MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers Chapter Wise PDF Download

Get Chapter Wise MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers PDF Free Download of Themes in World History are prepared here according to the latest CBSE syllabus and NCERT curriculum https://ncert.nic.in/. Students can practice CBSE Class 11 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to score good marks in the examination.

Class 11 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

Practicing these CBSE NCERT Objective MCQ Questions of Class 11 History with Answers Pdf will guide students to do a quick revision for all the concepts present in each chapter and prepare for final exams.

Themes in Indian History MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers

  1. From the Beginning of Time Class 11 MCQ Questions
  2. Writing and City Life Class 11 MCQ Questions
  3. An Empire Across Three Continents Class 11 MCQ Questions
  4. The Central Islamic Lands Class 11 MCQ Questions
  5. Nomadic Empires Class 11 MCQ Questions
  6. The Three Orders Class 11 MCQ Questions
  7. Changing Cultural Traditions Class 11 MCQ Questions
  8. Confrontation of Cultures Class 11 MCQ Questions
  9. The Industrial Revolution Class 11 MCQ Questions
  10. Displacing Indigenous Peoples Class 11 MCQ Questions
  11. Paths to Modernization Class 11 MCQ Questions

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers PDF Free Download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers. Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Chemistry Polymers MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Polymers Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Pdf

1. The monomer of polystyrene is
(a) C2H —CH=CH2
(b) CH2=CHCl
(c) C6H5CH=CH2
(d) CH2=CH—CHO

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) C6H5—CH=CH2 is monomer of polystyrene.


2.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 1

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 12


3.Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 2
(a) addition polymer
(b) thermosetting polymer
(c) homopolymer
(d) condensation copolymer (Nylon-66)

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) It is condensation copolymer of Hexamethylene diamine (H2N(CH2)6NH2) and adipic acid,
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 13


4. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Natural rubber is frans-polyisoprene
(b) Buna-S is addition copolymer of butadiene and styrene
(c) Natural rubber is cis 1, 4-polymer of isoprene
(d) Vulcanisation makes rubber hard due to cross linkages with sulphur.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Natural rubber is cis- polyisoprene


5. Which of the following is not correct?
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 3

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 14
is polymer of 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene (Chloroprene)


6. Which of the following has ester linkages?
(a) Nylon
(b) Bakelite
(c) Terylene
(d) PVC

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Terylene is polyester, it has many ester linkages.


7. Which of the following is thermosetting polymer
(a) Neoprene
(b) PVC
(c) Nylon-6,6
(d) Bakelite

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Bakelite is cross linked thermosetting polymer of phenol and formaldehyde.


8. Caprolactum is used for preparation of
(a) Nylon-6
(b) Nylon-6,6
(c) Nylon 6, 10
(d) Nylon-2 – Nylon-6

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Nylon-6 is polymer of caprolactum.


9. The polymer used in orthopaedic devices and in controlled drug release is
(a) Orion
(b) PTFE
(c) SBR
(d) PHBV

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) PHBV is biocompatible, used in orthopaedic devices and controlled drug release. Orion is
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 15
SBR is styrene butadiene rubber.


10. Which of the following is not correct regarding terylene?
(a) Step growth polymer
(b) Synthetic fibre
(c) also called dacron
(d) Thermosetting plastic

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) It is synthetic fibre condensation, step growth polymer also called dacron.


11. The polymer which is used in manufacture of squeeze bottles is
(a) Polystyrene
(b) Teflon
(c) Polypropene
(d) Low density polythene

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) LDP is used for making squeeze bottles, flexible hose pipe.


12. The polymer containing strong intermolecular H-bonding and crystalline nature is
(a) Polystyrene
(b) Natural rubber
(c) Teflon
(d) Nylon 6, 6

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Nylon 6, 6 is fibre with strong intermolecular H-bonding and is crystalline in nature.


13. Which of the following is initiator in free radical polymerisation?
(a) Benzoyl peroxide
(b) AlCl3
(c) HNO3
(d) Bu-Li

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Benzoyl peroxide undergoes homolytic fission to form free radicals and acts as initiator.


14. Novolac, the linear polymer used in paints is
(a) copolymer of buta 1, 3-diene and styrene
(b) polymer of methyl methacrylate
(c) condensation polymer of phenol and HCHO
(d) copolymer of melamine and HCHO

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) It is copolymer of phenol and HCHO, linear.


15. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic polymer? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) cw-polyisoprene .
(b) Cellulose nitrate
(c) Cellulose acetate
(d) Vulcanised rubber

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) cis-polyisoprene is natural rubber, others are semisynthetic because these are obtained from natural polymers by suitable process.


16. The commercial name of polyacrylonitrile is __________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Dacron
(b) Orion (acrilan)
(c) PVC
(d) Bakelite

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 16
artificial wool, used for making carpets etc.


17. Zeigler – Natta catalyst is used in making
(a) LDPE
(b) HDPE
(c) Polystyrene
(d) PMMA

Answer

Answer: b


18. Natural rubber in a polymer of
(a) Butadiene
(b) Ethyne
(c) Styrene
(d) Isoprene

Answer

Answer: d


19. Which of the following is a biodegrable polymer?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Polyethene
(c) PVC
(d) Nylon-6

Answer

Answer: a


20. A polymer of butadiene and acrylonitrile is called
(a) Buna-2
(b) Buna-N
(c) Buna-S
(d) Buna-A

Answer

Answer: b


21. The manufacture of nylon-6 involves condensation of
(a) Phenol and formaldehyde
(b) Urea and formaldehyde
(c) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
(d) Ethylene glycol and pthalic acid

Answer

Answer: c


22. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes below the lists:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers

Answer

Answer: d


23. F2C = CF2 is a monomer of
(a) Teflon
(b) Glyptal
(c) Nylon-6
(d) Buna-S

Answer

Answer: a


24. Which of the following is used in tyre cords?
(a) Terylene
(b) Polyethylene
(c) Polypropylene
(d) Nylon-6

Answer

Answer: d


25. PHBV has _______ type of linkages
(a) Amide
(b) Ester
(c) Diene
(d) Nitrile

Answer

Answer: b


26. The vulcanised rubber has
(a) High water absorption, resistant to oxidation and good elasticity
(b) High water absorption, susceptible to oxidation and no elasticity
(c) High water absorption, susceptible to oxidation and good elasticity
(d) Low water absorption, resistance to oxidation and good elasticity.

Answer

Answer: d


27. Which of the following polymer is biodegradable? [NCERT Exemplar]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 4

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(c) is PHBV, biodegradable,
(a) is Neoprene
(b) Buna-N
(d) Nylon-6, 6.


