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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India

February 10, 2023February 9, 2023 by Prasanna

Parties and the Party Systems in India Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

Whom would you like to identify the slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’ with?

(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Syndicate
(C) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(D) Nehru
Answer:
(C) Lai Bahadur Shastri

Explanation:
Jai Jawaan Jai Kisaan was a slogan given by the second Prime Minister of India Lai Bahadur Shastri in 1965 at a public gathering at Ramlila Maid an, Delhi.

Question 2.

Prime Minister Jawahar Lai Nehru passed away in May:

(A) 1954
(B) 1964
(C) 1974
(D) 1984
Answer:
(B) 1964

Question 3.

was unanimously chosen as the leader of the Congress Parliamentary Party after the death of Nehru.

(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(C) Morarji Desai
(D) Natarajan Annadurai

Answer:
(A) Indira Gandhi

Explanation:
When Nehru passed away, the then president, K. Kamraj, of the Congress party consulted party members and found that there was a consensus in favour of Lai Bahadur Shastri as he was a non-controversial leader from Uttar Pradesh who had been a Minister in Nehru’s cabinet for many years. Nehru had come to depend a lot on him in his last years.

Question4.

In the decade of 1960’s, the Congress Party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi was affected by:

(A) Violence
(B) Defection
(C) Internal conflicts
(D) Censorship
Answer:
(C) Internal conflicts

Explanation:
Emergency applicable by Indira Gandhi has played a major role in creating internal conflicts.

Question 5.

The economic situation in 1967 triggered off:

(A) Price rise
(B) Price fall
(C) Economic progress
(D) Military rise
Answer:
(A) Price rise

Question 6.

The had played a role in the installation of Indira Gandhi as the Prime Minister by ensuring her election as the leader of the Parliamentary Party.

(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Syndicate
(C) Opposition
(D) Economic conditions
Answer:
(B) Syndicate

Question 7.

The Syndicate wanted Indira Gandhi to act as a:

(A) strong leader
(B) puppet E
(C) financial backup
(D) face of the country
Answer:
(B) puppet E

Explanation:
The senior Congress leaders belief that her administrative and political inexperience would compel her to be dependent on them for support and guidance.

Question 8.

The Grand Alliance of opposition of 1971:

(A) got a combined tally of seats that was less than 40.
(B) had a clear ideological programme.
(C) had a grand finish in the 1970 elections.
(D) proved to be a great success.
Answer:
(A) got a combined tally of seats that was less than 40.

Explanation:
Grand Alliance was an alliance between Congress and CPI in which they won 352 seats out of 375.

Question 9.

Whom would you like to identify the slogan ‘Indira Hatao’ with?

(A) Syndicate
(B) Karpoori Thakur
(C) V V. Giri
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
(A) Syndicate

Explanation:
In 1971, Jayaprakash Narayan from opposition 0anta Party) gave the slogan Indira Hatao to crush Congress in Lok Sabha Elections, 1977.

Question 10.

Which period of Indian politics was referred to as “dangerous decade”?

(A) 1970s
(B) 1950s
(C) 1980s
(D) 1960s
Answer:
(D) 1960s

Explanation: This decade witnessed the transition of Indian politics from Nehru to Shastri to Indira Gandhi. The number of challenges like inequality, poverty, unemployment, religious and communal divide, and national security was witnessed during this decade.

Question 11.

For how many years Lai Bahadur Sashtri remained cabinet minister prior becoming the PM?

(A) four
(B) three
(C) five
(D) ten
Answer:
(D) ten

Question 12.

Who gave slogan “Garibi Hatao”?

(A) Lai Bahadur Sashtri
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Indira Gandhi

Explanation:
In 1971, when Jayaprakash Narayan gave the slogan Indira Hatao to crush Congress in Lok Sabha Elections, 1977. In contrast to that Indira Gandhi Gave the slogan Garibi Hatao to generate a support base among the disadvantaged.

Question 13.

Why Indira Gandhi was called “Goongi Gudiya” in Indian Politics?

(A) Because people believed that she was a puppet of powerful leaders.
(B) Because she remained an inactive PM at that time.
(C) Because she lost the elections and there was a rift in the party.
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(A) Because people believed that she was a puppet of powerful leaders.

Explanation:
Indira Gandhi was called “Gongi Gudiya” because opposition felt that she is not taking any decisions on her own without the consent of the powerful leaders. Besides, the country was facing many problems like drought, famine, economic crises, decrease in agricultural produce, decrease in industrial production etc.

Question 14.

Why the results of general elections 1967 were called ‘political earthquake’?

(A) Because congress lost all the seats
(B) The elections were not at all successful
(C) The popularity of Congress had reduced by a large scale
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The popularity of Congress had reduced by a large scale

Explanation:
The results of the General Election of 1967 were a shock for the congress at the national and the state levels. Most of the ministers in Indira Gandhi’s cabinet lost the elections.

Question 15.

Whose name was proposed by the syndicate for the Presidential elections 1969?

(A) K Kamraj
(B) V V Giri
(C) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) N. Sanjeeva Reddy

Explanation:
In 1969, President Zakir Hussain’s death made the post of President of the India fell vacant. The ‘syndicate’ nominate the then speaker of the Lok Sabha, N. Sanjeeva Reddy, while Indira Gandhi retaliated by encouraging the then Vice-President, V. V Giri, to file his nomination.

Question 16.

When did congress party split into two groups?

(A) 1969
(B) 1979
(C) 1959
(D) 1960
Answer:
(A) 1969

Explanation:
The defeat of the official Congress candidate formalised the split in the party. By November 1969, the Congress group led by the ‘syndicate’ came to be referred to as the Congress (Organisation) and the group led by Indira Gandhi came to be called the Congress
Requisitionists). These two parties were also described as Old Congress and New Congress.

Question 17.

When Indira Gandhi recommended dissolution of Lok Sabha?

(A) December 1971
(B) November 1970
(C) December 1970
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) December 1970

Explanation: Indira Gandhi vigorously campaigned for implementing the existing land reform laws and undertook further land ceiling legislation. In order to end her dependence on other political parties and strengthen her party’s position in the Parliament, Indira Gandhi’s government recommended the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in December 1970.

Question 18.

In General Elections 1971 which party was supported by the majority of the voters?

(A) Congress (O)
(B) Congress (R)
(C) Congress (D)
(D) UPA
Answer:
(B) Congress (R)

Question 19.

What was the motto of Grand Alliance?

