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CBSE Class 10 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe.

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The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 1

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Answers should not exceed 30 words.

Question 1.
Which French artist prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world ? [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Frederic Sorrieu.

Question 2.
What do you understand by ‘absolutist’ ?
Answer:
Absolutist, literally a government or system of rule that has no restraints on the power exercised. In history, the term refers to a form of monarchical government that was centralised, militarised and repressive.

Question 3.
What is a Utopian ?
Answer:
Utopian is a vision of society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist.

Question 4.
What are advantages of a nation ? State one advantage.
Answer:
The existence of nations is a guarantee of liberty, which would be lost if the world had only one law and only one master.

Question 5.
What is Plebiscite ?
Answer:
Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Question 6.
What political and constitutional changes did take place in the wake of the French Revolution in 1789 ?
Answer:

1. The French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.
2. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.

Question 7.
State any one step that could create a sense of collective identity among the French people.
Answer:
The ideas of the fatherland and the citizen emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.

Question 8.
Which clubs were set up after the French Revolution and by whom ?
Answer:
As the news of events in France reached the different cities of Europe, students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.

Question 9.
How the Napoleon code was implemented in the regions under French control ?
Answer:
In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.

Question 10.
Why did the people in the conquered territories become hostile to Napoleon’s rule ?
Answer:
The people became hostile due to increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies required to conquer ihe rest of Europe. All these seemed to outweigh the advantages of the administrative changes.

Question 11.
In Austria-Hungary in the mid-eighteenth century, there were different groups, languages etc. In such a situation what was the binding tie between them ?
Answer:
The only tie binding the diverse groups together was a common allegiance to the emperor.

Question 12.
What was the meaning of liberalism in early 19th century in Europe ? [CBSE2016]
Answer:
The term ‘liberalism’ is derived from the Latin word liber meaning free. Thus for the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government consent.

Question 13.
What do you mean by suffrage ?
Answer:
Suffrage means right to vote.

Question 14.
Who had created out of countless small principalities a confederation of 39 states of Germany ?
Answer:
Napoleon.

Question 15.
In 1834, which customs union was formed ? Who joined it ?
Answer:
In 1834 a customs union – zollvere in was formed. The union was joined by most of the German state.

Question 16.
What do you mean by conservatism ?
Answer:
Conservatism is a political philosophy that stresses the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs, and preferred gradual development to quick change.

Question 17.
Which congress was held in 1815 ? By whom was it hosted ?
Answer:

1. Congress of Vienna was held in 1815.
2. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.

Question 18.
What was the policy adopted at Vienna (1815) about the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon ?
Answer:
The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon and create a new conservative order in Europe.

Question 19.
Who was Giuseppe Mazzini ?
Answer:
Giuseppe Mazzini was the Italian revolutionary who founded Young Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe in Berne (1833).

Question 20.
What was the result of July 1830 revolution in France ?
Answer:
By July 1830 revolution in France, the Bourbon Kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815, were overthrown by liberal revolutionaries and installed a constitutional monarchy under Louis Philippe.

Question 21.
What was said about Mazzini by Metternich ?
Answer:
Metternich described him as “the most dangerous enemy of our social order”.

Question 22.
What Metternich remarked about events in France ? [CBSE 2016]
Answer:
Metternich once remarked, “When France sneezes, the rest of the Europe catches cold.”

Question 23.
Who was Lord Byron ? What was his contribution in the Greek war of independence ? t
Answer:

1. Lord Byron was an English poet.
2. He organised funds and later went to fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824.

Question 24.
What was Romanticism ?
Answer:
Romanticism was a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of reason and science and focused instead on emotions, intuition and mystical feelings.

Question 25.
What was contribution of Karol Kurpinski in the freedom struggle of Poland ?
Answer:
Karol Kurpinski celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.

Question 26.
Give one reason for the great economic hardship in Europe in the 1830s.
Answer:

1. There was enormous increase in population all over Europe.
2. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment.

Question 27.
Who were Grimm brothers ? Why did they collect folktales ?
Answer:

1. The Grimm brothers were born in the German city of Hanau in 1785 and 1786 respectively.
2. They collected folktales and considered their projects of collecting folk-tales and developing the German language as part of the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a German national identity.

Question 28.
What happened in 1848 revolution in France ?
Answer:

1. Louis Philippe was forced to flee and
2. National Assembly proclaimed a Republic.
3. Suffrage was granted to all adult males above 21.
4. Right to work was guaranteed. National workshops to provide employment were set up.

Question 29.
Define feminist.
Answer:
Feminist means awareness of women’s rights and interests based on the belief of the social, economic and political equality of the genders.

Question 30.
What is ideology ?
Answer:
Ideology is a system of ideas reflecting a particular social and political vision.

Question 31.
Who were Junkers in Prussia ?
Answer:
Large landowners were called Junkers in Prussia.

Question 32.
Who was the architect of the unification of Germany and which policy was adopted by him ?
Answer:
Otto von Bismarck is considered the architect of German unification. He followed the policy of blood and iron to achieve his object.

Question 33.
After unification of Germany which policies were adopted by the new state ?
Answer:
The new state placed a strong emphasis on modernising the currency, banking, legal and judicial system in Germany, Prussian measures and practices often became a model for the rest of Germany.

Question 34.
Name three persons who played an important role in the unification of Italy.
Answer:

1. Cavour
2. Mazzini
3. Garibaldi.

Question 35.
What happened in England in 1688 ?
Answer:
Glorious revolution had taken place. As a result of this, the English parliament had seized power from the monarchy.

Question 36.
What is the importance of the Act of Union (1707) ?
Answer:
The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland had resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.

Question 37.
How attributes of liberty and justice were represented during French Revolution ?
Answer:

1. The attributes of Liberty were the cap or the broken chain.
2. Justice is generally a blind folded man carrying a pair of weighing scales.

Question 38.
What did become the allegory of the German nation ? How was it represented visually ?
Answer:

1. Germania became the allegory of the German nation.
2. In visual representations Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as German oak stands for Heroism.

Question 39.
Which was the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871?
Answer:
It was the area called the Balkans. It was a region of geographical and ethnic variations comprising modern day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Mecedonia, Croatia Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs.

Question 40.
What made the Balkans an explosive region ?
Answer:
The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive.

Question 41.
Which European powers had rivalries in the Balkans and were keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans and extending own control over the area ?
Answer:
Russia, Germany, England and Austro-Hungary.

QUESTIONS OF 3/5 MARKS

Answers should be in about 80/100 words.

Question 1.
Who was Frederic Sorrieu ? Describe main features of the first print prepared by him in 1848 ?
Answer:
(1) Frederic Sorrieu was a French artist who prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of “democratic and social republics” as he called them.
(2) The main features of the first print of the series were as mentioned below :

1. It shows men and women of all ages of Europe and America offering homage to the statue of Liberty.
2. Liberty was personified as a female figure with the Torch of Enlightenment in one hand and the Charter of Rights of Man in the other.
3. In the foreground are the shattered remains of the symbols of absolutist institutions.
4.  Procession is led by USA and Switzerland who were already nation states. Other people are following them.
5. From heavens above, Christ, saints and angels gaze upon the scene to symbolise fraternity among the nations of the world.
6. In Sorrieu’s uptopian vision, the peoples of the world were grouped as distinct nations, identified through their flags and national costume. Thus,many issues have been visualised by Sorrieu in his prints but it is vision that can be realised.

Question 2.
Analyse the measures and practices introduced by the French Revolution to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. [CBSE 2016-17]
                               Or
Describe any five steps taken by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity among the French people. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
See Textbook Question 2.

Question 3.
Describe how the events in France affected the different cities in Europe.
Answer:
When the news of the events in France reached the different cities in Europe it had the effects as mentioned below :

1. Students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.
2. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s.
3. With the break of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad.

Question 4.
“Napoleon has destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient.” Analyse the statement with arguments.
Answer:
See Textbook Question 5.

Question 5.
What were the reactions of the local populations to the French rule in the conquered territories ?
Answer:
The reactions of the local peoples in the conquered territories by the French were mixed. In the beginning, in Holland, Switzerland, Brussels, Mainz, Milan and Warsaw, people welcomed the French armies as harbingers of liberty. Political freedom was advantageous but more taxes, censorship and forced conscription into the French armies for conquering rest of Europe made local population hostile to them because it became clear that the new administrative arrangements did not go hand in hand with political freedom. Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies required to conquer the rest of Europe, all seemed to outweigh the advantages of the administrative changes.

Question 6.
Describe the political condition of Europe in the mid-eighteenth century.
Answer:
The political condition of Europe in the mid-eighteenth century was as mentioned below :
(1) There were no nation states
(2) Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
(3) There were autocratic monarchies in Eastern and Central Europe.
(4) People spoke different languages and belonged to different ethnic groups,

1. For example, Habsburg Empire consisted of different regions and peoples.
2. They did not share a collective identity or a common culture,
3. It included German-speaking people of Bohemia as well as Italian-speaking people of Lombardy and Venetia.
4. Half of the population of Hungary was Magyar,
5. Such differences did not promote a sense of political unity. The only tie binding diverse groups together was a common allegiance to the emperor.

Question 7.
Describe the condition of the aristocracy and peasantry in Europe in the mid-eighteenth century.
Answer:
The condition of aristocracy and peasantry was as mentioned below :
(1) Landed aristocracy :

1. Socially and politically, ,a landed aristocracy was the dominant class on the continent.
2. They were united by a common way of life, such as owning large estates and town houses,use of French language for diplomacy and in high society.
3. They were also united with ties of marriage with each other. Thus, aristocracy was powerful but they were in minority.

