilities :
   • India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
   • In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1998 was justified to safeguard national security.
   • India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To strengthen international norms and international institutions :
   • India’s first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
   • India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non-discriminatory non¬proliferation regime to enjoy some rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
   • It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of peace outside the blocs.
   • India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To meet security challenges within the country :
   • Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
   • India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To develop its economy :
   • India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
   • A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

OR

(A) Economic implications of globalisation

• It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
• It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
• The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
• This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.

Impact of globalisation on India

• More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
• India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making some companies multinational themselves i.e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
• Direct Foreign Investment have also been increased.
• It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export-oriented activities.

Answer 24.
Consequences of the partition of India :

1. The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that Indian history was known. In the name of religion, people of a community killed and maimed people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Calcutta (Kolkata) and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. Muslims would avoid going into areas where mainly Hindus and Sikhs lived. Similarly, the Hindus and Sikhs stayed away from Muslim areas.
3. People went through immense sufferings because they were forced to abandon their homes and move across borders. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in ‘refugee camps’. They often found helpless local police and administration helpless in what was till recently their own country. They travelled to the other side of the new border by all sorts of means, often by foot. Even during this journey they were often attacked, killed or raped. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the ‘family honour’. Many children were separated from their parents.
4. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in refugee camps, for a long time,
5. While recounting the trauma of partition, they have often used the phrase that the survivors themselves used to describe partition—as a division of hearts.
6. The partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets, or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus. The employees of the government and the railways were also divided. Partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. About 5 to 10 lakhs people were killed in partition-related violence. However, beyond the administrative concerns and financial strains, the partition posed another deeper issue, the leaders of the Indian national struggle did not accept the two-nation theory. And yet, partition on religious had taken place.

OR

At the time of Independence, development was about becoming more like the industrialised countries of the West, to be involved with the break down of traditional social structure as well as rise of capitalism and liberalism.

1. Modernisation referred to growth, material progress and scientific rationality.
2. India had two models of modern development at the time of independence into considerations to be adopted i.e. the liberal capitalist model like Europe and the US and the socialist model like the USSR.
3. A debate had been occurred regarding adoption of model of development as communists, socialists and Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru supported the socialist model to reflect a broad consensus to be developed during national movement,
4. Above mentioned intentions cleared that the government made the priority to poverty
   alleviation alongwith social and economic redistribution.
5. At the same time, these leaders differed and debated:
   • Industrialisation should be the preferred path or
   • Agricultural development should take place, or
   • Rural poverty should be alleviated.

Answer 25.
Indo-Pak conflict started just after partition over the dispute on Kashmir. A proxy war broke, out between the Indian and Pakistani armies in Kashmir during 1947 itself. But this did not turn into a full war. Both the governments of India and Pakistan worked together to restore the women abducted during partition to their original families. A long¬term dispute about the sharing of river waters was resolved through mediation by the World Bank. The India-Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty was signed by Nehru and General Ayub Khan in 1960.„Despite all ups and downs in the Indo-Pak relations, this treaty has worked well.

In April 1965, Pakistan launched armed attacks in the Rann of Kutch area of Gujarat. This was followed by a bigger offensive in Jammu and Kashmir in August-September. Pakistan did not get support from the local people there. In order to ease the pressure on the Kashmir front, Indian Prime Minister Lai Bahadur Shastri ordered Indian troops to launch a counter-offensive on the Punjab border. In a fierce battle, the Indian army reached close to Lahore.

The hostilities came to an end with the UN intervention. Later, Shastri and Pakistan’s General Ayub Khan signed the Tashkent Agreement, brokered by the Soviet Union in January 1966.

OR

The formal split in Congress took place in 1969 on the issue of nomination of the candidate during presidential elections:

1. Despite, Indira Gandhi’s reservations, the Syndicate nominated Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy, as the official Congress candidate for ensuing Presidential elections.
2. Indira Gandhi retaliated the situation by encouraging V.V. Giri, the then Vice-President, to be nominated as an independent candidate.
3. During election, the then Congress President S. Nijalingappa issued a whip asking all Congress MPs. MLAs to vote for N. Sanjeeva Reddy.
4. On the other hand, after silently supporting V.V. Giri, the Prime Minister Indira Gandhi openly called for a conscience vote to vote the way they want’.
5. Elections went in favour of V.V. Giri due to this diplomatic effort and N. Sanjeeva Reddy was defeated.
6. The defeat of N. Sanjeeva Reddy, the formal Congress candidate, formalised the split of party into two:
   • Congress (0), i.e. organisation led by syndicate, known as Old Congress.
   • Congress (R) i.e. requisitionists led by Indira Gandhi, known as New Congress.

Answer 26.

• Emergency was declared on the ground of internal disturbances on 25 June 1975 to invoke Article 352 of the Constitution.
• The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose Emergency to the President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
• Emergency was one of the most controversial episodes which possessed different virus regarding imposition of Emergency.
• Emergency practically suspended the democratic functioning.
• ‘Shah Commission’ exposed many excesses committed during emergency.
• Emergency highlighted some hidden matters over constitutional battle between the Parliament and judiciary.
• Tensions or conflicts had been arisen between institution based democracy and popular participation of people.

OR

Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU) is an organisation of farmers from the western UP and Haryana regions. It is one of the leading farmers’ movements to protest against the policies of process of liberalisation of Indian economy. The Meerut agitation of farmers was a great show of rural farmers and cultivators.
Issues addressed by BKU :

• Higher government floor prices for sugarcane and wheat.
• Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.
• To wave off repayments due on loan to farmers.
• To provide government pension to farmers.
• Abolition of restrictions on the inter-state movement of farm produce.

Highlighted the plight of farmers :

• BKU conducted rallies, demonstrations, and Jail Bharo agitations.
• These protests involved thousands of farmers-sometimes over a lakh-from various villages in western UP and adjoining regions.
• BKU operated as a pressure group in politics with its strength of sheer members.

Extent of Success :

• BKU became the most successful social movements. ‘
• It sustained for a long time due to clan networks among its members.
• These networks mobilised funds, resources and activities of BKU.
• An outcome of political bargaining powers by its members.
• BKU farmers dominated regional electoral politics also.