(A) Garibi Hatao
(B) Economy Badhao
(C) Corruption Hatao
(D) Indira Hatao
Answer:
(D) Indira Hata

Explanation:
To make matters worse for Indira Gandhi, all the major non-communist, non- Congress opposition parties (SSR PSFJ Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and the Bharatiya Kranti Dal) formed an electoral alliance known as the Grand Alliance.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of –
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion: Our leaders were conscious of the critical role of politics in any democracy.
Reason: They.did not see politics as a problem; they saw it as a way of solving the problems.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Every society needs to decide how it will govern and regulate itself. There are always different policy alternatives to choose from. There are different groups with different and conflicting aspirations. How do we resolve these differences? Democratic politics is an answer to this question. Our leaders meticulously chose what was right for the nation.

Question 2.

Assertion: It was not just the size of the country and the electorate that made this election unusual. The first general election was also the first big test of democracy in a poor and illiterate country. [A] Reason: At that time there were 17 crores eligible voters, who had to elect about 3,200 MLAs and 489 Members of Lok Sabha. Yet, the elections were conducted successfully.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Despite of the size of the voters, election commission was able to organize a nationwide election. It firmly believed in democracy and staked all the resources and labour to conduct the elections in a fair manner.

Question 3.

Assertion: The elections had to be postponed twice and finally held from October 1951 to February 1952.
Reason: But this election is referred to as the 1951 election since most parts of the country voted in January 1951.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
The elections had to be postponed. Since the majority of the population was able to vote in January 1952, it is referred as 1952 elections.

Question 4.

Assertion: The Indian National Congress was expected to lose this election.
Reason: The Congress party, as it was popularly known, had inherited the legacy of the national movement.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
This period was the inception of “One Party dominance” in the politics of India. There was no other party which could give congress a tough competition. Hence, Congress won the elections as expected.

Question 5.

Assertion: What distinguished the dominance of the Congress party in India from all the other cases was it happened under democratic conditions.
Reason: Many parties contested elections in conditions of free and fair elections and yet the Congress managed to win election after election.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
In the other cases the dominance of one party was ensured by compromising democracy. But Congress never restricted any party to compete in the elections. Elections were conducted peacefully and in a fair manner.

Question 6.

Assertion: The roots of the extraordinary success of the Congress party go back to the legacy of the freedom struggle. [0]
Reason: This was similar to the dominance the African National Congress has enjoyed in South Africa after the end of apartheid.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Indeed the dominance of Congress can be compared with that of the African National Congress. But Congress in India had the legacy of their struggle for freedom of India. Congress was seen as inheritor of the national movement.

Question 7.

Assertion: Congress evolved from its origins in 1785 as a pressure group for the newly educated, professional and commercial classes to a mass movement in the twentieth century.
Reason: Thus the Congress began as a party dominated by the English speaking, upper caste, upper middle-class and urban elite.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
Congress party evolved in 1885. Its initial members were from upper class, elites, and English-speaking class. But with every movement it launched, the common people from all the caste and class began to be included in Congress.

Question 8.

Assertion: Congress accommodated the
revolutionary and pacifist, conservative and radical, extremist and moderate and the right, left and all shades of the centre.
Reason: All these members had differences in deciding the party policies and launching freedom struggle.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
Though Congress had members from various ideologies and backgrounds. It managed to create a balance between them and as a result, all the freedom struggles launched by congress were responded by the people belonging to every strata of the society

Question 9.

Assertion: The Communists failed to generate popular support for their position and were crushed by the armed forces.
Reason: This forced them to rethink their position. In 1951 the Communist Party abandoned the path of violent revolution and decided to participate in the approaching general elections.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 10.

Assertion: This coalition-like character of the Congress gave it an unusual strength.
Reason: Congress acted as an extremist as far as coalition politics is concerned and handled all the issues arbitrarily.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
Instead of being rigid in politics, Congress understood that compromise and inclusiveness are the hallmarks of a coalition. This strategy put the opposition in a difficulty

Question 11.

Assertion: The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was formed in 1986 with Shyama Prasad Mukherjee as its Founder-President.
Reason: It emphasized the idea of one country, one culture and one nation and believed that the country could become modern, progressive and strong on the basis of Indian culture and traditions.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was formed in 1951 by Shyama Prasad Mukherjee. It emphasized that the country can be modern by following Indian culture only. Its ideology was based on right wing politics.

Question 12.

Assertion: The factions took different ideological positions making the Congress appear as a grand centrist party.
Reason: The Bhartiya Jana Sangh called for a reunion of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat. The party was in forefront of the agitation to replace English with Hindi as the official language of India and was also opposed to the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Congress and Bhartiya Jana Sangh were the two different sides of the coin of Indian politics. Congress supported the idea of the secularism and was leaning towards the leftist ideology. Bhartiya Jana Sangh, since its inception, was of the ideology which never favoured any concessions to be given to the minorities. It had a very clear vision of Akhand Bharat.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India - 1

Question 1.

What does the cartoon represent?

(A) General elections 1989
(B) Midterm elections 1971
(C) The Presidential elections of 1969
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The Presidential elections of 1969

Question 2.

Why Indira Gandhi in the picture looks pleased?

(A) Because she can now impose emergency in the country.
(B) Because her nominee won.
(C) Because the person won was a relative to her.
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(B) Because her nominee won.

Question 3.

Identify the person wearing garland in winning position.

(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Chaudhary Charan singh
(C) KKamraj
(D) V V Giri
Answer:
(D) V V Giri

Question 4.

Who is lying on the ground?

(A) N Sanjeeva Reddy
(B) K. Kamraj
(C) Jay Prakash Narayan
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) N Sanjeeva Reddy

II. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 12 Parties and the Party Systems in India - 2

Question 1.

The cartoon depicts the results of which elections?

(A) The results of 1989 elections
(B) The results of 1971 elections
(C) The results of 1969 elections
(D) The results of 1990 elections
Answer:
(B) The results of 1971 elections

Question 2.

What was the outcome of these elections labelled as?

(A) The Great Finish
(B) An Extraordinary Finish
(C) Indira, the Iron Lady
(D) The Grand Finish
Answer:
(D) The Grand Finish

Question 3.

Who are depicted as the players in the cartoon?

(A) Congress’ leaders
(B) Communist Party of India’s leaders
(C) The then leading opposition figures
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The then leading opposition figures

Question 4.

Which party did Indira Gandhi lead in 1971 elections?

(A) Congress (R)
(B) Congress (O)
(C) Congress United
(D) UPA .
Answer:
(A) Congress (R)

III. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follows:
Earlier, Lai Bahadur Shastri had resigned from the position of Railway Minister accepting moral responsibility for a major railway accident. Shastri was the country’s Prime Minister from 1964 to 1966. During Shastri’s brief Prime Ministership, the country faced two major challenges. While India was still recovering from the economic implications of the war with China; failed monsoons, drought and serious food crisis presented a grave challenge.