(2) Peasantry :

1. The majority of the population was peasants.
2. To the west, most of the land was farmed by tenants and small owners.
3. In the Eastern and Central Europe, there were large estates which were cultivated by serfs.

Question 8.
When did industrialisation begin in Europe ? What were its consequences ?
Answer:
(1) Industrialisation : Industrialisation had begun in England in the second-half of the ’ eighteenth century. However, it took place in France and parts of the German states during the nineteenth century.
(2) Its consequences were as mentioned below :

1. Growth of towns : Emergence of commercial classes – there was growth of towns and the emergence of commercial classes in Western and some parts of Eastern Europe. This was due to the growth of industrial production and trade. The existence of commercial classes was based on production for the market.
2. A new working class and middle classes consisting of industrialists, businessmen, professionals came into existence. It was among the educated, liberal middle classes that ideas of national unity following the abolition of aristocratic privileges gained popularity.

Question 9.
What do you understand by Liberalism ? Describe their ideas in the political, social and economic spheres.
Answer:
(1) The term ‘liberalism’ is derived from the Latin word liber, meaning free. Thus, for the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before “law.
(2) Political and economic ideas supported by the liberals were as given below :

(1) Political ideas :

1. It emphasised the concept of government by consent.
2. Since the French Revolution, liberalism stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through parliament.
3. They did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage.
4. In revolutionary France, which was the first example of liberal democracy, the right to vote and election was exclusively granted to property-owning men. Men without property and women were not granted political rights. Thus in the 19th and 20th centuries there were movements demanding equal political rights.

(2) Economic ideas : They supported freedom of markets and the abolition of state- imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the 19th century this was a strong demand of the emerging middle classes. Also see Textbook Question 4.

Question 10.
Who were granted the right to vote in France during the period of revolution ?
Answer:

1. In France, the right to vote and election was granted only to property-owning men.
2. Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights.
3. During the period of Jacobins, all adult males were granted right to vote.
4. The Napoleonic Code again granted limited right to vote. Women were reduced to the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands.
5. Women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal political rights during the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.

Question 11.
What was zollverein ? Why was it introduced ? Describe its advantages ? How did it strengthen nationalist sentiments in German states ?
Answer:
(1) Zollverein was a custom union that was formed in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia and was joined by most of the German States.
(2) Causes of introduction of zollverein : In the first half of the nineteenth century there were countless small principalities in the German-speaking region. Napoleon had created a confederation of 39 states.
This confederation had many drawbacks as mentioned below :

1. Each had its own currency, weights and measures.
2. From Hamburg to Nuremberg there were 11 custom barriers.
3. Traders had to pay a custom duty at each barrier.
4.  Duty was paid according to weight or measurement, so there was a lot of problem in calculation.
   The above conditions were an obstacle to economic growth. Traders and new commercial classes wanted movement of goods without any hindrance. So in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia zollverein was formed.

(3) Advantages :

1. It was formed for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital.
2. The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two.
3.  A network of railways was created which increased mobility harnessing economic interests to national unification.
4. Industry grew due to free trade.

(4) It created a national unity in economic matters at a time when Germany was divided. It accustomed German states to cooperate without Austria who had not become a member of zollverein. It taught them the advantages of Prussian leadership. It was the beginning of German unity. Thus, economic nationalism strengthened the wider nationalist sentiments.

Question 12.
What do you understand by conservatism ? Describe the objects and decisions of the Congress of Vienna and examine them too.
Answer:
(1) Conservatism was a political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs and preferred gradual development to quick change.
(2) Objects : After the defeat of Napoleon, the European powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria met at Vienna. It was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The object was to undo most of the changes that had taken place during the Napoleonic wars.
(3) Decisions of the Congress : Some major decisions of the Congress were as given below:

1. The Bourbon dynasty was restored in France.
2. A number of states such as Netherlands, Piedmont, were strengthened on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. Thus, Belgium was included in Netherlands and Genoa in Piedmont.
3. Prussia was given important new territories on France’s western frontiers. It got a portion of Saxony.
4. Austria got control of northern Italy.
5.  Russia was given a part of Poland. She got most part of the Grand Dutchy of Warsaws and retained Finland. Russia emerged with a good number of addition and extended farther westward into Europe than ever.

(4) Evaluation of the Congress : Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic. They did not tolerate criticism and dissent. They imposed censorship laws to control the newspapers, books, plays and ideas of liberty and freedom.

Question 13.
During the years following the Congress of Vienna (1815) why did the liberal -nationalists go underground ? Why the secret societies were formed ? Describe their aims and activities with special reference to the activities of Mazzini.
Answer:
(1) After the Congress of Vienna (1815) the liberal-nationalists went underground due to fear of repression by the autocratic rulers.
(2)

1. The aim of the secret societies that were formed in many European states was to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas i.e., to oppose monarchial forms that had been established after the Congress of Vienna and to fight for liberty and freedom.
2. They wanted creation of nation-states which were considered necessary as a part of freedom for struggle.

(3) Mazzini and activities of secret societies :

1. Mazzini was the Italian revolutionary. He was a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. Later on, he founded two societies – Young Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe in Berne. Aim of Mazzini was to have a unified republic in Italy as the basis of liberty. He believed that the nations were the natural units of mankind.
2. Secret societies were formed in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland.
3. As a result of the secret societies, the conservatives were frightened. Metternich described Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’. Also see Textbook Question 1(a) and (b).

Question 14.
How did nationalism develop through culture in Europe ? [CBSE2015]
                             Or
‘Culture has played an important role in the development of nationalism in Europe during 18th and 19th centuries.’ Support the statement with examples. [CBSE 2016]
                            Or
How did culture play an important role in creating the idea of the nation in Europe ? Explain with examples. [CBSE 2013]
                            Or
Describe the role of culture in shaping the feeling of nationalism in Europe from 1830 to the end of the 19th century. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation : art and poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist feelings. Romanticism helped in developing a particular form of nationalist sentiments.
(1) Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of reason and science.
(2) They focused on emotions, intuition and mystical feelings in order to create a sense of a shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.
(3) German philosopher Johann Gottfried tried to popularise the true spirit of the nation through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances.
(4) The emphasis on Vernacular language and the collection of local folklore was to recover an ancient national spirit and to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate.
(5) In Poland which had been partitioned by the Great Powers, national feelings were kept alive through music and language. Karol Kurpinski celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.
(6) Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments.

1. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere.
2.  In 1831 an armed rebellion against Russian rule was crushed.
3. After this many members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance.
4.  Polish was used for church gatherings and all instructions. The use of Polish came to be seen as symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance.
5. As a result of it a large number of priests and bishops were put in jail or sent to Siberia by the Russian authorities as punishment. But the use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance.

Question 15.
“The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe.” Support that statement with arguments. [CBSE 2016]
                      Or
Why was the decade of 1830s known as the great economic hardship in Europe ? Explain any three reasons. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The 1830s were the years of great economic hardship in Europe due to the following reasons :

1. There was enormous increase in population all over Europe.
2. There were more seekers of jobs than employment.
3. People migrated from rural areas to the cities to live in overcrowded slums.
4. There was stiff competition between the products of small producers and products imported from England where goods were made by machines as industrialisation had already taken place there.
5. Peasants’ condition was bad due to burden of feudal dues and obligations.
6. The prices of food had risen due to bad harvest. This had resulted in widespread pauperism in town and country.

Question 16.
What were the causes and effects of Revolution of 1848 in France ?
Answer:
(1) Causes :

1. In Europe the 1830s were years of great economic hardship.
2. In 1848 too there were food shortages and widespread unemployment. As a result of it, the population of Paris demonstrated. Barricades were erected.

(2) Results :

1. Louis Philippe abdicated the throne.
2. France became a Republic.
3. Suffrage was granted to all adult males above 21 years.
4. Right to work was guaranteed.
5. National workshops to provide employment were set up.
   Thus, another revolution had taken place in France which changed the government from monarchy to a republic.

Question 17.
Describe the cause of the Silesian weavers’ uprising. What were its results ?
Answer:
(1) Cause of the Silesian weavers’ uprising : The cause of the uprising was the exploitation of the weavers by the contractors. They had reduced the payments to the weavers for the goods they ordered. There was already widespread unemployment and they were living a life of extreme misery.
(2) Results : A contractor when attacked, tried to get shelter in neighbouring village but failed. He sought the help of army. In the exchange between the army and the weavers, eleven weavers were killed.
(3) Importance : The weavers’ uprising depict the condition of people in the villages. There was extreme poverty and unemployment. People were exploited by rich people. Army also helped them to crush such uprisings or opposition. Thus, the government did not care for the welfare of the poor.

Question 18.
What were the causes for the revolution by the liberals in 1848 ? Describe its events and effects.
Answer:
(1) Causes : The February revolution of 1848 in France had brought about the abdication of the monarch. A republic based on universal male suffrage was proclaimed. This had a effect on the liberal middle classes in other parts of Europe – Germany, Italy, Poland and Austro-Hungarian Empire.
(2) Demands :

1. Liberal middle classes demanded constitutionalism with national unification.
2. They demanded the creation of a nation state on parliamentary principles i.e., a constitution, freedom of the press and freedom of association.

(3) Results : The revolutions of the liberals in 1848 were suppressed by the autocratic- monarchs but even then these revolutions made the monarchs to realise that the old order could not be restored. The autocratic monarchs in the Central and Eastern Europe introduced changes that had taken place in Western Europe before 1815.

1. Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in Habsburg dominions and in Russia.
2. More autonomy was granted to the Hungarians in 1867 by the Habsburg monarchs.
   Dualism was established. Austria-Hungary was to consist of two distinct independent states.Their ruler was known as Emperor in Austria and as King in Hungary, Also see Textbook Question 1(d).

