NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.1 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.1. https://mcqquestions.guru/ncert-solutions-for-class-10-maths-chapter-2-1/

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 2
Chapter Name Polynomials
Exercise Ex 2.1
Number of Questions Solved 1
Category NCERT Solutions

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials

Exercise 2.1

Question 1.
The graphs of y = p(x) are given in figure below, for some polynomials p(x). Find the number of zeroes of p(x), in each case.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.1 1
Solution:
The number of zeroes of p(x) in each graph given; are

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.1 2
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 2 Polynomials Ex 2.1 3

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.1 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.1. https://mcqquestions.guru/ncert-solutions-for-class-10-maths-chapter-4/

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 4
Chapter Name Quadratic Equations
Exercise Ex 4.1
Number of Questions Solved 2
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.1

NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Question 1.
Check whether the following are quadratic equations:
(i) (x+ 1)2=2(x-3)
(ii) x – 2x = (- 2) (3-x)
(iii) (x – 2) (x + 1) = (x – 1) (x + 3)
(iv) (x – 3) (2x + 1) = x (x + 5)
(v) (2x – 1) (x – 3) = (x + 5) (x – 1)
(vi) x2 + 3x + 1 = (x – 2)2
(vii) (x + 2)3 = 2x(x2 – 1)
(viii) x3 -4x2 -x + 1 = (x-2)3
Solution:
(i) (x+ 1)2=2(x-3)
⇒ x2 + 2x +1 = 2x – 6
⇒ x2 + 2x – 2x+1 + 6 = 0
⇒ x2 + 7 = 0
⇒ x2 + 0x + 1 = 0
Which is of the form
ax2 + bx + c = 0
Hence, the given equation is a quadratic equation.

(ii) x2 – 2x = (- 2) (3 -x)
⇒ x2 -2x = -6 + 2x
⇒ x2 -4x + 6 = 0
Which is of the form
ax2 + bx + c = 0
Hence, the given equation is a quadratic equation.

(iii) (x – 2) (x + 1) = (x – 1) (x + 3)
⇒ x2 + x-2x-2 = x2 + 3x-x -3
⇒ x2 + x – 2x – 2 = x2 – 3x + x + 3 = 0
⇒ – 3x + 1 = 0 ⇒ 3x – 1 = 0
Since degree of equation is 1, hence, given equation is not a quadratic equation.

(iv) (x-3) (2x+ 1) = x (x + 5)
⇒ 2x2 + x – 6x – 3 = x2 + 5x
2x2 + x – 6x – 3-x2 – 5x = 0
⇒ x2 – 10x -3 = 0
Which is of the form
ax2 + bx + c 0
Hence, the given equation is a quadratic equation.

(v) (2x-1)(x-3) = (x + 5)(x-1)
⇒ 2x2 – 6x-x + 3 = x2 -x + 5x – 5
2x2 – 6x-x + 3 = x2 + x – 5x + 5 = 0
⇒ x2 – 11x + 8 = 0
Which is of the form
ax2 + bx + c = 0
Hence, the given equation is a quadratic equation.

(vi) x2 + 3x + 1 = (x-2)2
⇒ x2 + 3x + 1 = x2 + 4 – 4x
⇒ x2 + 3x + 1 = x2– 4 + 4c = 0
⇒ 7x – 3 = 0
Since degree of equation is 1, hence, the given equation is not a quadratic equation,

(vii) (x + 2)3 = 2x (x2 – 1)
⇒ x3 + 8 + 3.x.2 (x + 2) = 2x3 – 2x
⇒ x3 + 8 + 6x2 + 12x = 2x3 – 2x
⇒ x3 – 6x2 – 14x – 8 = 0
Which is not of the form
ax2 + bx + c = 0
Hence, the given equation is not a quadratic equation.

(viii) x3 – 4x2 – x+1 = (x-2)3
⇒ x3 – 4x2 – x + 1 = x3-8 + 3x(-2)(x – 2)
⇒ x3 – 4x2 -x + 1 = x3 – 6x2 + 12x – 8
⇒ 2x2 – 13x + 9 = 0
Which is of the form
ax2 + bx + c = 0
Hence, the given equation is a quadratic equation.

Exercise 4.1 Maths Class 10 Solutions Question 2.
Represent the following situations in the form of quadratic equations:
(i) The area of a rectangular plot is 528 m2. The length of the plot (in metres) is one more than twice its breadth. We need to find the length and breadth of the plot.
(ii) The product of two consecutive positive integers is 306. We need to find the integers.
(iii) Rohan’s mother is 26 years older than him. The product of their ages (in years) 3 years from now will be 360. We would like to find Rohan’s present age.
(iv) A train travels a distance of 480 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 8 km/h less, then it would have taken 3 hours more to cover the same distance. We need to find the speed of the train.
Solution:
(i) Let breadth of the rectangular plot = x m
Then, length of the plot = (2x + 1)m
Area of a rectangular plot = l x b ,
⇒ 528 (2x + 1)x
⇒ 528 = 2x2 +x
⇒ 2x2 + x – 528 = 0
Which is the required quadratic equation.