As discussed in the previous chapter, the country also faced a war with Pakistan in 1965. Shastri’s famous slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’, symbolised the country’s resolve to face both these challenges. Shastri’s Prime Ministership came to an abrupt end on 10 January, 1966, when he suddenly expired in Tashkent, then in USSR and currently the capital of Uzbekistan. He was there to discuss and sign an agreement with Muhammad Ayub Khan, the then President of Pakistan, to end the war.

Question 1.

Why Shastri resigned from the position of Railway Minister?

(A) Accepting moral responsibility for railway accident.
(B) He was forced to resign.
(C) His party lost elections.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(A) Accepting moral responsibility for railway accident.

Explanation:
Shastri ji was a Railway Minister under Jawaharlal Nehru’s cabinet. He gave his resignation when in August, 1956 a major railway accident happened in Mahabubnagar, Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.

What was the tenure of Shastri as a PM of India?

(A) 1966 to 1970
(B) 1967 to 1970
(C) 1964 to 1966
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) 1964 to 1966

Question 3.

What two major crises India faced during Shastri’s tenure?

(A) Political and social crises.
(B) Economic and serious food crises.
(C) War and communalism.
(D) War and political crises.
Answer:
(B) Economic and serious food crises.

Question 4.

What was the famous slogan given by Shastri?

(A) “Aya Ram, Gaya Ram”
(B) ” Swachha Bharat, Swastha Bharat”
(C) “JaiJawan, JaiKisan”
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) “JaiJawan, JaiKisan”

Explanation:
Jai Jawaan Jai Kisaan was a slogan given by the second Prime Minister of India Lai Bahadur Shastri in 1965 at a public gathering at Ramlila Maidan, Delhi.

IV. Read the following excerpt and answer the questions that follows:
The dramatic nature of the political change would be more apparent to you at the State level. The Congress lost majority in as many as seven States. In two other States, defections prevented it from forming a government. These nine States where the Congress lost power were spread across the country – Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala. In Madras State (now called Tamil Nadu), a regional party – the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) – came to power by securing a clear majority.

The DMK won power after having led a massive anti-Hindi agitation by students against the centre on the issue of imposition of Hindi as the official language. This was the first time, any non-Congress party had secured a majority of its own in any State. In the other eight States, coalition governments consisting of different non-Congress parties were formed. A popular saying was that one could take a train from Delhi to Howrah and not pass through a single Congress ruled State. It was a strange feeling for those who were used to seeing the Congress in power.

Question 1.

In how many states Congress lost majority?

(A) Five states
(B) Seven states
(C) Nine states
(D) Eleven states
Answer:
(B) Seven states

Question 2.

What is the current name of Madras?

(A) Telangana
(B) Chennai
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Tamil Nadu

Question 3.

On what agenda DMK came into power in Tamil Nadu?

(A) Eradication of poverty.
(B) Agenda against one party dominance.
(C) Promise to increase educational institution.
(D) Against the imposition of Hindi as a national language.
Answer:
(D) Against the imposition of Hindi as a national language.

Question 4.

In how many states a coalition government of non-congress parties were formed?

(A) Eight
(B) Seven
(C) Six
(D) Ten
Answer:
(A) Eight

V. Read the paragraph given below and answer the questions that follows:
India’s grand old party, the Congress, faced its first major split as the old guard led by party President, S. Nijalingappa expelled Prime Minister Indira Gandhi from the party for “fostering a cult of personality”. The “Syndicate”, as the senior members were called, could not quite come to terms with the fact that the “Gungi Gudiya” (dumb doll)-their snide reference for Indira-had a mind of her own. The break was complete when Indira after proposing N.

Sanjeeva Reddy’s name for presidentship asked Congressmen to “vote according to their conscience”. V. V. Giri, the rebel Congress candidate won. When the communal temperature was at its peak in India, the country had a Muslim President and a Muslim Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

After serving as vice-president to the great Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan for five years, Zakir Hussain, an academic and former vice-chancellor of the Aligarh Muslim University, became the philosopher scholar’s successor at Rashtrapati Bhavan in 1967. Hussain, however, had one of the briefest terms as the country’s president as he died less than two years later. He was also the first Indian president to die in office.

Question 1.

Who was called “Gungi Gudiya”?

(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(C) S. Nijalingappa
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Indira Gandhi

Question 2.

Whose name was proposed for president by Indira Gandhi?

(A) V V Giri
(B) N Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) Indira Gandhi herself
Answer:
(B) N Sanjeeva Reddy

Question 3.

Who was the vice-president to Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan?

(A) V. V. Giri
(B) N Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Zakir Hussain

Question 4.

Who was the first president to die in the office?

(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(B) S. Nijalingappa
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Zakir Hussain

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 11 India’s Foreign Policy

February 10, 2023February 9, 2023 by Prasanna

India’s Foreign Policy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

Nehru was our first Prime Minister as well as:

(A) Health Minister
(B) Foreign Minister
(C) Education Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Answer:
(B) Foreign Minister

Question 2.

The foreign policy of independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of:

(A) non-alignment
(B) no nuclear weapons
(C) military expansion
(D) no Cold War
Answer:
(A) non-alignment

Explanation:
India didn’t join US & USSR during cold war. India advocating the policy of non alignment by reducing the Cold war alliance and led the protest against Neocolonialism.

Question 3.

The …………. laid foundation for Non Alignment Movement established in 1961 with Nehru as the co-founder.

(A) Bandung Conference
(B) Foreign Policy
(C) US Aid
(D) Peace Treaty
Answer:
(B) Foreign Policy

Explanation:
The Bandung Conference and its final resolution laid the foundation for the non- aligned movement during the Cold War. Leaders of developing countries banded together to avoid being forced to take sides in the Cold War contest. The initial motivation for the movement was the promotion of peace.

Question 4.

Select the correct option for the leader and the country that helped to reach the Tashkent agreement between India and Pakistan:

(A) India, Nehru
(B) USSR, Kosygin
(C) Egypt, Nasser
(D) Indonesia, Sukarno
Answer:
(B) USSR, Kosygin

Explanation:
The Tashkent Declaration was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan signed on 10 January 1966 to resolve the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965. The meeting was held in Tashkent in the Uzbek Soviet Socialist Republic, Soviet Union represented by Premier Aleksey Kosygin.

Question 5.

Sri Lanka is a member of :

(A) SAARC
(B) UNESCO
(C) G7
(D) WHO
Answer:
(A) SAARC

Explanation:
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an organization of eight countries (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka) in South Asia established in 1985.

Question 6.

It was in that full diplomatic relations were restored between India and Pakistan.

(A) 1976
(B) 1966
(C) 1956
(D) 1946
Answer:
(A) 1976

Explanation:
India was attacked by China in I October 1962. It took more than a decade for 1 India and China to resume normal relations.

Question 7.