Answer 27.
The leadership of Akali movement passed from the moderate Akalis to the extremist elements and took the form of armed insurgency. These militants made their headquarters inside the Sikh holy shrine, the Golden Temple in Amritsar, and turned it into an armed fortress. In June 1984, the Government of India carried out ‘Operation Blue Star’ code name for army action in the Golden Temple.

In this operation, the government could successful flush out the militants, but it also damaged the historic temple and deeply hurt the sentiments of the Sikhs. A large proportion of Sikhs in India and abroad saw the military operation as an attack on their faith and this gave further impetus to militant and extremist groups.

More tragic turn of events complicated the Punjab problem further. On 31 October 1984, the whole nation was in mourning when Indira Gandhi was assassinated by her bodyguards outside her residence. Both the assassins were Sikhs and wanted to take revenge for Operation Blue Star. While the entire country was shocked by this development, in Delhi
and in many parts of northern India violence broke out against the Sikh community. In this violence, hundreds of Sikhs were killed in other parts of the country. Many Sikh families lost their male members and thus suffered great emotional and heavy financial loss.

OR

In the first decade of electoral politics, India did not have a recognised opposition party. But some of vibrant and diverse opposition parties had come into being even before the first General Election of 1952 as the non-Congress parties. Hence, the roots of almost all the non-Congress parties of today can be traced to one or the other of the opposition parties of 1950s.

All these opposition parties gained only a representation, still their presence played a crucial role in maintaining democratic character of system. Hence due to following reasons two party system is required for successful democracy:

1. Within two party systems, the opposition party offers a sustained and principled criticism of policies and practices of ruling party keeping it under a strict check.
2. By keeping democratic political alternative alive, these parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic.

On the basis of above mentioned features it is justifiable to have a two party system which have following advantages:

1. India has arrived at more competitive politics.
2. Political parties act within the spheres of consensus.
3. New forms, vision, pathways of development have been identified.
4. Issues like poverty, displacement, minimum wages, livelihood and social security are being put on political agenda.
5. Issues of justice and democracy are being voiced by various classes, castes and regions to remind states its responsibility.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by anxiety? 1

Question 2.
Define Disability and Disorder? 1

Question 3.
What do you mean by motor development? 1

Question 4.
What are postural deformities? 1

Question 5.
What do you mean by ageing? 1

Question 6.
Define energy. 1

Question 7.
Define Yoga? 1

Question 8.
Define Adduction and Abduction movement in sports? 1

Question 9.
Briefly state about menopause. 1

Question 10.
Define nutrition. 1

Question 11.
What do you understand by seeding? 1

Question 12.
Elaborate Yoga asana as a preventive measure of health? 3

Question 13.
Discuss the test items of Barrow General Motor Ability test. 3

Question 14.
Discuss any three physiological factors determining speed. 3

Question 15.
Discuss any three pitfalls of dieting. 3

Question 16.
Elaborate any three physiological benefits of exercise on children. 3

Question 17.
Sudha was a good boxer from her school days. She used to come to school from a remote village. Most of the aged persons of the village used to object her for taking part in boxing. They even said to her father not to allow her for sports but he wanted his daughter to be an international level boxer. He did not listen to them. He tried to give every facility to his daughter. Now after ten years of hard training she has been selected for world cup boxing Championship. She is sure to win laurels for her country. 3
On the basis of above passage answer the following questions:
(i) Do you agree with the views of most of the villagers? Answer in brief.
(ii) What values are shown by Sudha’s father regarding her sports participation?
(iii) What lesson do you learn from the above passage?

Question 18.
Discuss any three advantages of correct posture. 3

Question 19.
Distinguish between Intramural and Extramural programmes. 3

Question 20.
Explain the administration of AAPHER youth fitness test. 5

Question 21.
Elaborate the prevention of sports injuries. 5

Question 22.
Discuss the muscles involved in Throwing? 5

Question 23.
Define strength and discuss the methods of improving strength in detail. 5

Question 24.
Elucidate the psychological effects of regular exercise on individual. 5

Question 25.
Discuss any five effects of exercise on respiratory system. 5

Question 26.
Draw a fixture of 11 teams on knockout basis. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Anxiety is feeling of worry, nervousness or unease about something with an uncertain outcome.

Answer 2.
Disability is an injury that restricts the functions or movements of a person. It is a term associated with impairment causing restrictions to the functions and movement of a person.
Disorder is an illness that causes disruption to the functions of a person. It is any ailment that disturbs the health of a person.

Answer 3.
Motor development refers to the development of a child’s bone, muscles and ability to move around and manipulate his environment. Motor development means the development of movement and various motor abilities from birth till death.

Answer 4.
Postural deformities are the improper alignment of body parts. One who has postural deformities cannot perform his work efficiently. Some deformities are Kyphosis, Scoliosis, etc.

Answer 5.
Ageing is an inevitable and extremely complex, multi-factorial process. It is characterized by progressive degeneration of organ systems and tissues.

Answer 6.
Energy is the capacity to do work. However, there are various forms of energy but in the field of games and sports our main concern is about mechanical energy.

Answer 7.
Yoga is a science of balancing between mind, body and spirit. It is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Yuj’in spiritual terms mean the union of the individual consciousness with the universal consciousness.

Answer 8.
Adduction refers to a movement towards the midline or centre, it is a movement of a body part towards the median plane.
Abduction is a movement away from the midline or centre, it refers to any movement of the body part away from the median plane.

Answer 9.
Menopause is the time when a woman stops having menses. It occurs when menstruation ceases for a period of one year. Usually, it occurs in women in mid-life between 45 and 55 years of age.

Answer 10.
Menopause is the time when a woman stops having menses. It occurs when menstruation ceases for a period of one year. Usually, it occurs in women in mid-life between 45 and 55 years of age.

Answer 11.
Seeding, the players participate directly in quarter- final or semi-final. They need not to wait for longer duration.

Answer 12.
Yoga asana for prevention:
(i) Yoga as a rejuvenation activity:

• Provide Physical Relaxation
• Prevents Stress
• Facilitate emotional control

(ii) Yoga as a Supplementary activity:

• Improves muscle tone
• Facilitate Physical functioning

(iii) Yoga as a Compensatory activity:

• Prevent Muscular Disbalance
• Facilitate Rehabilitation

Answer 13.
Harold M Barrow developed a test of motor ability for college men and high school boys.