28. In which of the following polymers ethylene glycol is one of the monomer units? [NCERT Exemplar]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 5

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) has HOCH2—CH2—OH as one of the monomers of terylene
(b) Polythene
(c) Buna-S
(d) PHBV


29. Which of the following statements is not true about low density polythene? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Tough
(b) Hard
(c) Poor conductor of electricity
(d) Highly branched structure

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) It is not hard but flexible, branched, tough, poor conductor of electricity.


Note: In the following questions two or more options may be correct. (Q.20 to Q.22)
30. Which of the following polymers, need atleast one diene monomer for their preparation? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Dacron
(b) Buna-S
(c) Neoprene
(d) Novolac

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) and (c). Buna-S needs buta 1, 3-diene and Neoprene needs 2-chloro 1,3-butadiene. Dacron and Novolac are condensation polymers.


31. Which of the folloiwng are characteristics of thermosetting polymers? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Heavily branched cross linked polymers,
(b) Linear slightly branched long chain molecules.
(c) Become infusible on moulding so cannot be reused.
(d) Soften on heating and harden on cooling, can be reused.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) and (c) e.g. Bakelite is used for making electrical switches and switch boards.


32. Which of the following polymers are thermoplastic? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Teflon
(b) Natural rubber
(c) Neoprene
(d) Polystyrene

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) and (d), Teflon is used in non-stick kichen ware, polystyrene is used to make toys and radio and T.V. cabinets.


33. Match the polymer of column I with correct monomer of column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column IColumn II
(a) High density polythene(i) Isoprene
(b) Neoprene(ii) Tetrafluoro- ethene
(c) Natural rubber(iii) Chloroprene
(d) Teflon(iv) Acrylonitrile
(e) Acrilan(v) Ethene
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (v)
(b) (in)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)
(e) (iv)


34. Match the polymers given in Column I with their chemical names given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column IColumn II
(a) Nylon 6(i) Polyvinyl chloride
(b) PVC(ii) Polyacrylonitrile
(c) Acrilan(iii) Polycaprolactum
(d) Natural rubber(iv) Low density polythene
(e) LDP(v) cis-polyisoprene
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (iii)
(b) (i)
(c) (ii)
(d) (v)
(e) (iv)


35. Match the polymers given in Column I with their commercial names given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column IColumn II
(a) Polyester of glycol and phthalic acid(i) Novolac
(b) Copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and styrene(ii) Glyptal
(c) Phenol and formaldehyde resin(iii) Buna-S
(d) Polyester of glycol and terephthalic acid(iv) Buna-N
(e) Copolymer of 1, 3-butadiene and acrylonitrile(v) Dacron
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (i)
(d) (v)
(e) (iv)


36. Match the polymers given in Column I with their main applications given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column IColumn II
(a) Bakelite(i) Unbreakable crockery
(b) Low density polythene(ii) Non-stick cook-wares
(c) Melamine- formaldehyde  resin(iii) Packaging material for shock absorbance
(d) Nylon 6(iv) Electrical switches
(e) Polytetrafluo- roethane(v) Squeeze bottles
(f) Polystyrene(v) Tyre, cords
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (iv)
(b) (v)
(c) (i)
(d)(vi)
(e) (ii)
(f) (iii)


37. Match the polymers given in Column I with the preferred mode of polymerisation followed by their monomers. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column IColumn II
(a) Nylon-6,6(i) Free radical Polymeriaation
(b) PVC(ii) Ziegler-Natta polymerisation or coordination polymerisation
(c) HDP(iii) Anionic polymerisation
(iv) Condensation polymerisation
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (iv)
(b) (i)
(c) (ii)


Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices. (Q.28 to Q.30)
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
(e) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
38. Assertion: Rayon is a semi synthetic polymer and is taken as a better choice than cotton fabric. [NCERT Exemplar]
Reason: Mechanical and aesthetic properties of cellulose can be improved by acetylation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.


39. Assertion: Most of the Synthetic polymers are not biodegradable. [NCERT Exemplar]
Reason: Polymerisation process induces toxic character in organic molecules.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.


40. Assertion: Olefinic monomers undergo addition polymerisation. [NCERT Exemplar]
Reason: Polymerisation of vinyl chloride is initiated by peroxides/ persulphates.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: e
Explaination:
(e) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.


41. Trans-polyisoprene, a rubber like material is called __________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Gutta percha


42. High density polythene __________ polymer of ethene.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: linear


43. A copolymer can be addition or condensation. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
True, e.g. Nylon-66 (condensation copolymer), Buna-S (addition copolymer).


44.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 6
is Nylon 6, 10, synthetic fibre. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


45.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 7
is Melamine-formaldehyde resin, a thermosetting polymer. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


46. Which of the following is natural polymer? Buna-S, Protein, PVC [Chennai 2019; AI2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Protein is a natural polymer.


47. Give an example of semi-synthetic polymer.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Cellulose nitrate.


48. What are synthetic polymers?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
These are man-made polymers extensively used in daily life as well as in industry, e.g. plastic (polythene)


49. Give an example of linear and branched chain polymer each.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Linear polymer – Polyvinyl chloride
Branched chain polymer – Low density polythene.


50. Identify the type of polymer given in the following figure. [HOTS]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 8

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Cross-linked polymer


51. Identify the type of polymer:
—A—A—A—A—A—A—

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Homopolymer


52.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 9
a homopolymer or a copolymer? [AI 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It is homopolymer.


53.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 10
a homopolymer or a copolymer? [AI 2013; NCERT]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It is homopolymer.


54. Define the term, ‘homopolymerisation’ giving an example. [Delhi 2013(C); 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The process in which only one type of monomer undergoes polymerisation is called homopolymerisation, e.g. formation of polythene from ethene is homopolymerisation.


55. How does a homopolymer differ from a copolymer? [AI 2014(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Homopolymer is formed by the same monomer unit, whereas copolymer is formed by repeating two different monomers.


56. Identify the type of polymer:
—A—B—B—A—A—A—B—A—

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Copolymer


57. What is the repeating structural unit in polythene polymer? [AI 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (— CH2—CH2—)n


58. Draw the structure of the monomer for the following polymer: Polypropene [Delhi 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 17


59. What is the primary structure feature necessary for a molecule to make it useful in a condensation polymerisation reactioris?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Monomers should have more than one functional group (bifunctional).


60. Give one example of a condensation polymer? [AI 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Nylon 6, 6.


61. Give an example of elastomers.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Natural rubber, Buna-S, Buna-N, Neoprene is an elastomer.