The first nuclear explosion undertaken by India was in May:

(A) 1964
(B) 1974
(C) 1984
(D) 1994
Answer:
(A) 1964

Explanation:
During the tenure of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, first underground nuclear explosion occurred at Pokhran in Rajasthan on May 18,1974.

Question 8.

The period when the nuclear test was conducted was a difficult period in:

(A) Domestic politics
(B) Foreign politics
(C) Military dominance
(D) Financial world
Answer:
(D) Financial world

Explanation:
The 1973-1975 was a period of economic stagnation where high unemployment and high inflation existed simultaneously.

Question 9.

India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in:

(A) 1995
(B) 1985
(C) 1975
(D) 1965
Answer:
(A) 1995

Question 10.

Why stronger countries’ foreign policies were supported by many countries after WW2?

(A) Because stronger countries supported them and aided them financially.
(B) Because they were afraid of being colonized again.
(C) Because most countries in the world did so.
(D) Because they were poor.
Answer:
(B) Because they were afraid of being colonized again.

Explanation:
Most of the newly independent countries feared of the war between the two blocs. They never wanted to face any financial as well as political consequences. Hence, they supported the stronger nations for financial as well as military aid,

Question 11.

In post WW2 era, why the tensions were erupted between India and US?

(A) US feared that India would join USSR.
(B) US wanted to colonize India.
(C) The NAM pursued by India was not liked by USA.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(C) The NAM pursued by India was not liked by USA.

Explanation:
While India was trying to convince the other developing countries about the policy of non-alignment, the US was not happy about India’s these independent initiatives. The US also disliked India’s growing partnership with the Soviet Union. Therefore, there was a considerable unease in Indo- US relations during the 1950s.

Question 12.

When did India and China signed Panchsheel agreement?

(A) 24 April, 1954
(B) 29 April, 1954
(C) 30 April, 1954
(D) March, 1959
Answer:
(B) 29 April, 1954

Explanation:
Panchsheel Agreement signed on 29 April 1954 by the Indian Prime Minister Jawahar Lai Nehru and the Chinese Premier Zhou Enlai to make stronger relationship between the two countries.

Question 13.

When did India intervened the Bangladesh Liberation War?

(A) November 1971
(B) February 1971
(C) December 1971
(D) December 1972
Answer:
(C) December 1971

Question 14.

Who among the Prime Ministers of wishes to review the “no first use” policy?

(A) PM Narendra Modi
(B) PM Atal Bihari Vajpeyee
(C) PM Manmohan Singh
(D) All the above
Answer:
(A) PM Narendra Modi

Explanation:
Many nuclear states maintain policies that would permit them to use nuclear weapons in case of any conflict. While India wants a world to be free of nuclear weapons but still they reserved a right to fight back if attacked by any country

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion: The Indian national movement was not an isolated process. It was a part of the worldwide struggle against colonialism and imperialism. Reason: It influenced the liberation movements of many Asian and African countries.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Indian national movement encouraged many colonies to stand against their oppressors. Taking India’s example, many African and Asian countries stood against imperialism.

Question 2.

Assertion: The first Prime Minister, Jawahar Lai Nehru played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was his own foreign minister.
Reason: Thus both as the Prime Minister and the Foreign Minister, he exercised profound influence in the formulation and implementation of India’s foreign policy.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Being a foreign minister of India, Nehru exercised great influence over designing India’s foreign policies and relations with the other countries. He was the one who came up with an idea of NAM during the cold war era.

Question 3.

Assertion: The foreign policy of independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of non-alignment, by reducing Cold War tensions and by contributing human resources to the UN peacekeeping operations. [A|
Reason: India continued to oppose Pakistan on joining the Western Camp.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
India indeed advocated the policy of NAM. Taking India’s example, many other nations adopted NAM, but India never criticized nations who have joined any of blocs.

Question 4.

Assertion: While India was trying to convince the other developing countries about the policy of non-alignment, Pakistan joined the US-led military alliances.
Reason: Unlike its relationship with Pakistan, free India began its relationship with China on a very friendly note.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
India never forcefully approached any country to join NAM. On the one hand, Pakistan joined US-led military alliances, India kept developing and maintaining good relations with others.

Question 5.

Assertion: A boundary dispute had surfaced between India and China. India claimed that the boundary was a matter settled in colonial time, but China said that any colonial decision did not apply.
Reason: The China war dented India’s image at home and abroad. India had to approach the Americans and the British for military assistance to tide over the crisis.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
The Chinese denied any agreement happened between India and China regarding the borders. India continued to claim the territories which belonged to her. This dispute led to the war of 1962 for which India was never ready.

Question 6.

Assertion: The Sino- Indian conflict affected the opposition as well.
Reason: This and the growing rift between China and the Soviet Union created irreconcilable differences within the Communist Party of India (CPI).

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 7.

Assertion: Support for Pakistan came from the US and China. The US-China rapprochement that began in the late 1960s resulted in a realignment of forces in Asia.
Reason: In order to counter the US-Pakistan-China axis, India signed a 20-year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the Soviet Union in August 1971.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Pakistan, with the aid from US and China emerged as a threat to India. The treaty signed by India with USSR assured that if there was any attack on India, USSR will provide backup to India.

Question 8.

Assertion: Indian air crafts attacked parts of Pakistan and the army moved into POK and Swat Valley.
Reason: After months of diplomatic tension and military build-up, a full-scale war between India and Pakistan broke out in December 1971.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
India indeed had given the answer to Pakistan’s mischievous acts on the border. But, the attack was never initiated by Indian side, nor did Indian army entered Swat Valley.

Question 9.

Assertion: Nehru had always put his faith in science and technology for rapidly building a modern India.
Reason: A significant component of his industrialization plans was the nuclear programme initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi . Bhabha.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Nehru was a man of modern ideology. He was the great admirer of science and technology. He had initiated nuclear industry because India wanted to generate atomic energy for peaceful purposes. Nehru was against nuclear weapons.

Question 10.

Assertion: Communist China conducted nuclear tests in October 1964.
Reason: The five nuclear weapon powers, the US, USSR, UK, France, and China – also the five Permanent Members of the UN Security Council – tried to impose the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 on the rest of the world.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
It has always been a tendency of the powerful nations not to let any other nation be in their competence. Hence, soon after China tested her nuclear weapons, they have come up with NPT.

Question 11.

Assertion: Following the Arab-Israel War of 1973, the entire world was affected by the Oil Shock due to the massive hike in the oil prices by the Arab nations.
Reason: India was not at all affected by the crises at that time. India was already in a position to deal with any economic depression. Nor did oil prices hike in India.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 12.

Assertion: There are no differences among political parties about how to conduct external relations.
Reason: Indian politics is generally marked by a broad agreement among the parties on national integration, protection of international boundaries, and on questions of national interest.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: There has always been differences among the political parties of India about their external relations. But, this has never affected the foreign affairs of India. India always stood neutral as far as any international conflicts are concerned.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study the picture below and answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 11 India’s Foreign Policy - 1

Question 1.