(ii) Let the two consecutive integers be x and x + 1
Then, x(x+l) = 306
⇒ x2 +x-306 = 0
Which is the required quadratic equation.

(iii) Let the present age of Rohan = x years
Rohan’s mother’s present age = (x + 26) years
After 3 years, Rohan’s age = (x + 3) years
After 3 years, Rohan’s mother’s age = (x + 26 + 3) years
According to question,
(x + 3) (x + 29) = 360
⇒ x2 + 29x + 3x + 87 – 360 = 0
⇒ x2 + 32x – 273 = 0
Which is the required quadratic equation.

(iv)
Let speed of the train = x km/h
Exercise 4.1 Maths Class 10 Solutions Quadratic Equations NCERT Solutions

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Ex 1.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Mathematics Chapter 1 Real Numbers Ex 1.1 are part of Class 10 Maths NCERT Solutions. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Mathematics Chapter 1 Real Numbers Ex 1.1. https://mcqquestions.guru/ncert-solutions-for-class-10-maths-chapter-1/

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 1
Chapter Name Real Numbers
Exercise Ex 1.1
Number of Questions Solved 5
Category NCERT Solutions

Maths Class 10 NCERT Solutions will help you to score more marks in your CBSE board Examination.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Ex 1.1

Ex 1.1 Class 10 Question 1.
Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the HCF of:
(i) 135 and 225
(ii) 196 and 38220
(iii) 867 and 255.
Solutions:
(i) Given numbers are 135 and 225.
On applying Euclid’s division algorithm, we have
225 = 135 x 1 + 90
Since the remainder 90 ≠ 0, so again we apply Euclid’s division algorithm to 135 and 90, to get
135 = 90 x 1 + 45
Since the remainder 45 ≠ 0, so again we apply Euclid’s division algorithm to 90 and 45, to get
90 = 45 x 2 + 0
The remainder has now become zero, so we stop.
∵ At the last stage, the divisor is 45
∴ The HCF of 135 and 225 is 45.
Ex 1.1 Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers NCERT Solutions
(ii) Given numbers are 196 and 38220
On applying Euclid’s division algorithm, we have
38220 = 196 x 195 + 0
Since we get the remainder zero in the first step, so we stop.
∵ At the above stage, the divisor is 196
∴ The HCF of 196 and 38220 is 196.
Exercise 1.1 Class 10 Maths NCERT Solutions Chapter 1 Real Numbers
(iii) Given numbers are 867 and 255
On applying Euclid’s division algorithm, we have
867 = 255 x 3 + 102
Since the remainder 102 ≠ 0, so again we apply Euclid’s division algorithm to 255 and 102. to get
255 = 102 x 2 + 51
Since the remainder 51 ≠ 0, so again we apply Euclid’s division algorithm to 102 and 51, to get
102 = 51 x 2 + 0
We find the remainder is 0 and the divisor is 51
∴ The HCF of 867 and 255 is 51.

Exercise 1.1 Class 10 Maths NCERT Solutions Question 2.
Show that any positive odd integer is of the form 6q + 1, or 6q + 3, or 6q + 5, where q is some integer.
Solutions:
Let ‘a’ be any positive integer and b = 6.
∴ By Euclid’s division algorithm, we have
a = bq + r, 0 ≤ r ≤ b
a = 6q + r, 0 ≤ r ≤ b [ ∵ b = 6] where q ≥ 0 and r = 0,1, 2, 3, 4,5
Now, ‘a’ may be of the form of 6q, 6q + 1, 6q + 2, 6q + 3, 6q + 4, 6q + 5
If ‘a’ is of the form 6q, 6q + 2, 6q + 4 then ‘a’ is an even.
Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Ex 1.1 NCERT
In above we can see clearly that the numbers of the form 6q, 6q + 2, 6q + 4 are having the factor 2.
∴ The numbers of the form 6q, 6q + 2, 6q + 4 are even.
If ‘a’ is of the form 6q +1,6q +3, 6q + 5 then ‘a’ is an odd.
As if
Class 10 Maths Ex 1.1 Real Numbers NCERT
∵ We know that the number of the form 2k + 1 is odd.
∴ The numbers of the form 6q + 1, 6q + 3, 6q + 5 are odd.

Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Question 3.
An army contingent of 616 members is to march behind an army band of 32 members in a parade. The two groups are to march in the same number of columns. What is the maximum number of columns in which they can march?
Solutions:
Maximum number of columns = HCF of (616, 32)
For finding the HCF we should apply Euclid’s division algorithm
Given numbers are 616 and 32
On applying Euclid’s division algorithm, we have
616 = 32 x 19 + 8
Since the remainder 8 ≠ 0, so again we apply Euclid’s division algorithm to 32 and 8, to get
32 = 8 x 4 + 0
Maths 1.1 Class 10 Chapter 1 Real Numbers NCERT
The remainder has now become zero, so we stop,
∵ At the last stage, the divisor is 8
∴ The HCF of 616 and 32 is 8.
Therefore, the maximum number of columns in which an army contingent of 616 members can march behind an army band of 32 members in a parade is 8.