62. Based on molecular forces, what type of polymer is neoprene? [AI 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Elastomer.


63. Which of the following is a fibre?
Nylon, Neoprene, PVC [AI 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Nylon is fibre.


64. Which factor imparts crystalline nature to a polymer like nylon?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It is strong intermolecular forces of attraction like hydrogen bonding which leads to close packing of chains that impart crystalline nature.


65. Which of the following is a thermoplastic polymer?
Bakelite, Polystyrene, Urea-formaldehyde resin.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Polystyrene.


66. Give an example of thermosetting polymer.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Bakelite.


67. Out of chain growth polymerisation and step growth polymerisation, in which type will you place the following.
(—A—)m + (—A—)n → (A—)m (—A—)n or —(A—A—)m+n

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Chain growth polymer


68. Write the names of monomers of the following polymer: [AI 2016]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 11

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 18


69. What does the part ‘6, 6’ mean in the name nylon-6, 6? [Chennai 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It means each monomer of nylon has six carbon atoms. Adipic acid (HOOC—(CH2)4—COOH) and hexamethylenediamine (H2N—(CH2)6—NH2).


70. What is natural rubber?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It may be considered as a linear polymer of cis-isoprene (2-methyl-1,3-butadiene) and is also known as cis-1,4-polyisoprene.


71. Give the chemical reaction involved in the formation of Neoprene from chloroprene.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers 19


72. Why is the molecular mass of polymer is always expressed as an average?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The polymer sample contains chains of varying lengths, therefore, its molecular mass is always expressed as an average.


73. Give an example of biodegradable polymer.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Poly P-hydroxybutyrate-co-P-hydroxy valerate (PHBV)


74. Give two uses of polystyrene.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It is used as insulator and in manufacture of toys and television cabinets.


75. Can enzyme be called a polymer?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Yes. Enzymes are biocatalysts which are proteins, the polymers of amino acids.


We hope the given Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Polymers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Polymers MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 5 Market Equilibrium with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 5 Market Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Market Equilibrium Class 11 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-11-economics-chapter-5/

Market Equilibrium Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Economics Chapter 5 Question 1.
Which is a characteristic of the market ?
(a) One Area
(b) Presence of both Buyers and Sellers
(c) Single Price of the Commodity
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Market Equilibrium MCQ Chapter 5 Question 2.
Which is a basic for the classification of the market ?
(a) Perfect Competition
(b) Zero Competition (Monopoly)
(c) Imperfect Competition
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


MCQ On Market Equilibrium Chapter 5 Class 11 Question 3.
Which of the following is a feature of perfect competition ?
(a) Large Number of Buyers and Sellers
(b) Homogeneous Units of the Product
(c) Perfect Knowledge of the Market
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Market Equilibrium MCQ Class 11 Chapter 5 Question 4.
In which market product differentiation is found ?
(a) Pure Competition
(b) Perfect Competition
(c) Monopoly
(d) Monopolistic Competition

Answer

Answer: (c) Monopoly


Ch 5 Economics Class 11 MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following is true in perfect competition ?
(a) Firm is price-taker, not price-maker
(b) Firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic
(c) AR = MR
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


MCQ On Market Equilibrium Class 11 Chapter 5 Question 6.
Which one is a feature of monopoly ?
(a) Single Seller and Many Buyers
(b) Lack of Close Substitutes
(c) Restrictions of New Firm entry
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Class 11 Economics Chapter 5 MCQ Question 7.
Which one of the following is true for monopoly ?
(a) Firm is price-maker
(b) Demand curve slopes downward
(c) Price discrimination possibility arises
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Class 11 Economics Chapter 5 MCQ Market Equilibrium Question 8.
Which one is a feature of monopolistic competition ?
(a) Differentiated Product
(b) Selling Cost
(c) Imperfect Knowledge of the Market
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Chapter 5 Economics Class 11 MCQ Question 9.
A market in which there is free entry and exit, the market is:
(a) Monopolistic Competitive Market
(b) Imperfect Competitive Market
(c) Perfectly Competitive Market
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Perfectly Competitive Market


Class 11 Economics Ch 5 MCQ Market Equilibrium Question 10.
What does a monopolist market show ?
(a) Production process
(b) Distribution system
(c) Nature of market
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Nature of market


MCQ Questions On Market Equilibrium Chapter 5 Question 11.
Price discrimination is found in which market ?
(a) Pure Competition
(b) Perfect Competition
(c) Monopoly
(d) Monopolistic Competition

Answer

Answer: (c) Monopoly


MCQ Questions For Class 11 Economics Pdf Chapter 5 Question 12.
Which of the following is the feature of pure competition ?
(a) Perfect knowledge of the market
(b) Perfect mobility of factors
(c) Homogenity by products
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


MCQ On Market In Economics Chapter 5 Question 13.
Market situation where there is only one buyer is:
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopsony
(c) Duropoly
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Monopsony


Question 14.
The concept of monopolistic competition is given by:
(a) Hicks
(b) Chamberlin
(c) Mrs. Robinson
(d) Samuelson

Answer

Answer: (b) Chamberlin


Question 15.
Which of the following is not a feature of perfect competition ?
(a) Large number of buyers and sellers
(b) Homogeneity of product
(c) Advertisement and selling cost
(d) Perfect knowledge of the market

Answer

Answer: (c) Advertisement and selling cost


Question 16.
In which market is AR equal to MR ?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Imperfect competition
(d) Monopoly

Answer

Answer: (a) Perfect competition


Question 17.
Which factor determines Equilibrium Price ?
(a) Demand for Commodity
(b) Supply of Commodity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 18.
“Price is determined by Demand and Supply. Whose statement is this ?
(a) Jevons
(b) Walras
(c) Marshall
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Marshall


Question 19.
Price of a commodity is determined at a point where :
(a) Demand exceeds
(b) Supply exceeds
(c) Demand equals supply
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Demand equals supply


Question 20.
What is true for perfect competition market ?
(a) Price is determined by both Demand and Supply Forces
(b) Price is determined by the industry
(c) Each firm of the industry is Price-taker
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 21.
Who gave the concept of ‘Time Element’ in price determination process ?
(a) Ricardo
(b) Walras
(c) Marshall
(d) J. K. Mehta

Answer

Answer: (c) Marshall


Question 22.
How many categories of production duration have been made by Marshall on the basis of supply ?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Seven

Answer

Answer: (b) Three


Question 23.
Which is a reason of change in demand ?
(a) Change in Consumer’s Income
(b) Change in Prices of Related Goods
(c) Population increase
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 24.
Which statement is correct ?
(a) In very short period, supply is perfectly inelastic, price is affected by both demand conditions.
(b) Supply curve elasticity depends on time period
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 25.
Market Price is found in:
(a) Short Period Market
(b) Long Period Market
(c) Very Long Period Market
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Short Period Market