What message does this cartoon convey?

(A) Scenario of recession.
(B) Persisting Indo- China tensions.
(C) Boycotting foreign products.
(D) Reduce exports of Indian goods.
Answer:
(B) Persisting Indo- China tensions.

Question 2.

Which year does the event happened?

(A) 1962
(B) 1974
(C) 1969
(D) 1950
Answer:
(A) 1962

Question 3.

Which event does this cartoon depict?

(A) Recession
(B) Globalization
(C) Chinese Invasion
(D) Historical buffer

Answer:
(C) Chinese Invasion

Question 4.

Which two countries relationship were strained after Suppression of Tibetan culture?

(A) India and Nepal
(B) India and Bangladesh
(C) India and China
(D) India and Myanmar
Answer:
(C) India and China

II. Answer the following questions by reading the given paragraph:
The first Prime Minister, Jawahar Lai Nehru played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was his own Foreign Minister. Thus, both as the Prime Minister and the Foreign Minister, he exercised profound influence in the formulation and implementation of India’s foreign policy from 1946 to 1964.

The three major objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy were to preserve the hard- earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development. Nehru wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment. There were, of course, parties and groups in the country that believed that India should be friendlier with the bloc led by the US because that bloc claimed to be pro-democracy. Among those who thought on these lines were

India’s Foreign Policy
leaders like Dr. Ambedkar. Some political parties, which were opposed to communism, also wanted India to follow a pro-US foreign policy. These included the Bharatiya Jan Sangh and later the Swatantra Party. But Nehru possessed considerable leeway in formulating foreign policy.

Question 1.

Who was the foreign minister during the time of Pt. Nehru?

(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Nehru himself
(D) Jay Prakash Narayan
Answer:
(C) Nehru himself

Question 2.

What were the three major objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy?

(A) To preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development.
(B) Non alignment policy, cordial relations with the countries of South Asia only, and military expansion to other nations.
(C) To increase imports, motivating foreign investment and encouraging MNCs to set up in India.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(A) To preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development.

Explanation:
The three major objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy were to preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development. Nehru wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment.

Question 3.

Which of the following leaders were in favour of supporting the US bloc?

(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Ambedkar
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(D) All the above
Answer:
(B) Ambedkar

Question 4.

What was the nature of the policy of US bloc?

(A) Pro- communist
(B) Pro- capitalist
(C) Pro- liberalist
(D) Pro-democratic
Answer:
(D) Pro-democratic

III. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
India has opposed the international treaties aimed at non-proliferation since they were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapons powers. Thus, India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 and also refused to sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

India conducted a series of nuclear tests in May 1998, demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear energy for military purposes. Pakistan soon followed, thereby increasing the vulnerability of the region to a nuclear exchange. The international community was extremely critical of the nuclear tests in the subcontinent and sanctions were imposed on both India and Pakistan, which were subsequently waived.

India’s nuclear doctrine of credible minimum nuclear deterrence professes “no first use” and reiterates India’s commitment to global, verifiable and non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to a nuclear weapons free world. Foreign policy is always dictated by ideas of national interest. In the period after 1990, Russia, though it continues to be an important friend of India, has lost its global pre-eminence. Therefore, India’s foreign policy has shifted to a more pro-US strategy.

Question 1.

Which of the following nuclear treaties were rejected by India?

(A) NPT, CTBT
(B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Panchsheel Agreement
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) NPT, CTBT

Explanation:
India has refused to sign the Treaty on the grounds of CTBT, like the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), is discriminatory. Even before coming into force, the CTBT has helped the cause of test-ban and nuclear disarmament by discouraging member-states from testing for and developing nuclear weapons.

Question 2.

When did India conduct series of nuclear tests?

(A) June 1998
(B) May 1998
(C) April 1998
(D) March 1998
Answer:
(B) May 1998

Question 3.

Why India’s foreign policy shifted to become more pro-US?

(A) Because Russia betrayed India.
(B) Because Russia attacked India.
(C) Because US derived more profit to India.
(D) Because Russia lost its global pre-eminence.
Answer:
(D) Because Russia lost its global pre-eminence.

Explanation:
The absolute increase in its military and economic resources began to compel India to think less like a developing, non-aligned country and more like an emerging and responsible power. India is also struggling to address the tension between the concepts of ‘strategic autonomy’ and ‘strategic influence’. This was the reason for India’s foreign policy shifted to become more pro-US.

Question 4.

Which one of the following is India’s stand for the use of nuclear weapon?

(A) No use of nuclear weapon at all.
(B) No first use of nuclear weapon.
(C) Use nuclear weapon in case of war.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) No first use of nuclear weapon.

Explanation:
India’s adherence to a no-first- use principle is long-standing. Ever since 1998, when the country went nuclear, New Delhi has rejected the idea of initiating the use of such weapons in any conflict scenario. Nukes, in I Indian strategy, are purely retaliatory. And that stance has made good military and diplomatic sense.

IV. Read the given paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
On April 8th, 2008 The Hindu published an article titled “Potential consequences of a regional nuclear conflict” in which the author convincingly illustrates the dangers a nuclear- armed South Asia presents. The fact that both India and Pakistan, but of course also China, possess nuclear weapons has been an alarming reality since 1998. The relative progress that has been achieved in India- Pakistan relations should not lead one to forget that two conflicts in 1999 and 2001 could easily have escalated into a nuclear confrontation.

India had embarked upon a civilian nuclear program right after her independence but the “weapon option” has always been present. India’s nuclear policy has been an evolutionary, sometimes painful process equally shaped by domestic and international factors. This paper attempts to analyse some of these factors and argues that the development of nuclear weapons was a logical, albeit not planned, consequence of them.

It is interesting that even those in India fiercely opposed to nuclear weapons subconsciously seemed to have realised that India’s nuclear program could not be limited to civilian application forever. On May 27th, 1998, the government of the then- prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee issued a statement to the 12th Lok Sabha titled the “Evolution of India’s Nuclear Policy”.

Question 1.

Which newspaper published the article titled “Potential consequences of a regional nuclear conflict”?

(A) Indian Express
(B) Times of India
(C) The Hindu
(D) Times Now
Answer:
(C) The Hindu

Question 2.

Which of the two conflicts between India and Pakistan could have led to a nuclear war?

(A) 1999 and 2001
(B) 2000 and 2008
(C) 1999 and 2003
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) 1999 and 2001

Question 3.

Since 1998, other than India and China, possession of nuclear weapons has been an alarming reality of which country?

(A) USA
(B) Pakistan
(C) Israel
(D) Brazil
Answer:
(B) Pakistan

Question 4.