Question 19.
Explain the process of unification of Italy. [CBSE 2013]
                                    Or
Describe the condition of Italy before unification. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
(1) Condition of Italy in the nineteenth century :

1. Italy had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over various dynastic states as well as multi-national Habsburg Empire.
2. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states.
3. Out of these states only Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house.
4. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs.
5. The center was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon Kings of Spain.
6. There was no common language too.

(2) The unification of Italy was completed in various stages :

1. Sardinia-Piedmont defeated Austria in 1859. Modena, Parma and Tuscany were added t to Piedmont.
2. Garibaldi succeeded in South Italy and the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies in 1860 and drove out the Spanish rulers.
3. Austria ceded Venetia to Italy in 1866.
4. In 1870, Rome was taken over as the French soldiers were withdrawn. Rome was made the capital of Italy. Also see Textbook Question 1(a) and 1(5).

Question 20.
How was the history of nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe ?
Answer:
The history of nationalism in Britain was unlike the rest of Europe in the following ways :

1. It was not the result of wars as was in Germany but a long drawn out process.
2. Different ethnic groups – English, Welsh, Scot and Irish had their own cultural and political traditions. But the English nation, in course of time, was able to extend it’s influence over the other nations of the islands due to her wealth, importance and power.
3. As a result of Glorious Revolution in 168874,he English Parliament was the instrument through which a nation state with England as its center, came to be forged.
4. The Act of Union (1707) formed ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’. As the majority of the members of British Parliament were English members, a policy of repression was followed against catholic clans of Scottish Highlands.
5. In Ireland too similar policy was followed. There were Catholics as well as Protestants. Catholic revolts were suppressed and ultimately in 1801, Ireland was incorporated into the United Kingdom.
6. A new ‘British nation’ was forged through the propagation of a dominant English culture. The symbols of the new Britain – the British Flag (Union Jack), the national anthem (God Save Our Noble King), the English language – were actively promoted and the older nations survived only as subordinate partners in this union.

Question 21.
Describe the nature of nationalism in the last quarter of the nineteenth century.
Answer:
The nature of nationalism in the last quarter of the nineteenth century was as mentioned below :

1. It no longer retained its idealistic liberal-democratic sentiment of the first-half of the century but became a narrow creed with limited ends.
2. During this period nationalist groups became increasingly intolerant of each other and ever ready to go to war.
3. The major European powers manipulated the nationalist aspirations of the subject peoples in Europe to further their own imperialist aims.

Question 22.
What was the area of the Balkans ? Why was it the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 ? What was its result ?
Answer:
(1) The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as Slavs.
(2) Causes for being the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe in 1871 were as mentioned below :

1. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. However, with the weakening and disintegration of the Ottoman Empire, the nationalist tensions emerged in the area. Its European subject nationalities broke away and declared their independence.
2. The people of the Balkans argued that they were once independent before the foreign powers controlled them. So their object was to regain their lost independence.
3. Nationalist tensions emerged due to rivalries of the European powers i.e., Russia, England, Germany, Austria-Hungary. All of these powers wanted to have their control due to one reason or the other.
4. Rivalries among the Balkan states — The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other and each one of them wanted to extend her territory at the expense of the others.

(3) Results : Rivalries of the European powers and among the Balkan states led to a series
of wars in the region and finally the First World War.

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CBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture Pdf free download are part of Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science SST Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture.

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Agriculture Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4

QUESTIONS OF 1 MARK

Answers should not exceed 30 words.

Question 1.
What type of country is India -“Agricultural or industrial ? Why ? Give one reason.
Answer:
India is an agricultural country because two-thirds of its population is engaged in agricultural activities. Agriculture is a primary activity, which produces most of the food for people.

Question 2.
What are agro-based industries ? Name any two.
Answer:

1. Agro-based industries are based on agricultural raw materials.
2. The examples are cotton textile and jute.

Question 3.
What is other name of primitive subsistence farming ?
Answer:
It is known as ‘slash and burn’ agriculture.

Question 4.
State any one feature of primitive subsistence agriculture.
Answer:
Primitive subsistence agriculture is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks and family/community labour.

Question 5.
What are the different names of ‘slash and bum’ agriculture in different countries ? Name any two.
Answer:

1. Mexico – Milpa
2. Venzuela – Conuco
3. Brazil – Roca
4. Central Africa -Masole
5. Indonesia – Ladang
6. Vietnam – Ray

Question 6.
State any two names of primitive subsistence farming in India.
Answer:
Bewar, Dahiya, Roman, Valre and Khil.

Question 7.
State any feature of Intensive Subsistence Farming.
Answer:
It is labour intensive farming, where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.

Question 8.
What is the main characteristic of commercial farming ?
Answer:
Use of higher doses of modern inputs i.e., HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity.

Question 9.
State any one example of a crop which may be commercial in one region and may provide subsistence in another region.
Answer:
Rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab but in Orissa, it is a subsistence crop.

Question 10.
Mention any two plantation crops in India.
Answer:
Tea, coffee and rubber.

Question 11.
What is a plantation crop ?
Answer:
In plantation crop, a single crop is grown on a large area. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers.

Question 12.
Mention India’s cropping seasons.
Answer:
India has three cropping seasons e.g., rabi, kharif and zaid.

Question 13.
Which crops are grown in rabi season ?
Answer:
Some important crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.

Question 14.
In which states three crops of paddy are grown ? Which are they ?
Answer:

1. In states like Assam, West Bengal and Orissa three crops of paddy are grown.
2. Three crops are Aus, Aman and Boro.

Question 15.
Which are important kharif crops ?
Answer:
Important kharif crops are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.

Question 16.
When does the zaid season fall ?
Answer:
Zaid season falls in between the rabi and kharif seasons during summer months.

Question 17.
What is the position of rice production of India in the world ?
Answer:
India is the second largest producer of rice in the world after China.

Question 18.
In the areas of less rainfall how does rice grow ?
Answer:
In the areas of less rainfall i.e., less than 100 cm, rice grows with the help of irrigation.

Question 19.
What type of crop is wheat ?
Answer:
It is a cereal crop. It is the main food crop in north and north-western part of India

Question 20.
Which are important wheat-growing zones in India ?
Answer:
There are two important wheat growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-west and black soil region of the Deccan.

Question 21.
Name important millets.
Answer:
Important millets are jowar, bajra and ragi.

Question 22.
Which state is the largest producer of jowar ?
Answer:
Maharashtra is the largest producer of jowar.

Question 23.
What type of soil is required for the growth of bajra ?
Answer:
Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil.

Question 24.
State one feature of ragi.
Answer:
Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils.

Question 25.
State one of features of maize.
Answer:

1. It is a crop which is used both as food and fodder.
2. It is a kharif crop.

Question 26.
What is the position of India in the production of pulses in the world ?
Answer:
India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.

Question 27.
Give one feature of sugarcane.
Answer:

1. Sugarcane is a tropical as well as a subtropical crop.
2. It grows well in hot and humid climate with a temperature of 21 °C to 27 °C and annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm.

Question 28.
Where does India stand in the production of oil seeds ?
Answer:
India is the largest producer of oil seeds in the world.

Question 29.
Which state is the largest producer of groundnut in India ?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of groundnut in India.

Question 30.
Which crop is both a plantation crop as well as a beverage crop ?
Answer:
Tea cultivation is a plantation agriculture. It is also an important beverage crop.

Question 31.
By whom tea was introduced in India ?
Answer:
Tea was introduced in India initially by the British.

Question 32.
Which type of coffee is produced in India ?
Answer:
The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in India.

Question 33.
Where is coffee cultivated ?
Answer:
Coffee cultivation is confined to the Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 34.
Which fruits of India are in great demand in the world market ? Name any two.
Answer:

1. Mangoes of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
2. Bananas of Kerala, Mizoram, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Question 35.
Which are major fibre crops ?
Answer:
Cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk are the four major fibre crops grown in India.

Question 36.
Which fibre is known as golden fibre ?
Answer:
Jute.

Question 37.
What strategies were adopted by the government to improve the Indian agriculture in the 1960s and 1970s ?
Answer:
The Green Revolution based on the use of package technology and the White Revolution (Operation Flood) were initiated to improve the lot of Indian agriculture.

Question 38.
Name any two schemes introduced by the government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
Answer:

1. Kissan Credit Card.
2. Personal Accident Insurance Scheme.

Question 39.
Who was declared by Mahatma Gandhi as his spiritual heir ?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir.

Question 40.
Who started Bhoodan ? What was its aim ?
Answer:

1. Vinoba Bhave.
2. Its aim was to give land to landless villagers.

Question 41.
Why is the agriculture considered the backbone of Indian economy ? Give any one reason.
Answer:
Agriculture is considered as the backbone of Indian economy because its share in providing employment and livelihood to the population was 63 per cent in 2001.

QUESTIONS OF 3/5 MARKS

Answers should he in about 80/100 words.

Question 1.
How is ‘slash and bum’ agriculture practiced ? What are its main features ? How is it known in different parts of the country ?
Answer:
(1) The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is practiced as mentioned below :

1. Under this system, farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family.
2. As the fertility of the soil decreases, the land is abandoned.
3. The farmers move to new areas and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation.
4.  It is known as ‘shifting agriculture’.
5. The shifting of farmers to new area allows nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes.
6. As farmers do not use fertilisers and high yielding variety of seeds, the land productivity is low.

(2) It is known in different parts of the country and the world as follows :

1. Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland -Jhumming
2. Manipur – Pamlou _
3. Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands — Dipa
4. Madhya Pradesh – Bewar or Dahiya
5. Andhra Pradesh – Podu or Penda
6. Orissa – Pama Dabi or Roman or Bringa
7. Western Ghats – Kumari
8. South-eastern Rajasthan — Valre or Walter
9. Himalayan belt – Khil
10. harkhand – Kuruwa.