• Standing Broad Jump – to measure power, agility, speed and strength. It is done by taking a long jump with the feets together. Three trials are given. Final score is distance in inches from the best jump
• Zigzag Run – to measure agility and speed. Subject is advised to stand behind the starting line. Running is done in zigzag manner and three rounds are completed.
• Six Pound Medicine Ball Put – to measure strength of arms and shoulders including their coordination, speed and balance. Subject is advised to put the ball. Three trials are given.

Answer 14.
Factors determining speed.
(i) Mobility of the nervous system – Contraction and relaxation of muscles is controlled by nervous system. Frequency of contraction and relaxation is determined by excitability of nerve impulse.
(ii) Muscle composition – The percentage of white muscle and red muscle fibre is genetically determined and cannot be changed through training.
(iii) Explosive strength – It Depends on, muscle composition muscle size, muscle coordination and metabolic process.

Answer 15.
The Pitfalls of Dieting:
(i) Drinking Your Calories – when we try to lose weight, often the focus is on what you eat and not what you drink. Beverages can play a huge role depending on what you drink. Let’s take a standard Double coffee for example: If you get a medium double from Tim Horton, you will be consuming 210 calories each time. For coffee addicts, this can add up quick. Also consider other calorie ridden beverages such as pop, iced tea, juice, smoothies and flavoured ice drinks.

(ii) Not getting enough protein – I find this is more of an issue with my female clients, but protein is just as important as fibre for filling you up. Protein also helps you to feel more alert. Therefore, if you are eating a morning breakfast with very little protein, you may end up feeling sluggish and be more prone to snacking. You don’t need a lot of protein either: Try adding peanut butter to your toast in the morning or a few walnuts to your cereal or even a boiled egg at your snack. You’ll feel more satisfied and be able to go longer without eating.

(iii) Eating Too Few Calories –1 know it seems a tad backwards but your body has systems from fighting against starvation and some diets are so restrictive they do just that. When we under eat our body goes into ‘starvation mode’, causing our metabolism to drop and for our bodies, to hold on to more calories out of fear that food isn’t widely available. Also eating the same number of calories daily can have the same affect. That’s why it’s a good idea to have a reward meal once per week to prevent this. A reward meal should not turn into a reward week though.

Answer 16.

1. Exercise Controls Weight – Regular exercise helps in controlling weight. In fact weight gain occurs when child takes more calories than the requirement of his body. The unused or excess calories are accumulated as fats in his body. In this way, he starts gaining weight which ultimately leads him towards overweight and obesity. Nowadays a lot of children not only in India but throughout the world are getting obese which is the root cause of various physiological problems. Regular exercise helps such children in burning excess calories. The more intense the activity or exercise, the more calories they bum. Regular exercise takes the fat away and lowers the excess weight.
2. Exercise Strengthens Bones – Exercise builds strong bones. As a matter of fact, exercise increases bone density which helps in preventing osteoporosis. If regular exercise is not performed, the bones usually lose their density, becomes weak, fragile and porous.
3. Exercise Strengthens the Lungs – Exercise is beneficial for children because it enhances the lungs capacity and their efficiency in inhalation and exhalation. It increases the size of lungs. Tidal air capacity and vital air capacity are increased. Even unused alveolus becomes active. So, it can be said that lungs are strengthened and becomes capable to perform various activities for a longer duration.

Answer 17.

1. No, the villagers depict the orthodox beliefs of domesticating the women and not giving them opportunities for studying or winning name and fame for their country.
2. Sudha’s father is open minded and motivated her daughter to participate in sports. Open mindedness motivation.
3. Do fight for the right things. Work hard and believe in yourself.

Answer 18.
(i) Physical Appearance – It is a natural phenomenon that every individual wants to have a good physical appearance. It also becomes more important in the presence of opposite sex. For creating a good impression on the other people, good appearance is prerequisite.
(ii) Grace and efficiency of Movements – Physical posture plays a vital role in the field of sports and games .Sports and games involved various types of movements. Walking, running, jumping and throwing depend upon the abilities of movements .An athlete requires a variety of efficient movement’s .The apex marks can be achieved in the field of sports if movements of the sportsman are efficient and graceful.
(iii) Physical fitness – Physical fitness is essential to live a fruitful life .Physical fitness can be achieved, if you have good posture. The balance, coordination, flexibility etc. are the components of fitness

Answer 19.

Answer 20.
AAPHER Youth Fitness Test was formed in 1965 in United States. It was a test in which these items were included:

• Pull Ups For Boys – to measure arm and shoulder strength.
  Procedure – the bar adjusted according to the height of the subject is used for this test. The student is advised to raise his body so that the chin reaches the level of the bar. One score is awarded for each pull ups. One trial is given.
• Flexed Arm Stand For Girls – to measure arm and shoulder strength.
  Procedure – the adjusted bar is held with hand grasp. The student lifts her body with help of assistance of testing personnel so that her chin reaches bar level. The elapsed time is taken as score. The score is nearest second.
• Standing Long Jump – to measure power.
  Procedure – the student is advised to stand on restraining line with feet close and he/she dips at the knee and swinging arms before jumping. The student lands on both feet together. The distance from take offline to the heel is measured in inches. The best of three trials is recorded as final score.
• 50 Yard Dash – to measure speed.
  Procedure – the student is advised to run 50 yards and the time is recorded nearest to 10th of a second.
• 600 Yard Run Walk – to measure endurance.
  Procedure – the student is advised to run or walk 600 yards and the time is recorded in minutes and seconds.

Answer 21.

• Proper conditioning – It is well known fact that many injuries are caused by weak muscles which are not ready to meet the demand of your sports or games. So, getting proper muscular strength, proper conditioning of your body is essential.
  Weight training and circuit training methods are significant methods of proper conditioning. These methods of conditioning also improve the Neuro- muscular coordination which is also helpful in preventing sports injuries.
• Proper Warming – Before sports training or participation in sports competition, proper warm-up is essential. It definitely reduces the chances of getting injury because muscles remain in tone up position after getting proper warm-up.
• Nutritional Inadequacy – Balanced diet is also essential for the prevention of sports injuries because the lack of essential minerals and vitamins such as calcium, phosphorous and vitamin ‘D’ etc.
• Use of protective equipments and facilities – It is an easy and best way to prevent from sports injuries. These protective equipments protect the sportspersons from getting injured. The stress should be laid down on the quality of protective equipments.
• Unbiased officiating – If the officiating specially in team games is unbiased, the chances of getting injury will be rare. If the officials of the match are biased, there may be more chances of indiscipline among players which may further lead to injuries.