Who issued the statement in 12th Lok Sabha for “Evolution of India’s nuclear policy”?

(A) Lai Krishna Advani
(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) Shri Narendra Modi
(D) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Answer:
(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 10 Planning And Development

February 10, 2023February 9, 2023 by Prasanna

Planning And Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

What was the concept of becoming more ‘modern’?

(A) Industrialized countries in West
(B) Developing like an own identity of developed nation
(C) Adopting globalization to a higher extent
(D) Adopting western capitalist modal of economy
Answer:
(A) Industrialized countries in West

Explanation:
Modern society of the West is industrial society. It is by undergoing the comprehensive transformation of industrialization that societies become modern.

Question 2.

Why J. C. Kumarappa supported the plan of industrialization of rural areas?

(A) For the ground level development
(B) To help the poor
(C) To escape the vicious circle of poverty
(D) To boost up the economy
Answer:
(C) To escape the vicious circle of poverty

Question 3.

Which one of the following was not a part of the early phase of India’s development policy?

(A) Planning
(B) Self sufficiency
(C) Privatization
(D) Social and economic justice.
Answer:
(C) Privatization

Explanation:
In 1991 just to increase revenue, profitability & efficiency of public enterprises government decided to move towards privatization.

Question 4.

Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?

(A) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.
(B) It supported state-ownership of industry.
(C) It was made by some leading industrialists.
(D) It supported strongly the idea of planning.

Answer:
(A) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.

Explanation:
“The Bombay Plan” is the nickname of a 15-year economic plan for India proposed by a group of industrialists and technocrats in January 1944. Initially, it was released for private circulation only. Soon afterwards, the plan was published as a pamphlet in response to the interest generated by it.

Question 5.

The idea of planning in India was drawn from:

(i) the Bombay Plan
(ii) experiences of the Soviet bloc countries
(iii) Gandhian vision of society
(iv) demand by peasant organisations
(A) (ii) and (iv) only
(B) (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 6

acts as a think tank of the Union Government. (CBSE SQP 2020-21)

(A) NITI Aayog
(B) Yojana Aayog
(C) Election Commission of India
(D) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer:
(A) NITI Aayog

Explanation:
It can only recommend long-term, policy changes but cannot influence or see their progress on the ground. NITI Aayog is supposed to be a think tank. This implies that while generating new ideas, it maintains a respectable intellectual distance from the government of the day.

Question 7

Policy has been adopted by Aayog. (CBSE SQP, 2020- 21)

(A) Make in India
(B) Come on India
(C) Start-up India
(D) Swachch Bharat
Answer:
(A) Make in India

Explanation:
On 1st January 2015, Niti Aayog 1 adopted Make In India policy to enhance skill I development and protect intellectual property. I

Question 8

was also associated with the ideas of growth, material progress and scientific rationality.

(A) Democracy
(B) Secularism
(C) Globalization
(D) Modernization
Answer:
(D) Modernization

Question 9.

Identify the stages of modernization:

(A) Agrarian society
(B) Drive to maturity
(C) Age of high consumption
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Question 10.

Which factor was responsible for discouraging research and development in manufacturing sector?

(A) Goods manufactured by local industries
(B) Poor import and export policy
(C) Export restrictions on goods manufactured in India
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) Export restrictions on goods manufactured in India

Question 11.

The principle of land reforms failed across the country:

(A) due to the government policies
(B) due to recession all over the country
(C) because nobody was capable of buying the land
(D) due to political influence and corruption in the society
Answer:
(D) due to political influence and corruption in the society

Explanation:
The land reforms failed because the tenancy contracts were expropriate in nature and tenant exploitation was almost everywhere. Land records were in extremely bad shape giving rise to a mass of litigation. One problem of agriculture was that the land was fragmented into very small parts for commercial farming

Question 12.

When were the restrictions on private industries imposed?

(A) 1960s
(B) 1970s
(C) 1990s
(D) 1950s
Answer:
(A) 1960s

Question 13

play an important role in the economy of developing countries like India.

(A) Private sectors
(B) Public sectors
(C) Union ministers
(D) State government
Answer:
(B) Public sectors

Explanation:
Public sector is important for overall development of a country like India as they fulfill the basic necessities like water, electricity which private sector will provide with high rates.

Question 14.

Why were the tribal hostile to the development of Odisha?

(A) They feared loss of their employment as well as lodgings
(B) They were illiterate
(C) They never liked intrusion of outsiders
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) They feared loss of their employment as well as lodgings

Explanation:
The development of Orissa (now Odisha) through the rich iron resources was not greeted openly by the tribals in the state. They feared loss of their employment as well as lodgings. Therefore, the ideas of development have always witnessed conflicts.

Question 15.

On which model was The Planning Commission of India setup?

(A) Calcutta model
(B) Bombay Plan
(C) National Development Model
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Bombay Plan

Explanation:
Private investors seek an open economy without any state control in the flow of capital. Therefore, a section of the big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy in the country. It was called the Bombay Plan, in which they wanted the state to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investments. Thus, from left to right, forming planning commission for the development of a country was the most obvious choice.

Question 16.

Which apex body is responsible for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India?

(A) Finance Ministry
(B) NitiAyog
(C) The National Development Council
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) The National Development Council

Explanation:
The National Development Council (NDC) or Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister,

Question 17.

When the NDC was setup?

(A) 6 August 1952
(B) 6 December 1952
(C) 7 August 1952
(D) 10 June 1952
Answer:
(A) 6 August 1952

Explanation:
NDC (The National Development Council) was set up on 6 August 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Five Year Plans made by Planning Commission, to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.

Question 18.

In 1946, who was chairman of the Planning Advisory Board?

(A) K C Neogy
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Dr. Ambedkar
(D)None of the above
Answer:
(A) K C Neogy

Question 19.

NITI Aayog was set up:

(A) to bring more accuracy in the development
(B) because people had expectations for growth and development in the administration through their participation
(C) so that departments could be included in Planning Commission
(D) all the above
Answer:
(B) because people had expectations for growth and development in the administration through their participation

Explanation:
The Government of India constituted NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission, which had been instituted in 1950. This step was taken to better serve the needs and aspirations of the people.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion: The example of Orissa shows us that it is not enough to say that everyone wants development.
Reason: For ‘development’ has same or similar meanings for different sections of the people.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
Development has different meanings for different sections of the people. People do not have the same notion of development. This is because people have different occupations and different lifestyles. Since people have the different quality of life, so notions of development are not similar to each other.

Question 2.

Assertion: ‘Development’ was about becoming more ‘modern’ and modern was about becoming more like the industrialized countries of the West.
Reason: It was believed that every country would go through the process of modernization as in the West, which involved the breakdown of traditional social structures and the rise of capitalism and liberalism.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 3.