Question 2.
Distinguish between primitive subsistence farming and intensive subsistence farming.
Answer:
Primitive subsistence farming

1. This type of farming is still practiced in few pockets of India.
2. It is practiced on small patches of land, with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks and family/ community labour.
3. This type of farming depends upon monsoon.
4. It depends on the natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown. The farmers do not use fertilisers or other modern inputs.
5. There is no pressure on agricultural land.

Intensive subsistence farming

1. This type of farming is practiced in areas of high population pressure on land.
2.  It is labour intensive farming, where high doses of bio-chemical inputs are used for obtaining higher production.
3. Irrigation is used in this type of farming.
4. It does not depend on the natural fertility of the soil instead bio-chemical inputs are used.
5. There is enormous pressure on agricultural land because the farmers continue to take maximum output from the limited land in the absence of alternative source of livelihood.

Question 3.
What is the ‘right of inheritance’ ? What are its consequences ?
Answer:
(1) Under the ‘right of inheritance’ the land is divided among successive generations.
(2) Its consequences are as mentioned below :

1. Land-holding size becomes small and uneconomical.
2. The farmers take maximum output from the limited land in the absence of alternative source of livelihood.
3. There is enormous pressure on agricultural land.

Question 4.
What is commercial farming ? Describe its main features.
Answer:
(1) In commercial farming crops are grown and animals are reared for sale in the market, that is for commercial purposes.
(2) Main features of commercial farming are as mentioned below :

1. It is practiced on large patches of land.
2. High yielding variety seeds, chemical fertiUsers, insecticides and pesticides are used to obtain higher productivity.
3. Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tube wells have made possible to grow rice a commercial crop – in areas of less rainfall as Punjab and Haryana.
4. Wheat, cotton, rice are grown on commercial basis.
5. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In India tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc. are plantation crops.

Question 5.
Why is subsistence agriculture still practiced in certain parts of the country ? Give reasons.
Answer:
Subsistence agriculture is still practiced in certain parts of the country due to the reasons as mentioned below :

1. Small pieces of land : In some parts of the country, the farmers have only small patches of land where they do farming with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family labour.
2. Poverty : Small farmers are poor. They cannot use fertilisers and high yielding variety of seeds.
3. Lack of irrigation facilities : In some parts irrigation facilities are not available to the farmers. The farming still depends upon monsoon. In such situation they can produce only what they need.
4. Fertility of the soil: At places where the soil is not fertile, only subsistence agriculture can be practiced. Thus the farmers are compelled to produce to sustain their family.

Question 6.
Describe the features of plantation agriculture.
Answer:

1. Plantation is a type of commercial farming.
2. It is known as bush or tree farming.
3. It is a single crop farming because a single crop is grown on a large area.
4. It is a capital intensive agriculture.
5. The produce is used as raw material in respective industries.
6. It needs good managerial ability, technical know-how, sophisticated machinery, fertilisers, irrigation, transport facilities and communication network.
7. Tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana are important plantation crops.
8. Some plantations like tea, coffee and rubber have a processing factory within the farm itself or close to it.
9. Since the production is mainly for the market, a well-developed network of transport and communication is necessary to connect the plantation areas, processing industries and markets in the development of plantations.
10. Tea is an important plantation crop in Assam and North Bengal while coffee is grown in Karnataka.

Question 7.
What are rabi crops ? In which period of the year are they sown and harvested in India ? [CBSE 2017]
Answer:

1. Rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
2. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December. These are harvested in
   summer from April to June.

Question 8.
In which season are rabi crops grown in India ? What are necessary conditions for its growth ? ,
Answer:
(1)

1. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December.
2. Crops are harvested in summer from April June.

(2) Necessary conditions for growth of these crops are as mentioned below :

1. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones help in the success of these crops.
2. The success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of rabi crops.

Question 9.
Which are important kharif crops ? When are these crops grown and where ?
Answer:

1. Paddy (rice), maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean are important kharif crops.
2. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsson and harvested in September October.
3. These crops are grown in different parts of the country in 80 per cent of net sown area.
4. Some of the important rice-growing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.
5. At present, paddy has become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana.
6. In states like Assam and West Bengal and Orissa, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro.

Question 10.
What is the period of zaid season ? Which crops are grown in this season ?
Answer:

1. The period of the zaid season is in between the rabi and the kharif seasons.
2. It is a very short season.
3. Crops produced during zaid season are watermelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.
4. Sugarcane takes almost a year to grow.

Question 11.
State the geographical conditions required for the cultivation of rice in India. Name the regions where rice is grown.
Answer:
Geographical conditions for the cultivation of rice and regions where it is grown are given below :

1. It is a Kharif crop.
2. It requires high temperature (above 25 °C) and high humidity.
3. It requires rainfall above 100 cm annually.
4. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.
5. Rice is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.
6. Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tube wells have made possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall such as Haryana, Punjab and western UP and parts of Rajasthan.

Question 12.
Describe the geographical conditions required for the cultivation of wheat in India. Mention the regions where it is grown.
Answer:
The geographical conditions for the cultivation of wheat and the regions where it is grown are given below :

1. Wheat is a Rabi crop.
2. It requires a cool growing season and a bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
3. It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall.
4. Rain must be evenly distributed over the growing season.
5. Two important wheat growing zones in the country are the Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-west and black soil region of the Deccan..
6. Major wheat producing states are Punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
7. It is the main food crop in north and north-western part of the country.

Question 13.
Give a brief description of millets grown in India with their climatic conditions and producing states.
Answer:

1. Millets grown in India are jowar, bajra and ragi.
2. These are coarse grains but have great nutritional value e.g., ragi is very rich in iron, calcium, other micro-nutrients and roughage.
3. Their climatic conditions and the states producing them are given below :

(1) Jowar :

1. Jowar is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in the moist areas,
2.  It is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production,
3. Maharashtra is the largest producer of jowar. It is also produced in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

(2) Bajra :

1. Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil,
2. Rajasthan is the largest producer of Bajra, followed by Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana.

(3) Ragi:

1. Ragi is grown in dry regions,
2. It grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils,
3. Its largest producer is Karnataka followed by Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 14.
Mention any two geographical conditions required for the growth of maize crops in India. Describe any three factors which have contributed to increase the maize production. [CBSE 2016-17]
                                                                  Or
Give a brief description of the maize crop in India.
Answer:

1. Maize is used both as food and fodder.
2. It is a kharif crop.
3.  It requires temperature between 21 °C to 27 °C.
4.  It grows well in old alluvial soil.
5. In Bihar, it is also grown in rabi season also.
6. Use of HYV (High Yielding Variety) seeds, fertilisers and irrigation have increased its production.
7. The maize producing states are Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 15.
What is the importance of pulses in our economy ? Why are pulses grown as a rotation crop ?
Answer:

1. India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.
2. Pulses are the major source of protein in a vegetarian diet.
3. Major pulses grown are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas and gram.
4. Major pulses producing states are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
5. Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. Thus, these are grown all over the country.
6. Pulses are leguminous crops and therefore, help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. These are, therefore, grown in rotation with other crops. In view of the above the importance of pulses in Indian agriculture is significant.

Question 16.
Describe any four geographical conditions required for the growth of sugarcane. [CBSE 2016-17]
                                                     Or
What are the uses of sugarcane ? What is Ipdia’s position in the world ?
                                                     Or
Name any two sugarcane producing states of north India. [CBSE 2016-17]
Answer:
(1) The following geographical conditions are required for the cultivation of sugarcane :

1. It is a tropical as well as subtropical crop.
2. It grows well in hot and humid climate with a temperature of 21 °C to 27 °C.
3. It requires an annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm. In areas of less rainfall, it requires irrigation.
4. It can be grown on a variety of soils.
5. It needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting and is a long duration crop.

(2) The major sugarcane producing states are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.
(3) It is the main source of sugar, gur (jaggary), khandsari and molasses.
(4) India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after Brazil.

Question 17.
Which are the oil-seeds produced in India ? What is India’s position in production of oil-seeds in the world ? What are the uses of oil-seeds ?
Answer:
(1) Oil-seeds produced in India are groundnut, mustard, coconut, sesamum (til), soyabean, sunflower, castor seeds, cotton seeds and linseed.
(2)

1. India is the largest producer of oil-seeds in the world.
2. Oil seeds are grown covering approximately 12 per cent of the total cropped area of the country.

(3) Uses :

1. Most of the oil-seeds are edible and used as cooking mediums.
2. Some are used as raw material in the production of soap, cosmetics and ointments.

Question 18.
Distribute oil-seeds into Rabi and Kharif crops. Also mention their producing states.
Answer:
(1)

1. Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oil-seeds produced in the country.
2. Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of groundnut followed by Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujarat and Maharashtra.

(2) Linseed and mustard are rabi crops.
(3) Sesamum is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India.
(4) Castor seed is grown both as rabi and kharif crop.

Question 19.
Give a brief description of coffee production in India.
Answer:

1. India produces about four per cent of the total coffee produced in the world.
2. The Arabica variety brought from Yemen is produced in our country.
3. Indian coffee is known for its quality and, hence, is in much demand in the international market. It brings in a lot of foreign exchange.
4. In the beginning, its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills and is still confined to the Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 20.
Which are horticulture crops ? Where are they produced ? What is the position of India in the world regarding production of fruits and vegetables ?
Answer:
(1) Horticulture crops consist of fruits and vegetables,

• India is the largest producer in the world.
• India is a producer of tropical as well as temperate fruits.
• It produces 13 per cent of world’s vegetables.

(2) The main fruits and vegetables produced in India are as given below :
1.
Fruits : Mangoes, oranges, bananas, lichi, guaVa, pineapples, grapes, apples, pears, apricots and walnuts.
Vegetables : Pea, cauliflower, onion, cabbage, tomato, brinjal and potato.