Class 10 Maths Ex 1.1 Question 4.
Use Euclid’s division lemma to show that the square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m + 1 for some integer m.
Solutions:
Let ‘a’ be any positive integer and b = 3.
∴ By Euclid’s division algorithm, we have a = 3q + r, 0 ≤ r < b
a = 3q + r, 0 ≤ r < 3 [ ∵ b = 3] where q ≥ 0 and r = 0,1, 2
∴ a = 3q or 3q + 1 or 3q + 2
Now
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Ex 1.1 6
Thus, the square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m + 1.

Maths 1.1 Class 10 Question 5.
Use Euclid’s division lemma to show that the cube of any positive integer is of the form 9m, 9m + 1 or 9m + 8.
Solutions:
Let ‘a’ be any positive integer and b = 3.
∴ By Euclid’s division algorithm, we have a = bq + r,0 ≤ r ≤ b
a = 3q + r,0 ≤ r < 3 [ ∵ b = 3] where q ≥ 0 and r = 0. 1, 2
∴ a = 3q or 3q + 1 or 3q + 2
Now
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Ex 1.1 7
Thus, the cube of any positive integer is of the form 9m, 9m + 1 or 9m + 8.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Peninsula

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectivity called
(a) Himachal
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Purvachal
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Purvachal

(iii) The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as
(a) Coromandel
(b) Konkan
(c) Kannad
(d) Northern Circar
Ans. (c) Kannad

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is
(a) Anai Mudi
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Khasi
Ans. (c) Mahendragiri

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Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What are tectonic plates?
Ans. Large fragments of the earth’s crust torn due to the rising convectional currents are called tectonic plates.

(ii) Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Ans. The continents are South America, South Africa, Australia and Antarctica.

(iii) What is the bhabar?
Ans. Bhabar is a narrow belt of the Ganga plain covered with pebbles lies along the foothills of the Shiwaliks.

(iv) Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south.
Ans. (a) The Greater Himalayas or Himadri (Inner Himalayas)
(b) Himachal or Lesser Himalayas (Middle Himalayas)
(c) The Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas)

(v) Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan ranges?
Ans. Malwa plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan range.

(vi) Name the island group of India having coral origin.
Ans. Lakshadweep islands is the island group having coral origin.

Question 3.
Distinguish between:

(i) Converging and diverging tectonic plates
Ans:

Converging Plates Diverging Plates
(a) When tectonic plates come towards each other,they are called converging plates. (a) When tectonic plates move away from each other, they are called diverging plates.
(b) When they come towards each other, they either collide and crumble or one of them slides under the other. (b) When they move away from each other, they do not collide or crumble.
(c) Converging plates cause folding. (c) The diverging plates cause cracks or fractures on the earth’s curst.

(ii) Bhangar and Khadar
Ans:

Bhangar Khadar
(a) This is a highland composed of old alluvium. (a) This is a lowland composed of new alluvium.
(b) It is always above the level of flood plain. (b) It is flooded almost every year and new alluvium is deposited.
(c) It is often saturated with calcareous nodules known as kankar. (c) It is often characterised by clay soil, which is very fertile.
(d) This is not much suited for cultivation. (d) It is ideal for intensive agriculture.

(iii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
Ans:

Western Ghats Eastern Ghats
(a) Western Ghats mark the western edge of the Deccan Plateau. (a) Eastern Ghats mark the eastern edge of the Deccan Plateau.
(b) They are continuous and can only be crossed through passes only, e.g., Pal Ghat, Bhor Ghat etc. (b) They are discontinuous and irregular and have been dissected by the rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.
(c) They lie parallel to the Western coast along the Arabian Sea. (c) They lie along the eastern coast along the Bay of Bengal.
(d) They are higher in south and the height increases towards the south. (d) They are higher in the north and the height increases towards the north.
(e) Average height is between 900 m to 1600 m. (e) Average height is 600 m.
(f) The highest peak is Anai Mudi with height of 2,695 m above sea level. (f) The highest peak is Mahendragiri with height of 1,501 m above the sea level.

Question 4.
Describe how the Himalayas were formed.
Answer:
(a) The oldest landmass of India (i.e. Peninsular part) was a part of Gondwana land, which included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single landmass.
(b) Convectional currents split the earth’s crust into’a number of fragments, thereby leading to the drifting of the Indo – Australian plate towards the north after being separated from Gondwana land.
(c) The northward drift resulted in the collision of this plate with much larger Eurasian plate.
(d) Due to this collision, the sedimentary rocks which were accumulated in the geosyncline called the Tethys, were folded to form the mountain systems of west Asia and Himalayas.
(e) The Himalayas represent a youthful topography with high peaks, deep valleys and fast-flowing rivers.