Assertion: The nationalist leaders were clear that the economic concerns of the government of free India would have to be different from the narrowly defined commercial functions of the colonial government.
Reason: It was further clear that the eradication of the poverty was not the responsibility of the government, but the people.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
The task of poverty alleviation and social and economic redistribution was being seen primarily as the responsibility of the government because for some people industrialisation was priority while for others, the development of agriculture and alleviation of rural poverty was the priority.

Question 4.

Assertion: Development could not be left to private actors, that there was the need for the government to develop a design or plan for development.
Reason: The Bombay Plan wanted the state to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investments.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Development could not be left to private actors because the idea of planning as a process of rebuilding economy earned a good deal of public support.

Question 5.

Assertion: The excitement with planning reached its peak with the launching of the Second Five Year Plan in 1956 and continued somewhat till the Third Five Year Plan in 1961.
Reason: Though many criticisms emerged both about the process and the priorities of these plans, the foundation of India’s economic development was firmly in place by then.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 6.

Assertion: The First Five Year Plan (1951-1956) sought to get the country’s economy out of the cycle of poverty.
Reason: K. N. Raj, a young economist involved in drafting the plan, argued that India should ‘hasten slowly’ for the first two decades as a fast rate of development might endanger democracy.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
The First Five Year Plan addressed the agrarian sector including investment in dams and irrigation. The Plan identified the pattern of land distribution in the country as the principal obstacle in the wray of agricultural growth. It focused on land reforms as the key to the country’s development.

Question 7.

Assertion : Huge allocations were made for large- scale projects like the Bhakhra Nangal Dam.
Reason: Agricultural sector was hit hardest by Partition and needed urgent attention.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 8.

Assertion: The Second Five Year Plan stressed on heavy industries. It was drafted by a team of economists and planners under the leadership of P. C. Mahalanobis.
Reason: However, the Second Five Year Plan was responsible for the ruin of the agriculture as it did not have enough funding to support it.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
During this plan, annual plans were made and equal priority was given to agriculture its allied sectors and the industry sector. Agriculture was never left out of the plan at all.

Question 9.

Assertion: The draft of the First Five Year Plan and then the actual Plan Document, released in December 1951, generated a lot of excitement in the country.
Reason: This draft failed to meet the expectations of the country as it did not have anything for common men.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: The first year plan was Harrod – Dornar model of development economics. Five Year Plan had a target of 2.1% PA growth in national income. Top priority was given to the development of agricultural sector. The idea was agricultural development would lead to higher rate of economic growth.

Question 10.

Assertion: India did not follow any of the two known paths to development – it did not accept the capitalist model of development in which development was left entirely to the private sector, nor did it follow the socialist model in which private property was abolished and all the production was controlled by the state.

Reason: It was India’s one of the biggest mistakes that India did not adopt any one of the two models suggested above.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Elements of both these models (capitalist and socialist) were taken and mixed together in India and hence, it did not accept the capitalist model of development in which development was left entirely to the private sector, nor did it follow the socialist model in which private property was abolished and all the production was controlled by central authority.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 8 Globalization - 1

Question 1.

Who in the picture is balancing between the public and private sectors?

(A) Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) K. Kamraj
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Nehru

Question 2.

Why has a big tilt towards the public sector been shown in the cartoon?

(A) The numbers of public sector meant to be increased.
(B) over emphasis given to the public sector.
(C) the ruling parties in India believe to give importance of public sector.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) over emphasis given to the public sector.

Explanation:
The big tilt towards public sector is shown because heavy industries, agricultural sector were controlled by the state.

Question 3.

Which type of economic model was adopted by India?

(A) Capitalist
(B) Socialist
(C) Liberal socialist
(D) Mixed economic principle
Answer:
(D) Mixed economic principle

Explanation:
India did not accept the model in which development was left entirely to the private sector, nor did they follow in which private property was abolished and all the production was controlled by the state. Hence, they took elements from both these models and mixed together. That is why it was described as ‘mixed economy’.

Question 4.

How did the public sector affect the private sector?

(A) The prices in India remained in control
(B) The wealth of public was growing
(C) Public sector paid more tax to government
(D) Private sector was adversely affected
Answer:
(D) Private sector was adversely affected

II. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
On the eve of Independence, India had before it, two models of modem development: the liberal- capitalist model as in much of Europe and the US and the socialist model as in the USSR. There were many in India then who were deeply impressed by the Soviet model of development. These included not just the leaders of the Communist Party of India, but also those of the Socialist Party and leaders like Nehru within the Congress.

There were very few supporters of the American style capitalist development. As in the USSR, the Planning Commission of India opted for Five Year Plans (FYP). The idea is very simple: The Government of India prepares a document that has a plan for all its income and expenditure for the next five years. Accordingly, the budget of the Central and all the State governments is divided into two parts:

‘non-plan’ budget that is spent on routine items on a yearly basis and ‘plan’ budget that is spent on a five-year basis as per the priorities fixed by the plan. A five-year plan has the advantage of permitting the government to focus on the larger picture and make long-term intervention in the economy. The draft of the First Five Year Plan and then the actual Plan Document, released in December 1951, generated a lot of excitement in the country.

Question 1.

Which two models of modern development did India follow?

(A) Liberal-capitalist and Socialist
(B) Liberal and Capitalist
(C) Socialist and Communist
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Liberal-capitalist and Socialist

Explanation:
On the eve of Independence, it India had before it, two models of modern development: the liberal – capitalist model as in much of Europe and the U.S. and the socialist model as in the U.S.S.R. There were many in India then who were deeply impressed by the Soviet model of development.

Question 2.

Which model had least supporters in India?

(A) USSR
(B) Liberal
(C) Capitalist
(D) Socialist
Answer:
(C) Capitalist

Question 3.

The Budget is divided into which two parts?

(A) Planned and semi planned budget
(B) Planned and non-planned budget
(C) Planned and reserved budget
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Planned and non-planned budget

Explanation:
Plan expenditure is spent on productive asset creation through Centrally- sponsored programmes and flagship schemes/ while “Non-plan” refers to all other expenditure such as defence expenditure, subsidies, interest payments, including expenditure on establishment and maintenance activities such as salaries.

Question 4.

When was the draft of first five-year plan was released?

(A) November 1950
(B) December 1950
(C) October 1951
(D) December 1951
Answer:
(D) December 1951

Explanation:
The First Five-year Plan was launched in 1951 which mainly focused in the development of the primary sector.

III. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
Aayog or National Institution for Transforming India Aayog is basically a policy think tank of Government of India and State Governments that replaces 65-year old Planning Commission. Union Government of India had announced formation of NITI Aayog on lsl January, 2015.