2. Fruits are produced in the following states :

1. Mangoes : Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
2. Oranges : Nagpur and Cherrapunjee (Meghalaya).
3. Bananas : Kerala, Mizoram, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
4. Lichi and guava : Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
5. Pineapples: Meghalaya.
6. Grapes : Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.
7. Apples, pears, apricots and walnuts : Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh. These are in great demand the world over.

Question 21.
Explain rubber cultivation in India under the following heads :
(A) Importance
(B) Geographical conditions
(C) Any two rubber producing states.
                                                     Or
Describe the climate required for the growth of rubber. Where is it grown and what are its uses ?
Answer:
(1) Importance :

1. Rubber is an important industrial raw material.
2. It is consumed for making various things as mentioned below :
   1. Auto tyres and tubes – 44.5%
   2. Cycle tyres and tubes – 13.3%
   3. Footwear – 11.2%
   4. Camel back – 6.0%
   5. Belts and hoses – 5.1%
   6. Latex foam – 6.1%
   7. Others -13.8%

(2) Geographical conditions required for the growth of rubber are as given below :

1. Rubber is an equatorial crop but it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas.
2. It requires moist and humid climate.
3. It needs rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25 °C.

(3)

1. It is grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Garo hills of Meghalaya.
2.  India ranks fifth among the natural rubber producers in the world.

Question 21.
Name the four fibre crops grown in India. Which one of them is not obtained directly from the crops ? What is the name given to the process involved in its production ? What is sericulture ?
Ans.

1. Four fibre crops grown in India are cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk.
2. The first three i.e., cotton, jute and hemp are derived from the crops grown in the soil. Natural silk is obtained from the cocoons of the silkworms fed of green leaves specially mulberry.
3. Sericulture : Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fiber is known as sericulture.

Question 23.
Describe geographical conditions for the growth of cotton. What are the uses of cotton ? Which are cotton producing states ? What is the position of India in cotton production in the world ?
Answer:
(1) Geographical conditions for the growth-qf cotton are as mentioned below :

1. It requires high temperature.
2. It requires light rainfall or irrigation.
3. It needs 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth.
4. It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature.
5. It requires a lot of cheap and efficient labour at the time of plucking of cotton balls.
6. Cotton grows well in drier parts of black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau.

(2) Uses of cotton : Cotton is one of the main raw materials for cotton textile industry.
(3)

1. Major cotton producing states are Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
2. India is believed to be the original home of the cotton plant. India is the second largest producer of cotton in the world.

Question 24.
Which crop is known as the golden fibre ? Explain any two geographical conditions essential for the cultivation of this crop. Mention any four uses of it.
Answer:

1. Jute is known as the ‘golden fibre’.
2. Geographical conditions essential for the cultivation of jute are as mentioned below :
   1. Soil : It requires well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
   2. Temperature : High temperature is needed during the time of growth.
3. Jute producing states : West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Orissa and Meghalaya.
4. Uses of Jute : It is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefact’s.
5. However, due to its high cost it is loosing market to synthetic fibres and packing materials, particularly the nylon.

Question 25.
How did the partition of the country in 1947 affect the jute industry ?
Answer:

1. Jute is also known as the golden fibre,
2. It grows well on well drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year,
3. Jute requires high temperature duare ring the time of its growth,
4. With the partition of the country, in 1947 three-fourth of the jute producing area as mentioned above went to Bangladesh (erstwhile east Pakistan). As a result of it, only one-fourth area was left in India. Although the mills were in India but jute industry was affected due to lack of raw material producing area.

Question 26.
Explain any three steps for agricultural reforms taken by the Government of India, after the independence.
[CBSE 2016-17]
                                                       Or
Describe any five technological and institutional reforms initiated to improve the standard of agricultural in India.
[CBSE 2016-17]
Answer:
See Textbook Question 2(3).

Question 27.
Describe the main features of Bhoodan-Gramdan.
Answer:
Main features of Bhoodan-Gramdan are as mentioned below :

1. Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir.
2. Vinoba Bhave was one of the votaries of Gandhi’s concept of gram swarajya,
3. After Gandhi, he undertook padyatra to spread Gandhiji’s message in the country.
4. During his padyatra in Andhra Pradesh, poor landless villagers demanded some land
   for their economic well-being.
5. He promised them to talk to the government but suddenly one Shri Ramchandra Reddy offered 80 acres of land to be distributed among 80 landless villagers.
6. This was the beginning of ‘Bhoodan’.
7. Thereafter, some zamindars owners of many villages offered to distribute some villages among the landless. Thus Bhoodan became Gramdan.
8. It may be added that some land-owilfers chose to give some part of their land to the poor farmers due to the fear of land ceiling act.
9. This Bhoodan-Gramdan movement is also known as Blood-less Revolution.

Question 28.
Why has the agriculture sector in India got a major set hack in sprite of increase in GDP growth rate ? Analyse the reasons.
Answer:

1. Agriculture has been the backbone of the Indian economy though its share in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has registered a declining trend from 1951 onwards.
2. Its share in providing employment and livelihood to the population continues to be as high as 63 per cent in 2001.
3. See the table given below :

From above table it is clear that though the GDP growth is increasing over the years, it is not generating sufficient employment opportunities.
Secondly the growth rate in agriculture is decelerating which is an alarming situation. The reasons for this state of affairs are as mentioned below :

1. Indian farmers are facing a big challenge from international competition.
2. The government is reducing public investment in agriculture sector particularly in irrigation, power, rural roads, market and mechanisation.
3. Subsidy on fertilisers is decreased leading to increase in the cost of production.
4. Reduction in import duties on agricultural products have proved harmful to agriculture.
5. Farmers are withdrawing their investment from agriculture causing a downfall in the
   employment in agriculture.

Question 29.
Describe the steps taken by the government to control the declining share of agriculture in the GDP.
Answer:
The government took the following steps to improve the share of agriculture in the GDP :

1. Efforts were made to modernise agriculture by establishment of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), agricultural universities, veterinary services, animal breeding centers, horticulture development, research and development in the field of meteorology and weather forecast.
2. Efforts were made for improving the rural infrastructure.

Question 30.
“Today Indian agriculture finds itself at the crossroads.” Explain and suggest steps that should be taken to improve the condition.
Answer:
After 1990, the farmers in India have faced new challenges. For example in spite of being an important producer of rice, cotton, rubber, tea, coffee, jute and spices, our agricultural products are not able to compete with the developed countries because of the highly subsidised agriculture in those countries.
Thus to make agriculture successful, the steps should be taken as mentioned below :

1. Organic farming should be enocouraged.
2. Farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously because fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, biodiesel crops (jat ropha) need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane.
3. India’s diverse climate can be harnessed to grow a wide range of high value crops.

MAP QUESTIONS

Question 1.
On an outline map of India show the rice and wheat producing areas.
Answer:

(1) Rice producing areas are plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions. In Punjab, Haryana and western UP, it needs irrigation.

(2) Wheat producing areas are the Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-west and black soil region of the Deccan i.e., the states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
See map given below :

Question 2.
Four features with serial number 1 to 4 are marked in the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.
1. A major wheat producing state. 9. A major rice producing state.
3. A minor rice producing state. 4. Largest producer of Jowar.
Answer:
1. Punjab 2. Bihar 3. Haryana 4. Maharashtra.
See map given below :

We hope the Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture help you. If you have any query regarding Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

In this page, we are providing Carbon and its Compounds Class 10 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams.

Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Carbon and its Compounds

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Draw the electron dot notation of O₂ molecule.
Answer:

Question 2.
Name a molecule that has triple bond.
Answer:
Nitrogen (N₂).

Question 3.
Name the hardest substance which is an allotrope of carbon.
Answer:
Diamond.

Question 4.
Name the allotrope of carbon which have the structure of C-60.
Answer:
Fullerenes.

5. Name the unique ability of carbon to form bonds with other atoms of carbon.
Answer:
Catenation.

Question 6.
Mention the two characteristic features seen in carbon.
Answer:
Tetravalency and catenation.

Question 7.
Name the first organic compound synthesised by Wohler.
Answer:
Urea.

Question 8.
Write the general molecular formula of alkane series.
Answer:
C_nH_2n+2

Question 9.
Write the IUPAC name of the following compound:
CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂—C ≡ C—H
Answer:
Hex-1-yne.

Hex adder calculator is an effcient tool for adding two hex values. Similarly, Hex calculator can easily calculate two given values.

Question 10.
Identify the functional group present in the following compound:

Answer:
Aldehyde.

Question 11.
How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane, C₂H₆?
Answer:
Seven (7)

Question 12.
Draw the structure of the hexanal molecule, C₅H₁₁CHO.
Answer:

Question 13.
Write the name and formula of the 2^nd member of homologous series having general formula C_nH_2n.  [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
C_nH_2n : Alkene
2^nd member = C₃H₆ (propene)

Question 14.
Write the molecular formula of an alkyne containing 10 atoms of hydrogen.
Answer:
C₆H₁₀.

Question 15.
Why is ethanoic acid known as glacial acetic acid?
Answer:
Acetic acid freezes at 290 K to form crystals which look like glaciers, so pure ethanoic acid is known as glacial acetic acid.

Question 16.
Which property of ethanol makes it suitable for preparing medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrup and other tonics?
Answer:
Ethanol is a good solvent.