Question 5.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic divisions of India are:

  • The Himalayan Mountains
  • The Northern Plains of India
  • The Peninsular Plateau
  • The Indian Desert
  • The Coastal Plains
  • The Islands
Relief of Himalayan Region Relief of Peninsular Plateau
(a) Himalayas are young fold and loftiest mountains of the world comprising of several parallel ranges. (a) It is a high tableland made up of old crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks.
(b) They were formed due to folding of sedimentary rock strata in the bed of the Tethys Sea. (b) The Peninsular Plateau was born by breaking up of the Gondwana land.
(c) This region consists of the highest peaks of the world. Many of these peaks are above 6000 metres and snow covered throughout the year, e.g., Mt. Everest, Mt. K2 etc. (c) The hills of the Peninsular Plateau are rounded due to large scale erosion over a long period of time e.g., Aravalis and the Nilgiris etc.
(d) The Himalayas represent a youthful topography with high peaks, gorges, deep valleys and waterfalls. (d)The Peninsular Plateau represents a relief of rounded hills, broad and shallow valleys.

Question 6.
Give an account of the Northern Plains of India.
Answer:

  1. (a) The Northern Plains of India are alluvial plains of India. They are formed by the sediments brought from the mountains and deposited by the rivers in the depression formed after the uplift of the Himalayas namely the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
  2. (b) The plains spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq. km. The length of this plain is 2,400 km long and 240 km broad.
  3. (c) It is densely populated and intensely cultivated area.
  4. (d) With adequate water supply and favourable climate, it is agriculturally a very productive part of India.
  5. (e) The Northern Plains of India are divided into three divisions.
    • Punjab Plains covers the western part of the Northern plains. They are formed by Indus river and its tributaries.
    • Ganga Plains extends between Ghaggar and the Teesta river, spread over the states of Haryana, Delhi, UP, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
    • The Brahmaputra Plain lies to the east of the Ganga plains. It covers the area of Assam.

Question 7.
Write short notes on the following:

(a) The Indian Desert
Ans. (a) The Indian desert lies to the west of the Aravali hills. It is an uneven sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
(b) Barchans (crescent-shaped sand dunes) cover a larger part of the desert. Near the Indo-Pakistan border, longitudinal sand dunes are more common.
(c) It has arid climate with scarce vegetation and rainfall below 150 mm per year.
(d) Rivers/streams appear only during the rainy season and soon afterward disappear in the sand. They do not have enough water to reach the sea. JRiver Luni is the only large river in this area.

(b) The Central Highlands
Ans. (a) The Part of the Peninsular plateau lying north of the Narmada river is called Central Highlands. These highlands are made up of hard igneous and metamorphic rocks.
(b) It is bordered by Aravali range to the north-west. The Central Highlands include the Malwa plateau to the west and Chotanagpur plateau to the east.
(c) The Central Highlands are wider in the west and become narrow eastwards. The eastward extension of the Malwa plateau is locally called Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand. Chotanagpur plateau in the east is drained by Damodar river, a southern tributary of Ganga river.

(c) The Island Groups of India
Ans. India has two groups of islands namely:
(a) Lakshadweep Islands
(b) Andaman and Nicobar islands group

Lakshadweep Islands:
(a) These island groups are located in the Arabian Sea i.e., west of Malabar coast of Kerala.
(b) These islands are of coral origin formed by deposition of the dead remains,
(c) The total area of islands are 32 sq km. In Lakshadweep, administrative headquarters is in Kavaratti islands.
(d) They have a wide diversity of flora and fauna. The Pitti island, an uninhabited island has a bird sanctuaiy.

Andaman and Nicobar Island:
(a) These islands are located in the Bay of Bengal are the raised portion of the submerged mountain ranges projecting out of the sea water.
(b) Large in size and are more numerous. Some of them are of volcanic origin e.g. Barren island the only active volcano,
(c) These islands are of strategic importance as it lies very close to south-east Asia,
(d) The capital city is Port Blair,
(e) Experience equatorial climate and has thick forest cover.

Question 8.
On an outline map of India show the following.
(i) Mountain and hill ranges – the Karakoram, the Zaskar, the Patkai Bum, the Jaintia, the Vindhya range, the Aravali and the Cardamom hills.
(ii) Peaks – K2, Kanchenjunga, Nanga Parbat and Anai Mudi.
(iii) Plateaus – Chotanagpur and Malwa
(iv) The Indian Desert, Western Ghats, Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India img-1

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NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

NCERT Class 12 Chemistry solutions for Chapter 12 contains solved answers for the questions provided in the textbook. The solutions are provided stepwise in an easy language. The students find it easy to understand and can prepare well for the examination.

The students appearing for UP board, Maharashtra board, MP board, CBSE, Gujarat board, etc. can practice using NCERT Solutions. It also helps in preparing well for competitive exams such as JEE and NEET.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 12
Subject Chemistry
Chapter Chapter 10
Chapter Name Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Number of Questions Solved 31
Category NCERT Solutions

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes NCERT Solutions will help you to score more marks in your CBSE board Examination.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes is an important chapter from examination perspective. This chapter defines haloalkanes and haloarenes according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature. The reactions involved in the preparation of haloalkanes and haloarenes are also explained here. These are very important for the examination.