Question 26.
The price of a good is determined by:
(a) Demand
(b) Supply
(c) Both demand and supply
(d) Government

Answer

Answer: (c) Both demand and supply


Question 27.
Market price is associated with:
(a) Price of very short period
(b) Normal price
(c) Permanent price
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Price of very short period


Question 28.
The price of a goods in perfect competition is determined by:
(a) Bargaining
(b) Production cost
(c) Marginal utility
(d) Demand and supply

Answer

Answer: (d) Demand and supply


Question 29.
In perfect competition, a firm:
(a) Determines price
(b) Obtains price
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Obtains price


Question 30.
In very short period, supply will be:
(a) Perfectly elastic
(b) Perfectly Inelastic
(c) Elastic
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Perfectly Inelastic


Question 31.
Which is not a condition for equilibrium of a monopoly form ?
(a) Average Revenue = Marginal Cost
(b) Marginal Revenue = Marginal Cost
(c) Marginal Cost should cut the Marginal Revenue Curve from below
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (a) Average Revenue = Marginal Cost


Question 32.
In perfect competition, these is……. profit
(a) Normal
(b) Maximum
(c) Zero
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Normal


Question 33.
A Seller Cannot influence the market price under:
(a) Perfect Competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic Competition
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Perfect Competition


Question 34.
Which determines the equilibrium price ?
(a) Demand
(b) Supply
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 35.
Which is the component of factor price determination ?
(a) Rent
(b) Wages
(c) Interest
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 36.
Price of a goods is determined at a point where :
(a) Demand > Supply
(b) Demand < Supply
(c) Demand = Supply
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Demand = Supply


Question 37.
None of these Rent is = ?
(a) Actual Income – Transfer Earnings
(b) Actual Income + Transfer Earnings
(c) Transfer Earnings
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Actual Income – Transfer Earnings


Question 38.
Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Labour Demand comes from producer
(b) Demand of labour depends on its productivity.
(c) Marginal productivity of labour is its maximum wage
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 39.
Main feature of perfectly competitive market is:
(a) Uniform price
(b) Homogeneous product
(c) Large number of buyers and sellers
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 40.
The market in which there is free entry and exit is:
(a) Monopolistic competition market
(b) Imperfect competition market
(c) Perfect competitions market
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Perfect competitions market


Question 41.
There is inverse relation between demand and price of goods in:
(a) Only monopoly
(b) Only monopolistic competition
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Only perfect competition.

Answer

Answer: (d) Only perfect competition.


Question 42.
According to which economist “Price of a commodity is determined by the forces of demand and supply”:
(a) Jevons
(b) Valros
(c) Marshall
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Marshall


Question 43.
Not a condition of equilibrium of monopoly firm:
(a) Average revenue = Marginal revenue
(b) Marginal revenue = Marginal cost
(c) Marginal cost curve cuts marginal revenue curve from downwards.
(d) Both (b) and (c).

Answer

Answer: (a) Average revenue = Marginal revenue


Question 44.
Market price is found in:
(a) Short period market
(b) Long period market
(c) Very long period market
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Short period market


Question 45.
Demand curve of a firm is perfectly elastic in:
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly.

Answer

Answer: (a) Perfect competition


Questions 46.
Administrative price is:
(a) Price ceiling
(b) Price floor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Questions 47.
Minimum support price of wheat is called:
(a) Price ceiling
(b) Price floor
(c) Market price
(d) Equilibrium price.

Answer

Answer: (b) Price floor


Questions 48.
Which of the following is the component of instrument pricing:
(a) Rent
(b) Wages
(c) Interest
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Interest


Questions 49.
Which factors help in the determination of equilibrium price:
(a) Demand
(b) Supply
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


Questions 50.
Which among the following statement is not true:
(a) Demand of labor is done by the producer
(b) Demand of labor depends open its productivity
(c) Marginal productivity of a labor is his maximum wages
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Questions 51.
Excess demand can be seen in:
(a) Fixed market price
(b) Lowest fixed price
(c) Highest fixed price
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Highest fixed price


Fill in the blanks:

1. The price on which demand and supply are equal, is called ………………..

Answer

Answer: Normal


2. Price discrimination is possible in ……………….. market.

Answer

Answer: Monopolistic


3. Increase in total revenue by the sale of additional unit of the commodity is called ………………..

Answer

Answer: Marginal revenue


4. If the supply of any good remains unchanged, and with the increase in demand its ……………….. increases.

Answer

Answer: Increase


5. In perfect competition market, a firm is a ………………..

Answer

Answer: Price takes


6. Price ceiling is done by the ………………..

Answer

Answer: Government


7. In the ………………..period demand force is more effective.

Answer

Answer: Short period


8. In ………………..market there should be two or more two firms.

Answer

Answer: Oligopoly


9. A group of firms is called ………………..

Answer

Answer: Industry


10. The market for petrol is ………………..

Answer

Answer: International.


11. Price range and price floor are also called ………….. prices.

Answer

Answer: Administrative


12. The other name of minimum determined price is ………………..

Answer

Answer: Price floor


13. According to modem view point, rent increases because of land.

Answer

Answer: Scarcity


14. ………….. presented FAD principle.

Answer

Answer: Prof. Amartya Sen


15. …………….. Instrument demand is demand.

Answer

Answer: Derivative.


State true or false:

1. Market of bricks is provincial.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Normal price is imaginary.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Imperfect competition is a practical approach.

Answer

Answer: True


4. The forces of demand and supply remains in the state of equilibrium for a long period.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Among the forces of demand and supply, either of the two determines the price of the goods.

Answer

Answer: False


6. Under perfect competition firms themselves determine the price.

Answer

Answer: False


7. Under monopolistic competition demand curve is uncertain.

Answer

Answer: True.


8. Main objective of price range determination is to earn profit.

Answer

Answer: False


9. The price floor is also called lowest fixed price.

Answer

Answer: True


10. In independent market system, prices of goods and services are determined by the forces of demand and supply.

Answer

Answer: True


11. Price range and price floor differ from market oriented prices.

Answer

Answer: True.


Match the following:

1.

‘A’‘B’
1. Gold(a) National market
2. Clothes(b) Local market
3. Normal profit(c) International market
4. Equilibrium of firm(d) AR = MR
5. Milk(e) Zero profit.
Answer

Answer:

‘A’‘B’
1. Gold(c) International market
2. Clothes(a) National market
3. Normal profit(e) Zero profit.
4. Equilibrium of firm(d) AR = MR
5. Milk(b) Local market

2.