Question 17.
What is the function of cone. H₂SO₄ in the formation of ethene from ethanol?
Answer:
Dehydrating agent

Question 18.
Name the alcohol which is an active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks.
Answer:
Ethanol or ethyl alcohol (C₂H₅OH)

Question 19.
Which two of the following compounds could belong to the same homologous series?
C₂H₆O₂, C₂H₆O, C₃H₂₈, CH₄O
Answer:
CH₄O and C₂H₆O (General formula C_nH_2n+1. OH)

Question 20.
Which of the following molecule is called buckminsterfullerene?
C₉₀, C₆₀, C₇₀, C₁₂₀
Answer:
C₆₀.

Question 21.
Name the gas evolved when sodium carbonate and bicarbonate is added to ethanoic acid.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

Question 22.
Among CH₄, C₂H₆ and C₄H₁₀ which is expected to show isomerism?
Answer:
C₄H₁₀.

Question 23.
Write the structural formula of a saturated hydrocarbon whose molecule contains three atoms of carbon.
Answer:
C₃H₈.

Question 24.
A neutral organic compound is warmed with some ethanoic acid and a little cone. H₂SO₄. Vapours having sweet smell or fruity smell are observed. Identify the functional group present in the organic compound.
Answer:

Question 25.
Name the oxidising agent which can oxidise ethanol to ethanoic acid.
Answer:
Alkaline potassium permanganate (KMnO₄/KOH) or acidified potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄).

Question 26.
Write the formula and name of next homologue of CH₃COCH₃.
Answer:
CH₃CH₂COCH₃, Butanone.

Question 27.
Why do alkanes burn with a blue flame?
Answer:
Alkanes generally burn with a blue flame or clean flame because the combustion is complete and no unbumt carbon particles are released.

Question 28.
Draw the structure of an unsaturated cyclic compound having six carbon atoms. Also draw its electron dot structure. (Cyclohexene)
Answer:

Question 29.
How do the melting and boiling points of the hydrocarbons change with increase in molar mass?
Answer:
Intermolecular forces of attraction increases due to increase in molar mass, hence the melting and boiling points increase.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Short Answer Type I

Question 1.
Draw the electron dot structure of ethyne and also draw its structural formula.   [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Ethyne, C₂H₂

Question 2.
Name the functional groups present in the following compounds:
(a) CH₃ CO CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ CH₃
(b) CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ COOH
(c) CH₃ CH₂ OH   (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
(a) Ketone
(b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Aldehyde
(d) Alcohol

Question 3.
Which of the following hydrocarbons can undergo addition reactions:
C₂H₆, C₄H₁₀, C₃H₆, C₃H₄, CH₄, C₂H₂, C₄H₈
Answer:
C₃H₆, C₃H₄, C₂H₂ and C₄H₈ because these compounds are unsaturated organic compounds and hence can undergo addition reactions.

Question 4.
Draw the electron dot structure of O₂ and N₂ molecules.
Answer:

Question 5.
Give the general formula of alkanes. Write the name, structural formula and physical state of the compound containing:
(i) 3-carbon atoms
(ii) 8-carbon atoms.
Answer:
(a) General formula of alkanes is C_nH_2n+2
n = 1, 2, 3…
(i) Propane, CH₃—CH₂—CH₃
or

Propane is a gas.

(ii) CH₃—CH₂—CH₂—CH₂—CH₂—CH₂—CH₂—CH₃
or

Octane is a liquid

Question 6.
Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?
Answer:
Carbon atoms have 4 valence electrons in their valence shell, it needs to gain or lose 4 electrons to attain the noble gas configuration.

(i) It could gain four electrons forming C^4- anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold on to ten electrons.

(ii) It could lose four electrons forming C⁴⁺ cation. But it would require a large amount of energy to remove four electrons from its outermost shell.
Therefore, carbon shares its valence electrons to complete its octet with other atoms to form covalent bonds.

Question 7.
List the common physical properties of carbon compounds.
Answer:

• They have covalent bonds between their atoms therefore they do not form ions. So they are poor conductors of electric current.
• These compounds have low melting and low boiling points.
• They are generally insoluble in water but soluble in the organic solvents like ether, carbon- tetrachloride, etc.

Question 8.
Draw the structures of diamond and graphite.
Answer:
In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms forming a rigid three dimensional structure.

In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same plane giving a hexagonal array. One of these bonds is a double bond.

Question 9.
Write the general IUPAC names of alcohol, carboxylic acid, aldehyde and ketone.
Answer:

Question 10.
Ethane , Ethene, Ethanoic acid, Ethyne, Ethanol
From the box given above, name:
(i) The compound with —OH as a part of its structure.
(ii) The compound with —COOH as a part of its structure.
(iii) Gas used in welding.
(iv) Homologue of the homologous series with general formula C_nH_2n+2.
Answer:
(i) Ethanol
(ii) Ethanoic acid
(iii) Ethyne
(iv) Ethane

Question 11.
Give two uses each of methyl alcohol and ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Uses of ethyl alcohol:

• It is used in the manufacture of dyes, perfumes, antiseptics, etc.
• It is used in alcoholic drinks.

Uses of methyl alcohol:

• It is used as a solvent
• It is used as an antifreeze

Question 12.
List two main points of difference between organic and inorganic compound.
Answer:
Organic compounds:

1. They are made up of few elements (C, H, O, N, S) through covalent bonds.
2. They are combustible.

Inorganic compounds:

1. They are made up of all the known elements, which involve ionic bond.
2. They are generally non-combustible.

Question 13.
What are substitution reactions? Justify your answer with a suitable example.
Answer:
A chemical reaction in which atom(s) or group of atoms of an organic compound is/are replaced by other atom(s) or group of atoms without any change in the rest of the molecule is called a substitution reaction.
For example,
CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + HCl
In this chemical reaction Cl atom substitutes one hydrogen atom from methane.

Question 14.
Give any four uses of ethanoic acid.
Answer:

1. Ethanoic acid is used in making synthetic vinegar.
2. Ethanoic acid is used as a reagent in chemistry laboratory.
3. Ethanoic acid is used for making dyes, perfumes and esters.
4. Ehanoic acid is used for coagulating rubber from latex and casein from milk.

Question 15.
List four differences between soaps and detergents.
Answer:
Soaps:

1. Soaps are sodium salts of higher fatty acids.
2. Biodegradable.
3. Soaps cannot be used in acidic medium.
4. Soaps cannot be used in hard water.

Synthetic Detergents:

1. Detergents are sodium alkyl sulphates or sodium alkyl benzene sulphonates with alkyl group having more than ten carbon atoms.
2. Non-biodegradable.
3. They can be used in acidic medium.
4. Detergents can be used even in hard water.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Short Answer Type II

Question 1.
What is the role of metal or reagents written on arrow’s in the given chemical reactions?

[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Ni acts as a catalyst.
(b) Concentrated H₂SO₄ acts as a catalyst.
(c) Alkaline KMnO₄ acts as an oxidising agent.

Question 2.
The molecular formula of an organic compound X is C₂H₄O₂ which has vinegar like smell.
(i) Identify the compound.
(ii) Write its chemical formula and name.
(iii) What happens when sodium bicarbonate is added into it?
Answer:
(i) The organic compound X is acetic acid.
(ii) Chemical formula: CH₃COOH
IUPAC name: Ethanoic acid
(iii) Ethanoic acid produces effervescence with sodium bicarbonate liberating carbon dioxide gas.

Question 3.
Write one chemical equation to represent each of the following types of reactions of organic substances.
(a) Esterification
(b) Saponification
(c) Substitution   [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
(a) Esterification. Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid on warming in presence of a few drops of conc. H₂SO₄ to form a sweet smelling ester, ethyl ethanoate.

(b) Saponification. The alkaline hydrolysis of esters is known as saponification as this reaction is used for the preparation of soaps.

(c) Substitution. The reaction, in which one (or more) hydrogen atoms of a hydrocarbon are replaced by some other atoms, is called substitution reaction.

4. Write chemical equations for what happens when
(a) Sodium metal is added to ethanoic acid
(b) Solid sodium carbonate is added to ethanoic acid
(c) Ethanoic acid reacts with a dilute solution of sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
(a) 2Na + 2CH₃COOH → 2CH₃COONa + H₂(g)
(b) Na₂CO₃ + 2CH₃COOH → 2CH₃COONa + CO₂ (g)+ H₂O
(c) CH₃COOH + NaOH → CH₃COONa + H₂O

Question 5.
Name the oxidising agent used for the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid. Distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid on the basis of (i) litmus test, (ii) reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Answer:
Alkaline KMnO₄ or acidified potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇) are used for the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid.
Ethanol:

• Ethanol has no effect on red or blue litmus solution.
• No gas evolved when ethanol is treated with sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Ethanoic acid:

• Ethanoic acid turns blue litmus solution red.
• Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate to evolve carbon dioxide along with the formation of salt and water.
  CH₃COOH + NaHCO₃ → CH₃COONa + CO₂ + H₂O

Question 6.
(a) Differentiate between alkanes and alkenes. Name and draw the structure of one member of each.  [CBSE 2013]
(b) Alkanes generally burn with clean flame. Why?
Answer:
Alkanes:

1. An alkane is a hydrocarbon in which the carbon atoms are connected by only single covalent bond.
2. General formula of alkane is C_nH_2n+2.
3. The simplest alkane is methane (CH₄).
   
4. Alkanes generally burn in air with a blue and non-sooty flame.
5. Alkanes undergo substitution reactions.
6. Alkanes do not decolourise red brown colour of bromine water.

alkenes:

1. An alkene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon in which the two carbon atoms are connected by a double bond.
2. General formula of alkene is C_nH_2n.
3. The simplest alkene is ethene (C₂H₄).
   
4. Alkenes burn in air with a yellow and sooty flame.
5. Alkenes undergo addition reactions.
6. Alkenes decolourise bromine water.

(b) Alkanes burn in air with a blue and non-sooty flame because the percentage of carbon in the alkane is comparatively low which gets oxidised completely by oxygen present in air.