The chapter also explains the correlation between haloalkanes and haloarenes. NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chapter 10 acts as a guide for the students preparing this chapter. The students can refer to these for better practice.

NCERT IN-TEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Write the structures of the following compounds : (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2010)
(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
(iii) 4-tert. butyl-3-iodoheptane
(iv) 1,4-Dibromobut-2-ene
(v) 1-Bromo-4-sec butyl-2-methylbenzene. (C.B.S.E. Sample paper 2011)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 1

Question 2.
Why is sulphuric acid not used during the reaction of alcohols with KI?
Answer:
H2SO4 is an oxidising agent. It oxidises HI produced during the reaction to I2 and thus prevents the reaction between an alcohol and HI to form alkyl iodide. To prevent this, a non¬oxidising acid like H3PO3 is used.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 2

Question 3.
Write the structures of different dihalogen derivatives of propane.
Answer:
Propane (CH3CH2CH3) has two primary and one secondary hydrogen atoms present. Four isomeric dihalogen derivatives are possible. Let the halogen X be Br.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 3

Question 4.
Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, identify the one which on photochemical chlorination yields
(i) A single monochloride
(ii) Three isomeric monochlorides
(iii) Four isomeric monochlorides.
Answer:
The molecular formula C5H12 represents three structural isomers which are chain isomers.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 4
(i) The isomer is symmetrical with four primary (1°) carbon atoms and one quaternary (4°) carbon atom. Since all the hydrogen atoms are equivalent, it will yield only one monochloride upon photochlorination i.e., chlorination carried in the presence of ultra-violet light.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 5
(ii) In the straight chain isomer pentane, there are three groups of equivalent hydrogen atoms. As a result, three isomeric monochlorides are possible.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 6
(iii) The branched chain isomer has four types of equivalent hydrogen atoms present. It will give four isomeric monochlorides upon chlorination.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 7

Question 5.
Draw the structures of the major monohaloproducts in each of the following reactions:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 8
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 9
The reaction is carried in the presence of dry acetone upon heating. It is called Finkelstein reaction. In this reaction, I ion being a stronger nucleophile displaces Br ion. NaBr formed is insoluble in dry acetone whereas Nal dissolves. This shifts the equilibrium in the forward direction.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 10
Under the reaction conditions allylic halogenation will take place. Addition of bromine can be possible in case the reaction is carried at room temperature.

Question 6.
Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points.
(i)Bromomethane, Bromoform, Chloromethane, Dibromomethane.
(ii)1-Chloropropane, Isopropyl chloride, 1-Chlorobutane.
Answer:
(i) Chloromethane < Bromomethane <
Dibromomethane < Bromoform
The reason is:
(a)for same alkyl group, B.Pt increases with size of halogen atom.
(b)B.Pt increases as number of halogen atoms increase.
(ii)Isopropyl chloride < 1 – Chloropropane < 1 – Chlorobutane
Reason :
(a)For same halogen, B.Pt. increases as size of alkyl group increases.
(b)B.Pt. decreases as branching increases.

Question 7.
Which alkyl halide from the following pairs would you expect to react more rapidly by S mechanism ? Explain your answer.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 11
Answer:
If the leaving group is the same in different isomers of a particular molecular formula, the reactivity of the isomers towards SN² mechanism decreases with the increase in steric hindrance. In the light of above, the reactivity order in different cases is :

(i) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br is a primary alkyl halide (1°). It is more reactive than the other isomer which is a secondary (2°) alkyl halide because less steric hindrance is caused by primary alkyl group as compared to secondary alkyl group.
(ii)

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 12is a secondary alkyl halide (2°). It is more reactive than the other isomer which is a tertiary alkyl halide (3°). The explanation is the same.
(iii) Here both the isomers are primary alkyl halides (1°). However, the isomer with CH3 group at C2 atom exerts more steric hindrance to the attacking nucleophile at C1 atom as compared to the other isomer in which a CH3 group is attached to C3 atom. It is, therefore, less reactive.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 13

Question 8.
In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes reaction faster ? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008, Outside Delhi 2010, 2013)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 14
Answer:
The reactivity of a particular halogen compound towards SN¹ reaction depends upon the stability of the carbocation formed as a result of ionisation. This is a slow step and is called rate determining step. The order of relative stabilities of different carbocations is in the order : tertiary > secondary > primary. In the light of this, the order of reactivity in the two cases is explained.

  1. The isomer (a) is a tertiary alkyl chloride while the other isomer (b) is a secondary alkyl chloride. The isomer (a) is more reactive towards S i reaction since the tertiary carbocation formed in this case is more stable than the secondary carbocation which is likely to be formed in the other case.
  2.  The isomer (a) is a secondary alkyl chloride while the other isomer (b) is primary in nature. The secondary alkyl chloride (a) is expected to react faster since the secondary carbocation formed is more stable than the primary carbocation which is likely to be formed in the other case.