Answer 22.
Throwing comprises of two phases, the preparatory phase and the throwing phase.
Most actions are rotational in the transverse plane and longitudinal axis and the two joints primarily involved are the elbow and shoulder.
The elbow is a hinge joint formed by the humerus and ulna.
The shoulder is a ball and socket joint formed between the humerus and the scapula.

Answer 23.
Strength is the ability of the muscles to overcome resistance. It is an essential element or component of physical fitness.
Method of Improving Strength Development-Isometric, Isotonic, Isokinetic.

(i) Isometric Exercise – Theses exercises are not visible. In fact, there are no direct movements, hence they cannot be observed, in these exercises, work is performed but it is not seen directly. In these exercises, a group of muscles carry out tension against the other group of muscles. When these exercises are done, muscles do not change their length. They remain fixed or constant. Although, muscles do not remain constant or still completely. Muscles feel slight tremor if exercise is done for some time. The more we exert strength or force, the more tremors will be in the muscles. In a general term we can say that work is done during these exercises but scientifically, we cannot say that work is done. For example, if we push a concrete wall, we will be unable to move it from its place. So, we should not consider it as work. Our muscles exert force, whole pushing a wall, but we see that work is not done because work is said to be done when the point of application of a force moves. Work done = Force x distance moved in the direction of force.
When we do these exercises, expenditure of energy is a usual phenomenon. Sometimes temperature may increase while performing these exercises. When we do these exercises, expenditure of energy is a usual phenomenon. Sometimes, temperature may increase while performing these exercises. If we perform these exercises regularly, muscles will be changed in relation to size and shape. These exercises are used for the development of strength. The strength improved through isometric exercises is usually not of much value in sports. These exercises need less time and can be performed anywhere because no equipment is required to do these exercises. There are some positive points to do these exercises; hence these exercises can be used for strength development. These exercises are valuable for rehabilitation. These exercises should not be performed by children and untrained people.

(ii) Isotonic Exercise – These exercises are such in which movement can be seen directly. Work is done in these exercises. These exercises tone up the muscles. Muscles become flexible. Length of the muscles can be increased by isotonic exercises. These exercises are of much value in sports field. They are best for strength development. Calisthenics
exercises, running and jumping on the spot, weight training exercises, exercises with medicine ball are the best examples of isotonic exercises. These can be done with or without apparatus.

(iii) Iso-kinetic Exercise – These are performed on specially designed machines. These exercises were developed by Perrine in 1968. These exercises involve a specific type of muscle contraction, which is usually not applicable in sports and games. In isotonic exercises, contraction of muscle applies maximal forces only at a particular angle of ► its range of movement, whereas, in iso-kinetic exercises contraction of muscle applies maximal forces throughout the complete range of movement. According to the individual’s capacity the speed of contraction can be adjusted. The individual, who performs iso-kinetic exercises on machine, should keep in his mind that he has to apply his force throughout the range of movement. By fixing the number of repetition and by reducing or increasing the speed, the Isokinetic exercises can be used effectively for the development of strength. With the help of these exercises explosive strength and strength endurance can also be improved.

Answer 24.
Psychological effects of exercise:

• Improves mood – exercise is a great source of energy. It helps in changing mood. It
  stimulates various brain toxins which make us feel happy.
• Develops self-confidence – regular exercise increases strength which leads to better fitness
  and develops self confidence.
• Reduces depression – exercise act as antidepressant and recreational activities.
• Reduces anxiety and stress – regular exercise reduces muscle tension, frustration and
  anxiety. Exercise also reduces build up of stress hormones. .
• Increases relaxation – people who do not work out regularly often face insomnia. Meditation is also a great source of relaxation.
• Improves self-esteem – regular exercise improves body image, self-worth and self esteem.

Answer 25.
(i) Strong will – power. Regular exercises increase will- power of the individual. As pranayama, the specific exercise for lungs increases the will power of the doer.

(ii) Increase in tidal air capacity – Tidal air is the amount of air that flows in and out of the lungs in quiet respiratory movement. But tidal air capacity is the amount of air that can be breathed in and breathed out, over and above the tidal air by the deepest possible inspiration/expiration respectively. It is estimated at about 500-800 cc. after doing regular exercise, it has been noted that this tidal air capacity can be increased.

(iii) Decrease in Rate of Respiration – It is certain that when a beginner starts exercise, the rate of respiration increases. But when the same individual performs exercise daily, his rate of respiration decreases in comparison to the beginning stage at rest.

(iv) Strengthens Diaphragm and Muscles – Regular exercise strengthens the diaphragm and muscles of the chest.

(v) Avoids Second Wind – For a beginner, the stage of second wind is, indeed, a crucial stage. But for a regular exercise, it is hardly felt sometimes when experienced athlete does not feel it in his course of activity.

(vi) Unused Alveoles become active – Regular exercise activates the unused alveolus because much amount of 02 is required in vigorous and prolonged exercise of daily routine. The passive alveolus becomes active.

Answer 26.
Total number of teams =11
Upper half = n + 1/2 = 11 + 1/2 = 6
Lower half = n – 1/2 = 11 – 1/2 = 5
Power of two’s = 24 n. of teams = 16-11= 5
No. of Byes = 5
No. of Byes in Lower Half = nb + 1/2 = 5 + 1/2 = 3
No. of Byes in Upper Half = nb – 1/2 = 5 – 1/2 = 2

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Please check that this paper contains 23 questions.
(ii) The paper contains two parts A and B.
(iii) Part A is compulsory for all.
(iv) Part B has two options—Option-1 Analysis of Financial Statements and Option-II Computerized Accounting.
(v) Attempt only one option of Part B.
(vi) All parts of a question should be attempted at one place.