‘A’‘B’
1. Price range(a) Excess supply
2. Price floor(b) Public Distribution System
3. Problem of price floor(c) Minimum wage provision.
Answer

Answer:

‘A’‘B’
1. Price range(b) Public Distribution System
2. Price floor(c) Minimum wage provision.
3. Problem of price floor(a) Excess supply

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 5 Market Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Economics Market Equilibrium MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 4 The Theory of the Firm under Perfect Competition with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 4 The Theory of the Firm under Perfect Competition with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Theory of the Firm under Perfect Competition Class 11 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-11-economics-chapter-4/

The Theory of the Firm under Perfect Competition Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Economics Chapter 4 Question 1.
The concept of supply curve is relevant only for?
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Perfect competition
(d) Oligopoly

Answer

Answer: (c) Perfect competition


MCQ Class 11 Economics Chapter 4 Question 2.
Which of the following is an example of perfect competition?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Banking sector
(c) Car manufacturing
(d) Railways

Answer

Answer: (a) Agriculture


Class 11 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ Question 3.
Can MR be negative or zero.
(a) Yes
(b) Can’t say
(c) No
(d) Only negative but not zero

Answer

Answer: (a) Yes


Chapter 4 Economics Class 11 MCQ Question 4.
If all units are sold at same price how will it affect AR and MR?
(a) B. AR > MR
(b) A. AR = MR
(c) D. AR + MR = 0
(d) C. AR < MR

Answer

Answer: (b) A. AR = MR


A Firm Under Perfect Competition MCQ Chapter 4 Question 5.
What is price line
(a) The demand curve
(b) The AR curve
(c) The MR curve
(d) The TR curve

Answer

Answer: (c) The MR curve


MCQ On Perfect Competition Chapter 4 Class 11 Question 6.
Can TR be a horizontal Straight line?
(a) May be
(b) Can’t say
(c) Yes
(d) No

Answer

Answer: (d) No


Under Perfect Competition MCQ Chapter 4 Question 7.
The revenue of a firm per unit sold is its
(a) MR
(b) AR
(c) TR
(d) TC

Answer

Answer: (b) AR


Ch 4 Economics Class 11 MCQ Question 8.
The product of AR and price at every unit sold is the firm’s
(a) TR
(b) TVC
(c) MR
(d) AR

Answer

Answer: (a) TR


Question 9.
In perfect competition, in the long run, ______________?
(a) There are large profits for the firm
(b) There is no profit and no loss for the firm
(c) There are negligible profits for the firm
(d) There are large losses for the firm

Answer

Answer: (b) There is no profit and no loss for the firm


Question 10.
In perfect competition, when the marginal revenue and marginal cost are equal, profit is?
(a) Maximum
(b) Zero
(c) Negative
(d) Average

Answer

Answer: (a) Maximum


Question 11.
In perfect competition, a firm earns profit when __________ exceeds the _____________?
(a) Total revenue, total fixed cost
(b) Marginal cost, marginal revenue
(c) Average revenue, average cost
(d) Total cost, total revenue

Answer

Answer: (c) Average revenue, average cost


Question 12.
In the perfectly competitive market, in the long run, competitive prices equal the minimum possible ________ cost of good?
(a) Average
(b) Total
(c) Variable
(d) Marginal

Answer

Answer: (a) Average


Question 13.
In perfect competition, in the long run, if a new firm enters the industry the supply curve shifts to the right resulting in_________?
(a) Reduction in supply
(b) No change in price
(c) Fall in price
(d) Rise in price

Answer

Answer: (c) Fall in price


Question 14.
Which of the following type of competition is just a theoretical economic concept, not a realistic case where actual competition and trade take place?
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Perfect competition

Answer

Answer: (d) Perfect competition


Question 15.
In perfect competition, which of the following curves generally lies below the demand curve and slopes downward?
(a) Average revenue
(b) Average cost
(c) Marginal revenue
(d) Marginal cost

Answer

Answer: (c) Marginal revenue


Question 16.
A firm can sell as much as it wants at the market price. The situation is related to?
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Perfect competition
(d) Oligopoly

Answer

Answer: (c) Perfect competition
Explanation:
Pure or perfect competition is a theoretical market structure in which the following criteria are met: All firms sell an identical product (the product is a “commodity” or “homogeneous”). All firms are price takers (they cannot influence the market price of their product). Market share has no influence on prices.


Question 17.
Globalization has made Indian Market as?
(a) Seller market
(b) Buyer market
(c) Monopsony market
(d) Monopoly market

Answer

Answer: (b) Buyer market
Explanation:
Globalisation is the rapid integration or interconnection between countries mostly on the economic plane. In other words Globalisation means integrating our economy with the world economy. Movement of people between countries increases due to globalisation.


Question 18.
When AR = Rs. 10 and AC = Rs. 8, the firm makes?
(a) Gross profit
(b) Super normal profit
(c) Normal profit
(d) Net profit

Answer

Answer: (b) Super normal profit
Explanation:
Super normal profit is defined as extra profit above that level of normal profit.
Here the firm earns profit of Rs. 2 over the cost occurred.


Question 19.
A competitive firm in the short run incurs losses. The firm continues production, if?
(a) P = AVC
(b) P > AVC
(c) P < AVC
(d) P > = AVC

Answer

Answer: (d) P > = AVC
Explanation:
With loss minimization, price exceeds average variable cost but is less than average total cost at the quantity that equates marginal revenue and marginal cost. In this case, the firm incurs a smaller loss by producing some output than by not producing any output.


Question 20.
In the long run the market price of a commodity is equal to its minimum average cost of production under the___________?
(a) Monopolist competition
(b) Perfect competition
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Monopoly

Answer

Answer: (b) Perfect competition
Explanation:
Perfect competition is an industry structure in which there are many firms producing homogeneous products. None of the firms are large enough to influence the industry. In the long-run, companies that are engaged in a perfectly competitive market earn zero economic profits.

The long-run equilibrium point for a perfectly competitive market occurs where the demand curve (price) intersects the marginal cost (MC) curve and the minimum point of the average cost (AC) curve. Since they are the price takers and the price remains constant so does the AC of production.


Question 21.
While a seller under perfect competition equates price and MC to maximize profits a monopolist should equate?
(a) MR and MC
(b) AR and MR
(c) AR and MC
(d) TC and TR

Answer

Answer: (a) MR and MC
Explanation:
In a monopolistic market, there is only one firm that produces a product. There is absolute product differentiation because there is no substitute.