Question 9.
Identify A, B, C, D, E, R and R’ in the following :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 15
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 16

NCERT EXERCISE

Question 1.
Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system and classify them as alkyl, allyl, benzyl (primary, secondary, tertiary) vinyl or aryl halides.
(i) (CH3)2CHCH(C1)CH3 (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2013)
(ii) CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH(C2H5)Cl
(iii) CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2I
(iv) CH3C(C1)(C2H5)CH2CH3
(v) CH3.C(C2H5)2CH2Br
(vi) CH3CH=C(C1)CH2CH(CH3)2
(vii) CH2=CH-CH2-Br
(viii) CH3CH=CHC(Br)(CH3)2
(ix) m-C1CH2C6H4CH2C(CH3)3
(x) o-BrC6H4CH(CH3)CH2CH3
(xi) (CH3)3CCH2CH(Br)C5H5
(xii) p-ClC6H4CH2CH(CH3)2
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 17
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 18

Question 2.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 19
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 20
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 21

Question 3.
Write the structures of the following compounds :
(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane.
(iii) 2-(2-Chlorophenyi)-1-iodooctane
(iv) 4-tert. butyl -3-iodooctane
(v) 1, 4-Dibromobut-2-ene
(vi) 1-Bromo-4-sec.butyl-2-methylbenzene.
(vii) p-Bromochlorobenzene
(viii) Perfluorobenzene
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 22
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 23
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 24
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 25
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NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 27
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 28
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 29

Question 4.
Which one of the following has highest dipole moment?
(a) CH2Cl2
(b) CHCl3
(c) CCl4
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 30

CCl4 is a symmetrical molecule. Therefore, the dipole moments of all four C-Cl bonds cancel each other. Hence its resultant dipole moment is zero.

As shown in the above figure, in CHCl3, the resultant dipole moments of two C-Cl bonds is opposed by the resultant dipole moments of one C-H and one C-Cl bond. Since the resultant of one C-H and one C-Cl bond is smaller than the resultant of the two C-Cl bonds dipole moments, the opposition is to a small extent. As a result CHCl3 has a small net dipole moment.

On the other hand, in case of CH2,Cl2 the resultant of the dipole moments of two C-Cl bonds is strengthened by the resultant of the dipole moments of two C-H bonds. As a result, CH2Cl2 has a higher dipole moment. Hence CH2Cl2 has the highest dipole moments among the three compounds.
Hence, the given compounds can be arranged in the increasing order of their dipole moments as
CCl4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2

Question 5.
A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monobromo compound in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer:
A hydrocarbon with the molecular formula, C5H10 belongs to the group with a general molecular form CnH2n. therefore, it may either be an alkene or a cycloalkane since hydrocarbon does not react with chlorine in the dark, it cannot be alkene. Further, the hydrocarbon gives a single monochloro compound, C5H9Cl by reacting with chlorine in might sunshine since the formed compound is monochloro one all the C-H bonds should be equivalent. Hence the compound should be a cycloalkane. Hence the compound is C5H10 (cyclopentane).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 31

Question 6.
Write the isomers of the compound having the formula C4H9Br. (Haryana Board 2013)
Answer:
The compound has the following structural isomers.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 32
2-Bromobutane has a chiral carbon and it is expected to exhibit optical isomerism.

Question 7.
Write equations for the preparation of 1-Iodobutane from :
(a) Butan-1- ol
(b) 1-Chlorobutane
(c) But-1-ene.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 33

Question 8.
What are ambident nucleophiles? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Nucleophiles which can attack through two different sites are called ambident nucleophiles. For example, cyanide ion exists as a hybrid of the following two structures. It can attack either
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 34
through carbon to form cyanides (or nitriles) or through nitrogen to form isocyanides (or carbyl amines). For more details, consult section 11.7.

Question 9.
Which compound in the following pairs will react faster in the Sn2 reaction?
(1) CH3Br or CH3I
(1) (CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl (C.B.S.E. 2008)
Answer:
1. In the SN2 mechanism the reactivity of halides for the same alkyl group increase in order. This happens because as the size increases the halide ion becomes a better leaving group.
R-F << R-Cl < R – Br < R-I
Therefore, CH3I will react faster than CH3Br in SN2 reaction with image 17.