PART – A
Partnership Firms and Company Accounts

Question 1.
When does the capital account of a partner not show a debit balance in spite of regular losses incurred by the firm?

Question 2.
The balance sheet of a partnership firm had an investment fluctuation reserve of Rs 10,000. A new partner is admitted, value of investments is Rs 60,000 against its book value of Rs 70,000. What amount of the investment fluctuation reserve will be distributed among partners?

Question 3.
A, B and C are sharing profits is the ratio 5 : 4 :1. B retires on 1st January 2015 and his son Z is admitted into partnership in his place. The new profit sharing ratio of A, C and Z is 1:1:1. Do you think in spite of the fact that B’s son Z is admitted in his place, Goodwill will have to be valued? Give reason.

Question 4.
What is meant by private placement of shares?

Question 5.
Raman Industries purchased and installed anti-pollution machines to keep a check on environmental pollution. Highlight the value involved in this decision.

Question 6.
Why is Goodwill considered to be an intangible asset and not a fictitious asset?

Question 7.
A company issues 5,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each payable Rs 2 on application, Rs 3 on allotment and Rs 5 on call. All money was duly received except for the following: Ankur, a holder of 200 shares paid only the application money.
Bahadur, a holder of 300 shares paid the application and allotment money.
All the above shares were forfeited by the company after the call was made and later reissued at Rs 12 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue of shares.

Question 8.
The combined capital of X and Y is Rs 2,00,000 and the market rate of Interest is 12%. Annual salary to partners is Rs 5,000 each. The profits for the last three years were Rs 32,000, Rs 45,000 and Rs 55,000. Goodwill is to be valued at 2 years’ purchase of last three years average super profits. Calculate the goodwill of the firm.

Question 9.
Z Ltd. has an authorised capital of Rs 10,00,000 divided into equity shares of Rs 10 each. The company invited applications for 50,000 shares. Applications for 48,000 shares were received. All calls were made and duly received except the final call of Rs 3 per share on 1,000 shares. These shares on which the final call was not received were forfeited. Show how the share capital will appear in the balance sheet of the company as per schedule III part I of the Companies Act 2013. Also prepare notes to accounts for the same.

Question 10.
Nishant Ltd. was running a business of readymade garments. To expand further, it acquired assets of Rs 25,00,000 and took over creditors of Rs 5,00,000 from Ram Enterprises for a purchase consideration of Rs 24,00,000. In order to pay back to the society, it decided to distribute free garments to the inmates of the old age home on the eve of New year. It issued 20,000,9% Debentures of Rs 100 each at a premium of 20% to Ram Enterprises, to be redeemed at par after 5 years.
Pass the necessary journal entries for the above transactions and also identify the values which the company wants to communicate to the society.

Question 11.
(a) Radha and Rekha are Partners in a firm. Calculate interest on drawings for the year @ 12% per annum. Radha withdraws Rs 5,000 at the beginning of every alternate month and Rekha withdraws Rs 5,000 at the end of every quarter.
(b) What are the two main rights acquired by a new partner?

Question 12.
X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. From 1st January 2015, they decided to share profits and losses equally.
The partnership deed provides that in the event of any change in the profit sharing ratio, the goodwill should be valued at two years’ purchase of the average profits of the preceding five years. The profits and losses for the proceeding year are 2010 profit Rs 90,000,2011 profit Rs 70,000, 2012 loss Rs 30,000,2013 profit Rs 50,000 and 2014 profit Rs 70,000.
It was realised that the following omission was made. A computer purchased on January 1st 2014 for Rs 25,000 was wrongly considered as revenue expenditure and debited to profit and loss account, on which depreciation is to be charged @ 20%.
Calculate value of goodwill after the above adjustment and give the necessary single adjusting entry to record the above arrangement

Question 13.
(a) R Ltd. Purchased machinery Rs 6,00,000 from Avinash Ltd. 20% of the amount was paid by accepting a bill of exchange and the balance was paid by issue of 10% debentures at a premium of 20%. Pass the necessary journal entries in the books of R Ltd.
(b) G Ltd. purchased 2,000 of its own 9% debentures of Rs 1,000 each at Rs 982 per debenture. The debentures were purchased with the purpose of cancellation.
Record the necessary journal entries in the books of the company.

Question 14.
Ali, Ahmed and Ahsan are partners in a firm. Their balance sheet as on 31st March, 2015 was as under:

Ahmed died on 30th June 2015. Under the terms of the deed, the executors of the deceased partner was entitled to the following:
(i) Amount standing to the credit of the partner’s capital account
(ii) Interest on capital at 12% P.a.
(iii) Share of goodwill on the basis of twice the average of past three years profit
(iv) The deceased partner will be entitled to his share of profit upto the date of death, calculated on the basis of previous years profits.
(v) There was a claim on workmen’s compensation of Rs 4,800.
(vi) Share of profit from the closing of the last financial year to the date of death calculated on last years profits.
Profits for the last three years were 2012-13 Rs 1,02,000,2013-14 Rs 1,10,400,2014-15 Rs 1,11,600. Ahmed’s executors was to be paid Rs 50,000 in two annual installments along with interest @ 6% per annum the balance to be paid immediately.
Prepare Ahmed’s capital A/c and his executors A/c till it is finally closed.

Question 15.
Sneha, Alka and Megha were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of their capitals. Their balance sheet as on 31st March, 2015 stood as under;

On the above date, Sneha retired.
Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs 30,000 and is to be adjusted in the capital accounts of Alka and Megha, who decide to be equal partners in future.
Fill the missing information in the revaluation account, partners’ capital accounts and the balance sheet of the new firm after Sneha’s retirement

Question 16.
Following is the balance sheet of Rina and Pravita as on 31st march, 2014.