The marginal cost of production is the change in the total cost that arises when there is a change in the quantity produced.

The marginal revenue is the change in the total revenue that arises when there is a change in the quantity produced a firm maximizes its total profit by equating marginal cost to marginal revenue and solving for the price of one product and the quantity it must produce.


Question 22.
Marginal revenue in any competitive situation is?
(a) TRn – Pn-1
(b) TRn – TRn-1
(c) TRn / Qn-1
(d) None of above

Answer

Answer: (b) TRn – TRn-1
Explanation:
Marginal revenue (MR) can be defined as additional revenue gained from the additional unit of output. Marginal revenue is the change in total revenue which results from the sale of one more or one less unit of output.

Formula:
Total revenue = TR
Total Unit = n
Total Unit less one unit = n – 1
MR = TRn -TRn-1


Question 23.
A rational consumer is a person who?
(a) Has perfect knowledge of the market
(b) Is not influenced by persuasive advertising
(c) Behaves at all times, other things being equal, in a judicious manner
(d) Knows the prices of goods in different market and buys the cheapest

Answer

Answer: (a) Has perfect knowledge of the market
Explanation:
A rational consumer is considered to be that person who makes rational consumption decisions.

In other words, the consumer who makes his choices after considering all the other alternative goods (and services) available in the market is called a rational consumer.


Question 24.
In which of the following types of market structures, are resources, assumed to be mobile?
(a) Oligopoly
(b) Perfect competition
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Monopoly

Answer

Answer: (b) Perfect competition
Explanation:
Pure or perfect competition is a theoretical market structure in which the following criteria are met:
1. All firms sell an identical product (the product is a “commodity” or “homogeneous”).
2. All firms are price takers (they cannot influence the market price of their product).
3. Market share has no influence on prices.
4. Buyers have complete or “perfect” information in the past, present and future about the product being sold and the prices charged by each firm.
5. Resources for such a labor are perfectly mobile.
6. Firms can enter or exit the market without cost.


Question 25.
At producer’s equilibrium when MR = MC, the firm earns only
(a) Abnormal loss
(b) Abnormal profit
(c) Normal Profit
(d) Normal loss

Answer

Answer: (c) Normal Profit


Question 26.
Beyond producer’s equilibrium when MR<MC, the firm earns only
(a) Abnormal profit
(b) Normal loss
(c) Abnormal loss
(d) Normal Profit

Answer

Answer: (c) Abnormal loss
Explanation:
Marginal Cost < Marginal Revenue means abnormal loss situation, where the total revenue of a business does not cover total cost incurred for the business, due to which the profits of the business are below normal limits.


Question 27.
Before producer’s equilibrium when MR > MC, the firm earns only
(a) Normal Profit
(b) Normal loss
(c) Abnormal loss
(d) Abnormal profit

Answer

Answer: (d) Abnormal profit
Explanation:
If a firm makes more than normal profit it is called super-normal profit. Super normal profit is also called economic profit, and abnormal profit, and is earned when total revenue is greater than the total costs.
Total profits = total revenue (TR) – total costs (TC)
Abnormal Profit = MR > MC


Question 28.
A producer’s equilibrium is a situation when
(a) AR = MR
(b) MR = MC
(c) AR = AC
(d) TR = TC

Answer

Answer: (b) MR = MC
Explanation:
Producer’s equilibrium refers to a situation where profits are maximised, i.e., the difference between total revenue and total cost is maximised, or in cases of losses, the difference is minimised, so as to minimise losses.


Question 29.
The elasticity at a point on a straight line supply curve passing through the origin will be
(a) 3.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 4.0
(d) 2.0

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.0
Explanation:
Regardless of the gradient of the linear supply curve or its position on the supply curve, the PES of a linear supply curve that passes through the origin is always equal to 1. Therefore, if the supply curve originates with P = 0 and Q = 0, the elasticity will always be 1.

Formula:
% Change in quantity
% Change in price.


Question 30.
The elasticity at a point on a straight-line supply curve passing through the origin making an angle of 45° will be
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 3.0
(d) 1.0

Answer

Answer: (d) 1.0


Question 31.
Under perfect competition the number of firms
(a) Is about 10
(b) Are many but limited
(c) Is large
(d) Is limited

Answer

Answer: (c) Is large


Question 32.
When ___________, the firms are earning just normal profit:
(a) AC = AR
(b) MC = AC
(c) AR = MR
(d) MC = MR

Answer

Answer: (a) AC = AR
Explanation:
AC = AR means the firm’s cost and revenue are equal which means the firm does not earn any profit or no loss, which means the firm is earning normal profit.


Question 33.
Which of the following is the condition for equilibrium of a firm?
(a) MC curve must cut MR curve from above
(b) MR = MC
(c) None of above
(d) Both of these

Answer

Answer: (b) MR = MC
Explanation:
A firm is in equilibrium when it is satisfied with its existing level of output. The firm wills, in this situation produce the level of output which brings in greatest profit or smallest loss. When this situation is reached, the firm is said to be in equilibrium.

Marginal cost should be equal to marginal revenue, then only the firm can be called at equilibrium.


Question 34.
In perfect competition, since the firm is a price taker, the ________ curve is straight line
(a) Total cost
(b) Marginal cost
(c) Total revenue
(d) Marginal revenue

Answer

Answer: (d) Marginal revenue
Explanation:
Marginal revenue is the extra revenue generated when a perfectly competitive firm sells one more unit of output. The marginal revenue received by a firm is the change in total revenue divided by the change in quantity.

Perfect competition is a market structure with a large number of small firms, each selling identical goods. Perfectly competitive firms have perfect knowledge and perfect mobility into and out of the market. These conditions mean perfectly competitive firms are price takers, they have no market control and receive the going market price for all output sold.

Since they are the price takers and have no control over price but just the production, so even if they increase their quantity of production, still the price will remain constant and so does the marginal revenue.