2. The SN2 mechanism involves the attack of the nucleophile at the atom bearing the leaving group. But, in the case (CH3)3 CCl, the attack of the nucleophile at the carbon atom is hindered by the presence of the bulky substituents on that carbon atom bearing-the leaving the group in CH3Cl. Hence CH3Cl reacts faster than (CH3)3 CCl in SN2 reaction with 2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes - 17

Question 10.
Predict all the alkenes that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of following alkyl halides with sodium ethoxide in ethanol.
(i) 1-Bromo-l-metbylcyclohexane
(ii) 2-Chloro-2-methyl butane
(iii) 3-Bromo-2, 2, 3-trimethylpentane.
Answer:
(i) 1-Bromo-l-methylcyclohexane has two β-hydrogen atoms. This will give a mixture of two alkenes as a result of dehydrohalogenation. Since alkene (B) is more substituted according to SaytzefFs rule, it is more stable and will be the major product. The same rule applies to the other alkyl halides also.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 35

(ii) The compound has two sets of β-hydrogen atoms. Therefore, two elimination products are formed. However, a more substituted alkene is formed in greater proportion as compared to a less substituted alkene.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 36
The explanation is similar. More substituted alkene is formed in preference to less substituted alkene.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 37

Question 11.
How will you bring about the following conversions?   (Haryana Board 2011)
(i) Ethanol to but-1-yne
(ii) Ethane to bromoethane
(iii) Propene to 1-nitropropane
(iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Propene to propyne
(vi) Ethanol to ethyl fluoride
(vii) Bromometbane to propanone
(viii) But-1-ene to but-2-ene
(ix) 1-Chiorobutane to n-octane
(x) Benzene to biphenyl
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 38
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 39

Question 12.
Explain why:
(i) Dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride (C.B.S.E 2016)
(ii)
Alkyl halides though polar, are immiscible with water.
(iii) Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 40
The polarity of C- Cl bond in chlorobenzene is less than that of same bond in cyclohexyl chloride because of carbon atom involved in chlorobenzene is more electronegative (greater s-character) as compared to the carbon atom in case of cyclohexyl chloride (lesser s-character). Therefore, the dipole moment of chlorobenzene is less with respect to cyclohexyl chloride.

(ii)
In water, H2O molecules are linked to each other by intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Although alkyl halides also contain polar C – X bonds, they cannot break the hydrogen bonding in H20 molecules. This means that there is hardly any scope for the association between molecules of alkyl halides and water. They, therefore, exist as separate layers and are immiscible with each other. For more details, consult section 11.6.

(iii) Grignard reagents (R – Mg – X) should be prepared under anhydrous conditions because these are readily decomposed by water to form alkanes.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 41
That is why ether used as solvent in the preparation of Grignard reagent is completely anhydrous in nature.

Question 13.
Give the uses of freon-12, D.D.T., carbon tetrachloride and iodoform?
Answer:

  1. Freons are the trade names for the commercially used fluoro chloromethanes with the formula CFxCly (x + y = 4). A few examples are:
    CF4 (Freon-14), CF3C1 (Freon-13), CF2Cl2 (Freon-12), CFCl3 (Freon-11)
    Out of the various freons mentioned, Freon- 12 is the most common refrigerant. It is prepared by passing hydrogen fluoride
    through carbon tetrachionde in the presence of antimony trichioride catalyst.
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 42
    in addition to their use as refrigerants in place of highly toxic liquid sulphur dioxide (SO2) and ammonia (NH3), large amount of CFCs are also used in the manufacture of disposable foam products such as cups and plates, as aerosol propellants in spray cans and as solvents to clean freshly soldered electronic circuit boards.
  2. D.D.T. is the abbreviated form of p, p’-dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane and its actual IUPAC naine has been given above. It is
    prepared by heating chiorobenzene with chlorai (trichioroacetaldehyde) in the presence of conc. H2S04
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 43
  3. Carbon tetrachloride (CC14) is also a colourless oily liquid just like chloroform. It is completely immiscible with water but
    dissolves in organic solvents.
    Carbon tetrachloride is a very useful solvent for oils, fats, resins etc. Ills used as a cleansing agent both in industry and in home because it can easily dissolve grease and other organic matter. But it mainly finds application for the manufacture of refrigerants, propellants for aerosol cans and some pharmaceuticals.
  4. lodoform is a yellow crystalline solid with a characteristic unpleasant smell. It is insoluble in water but dissolves in alcohol, ether and other organic solvents.
    lodoform can be prepared in the laboratory by treating ethyl alcohol or acetone with sodium hydroxide and iodine. The reaction is known as haloform or iodoform reaction.
  5. Physiological effects: lodoform is used as an antiseptic, particularly for dressing wounds. Actually, on coming in contact with skin (organic mater) it decomposes and slowly loses iodine which accounts for the antiseptic properties of iodoform.

Question 14.
Write the structures of the major products in each of the following reactions :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 44
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 45
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 46

Question 15.
Explain the following reaction :    (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2009 Comptt.)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 47
Answer:
KCN is a resonance hybrid of two contributing structures :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 48
This shows that the cyanide ion is an ambident nucleophile and the nucleophile attack is possible either through carbon atom or nitrogen atom resulting in cyanides and isocyanides respectively. In this case, in the presence of polar solvent, KCN readily ionises to furnish ions. The nucleophile attack takes place predominantly through a carbon atom and not through nitrogen atom as C- C bond is more stable than C -N bond.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 49