On the above date, the firm was dissolved on the following conditions:
(i) 5% of debtors proved bad, stock realised Rs 28,000, Goodwill – Nil, land and building realised 10% more than its book value.
(ii) Rina decided to take over the investments at its book value.
(iii) Creditors were payable after one month, but were paid immediately and the firm availed a discount of 5% per annum.
(iv) An unrecorded asset was taken over by Pravita at Rs 5,000.
(v) Realisation expenses of Rs 3,000 were paid by Rina.
Prepare necessary ledger accounts.
OR
Anand and Vishnu are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Their balance sheet as at 31st March, 2015 stood as follows:

On 1st April 2015, they admitted Krishna as a Partner. The new profit sharing ratio is agreed as 3 : 2 : 1.
Other adjustments are as under:
(i) Krishna is to bring Rs 90,000 as capital and it was decided that the capital of all partners shall be in proportion to their profit sharing ratio.
(ii) The goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs 1,20,000 and Krishna will contribute his share of goodwill in cash.
(iii) All debtors are good.
(iv) Depreciate furniture by 10%.
(v) Anand will pay off the bank overdraft.
(vi) Any deficiency or excess of capital will be adjusted through cash.
Prepare revaluation A/c, partners’ capital A/c and the balance sheet of the newly constituted firm.

Question 17.
Govind Ltd. invited applications for 40,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each payable Rs 3 on application, Rs 4 on allotment (including premium) and Rs 4 on first and final call. The issue was oversubscribed by 20,000 shares.
Allotment was made as under:
To applicants of 30,000 shares — 30,000 shares
To applicants of 5,000 shares — Nil
To balance applicants — 10/100 shares
Excess money received on application was adjusted against sums due on allotment and call. All money was duly received. Give journal entries to record the above transactions and show the balance sheet of the company.
OR
Ganpati Ltd. offered for public subscription 20,000 equity shares of Rs 100 each at Rs 110 per share. The amount were payable as follows:
On application – Rs 30 per share
On allotment – Rs 40 per share (including Rs 10 as premium)
On first and final call – Rs 40 per share
Applications for 24,000 shares were received and prorata allotment was made.
Kapil, an applicant for 240 shares, failed to pay the allotment and call money.
Binal, a holder of 300 shares failed to pay the first and final call
All these shares were forfeited.
Out of the forfeited shares, 300(the whole of Kapil’s share being included) were reissued @ 80 per share fully paid up. Journalise the above transactions.

PART – B
‘Analysis of Financial Statements’

Question 18.
Under which type of activity will you classify dividend received by a finance company while preparing cash flow statement.

Question 19.
State with reason whether ‘Discount received on making payment to suppliers would result in inflow, outflow or no flow of cash.

Question 20.
Under which main heads and sub heads of equity and liabilities are the following items shown in the balance sheet of a company as per schedule III.
(i) Unclaimed dividend,
(ii) Calls in arrears,
(iii) Interest accrued but not due on debentures and
(iv) Arrears of fixed cumulative preference dividends.

Question 21.
(a) From the following information, calculate the inventory turnover ratio.
Revenue from operations – Rs 2,00,000, gross profit 25% on cost, opening inventory is 1/3rd of the value of the closing inventory, closing inventory is 30% of revenue from operations.
(b) Net profit ratio of a company was 10%. Its indirect expenses were Rs 40,000 and its cash revenue from operations were Rs 1,50,000. The credit revenue from operations was 60% of the total revenue from operations. Calculate the gross profit ratio of the company.

Question 22.
Prepare a comparative statement of profit and loss from the following information:

Question 23.

Additional information:
(i) A machinery having a net book value of Rs 1,00,000 (Depreciation provided there on Rs 1,62,500) was sold at a loss of Rs 20,000.
(ii) Tax paid during the year Rs 75,000.

Answers

Answer 1.
When partners maintain fixed capital account, all adjustments including share of profit or loss is shown in their current account. Hence, the capital account of the partners will not be distributed and thus, will not show a debit balance in spite of regular losses.

Answer 2.
Nil. There is no excess amount in the investment fluctuation reserve account as the fall in the value of the investment is equal to the reserve.

Answer 3.
Goodwill will still have to be valued due to the re-constitution of the firm. The gaining partners will need to compensate the sacrificing partners.

Answer 4.
Private placement of shares means issue and allotment of shares to a selected group of persons privately and not to the general public. It is made by private companies.

Answer 5.
The value highlighted by the company is to protect the environment.

Answer 6.
Goodwill is not a fictitious asset because it has a realizable value. It is an intangible asset because it cannot be seen and touched.

Answer 7.
In the Books of a company

Answer 8.
Balance sheet of S Ltd. (An extract)

Answer 9.
Balance sheet of S Ltd. (An extract)

Answer 10.
In the books Nishant Ltd.

Value the company wants to communicate to the society are:
(i) Creating employment opportunity through expansion of business.
(ii) Fulfilling social responsibility by distributing readymade garments in old age home.

Answer 11.
(a) Calculation of Interest on Drawings:

(b) The two main rights acquired by a new partner are:
(i) Right to share the profit of the business.
(ii) Right over the assets of the firm.

Answer 12.

Answer 13.
(a) In the books of R. Ltd.

Answer 14.

Answer 15.

Answer 16.

Answer 17.
In the books of Govind Ltd.

Answer 18.
Dividend received by a finance company will be classified under operating activity.

Answer 19.
No flow. Receiving discount does not affect cash.

Answer 20.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

Answer 23.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 6

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which of the 3d series element is not considered as a transition element?
OR
Which transition element of group XII shows two different oxidation states?

Question 2.
Write IUPAC name of the following compound:
CH₃COCH2-CH = CH-CHO

Question 3.
For a reaction in 10 minutes concentration of reactant reduced from 0.12 µ to 0.06 µ and in next 10 minutes it becomes 0.03 µ. Find order of reaction for this reaction.

Question 4.
Draw structure of the methyl hemiacetal of formaldehyde.

Question 5.
Why does physisorption decrease with the increase of temperature?

Question 6.
Complete the following reactions:

1. Pb(NO₃)₂ \(\underrightarrow { Heat }\)
2. XeOF₄ + H₂O →

OR

1. P₄ + HNO₃ (Conc.) →
2. PCl₃ + 3H₂O →

Question 7.
Define the following terms:

1. Mole fraction
2. Reverse osmosis

Question 8.
Draw the structures of the following:
(a) (HPO₃)₃
(b) XeF₂

Question 9.
Calculate the equilibrium constant of the following reaction at 298 K:
Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s), E_Cell° = 0.46 V

Question 10.
Write the equation involved in the following reaction

1. Sandmeyer’s reaction
2. Hinsberg’s reagent with 1° amine

Question 11.
Henry’s law constant for the molality of CH₄ in benzene at 298 K is 0.562 k atm. Calculate the solubility of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mmHg.