Question 35.
Other name by which average revenue curve known:
(a) Indifference curve
(b) Profit curve
(c) Average cost curve
(d) Demand curve

Answer

Answer: (d) Demand curve
Explanation:
Average revenue curve is often called the demand curve due to its representation of the product’s demand in the market. Each point on the curve represents the price of the product in the market. Price determines the demand for a product, hence Average revenue curve is also demand curve. Assuming it is a perfect competitive market.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 4 The Theory of the Firm under Perfect Competition with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Economics The Theory of the Firm under Perfect Competition MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Theory of Consumer Behaviour with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Theory of Consumer Behaviour with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Theory of Consumer Behaviour Class 11 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://mcqquestions.guru/mcq-questions-for-class-11-economics-chapter-2/

Theory of Consumer Behaviour Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Question 1.
Who gave the cardinal concept of utility?
(a) Marshall
(b) Pigou
(c) Hicks
(d) Samuelson

Answer

Answer: (a) Marshall


MCQ Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Question 2.
Consumer’s behaviour is studied in:
(a) Micro Economics
(b) Macro Economics
(c) Income Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Micro Economics


Theory Of Consumer Behaviour MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) Utility means want-satisfying power
(b) Utility is a function of intensity of desire
(c) Desire of consumption gives birth to utility
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 4.
Which is the First Law of Gossen?
(a) Law of Demand
(b) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
(c) Law of Equi-marginal Utility
(d) Consumer’s Surplus

Answer

Answer: (b) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility


Economics Class 11 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following is a characteristic of utility ?
(a) Utility is a psychological phenomenon
(b) Utility is subjective
(c) Utility is a relative concept
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


MCQ On Theory Of Consumer Behaviour Chapter 2 Question 6.
How we calculate marginal utility ?
(a) ∆TU/∆Q
(b) ∆MU/∆Q
(c) ∆Q/∆TU
(d) ∆Q/∆MU

Answer

Answer: (a) ∆TU/∆Q


Economics Class 11 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 7.
When TU becomes maximum, MU is:
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Zero


Question 8.
Which of the following is true ?
(a) TU increases till MU is positive
(b) TU is maximum when MU is equal to zero
(c) TU declines when MU is negative
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 9.
Who basically propounded the concept of Law of Equimarginal Utility ?
(a) Marshall
(b) Gossen
(c) Ricardo
(d) J. S. Mill

Answer

Answer: (c) Ricardo


Question 10.
In difference curve is:
(a) Convex to the origin
(b) Concave to the origin
(c) Both (a) and (b) true
(d) All of these false

Answer

Answer: (a) Convex to the origin


Question 11.
The ability of satisfying human want in a goods is called its:
(a) Productivity
(b) Satisfaction
(c) Utility
(d) Profitability

Answer

Answer: (c) Utility


Question 12.
Slope of budget line or price line is:
(a) –\(\frac{P_x}{P_y}\)
(b) –\(\frac{P_y}{P_x}\)
(c) +\(\frac{P_x}{P_y}\)
(d) +\(\frac{P_y}{P_x}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) –\(\frac{P_x}{P_y}\)


Question 13.
Utility is related to:
(a) Usefulness
(b) Morality
(c) Satisfaction of human wants
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 14.
Utility can be measured by:
(a) Money
(b) Exchange of goods
(c) Weight of the good
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Money


Question 15.
Law of Equi-marginal utility is called:
(a) Law of increasing utility
(b) Law of diminishing utility
(c) Law of substitution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Law of substitution


Question 16.
Indifference curve slopes:
(a) From right to left
(b) From left to right
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) From left to right


Question 17.
The addition of utilities obtained from all units of a goods is called :
(a) Marginal Utility
(b) Total Utility
(c) Maximum Satisfaction
(d) Additional Utility

Answer

Answer: (b) Total Utility


Question 18.
Who propounded the ordinal utility theory’ ?
(a) Marshall
(b) Pigou
(c) Hicks and Allen
(d) Ricardo

Answer

Answer: (c) Hicks and Allen


Question 19.
The propounder of law of diminishing marginal utility is:
(a) Gossen
(b) Adam smith
(c) Chapman
(d) Hicks

Answer

Answer: (a) Gossen


Question 20.
Consumer’s equilibrium takes at a point where:
(a) MU = Price
(b) MU < Price
(c) MU > Price
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) MU = Price


Question 21.
The capability of a commodity to satisfy human wants is:
(a) Consumption
(b) Utility
(c) Quality
(d) Taste

Answer

Answer: (b) Utility


Question 22.
For the maximum satisfaction of consumer:
(a) Marginal utility of a good should be equal to its price.
(b) Marginal utility of a good should be greater than its price.
(c) There is no relation between marginal utility and price.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Marginal utility of a good should be equal to its price.


Question 23.
When marginal utility is negative, then total utility:
(a) is maximum
(b) Starts decreasing
(c) increases at decreasing rate
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Starts decreasing


Question 24.
According to the law of equi-marginal utility, the condition for consumer’s equilibrium is:
(a) \(\frac{MU_A}{P_A}\)
(b) \(\frac{MU_B}{P_B}\)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Undefined

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 25.
According to Marshall, utility of a commodity:
(a) Can be measured by money
(b) Cannot be measured by money
(c) Can be measured in cardinal numbers
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 26.
Which element is essential for demand ?
(a) Desire to consume
(b) Availability of adequate resources
(c) Willingness to consume
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 27.
Demand Curve generally slopes:
(a) Upward from left to right
(b) Downward from left to right
(c) Parallel to X-axis
(d) Parallel to Y-axis

Answer

Answer: (b) Downward from left to right


Question 28.
In which goods, price fall does not make any increase in demand ?
(a) Necessities Goods
(b) Comfort Goods
(c) Luxuries Goods
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Necessities Goods


Question 29.
Which of the following factor affects demand ?
(a) Price
(b) Change in income
(c) Taste of the Consumer
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 30.
Goods, which can alternatively be used, are called:
(a) Complementary Goods
(b) Substitutes
(c) Comforts
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Substitutes


Question 31.
Law of Demand is a:
(a) Qualitative Statement
(b) Quantitative Statement
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Qualitative Statement


Question 32.
Which of the following is a demand function ?
(a) PX
(b) DX = PX
(c) Dx = (Px)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Dx = (Px)


Question 33.
When change in the price of goods-X affects the demand of goods-Y, this demand is called:
(a) Price Demand
(b) Income Demand
(c) Cross Demand
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 34.
For normal goods, Law of Demand states the relationship between price and quantity of goods:
(a) Direct
(b) Positive
(c) Indirect
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Indirect


Question 35.
Which of the following is a reason for fall in demand ?
(a) Fall in Income
(b) Fall in Number of Buyers
(c) Fall in Taste of Consumer
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 36.
With rise in coffee price, the demand of tea:
(a) Rises
(b) Falls
(c) Remains stable
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Rises


Question 37.
Contraction in demand appears when:
(a) Price rises and demand falls
(b) Price rises and demand also rises
(c) Price remains stable and demand falls
(d) Price falls but demand remains stable

Answer

Answer: (a) Price rises and demand falls


Question 38.
Which is a reason of change in demand ?
(a) Change in consumer’s income
(b) Change in price of related goods
(c) Population increase
(d) All pf these