Question 16.
Arrange the compounds of each set in order of decreasing reactivity towards (S) displacement:
(a) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
(b) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane
(c) 1-Bromobutane, l-Bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane, l-Bromo-2-methylbutane, l-Bromo-3-methylbutane. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The reactivity of a particular haloalkane towards SN2 reaction is inversely proportional to the steric hindrance around the carbon atom involved in C – X bond. More the steric hindrance, lesser will be the reactivity. In the light of this, the decreasing order of reactivity in all the three cases is as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 50

Question 17.
Out of  C6H5CH2Cl and C6H5CH(C1)C6H5 which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH?
Answer:
The compound C6H5CH2Cl is a primary aralkyl halide while C6H5CH(Cl)C6H5 is secondary in nature. The hydrolysis of both these compounds with aqueous KOH (polar) is likely to proceed by S mechanism due to the following reasons.
(a) The carbocations formed in both the cases as a result of ionisation are resonance stabilised due to the presence of phenyl groups at the a-position(s).
(b) As water is a polar solvent, it is expected to favour ionisation of the two halogen-substituted compounds leading to S mechanism.
The carbocations that are formed as a result of ionisation in the slow steps are shown :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 51
The ease of hydrolysis depends upon the relative stability of the carbocation/s that are formed in two cases. The secondary carbocation is more stable since the positive charge on the carbocation is delocalised on two phenyl groups that are present at the a-positions. On the other hand, there is only one phenyl group in primary carbocation available for charge delocalisation.
Thus, we may conclude that C6H5CHClC6H5 is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH as compared to C6H5CH2Cl.

Question 18.
p-Dichlorobenzene has higher m.p. and lower solubility than those of o-and m-isomers. Discuss.
Answer:
p-dichlorobenzene has a higher melting point than its o-isomer due to the symmetry of the p-isomer that fits in the crystal lattice better than the o- or m- isomer. Therefore, it has stronger intermolecular forces of attraction than o- and m- isomers, and thus greater energy are required to break crystal lattice to melt or dissolve the p-isomer than the corresponding o- and m- isomers. In other words, the melting point of the p-isomer is higher and its solubility is lower than corresponding m- and o- isomers.

Question 19.
How the following conversions can be carried out?
(i) Propene to propan-1-ol
(ii) Ethanol to but-1-yne
(iii) 1-Bromopropane to 2-bromopropane
(iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Benzene to 4-bromonitrobenzene
(vi) Benzyl alcohol to 2-phenyl ethanoic acid
(vii) Ethanol to propane nitrite
(viii) Aniline to chlorobenzene
(ix) 2-Chlorobutane to 3, 4 – dimethyl hexane
(x) 2-Methylpropene to 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
(xi) Ethyl chloride to propanoic acid
(xii) But-l-ene to n-butyl iodide
(xiii) 2-Chloropropane to propan-l-ol
(xiv) Isopropyl alcohol to iodoform
(xv) Chlorobenzene to p-nitrophenol
(xvi) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
(xvii) Chloroethane to butane
(xviii) Benzene to diphenyl
(xix) tert-Butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide
(xx) Aniline to phenyl isocyanide.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 52
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 53
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 54
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NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 56

Question 20.
The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aqueous KOH leads to the formation of alcohols but in the presence of alcoholic KOH, alkenes are major products. Explain.
Answer:
If aqueous solution, KOH is almost completely ionized to give OH ions which being a strong nucleophile brings about a substitution reaction on alkyl halides to form alcohols. Further in the aqueous solution, OH ions are highly solvated (hydrated). This solvation reduces the basic character of OH ions which, therefore, fails to abstract a hydrogen from the P-carbon of the alkyl chloride to form alkenes. In contrast, an alcoholic solution of KOH contains alkoxide (RO) ion which being a much stronger base than OH ions preferentially eliminates a molecule of HCl from an alkyl chloride to form alkenes.

Question 21.
Primary alkyl halide (a) C4H9Br was reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (b). Compound (b) was reacted with HBr to give (c) which was an isomer of (a). When (a) was reacted with sodium metal, it gave a compound (d) C8H18, that was different than the compound when n-butyl bromide was reacted with sodium. Give the structural formula of (a) and write the equations for all the reactions.
Answer:
The two primary alkyl bromides are possible from the molecular formula (a) C4H9Br. These are:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 57
According to the available information, the isomer (I) does not represent the correct compound because this on reacting with sodium metal (Wurtz reaction) will give n-octane. (C8H18) which is not actually formed
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 58

Question 22.
What happens when
(i) n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH,
(ii) bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether,
(iii) chlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis,
(iv) ethyl chloride is treated with (aq.) KOH,
(v) methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether,
(vi) methyl chloride is treated with KCN?
Answer:
(i) But-l-ene is formed as the product as a result of dehydrohalogenation.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 59
(ii) Phenyl magnesium bromide (Grignard reagent) is formed as a result of the reaction.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 60
(iii) Chlorobenzene will not get hydrolysed on boiling with NaOH. No product will be formed.
(iv) Ethyl alcohol is formed as the product
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 61
(v) Ethane is formed as a result of Wurtz reaction
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 62
(vi) Methyl cyanide is formed.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers tq 63

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