Question 7.
What happens when
(а) ethanol is burnt in air?
(b) ethanol is heated with excess cone. H₂SO₄ at 443 K?
(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
(a) C₂H₅OH + 3O₂ → 2CO₂ + 3H₂O + Heat + Light

(c) 2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂(g)

Question 8.
What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the general formula of
(i) alkenes, and
(ii) alkynes. Draw the structures of the first member of each series to show the bonding between the two carbon atoms.   [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Homologous series:
A series of carbon compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for hydrogen on a carbon chain is called a homologous series. There is a difference of –CH₂ in the molecular formulae of two nearest compounds of a homologous series. Each such series has same general molecular formula and has a general scientific name. There is a difference of 14 u (unified mass) in the molecular masses of two nearest compounds of a series.

Members of homologous series of aldehydes:
H – CHO Methanal
CH₃ – CHO Ethanal
C₂H₅ – CHO Propanal

General formula:
(i) Alkenes, C_nH_2n
(ii) Alkynes, CnH_2n-2

Structure:

• The first member of alkenes is ethene and its structure is
  
• The first member of alkynes is ethyne and its structure is H—C ≡ C—H

Question 9.
With the help of an example, explain the process of hydrogenation.
Mention the essential conditions for the reaction and state the change in physical property with the formation of the product.   [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Process of hydrogenation:

The addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon to obtain a saturated hydrocarbon is called hydrogenation.

Essential conditions for the reaction are:

• Presence of an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
• Presence of a catalyst such as nickel (Ni) or palladium.

Changes observed:

• Change observed in the physical property is the change of unsaturated compound from the liquid state to saturated compound in the solid state.
• The boiling or melting points of a product is increased.

Question 10.
The list of some organic compounds is given below:
Ethanol, ethane, methanol, methane, ethyne, ethene
From the above list, name a compound:
(i) formed by the dehydration of ethanol by conc. H₂SO₄.
(ii) which will give red precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride solutions,
(iii) which forms ethanoic acid on oxidation with KMnO₄.
(iv ) which has vapour density 14 and decolourises pink alkaline potassium permanganate.
(v) which forms chloroform on halogenation in the presence of sunlight.
(vi) which decolourises bromine solution in carbon tetrachloride.
Answer:
(i) Ethene
(ii) Ethyne
(iii) Ethanol
(iv) Ethene
(v) Methane
(vi) Ethene

Question 11.
The molecule of alkene family are represented by a general formula C_nH_2n. Now answer the following:
(i) What do n and 2n signify?
(ii) What is the name of alkene when n = 4?
(iii) What is the molecular formula of alkene when n = 6?
(iv) What is the molecular formula of the alkene if there are six H-atoms in it?
(v) What is the molecular formula and structural formula of the first member of the alkene family?
(vi) Write the molecular formulae of lower and higher homologues of an alkene which contains four carbon atoms.
Answer:
(i) n indicates number of carbon atoms and 2n indicates number of hydrogen atoms.
(ii) Butene
(iii) C₆H₁₂
(iv) C₃H₆

(vi) Lower homologue —C₃H₁₆, Higher homologue – C₅H₁₀

Question 12.
Copy and complete the following table which relates to three homologous series of hydrocarbons:

Answer:

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Write the names of the following compounds:(a) Pentanoic acid (c) Heptanal (e) Methyl ethanoate

Answer:
(a) Pentanoic acid
(b) But-l-yne or Butyne
(c) Heptanal
(d) Pentanol
(e) Methyl ethanoate

Question 2.
(а) What are hydrocarbons? Give examples.
(b) Give the structural differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons with two examples
(c) What is a functional group? Give examples of four different functional groups. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Hydrocarbons are compounds of carbon and hydrogen. For example, ethane, ethene, benzene, etc.

(b) Saturated compounds are saturated by means of number of bonds or they contains only single bonds. For example,
CH₃—CH₃ (ethane), CH₃CH₂CH₃ (propane)
Unsaturated hydrocarbon contains multiple bonds (C=C or C≡C)
For example, CH≡CH (ethyne) and CH₂=CH₂ (ethene).

(c) Functional group is an atom or group of atoms which imparts certain characteristic properties to the organic compound.

Question 3.
(a) Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions of organic compounds.
(b) With a labelled diagram describe an activity to show the formation of an ester.
Answer:
(a) Esterification:
When carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in the presence of a little concentrated sulphuric acid to form ester, the reaction is called esterification.

Saponification:
When an ester is heated with sodium hydroxide solution then the esters get hydrolysed to form alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid. This alkaline hydrolysis of esters is known as saponification as it is used in the preparation of soap.

(b) Activity to show the formation of an ester:

1. 1 ml ethanol and 1 mL glacial acetic acid along with a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid are taken in a test tube.
2. The mixture is allowed to warm in a water-bath for at least five minutes.
3. The hot mixture of the test tube is poured into a beaker containing 20-50 ml of water.
4. A sweet smelling substance called ester is formed.

Question 4.
List in tabular form three physical and two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and ethanoic acid can be differentiated.   (CBSE 2012)
Answer:

Question 5.
Give one example each of:
1. Cracking
2. Hydrogenation
3. Dehydration
4. Substitution reaction
5. Addition reaction.
Answer:
1. Cracking

2. Hydrogenation

3. Dehydration

4. Substitution reaction

5. Addition reaction

Carbon and its Compounds HOTS Questions With Answers

Question 1.
A compound X is formed by the reaction of a carboxylic acid C₂H₄O₂ and an alcohol in presence of a few drops of H₂SO₄. The alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ followed by acidification gives the same carboxylic acid as used in this reaction. Give the names and structures of (a) carboxylic acid, (b) alcohol and (c) the compound X. Also write the reaction.   (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
The available information suggests that the alcohol which gives the same carboxylic acid upon oxidation has two carbon atoms. It is therefore ethanol (C₂H₅OH). The structures of the different compounds are:

Question 2.
Carbon, Group (14) element in the Periodic Table, is known to form compounds with many elements.
Write an example of a compound formed with
(a) chlorine (Group 17 of Periodic Table)
(b) oxygen (Group 16 of Periodic Table)  (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
(a) Carbon tetrachloride (CCl₄)
(b) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

Question 3.
A salt X is formed and a gas is evolved when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate. Name the salt X and the gas evolved. Describe an activity and draw the diagram of the apparatus to prove that the evolved gas is the one which you have named. Also, write chemical equation of the reaction involved.   (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:

X is sodium ethanoate. Gas evolved is carbon dioxide (CO₂).

Activity:

1. Take sodium hydrogen carbonate in a test tube and add 2 ml ethanoic acid in it.
2. Carbon dioxide gas is evolved with brisk effervescence.
3. Pass the gas through lime water, it will turn milky. This shows that the gas evolved is carbon dioxide (CO₂).

Question 4.
A compound C (molecular formula, C₂H₄O₂) reacts with Na metal to form a compound R and evolves a gas which bums with a pop up sound. Compound C on treatment with an alcohol A in presence of an acid forms a sweet smelling compound S (molecular formula, C₃H₆O₂). On addition of NaOH to C, it also gives R and water. S on treatment with NaOH solution gives back R and A.
Identify C, R, A, S and write down the reactions involved.   (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
C – Ethanoic acid
R – Sodium salt of ethanoic acid (sodium acetate) and gas evolved is hydrogen
A – Methanol
S – Ester (Methyl acetate)

Question 5.
Look at figure given on the next page and answer the following questions:
(a) What change would you observe in calcium hydroxide solution taken in test tube B?
(b) Write the reaction involved in test tubes A and B respectively.
(c) If ethanol is given instead of ethanoic acid, would you expect the same change?
(d) How can a solution of lime water be prepared in the laboratory?   (NCERT Exemplar)

Answer:
(a) It will become milky.

(b) In test tube A, ethanoic acid react with sodium carbonate to form sodium ethanoate along with carbon dioxide. The gas is evolved accompanied by brisk effervescence.
CH₃COOH + Na₂CO₃ → CH₃COONa + CO₂ + H₂O

In test tube B, calcium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide to form a milky solution of calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O

(c) No, it would be different. No chemical reaction is possible between ethanol and sodium carbonate.

(d) Lime water is prepared by keeping a suspension of calcium hydroxide overnight in a beaker. The solution is decanted and is transferred to another beaker. It contains traces of calcium hydroxide and is called lime water.

Question 6.
An organic compound A on heating with concentrated H₂SO₄ forms a compound B which on addition of one mole of hydrogen in presence of Ni forms a compound C. One mole of compound C on combustion forms two moles of CO₂ and 3 moles of H₂O. Identify the compounds A, B and C and write the chemical equations of the reactions involved.  (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
Since compound C gives 2 moles of CO₂ and 3 moles of H₂O, it shows that it has the molecular formula C₂H₆ (ethane). C is obtained by the addition of one mole of hydrogen to compound B, so the molecular formula of B should be C₂H₄ (ethene). Compound B is obtained by heating compound A with concentrated H₂SO₄ which shows it to be an alcohol. So compound A could be C₂H₅OH (Ethanol).

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Ethanol is one of the most important industrial chemicals. It is used in medicine, to synthesise many important compounds and as an excellent solvent.
However, inspite of its benefits it causes many social problems. If a person drinks alcohol regularly, he becomes an alcoholic. Alcohol is non-toxic but it produces physiological effects disturbing brain activity. These persons are also a threat to the lives of others.
(a) Give three reasons in favour and three reasons against ‘alcohol-free world’.
(b) ‘Alcohol drinking should not be portrayed on media’. Give valid reasons to justify.
(c) As a student what initiative would you take in the concern of “We should condemn drinking alcohol”,
Answer:
(a) In favour of‘Alcohol-free world’:

• Alcohol drinking lowers inhibitions which leads to increased violence and crime in the society.
• A liver disease ‘cirrhosis’ caused by alcohol can lead to death.
• Drunken driving leads to increased road accidents.