Question 12.
Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.1 M KCl solution is 100 Ω. If the resistance of the same cell when filled with 0.02 M KCl solution is 520 Ω, calculate the conductivity, molar conductivity of the cell having 0.02 M KCl solution. (The conductivity of 0.1 M KCl solution is 1.29 S/m).

Question 13.
(a) Using VBT predict the geometry and magnetic behaviour of [CoF₆]^3-.
(b) Draw the structures of geometrical isomers of [Fe(CN)₄(NH₃)₂]^–.

Question 14.
Define lyophilic and lyophobic colloids. Give one example of each type. Which one of these two types of sol is easily coagulated and why?

Question 15.
The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of N2Os(g) at constant volume:

Calculate the rate constant.

Question 16.
Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C₅H₁₂, identify the one that on photochemical chlorination yields:
(a) A single monochloride which does not gives elimination reaction.
(b) Three isomeric monochloride
(c) Four isomeric monochloride

Question 17.
State briefly the principle involved in the following processes:

1. Froth flotation process
2. Chromatography
3. Magnetic separation

Question 18.
Give the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions

Question 19.
Write the structures of the monomers used for the following polymer:
(a) PVC
(b) Nylon-6
(c) Teflon

Question 20.
Give reason for the following:

1. Aspartame is limited to cold food only.
2. Allergic action is caused by histamine.
3. Medicines should not be taken without consulting doctors.

Question 21.
Assign suitable reason for the following:
(a) Bond angle of NO^–₂ is less than NO⁺₂.
(b) Sulphur in vapour phase shows paramagnetic behaviour.
(c) Noble gases have very low Boiling point.

Question 22.
Give reasons for:

1. Aldehydes are more reactive towards addition nucleophilic reaction as compared to ketones.
2. Phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acid though it has more number of resonating structures.
3. During the preparation of ester from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst, ester should be distilled off as soon as it forms.

Question 23.
Sapna a domestic helper of Mrs. Sheela had a wound on her arm but she was not caring for it. Sheela applied dettol on her wound and asked her to show it to a doctor if it does not heal.

1. What type of drugs are applied on wounds to prevent the growth of micro-organisms?
2. Name the components of dettol.
3. Name two other chemical substances of this category.
4. What values are associated with Mrs. Sheela?

Question 24.

1. 1. Name a member of the lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state.
   2. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element them lanthanoid contraction. Give reason.
2. Complete the following chemical reactions
   1. MnO^–₄ + I^– (aq) \(\underrightarrow { { OH }^{ – } } \)
   2. NO^–₂ + MnO^–₄ + H⁺ →
   3. Cr₂O^2-₇ + Fe²⁺ + H⁺ →

OR
On the basis of lanthanoid contraction, explain the following:

1. Nature of bonding in La₂O₃ and Lu₂O₃.
2. Trends in the stability of oxosalts of lanthanoid as from La to Lu.
3. Stability of the complexes of lanthanoids.
4. Radii of 4d and 5d block elements.
5. Trends in acidic character of lanthanoid oxides.

Question 25.
(a) A compound is formed by two elements M & N. The element N form ccp array and atoms
of the element M occupy 1/3 rd the tetrahedral void. What is the formula of the compound?
(b) An element has a ccp structure with radii of atom 141.4 pm. The density of the element is 8 g/cm³. How many atoms are present in 220 g of this element?
OR
(a) Describe the two main types of semiconductors and contrast their conduction mechanism.
(b) An element with molar mass 2.7 × 10^-2 kg/mol forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405 pm. It its density is 2.7 kg/m³, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell?

Question 26.
(a) Give the mechanism for formation of ethoxyethane from the ethanol.
(b) Distinguish the following pairs:
(i) Ethanol and propan-l-ol
(ii) Anisole and phenol
(iii) Ethoxyethane and ethanol

OR
(a) Arrange according to the given instruction:
(i) Methoxy phenol, o-chlorophenol and o-nitrophenol (Acidic strength)
(ii) Ethanol, propane, methoxy methane (Boiling point)
(iii) Butan-1-ol, 2-methyl propan-2-ol, Butan-2-ol (elimination reaction)
(b) (i) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol. Why?
(ii) Write the chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from cumene

Answers

Answer 1.
Zinc (Zn) element of 3d-series is not considered as a transition element.
OR
Hg (Hg⁺ and Hg²⁺)

Answer 2.
5-oxohex-2-enal

Answer 3.
Since in every 10-minutes concentration becomes half, so it is a first order reaction.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.
Physiosorption is an exothermic process. Thus with increase in temperature, the tendency of physiosorbed molecules to be retained on the surface of adsorbent decreases.

Answer 6.

1. 2Pb(NO₃)₂ \(\underrightarrow { Heat }\) 4NO₂ + 2PbO
2. XeOF₄ + H₂O → XeO₂F₂ + 2HF

OR

1. P₄ + 20HNO₃ (Conc.) → 4H₃PO₄ + 20NO₂ + 4H₂O
2. PCl₃ + 3H₂O → H₃PO₃ + 3HCl

Answer 7.

1. Mole fraction : It is fraction of a component present in each mole of solution
   
2. Reverse osmosis : It is the movement of pure solvent molecules from solution through semi-permeable membrane on application of pressure greater than osmotic pressure to the higher concentration side.

Answer 8.

Answer 9.
Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag (s) n = 2
Since ΔG° = – nFE_Cell° = – 2.303 RT log K_c

Answer 10.

1. Sandmeyer’s reaction : Freshly prepared diazonium salt on mixing with cuprous chloride or bromide gives chloro or bromo benzene respectively. Such a reaction is known as Sandmeyer’s Reaction.
   
2. Hinsberg’s reagent with 1° amine :
   Benzene sulphonyl chloride is known as Hinsberg’s reagent:
   

Answer 11.
K_H = 0.562 k atm = 0.562 × 10³ atm
Pressure of gas P(g) = 760 mm Hg = 1 atm
from Henry’s law

Answer 12.
Since,
Cell constant (G*) = Conductivity (K) × resistance (R)
= 1.29 S/m × 100 Ω = 129 m^-1 = 1.29 cm^-1
∴ K for 0.02 M KCl solution

Answer 13.
(a) According to V.B.T the electronic arrangement of [COF₆]^3-.
Co(27) → [Ar] 3d⁷4s²
Co³⁺ → [Ar] 3d⁶

It’s Geometry is octahedral, and it is paramagnetic in nature.
(b) Geometrical isomers of [Fe(CN)₄ (NH₃)₂]^– :

Answer 14.