Answer

Answer: (d) All pf these


Question 39.
For a change in which of the following, there is no change in demand ?
(a) Change in price
(b) Change in income
(c) Change in taste and fashion
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 40.
With a rise in price the demand for ‘Giffin’ goods:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) becomes unstable

Answer

Answer: (a) increases


Question 41.
Hie slope of the demand Curve of a normal goods is:
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) Undefined

Answer

Answer: (a) Negative


Question 42.
With an increase in income consumer decreases the consumption of which goods ?
(a) Inferior goods
(b) Normal goods
(c) Giffin goods
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Giffin goods


Question 43.
The demand curve of a good shifts from DD’ to dd
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Theory of Consumer Behaviour with Answers 1
(a) fail in the price of the goods
(b) rise in the price of the goods
(c) rise in the price of substitute goods
(d) rise in the price of complementary goods

Answer

Answer: (c) rise in the price of substitute goods


Question 44.
Elasticity of demand is a:
(a) Qualitative Statement
(b) Quantitative Statement
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Quantitative Statement


Question 45.
Which of the following is a formula for measuring the elasticity of demand ?
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Theory of Consumer Behaviour with Answers 2

Answer

Answer: (a)


Question 46.
For Giffin goods, price elasticity of demand is :
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Positive


Question 47.
Following figure shows:
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Theory of Consumer Behaviour with Answers 3
(a) High Elastic Demand
(b) Perfectly Elastic Demand
(c) Perfectly Inelastic Demand
(d) Inelastic Demand

Answer

Answer: (b) Perfectly Elastic Demand


Question 48.
Which of the following shows elasticity less than one ?
(a) Necessity Goods
(b) Comforts
(c) Luxuries
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Necessity Goods


Question 49.
With which method, elasticity of demand is measured ?
(a) Total Expenditure Method .
(b) Percentage or Proportionate Method
(c) Point Method
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 50.
Elastic demand is shown by:
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Theory of Consumer Behaviour with Answers 4

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{ΔQ}{Q} > \frac{ΔP}{P}\)


Question 51.
What is the price elasticity in following example ?
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Chapter 2 Theory of Consumer Behaviour with Answers 5
(a) -2.5
(b) + 3.5
(c) + 4.0
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) -2.5


Question 52.
Who propounded the percentage or proportionate method of measuring elasticity of demand ?
(a) Marshall
(b) Flux
(c) Hicks
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Flux


Question 53.
Which of the following factor affects elasticity of demand ?
(a) Nature of Goods
(b) Price Level
(c) Income Level
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 54.
How many types elasticity of uemand has ?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c)Six
(d) Seven

Answer

Answer: (b) Five


Question 55.
Elasticity of demand for necessities is :
(a) Zero
(b) Unlimited
(c) Greater than unity
(d) Less than unity

Answer

Answer: (a) Zero


Question 56.
Price elasticity of demand means :
(a) Change in demand due to change in price
(b) Change in demand
(c) Change in real income
(d) Change in Price

Answer

Answer: (a) Change in demand due to change in price


Question 57.
The elasticity of demand at the mid-point of a straight line demand curve:
(a) will be zero
(b) will be unity
(c) will be infinity
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) will be unity


Question 58.
If the demand for a good changes by 60% due to 40% change in price, the elasticity of demand is :
(a) 0.5
(b) -1.5
(c) 1
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (b) -1.5


Question 59.
For luxury goods the demand is:
(a) Inelastic
(b) Elastic
(c) Highly elastic
(d) Perfectly Inelastic

Answer

Answer: (c) Highly elastic


Question 60.
Any statement about demand for a good is considered complete only when the following is/are mentioned in:
(a) Price of the good
(b) Quantity of the good
(c) Period of time
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Price of the good


Question 61.
Consumer is in equilibrium when:
(a) MUx = PUx
(b) MUx > PUx
(c) MUx < Px
(d) MUx ÷ Px

Answer

Answer: (a) MUx = PUx


Question 62.
Marshall has given the law of Equimarginal utility related:
(a) Related to goods
(b) Related to money
(c) In relation to both
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Related to goods


Question 63.
How many tremendous curves can touch the budget line:
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Several
(d) Depends on the basis of indifference maps.

Answer

Answer: (a) One


Question 64.
Indifference curves were first introduced by the English economist in 1881 by:
(a) Edge worth
(b) Pareto
(c) Myers
(d) Hicks.

Answer

Answer: (a) Edge worth


Question 65.
Any statement about the demand of an object is considered complete when it is mentioned in the following:
(a) Price of good
(b) Demand of good
(c) Time period
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 66.
If price of goods ‘X’ falls leading to increase in demand of goods ‘ Y’ then both the goods are:
(a) Substitute goods
(b) Complementary goods
(c) Not related
(d) Competitor.

Answer

Answer: (b) Complementary goods


Question 67.
According to total outlay method, the demand of a good is sinelastic when:
(a) Price will fall with the increase in amount spent
(b) When price of good decreases and money spent decreases
(c) Expenditure remains the same, even if price falls
(d) Expenditure decreases with the increase in price.

Answer

Answer: (b) When price of good decreases and money spent decreases


Fill in the blanks:

1. Consumer is a …………. human being.

Answer

Answer: Rational


2. If the price of substitute goods increases then the demand curve shifts to the ………….

Answer

Answer: Right


3. …………. propounded the law of Diminishing Returns.

Answer

Answer: Gossen


4. According to Marshall utility can be measured in terms of ………….

Answer

Answer: Money


5. An indifference curve gives …………. level of satisfaction to the consumers.

Answer

Answer: Equal


6. Car and Petrol are goods ………….

Answer

Answer: Substitute


7. There is …………. relation between price and demand.

Answer

Answer: inverse


State true or false:

1. Utility is an intensive assumption.

Answer

Answer: True


2. The proportion of the cost of two goods measures the slope of budget line.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Demand curve is generally negative sloped.

Answer

Answer: False


4. Budget set is a collection of all bundles that a consumer purchases from their income at market prices.

Answer

Answer: True


5. The elasticity of the demand of the object and the expenditure on the object is closely related.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following:

‘A”‘B’
1. Inelastic(a) Utility analysis
2. Substitute goods(b) Demand of Necessary or Essential goods
3. Marshall(c) Gossen’s second law
4. Indifference curve(d) Cross demand
5. Law of equi marginal utility(e) Does not cut each ether
Answer

Answer:

‘A”‘B’
1. Inelastic(b) Demand of Necessary or Essential goods
2. Substitute goods(d) Cross demand
3. Marshall(a) Utility analysis
4. Indifference curve(e) Does not cut each ether
5. Law of equi marginal utility(c) Gossen’s second law

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