Against ‘Alcohol-free world’:

• Alcohol is used for making some medicines like cough syrups, tincture iodine, some tonics, etc.
• Mixed with petrol, it is now being used as a fuel for light vehicles.
• It is used for making antifreeze material for cooling engines of vehicles.

(b) ‘Alcohol drinking should not be portrayed on media’ because young people and children are greatly influenced by the media.

(c) Initiatives taken by a student to create awareness about drinking alcohol could be:

• By writing slogan
• Through debates
• By writing articles
• By role plays/skits

Question 2.
Intake of small quantity of methanol can be lethal. Comment.  (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
Methanol is oxidised to methanal in the liver. Methanal reacts with the component of the cells. It causes the protoplasm to coagulate. It also affect the optic nerve, due to which it causes blindness.

On this page, you will find Electricity Class 10 Notes Science Chapter 12 Pdf free download. CBSE NCERT Class 10 Science Notes Chapter 12 Electricity will seemingly help them to revise the important concepts in less time.

CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Notes Electricity

Electricity Class 10 Notes Understanding the Lesson

1. Current electricity: The branch of physics which deals with the study of charge in motion is called current electricity.

2. Electric charge: Charge is the property of matter due to which it produces and experiences electric and magnetic effects.

• SI unit of charge is coulomb (C).
• There exists two types of charges in nature.

(i) positive charge
(ii) negative charge

• Smallest stable charged particles are protons and electrons.
• Charge on an electron is negative and that on a proton is positive but both are equal in magnitude
  i. e., 1.6 x 10^-19C

Properties of charge

• Like charges repel each other and unlike charges attract each other.
• Charge can neither be created nor destroyed but it can be transferred from one body to another
  i. e., charge is conserved.

3. Electric current (I): Electric current is defined as the total amount of charge flowing through a particular area in unit time. It is denoted by T. \(I=\frac{Q}{t}\)

where, Q = amount of charge, t = time interval

• Electric current is a scalar quantity.
• SI unit of current is ampere (A).
• 1 Ampere

One ampere is constituted by the flow of one coulomb of charge per second.
\(I=\frac{Q}{t} \mid \text { If } Q=1 C \text { and } t=1 s, \text { then } I=\frac{1 C}{1 S}=1 A\)

• Small quantities of current are expressed in milliampere or in microampere.
  1 mA = 10^-3 A (Here ‘m’ is a prefix used to express milli)
  10 μA = 10^-6 A (‘μ’ is symbol of micro)

4. Direction of current:

• Electric current flows in the circuit from positive terminal of cell to the negative terminal of cell.
• In metals flow of electron constitutes current. Conventionally the direction of current is taken as opposite to the direction of motion of electrons.

5. Electric potential difference: Electric potential difference between two points in an electric circuit, carrying current can be defined as the amount of work done to move a unit charge from one point to another.
\(\text { Potential difference }(\mathrm{V})=\frac{\text { Work done }(\mathrm{W})}{\text { Charge }(\mathrm{Q})}\)
\(V=\frac{W}{Q}\)

• SI unit of potential difference is volt (V).
• The electron moves in a wire due to potential difference. The potential difference may be produced by chemical reaction occurring in a battery.
• 1 volt (1 V)

One volt is the potential difference between two points in a current carrying conductor, when 1 Joule of work is done to move a charge of 1 coulomb from one point to the other.
\(\text { Therefore, } 1 \text { volt }=\frac{1 \text { Joule }}{1 \text { Coulomb }}\)
IV = 1JC^-1

6. Electric circuit: A continuous and closed path of electric current is called an electric circuit.

7. Circuit diagram: A circuit is a simplified systematic representation of the components of an electrical circuit.
Table 12.1 Symbols of some commonly used components in circuit diagrams

8. Measuring Instruments:

• Ammeter: It is used to measure the magnitude of electric current through any wire of a circuit.
• It is always connected in series.
• It should have low resistance.

Voltmeter: It measures the potential difference between two points of the circuit.

• The voltmeter is always connected in parallel across the points between which the potential difference to be measured.
• It should have high resistance.

9. Ohm’s law: According to ohm’s law, the potential difference, v, across the ends of a given metallic wire in an electric circuit is directly proportional to the current flowing.

Here, R is constant for a given metallic wire at a given temperature and is called resistance.

10. V-I graph of ohm’s law and its experimental setup:
1. Circuit diagram

2. Variation of current with potential difference

Slope of V-I curve gives resistance
\(R=\text { slope }=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{V}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
I-V curve of Ohm’s law

Slope of I-V curve =\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}=\text { Slope }=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{I}}{\Delta \mathrm{V}}\)

11. Resistance:

• It is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it.
• SI unit of resistance is ohm, represented by Greek letter Ω (omega).

(i) One ohm
If the potential difference across the two ends of a conductor is IV and the current through it is 1A, then the resistance, R, of the conductor is 1 Ω.
\(1 \mathrm{ohm}=\frac{1 \text { volt }}{1 \mathrm{ampere}}\)

• The current through a resistor is inversely proportional to its resistance keeping voltage constant.
• Resistance in a circuit arises due to retardation in motion of electrons as they are restrained by attraction of atom among which they move.

(ii) Rheostat
Rheostat is a component or device used to regulate current without changing the voltage source, it is also called variable resistance.

12. Factors affecting resistance of a conductor

• Resistance of a uniform metallic conductor is directly proportional to its length (l)
  R α Z …………(1)
• Resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross-section (A).
  

where, ρ(rho) is constant of proportionality and it is called electric resistivity of the material of the conductor.

• Resistance of a metallic conductor also depends on temperature.
• It also depends on the nature of the material.

13. Electric resistivity (ρ)
(i) Resistivity depends on the nature of the material and temperature. It is independent of the length and area of cross-section of the conductor.

(ii) where, R = resistance
A = Area of cross-section
l = length of conductor

(iii) SI unit of resistivity is ‘Ωm’.

14. Classification of Elements on the basis of resistivity

• Metals and alloys have very low resistivity in the range of 10^-8 O m to 10^-6 Q m. They are good conductors of electricity.
• Insulators have resistivity of the order of 10¹² to 10¹⁷ Q m. They are bad conductors of electricity.

15. Use of elements on the basis of resistivity.

• Copper and aluminium are used for electric transmission lines because both posses low resistivity.
• Alloys are commonly used in electric heating appliances.

Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals. Alloy do not oxidise readily at high temperatures. For this reason, they are commonly used in electric heating devices.

16. Combination of Resistors

17. Special Case

18. Some Important points for series and parallel combination

• For getting maximum equivalent resistance, all resistors should be connected in series and for getting minimum equivalent resistance, all resistors should be connected in parallel.
• In domestic circuits, parallel combination is used because in series arrangement, if any one of appliances fails or is switched off, all the other appliances stop working.

19. Electric power (P): The rate at which electric energy is consumed or dissipated is called electric power.
Electric power
\(P=V I=I^{2} R=\frac{V^{2}}{R}\)

• One watt (1 W)
  One watt is the power consumed by a device that carries 1 A of current when operated at a potential difference of 1 V.
  Thus, 1 W = 1 volt x 1 ampere = 1 V A
• Larger unit of power
  1 kW = 1000 W (1 kW = one kilowatt)

• Commercial unit of electric energy (kWh) (units)
  1 KWh = 1000 watt x 3600 seconds
  1 unit = 1 kWh = 3.6 x 10⁶ J

One kilowatt hour is the energy consumed when 1 kilowatt of power is used for one hour.

Heating effect of electric current

• Heating effect: When an electric current passes through a wire, the wire gets heated and its temperature rises. This is known as heating effect of electric current.

Joule’s law of heating: Heat produced in a conductor is directly proportional to

• square of current for a given resistor (H α I²)
• the resistance for a given current (H α R)
• the time for which the current flows through the resistor (H α t) H = I²Rf

20. Practical applications of heating effect of electric current

1. Incandescent electric lamp: The heating effect of electric current is also used to produce light, like in a electric bulb. The filament of the bulb is made up of tungsten with high melting point (3380°C). It is thermally isolated using insulated support. Presence of chemically inactive gases like argon and nitrogen prolong the life of the filament. When voltage is applied across the filament of the bulb, the current starts passing through it. The filament gets heated to a very high temperature (2700°C). It becomes white hot and starts radiating heat and light.

2. Fuse: Fuse is a device which is based on the principal of heating effect of electric current. It protects circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of any unduly high current. It consists a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point. If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, the temperature of the fuse wire increases. This melts the fuse wire and breaks the circuit.

Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Notes Important Terms

Current (I): The rate of flow of charge is called current.

Potential Difference (V): Work done to move a unit charge from one point to another.

Volt: When 1 joule work is done in carrying one coulomb charge then potential difference is called 1 volt. Voltmeter: Instrument used to measure potential difference.

Ammeter: Instrument used to measure electric current.

Ohm’s Law: Potential difference across two points of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to current passing through the circuit provided that temperature remains constant.

Resistance (R): It is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it.

Rheostat: Variable resistance is a component used to regulate current without changing the source of voltage.

Resistivity (ρ): It is defined as the resistance offered by a cube of a material of side 1 m when current flows perpendicular to its opposite faces.

Electric Fuse: It is a safety device that protects our electrical appliances in case of short circuit or overloading

Electric Power: The rate at which electric energy is consumed or dissipated in an electric circuit.

Heating Effect of Electric Circuit: If an electric circuit is purely resistive, the source of energy continually gets dissipated entirely in form of heat. This is known as heating effect of electric current.