• Lyophilic colloids : In these, there are attracting forces acting between particles of dispersion medium and dispersed phase and hence these are known as lyophilic colloids. These are reversible in nature.
• Lyphobic Colloids : There is no interaction or have very little interactions between the particles of dispersed phase and dispersion medium, i.e. these are solvent repelling colloids. Hence they known lyophobic colloids and they are irreversible in nature.
  Example of Lyophilic colloids -Starch sol, gum, gelatine.
  Lyophilic colloids -Arsenic sulphide sol, Au sol, sulphur sol etc.
  Lyophobic sols can easily get coagulated.
• Reason : Due to very less interactions between dispersed phase and dispersion medium, coagulation takes place easily.

Answer 15.
If pressure of N₂O₅ (g) decrease by 2x atm, then

Total pressure P_t = 0.5 + x = 0.512
So x = 0.012
Pressure of N₂O₅ at time t = 100 s is 0.5 – 2x
i.e. P_t = 0.5 – 2 × 0.012 0.476 atm
Since for a first order reaction

K = 4.98 × 10^-4 s^-1

Answer 16.

Answer 17.

1. Froth floatation process : Different wettability of ore and gangue particles is the principle involved.
2. Chromatography : The principle involved in this process is different adsorbability of various components of a mixture.
3. Magnetic separation : This is based on the principle of different magnetic properties of the ore components. If either the ore or the gangue particles is capable of being attracted by a magnetic field, then such separation can be carried out.

Answer 18.

Answer 19.

Answer 20.

1. Aspartame gets decomposed at cooking temperature, hence limited to cold food only.
2. When foreign proteins, flower pollens or any disease causing pathogens attached to mast cell it produces histamine for allergic action to act against these foreign particles.
3. Drugs are the chemicals which produces a biological response (pharmacological effect) even when taken in very small dose and may prove fatal. Doctors are aware of all sorts of useful and ill effects of such drugs. Therefore, doctors must be consulted before taking any medicine.

Answer 21.

(b) In vapour phase, sulphur exists as S₂ molecule like O₂ and posses impaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals (π^*_3Px and π^*_3Py).
(c) There is weak vander wall’s forces exist among noble gas molecules, hence they have low boiling points.

Answer 22.

1. There is more +I-effect from the two alkyl group of ketones, hence carboxyl carbon has less positive charge and so it will be less reactive than an aldehyde.
2. Phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures but the negative charge lies on less electronegative carbon atoms, hence contribution of such structures is negligible as compared to the resonating structure of carboxylate ion where negative charge lies on the oxygen atom. So the contribution of resonance structures is much more in case of carboxylate ion.
3. Esterification reaction is a reversible reaction, hence ester is distilled off as soon as it is formed.
   

Answer 23.

1. Antiseptics
2. Chloroxylenol, isopropanol, castor oil, soap and pine oil.
3. Iodoform, Tincture iodine
4. Care for all human beings, knowledge of science, concern for maid servant.

Answer 24.

1. 1. Cerium (Ce) (others Gd, Ho, Dy etc)
   2. 5f orbital has poorer shielding than 4f orbital, as a result element to element actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction.
   1. MnO^–₄ + I^– \(\underrightarrow { { OH }^{ – } } \) MnO₂ + IO^–₃
   2. NO^–₂ + MnO^–₄ + H⁺ → NO^–₃ + Mn²⁺
   3. Cr₂O^2-₇ + Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → Cr³⁺ + Fe³⁺ + H₂O

OR

1. La₂O₃ is ionic because ‘La’ has largest atomic size and largest ionisation enthalpy among the lanthanoids, whereas Lu₂O₃ is covalent because Lu has smaller size and higher ionisation enthalpy.
2. As the size decreases from La to Lu, therefore the stability of oxo-cations also decreases.
3. The stability of complexes increases as the size of lanthanoids decreases.
4. Radii of 4d and 5d elements are almost same due to lanthanoid contraction.
5. Acidic character of oxides of lanthanoids increases from La to Lu because metallic character decreases due to decrease in atomic size and increase in ionisation enthalpy.

Answer 25.
(a) Since element N is in CCP array there will be 4 ‘N’ atoms and 8 tetrahedral voids, out of which 1/3 is occupied by m atoms, hence formula of the compound:
M_{4×\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)} N₃ ⇒ M₂N₃ is the formula for the given compound.
(b) From question:
Z = 4 for ccp arrangement
radii = 141.4 pm, d = 8 g/cm³
mass of sample = 220 g
No. of atoms in sample (n) = ?

OR
(a) Two main types of semiconductors are:
(i) n-type semiconductor
(ii) p-type semiconductor
n-type semiconductors are formed when an element of higher valency is doped in element of lower valency, e.g. Si is doped with Arsenic (As). The extra electron not involved in covalent bond formation increases the conductivity of doped element, p-type semiconductors are formed when element of higher valency is doped with element of lower valency, e.g. Si is doped with Gallium (Ga). It leads to the formation of holes or electron vacancy in doped element.

Conduction mechanism :
n-type semiconductors-Conduction is due to delocalisation of free electrons in the element lattice.
p-type semiconductors-Conduction is due to movement of holes in doped element lattice.
(b) From the given information
Molar mass (M) = 2.7 × 10^-2 g mol^-1 = 27 g/mol
Edge length (a) = 405 pm = 405 × 10^-10 cm
density (d) = 2.7 × 10³ kg/m³ = 2.7 g/cm³

Alternately: in CGS unit
Z = 4

Answer 26.

(b) (i)

(ii)

(iii)

OR

(ii) Propane < methoxy methane < ethanol
(iii) Butan-1-ol < Butan-2-ol < 2-methyl propan-2-ol
(b) (i) Phenoxide ion is resonance stablised, hence phenol is more acidic than ethanol.

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