The body is comprised of a CEO and a Vice Chairperson, to be appointed by the Prime Minister, in addition to some full-time members and two part-time members, while four Union Ministers would serve as ex-officio members. Besides, there would be specific regional councils, while experts and specialists from various fields would be called as special invitees nominated by the Prime Ministers.

Aayog will serve as a “think tank” of the government as a “directional and policy dynamo” and would provide both to the governments at the centre and in the states with strategic and technical advice on key policy matters including economic issues of national and international importance. NITI Aayog will have regional councils to focus on developmental activities on specific areas and is patterned on the National Reforms Development Commission of China.

Question 1.

When was NITI Aayog formed?

(A) 3rd January, 2015
(B) 1st January, 2015
(C) 1st January, 2016
(D) 1st December, 2016
Answer:
(B) 1st January, 2015

Question 2.

The CEO and Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by

(A) President of India
(B) Members of Parliament
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Home minister of India
Answer:
(C) Prime Minister of India

Question 3.

How will NITI Aayog serve for India?

(A) Back Bone
(B) Think Tank
(C) Planning Commission
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Think Tank

Explanation:
NITI Aayog is supposed to be a think tank. This implies that while generating new ideas, it maintains a respectable intellectual distance from the government of the day.

Question 4.

Which councils NITI Aayog will have to focus on developmental activities on specific areas and is patterned on the National Reforms Development Commission of China?

(A) National Councils
(B) Internationa] Councils
(C) Regional Councils
(D) All the above
Answer:
(C) Regional Councils

Explanation:
Regional councils are multi-purpose organizations with legal status. Most are voluntary associations and do not have the power to regulate or tax. Primarily funded by local governments and with state and federal funds, the councils are responsible to the representatives of the communities in their regions.

IV. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The Second Five Year Plan stressed on heavy industries. It was drafted by a team of economists and planners under the leadership of P.C. Mahalanobis. If the first plan had preached patience, the second wanted to bring about quick structural transformation by making changes simultaneously in all possible directions.

Before this plan was finalized, the Congress party at its session held at Avadi near the then Madras city, passed an important resolution. It declared that ‘Socialist pattern of society’ was its goal. This was reflected in the Second Plan. The government imposed substantial tariffs on imports in order to protect domestic industries.

Such protected environment helped both public and private sector industries to grow. As savings and investment were growing in this period, a bulk of these industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector. Indeed, such a push for industrialisation marked a turning point in India’s development.

Question 1.

Who drafted the Second Five Year Plan?

(A) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(B) P C. Mahalanobis
(C) MorarjiDesai
(D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(B) P C. Mahalanobis

Explanation:
The Second Plan focused on the development of the public sector and “rapid Industrialization”. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953.

Question 2.

What was anticipated from Second Five Year Plan?

(A) Structural transformation
(B) Economic transformation
(C) Infrastructural development
(D) Eradication of poverty
Answer:
(A) Structural transformation

Explanation:
The main objectives of the Second Plan are an increase of 25 per cent in real national income over the five-year period 1956¬57 to 1960-61; a large expansion of employment opportunities; rapid industrialization; and reduction of economic inequalities.

Question 3.

What goal was declared by the Congress Party at ’ the session held at Avadi?

(A) Religious pattern society
(B) Capitalist pattern society
(C) Socialist pattern society
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Socialist pattern society

Explanation:
“Socialist pattern of society” , according to the planning Commission, means “that the basic criterion for determining the lines of advance must not be private profit but social gain, and that the pattern of development and the structure of socio-economic relations should be so planned so that the result not only in appreciable in creases in national income and employment but also in greater equality in incomes and wealth”.

Question 4.

Why did government impose substantial tariffs on imports?

(A) To increase the income from imports
(B) To create employment in import-export sector
(C) To restrict foreign goods
(D) To protect domestic industries
Answer:
(D) To protect domestic industries

Explanation:
Governments may impose tariffs to raise revenue or to protect domestic industries-especially nascent ones-from foreign competition. By making foreign- produced goods more expensive, tariffs can make domestically produced alternatives seem more attractive.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 9 Challenges of Nation-Building

February 10, 2023February 9, 2023 by Prasanna

Challenges of Nation-Building Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

The ‘Two-Nation Theory’ was based upon:

(A) expansion of India
(B) bifurcation of the states
(C) partition of India
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(C) partition of India

Explanation:
The Two Nation Theory is based on the hypothesis that India should be divided into two: Pakistan and Hindustan, the Muslim nation to occupy Pakistan and the Hindu nation to occupy Hindustan.

Question 2.

Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, the undisputed leader of the North Western Frontier Province was known as:

(A) Frontier Gandhi
(B) Father of Pakistan
(C) Staunch Muslim
(D) Patriot of Pakistan
Answer:
(A) Frontier Gandhi

Explanation:
Ghaffar Khan was a Pashtun who greatly admired Mahatma Gandhi and his non¬violence principles and saw support for the Congress as a way of pressing his grievances against the British frontier regime. Hence, he was called the Frontier Gandhi.

Question 3.

Which of these statements about the princely states is incorrect:

(A) Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union.
(B) The Indian government was ready to give autonomy to some regions.
(C) The ruler of Junagadh had decided not be an independent state and be part of independent India.
(D) Princely states covered one third of the land area of the British Indian Empire.
Answer:
(C) The ruler of Junagadh had decided not be an independent state and be part of independent India.

Explanation:
Junagarh or Junagadh was a princely state in Gujarat ruled by the Muslim Babi dynasty in British India, until its annexation by the Union of India in 1948.

Question 4.

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel faced key challenges of integration in which of the following states.

(A) Hyderabad, Moradabad, Junagarh
(B) Hyderabad, Sikandrabad, Jammu
(C) Hyderabad, Junagarh, Kashmir
(D) Jammu, Junagarh, Kashmir
Answer:
(C) Hyderabad, Junagarh, Kashmir

Explanation:
Sardar Patel faced key challenges of integration from three states, viz., Hyderabad, Junagarh and Kashmir. It was under his leadership that Indian forces compelled Hyderabad and Junagarh to merge with India. Like Hyderabad, he also wanted Kashmir’s integration with India through military operations. But due to political decisions of some prominent leaders, Sardar could not succeed in integrating Kashmir fully with India which later turned into a major historical blunder for the country.

Question 5.

Which state was carved out of Assam from the following:

(A) Meghalaya
(B) Sikkim
(C) Manipur
(D) Tripura
Answer:
(A) Meghalaya

Explanation:
Meghalaya was created as an autonomous state within the state of Assam on 2 April, 1970. The full-fledged State of Meghalaya came into existence on 21 January, 1972. It is bound on the north and east by Assam, and on the south and west by Bangladesh.

Question 6.

Which one of the following leaders played an important role in the integration of princely states with India? (Delhi-Set 1,2020)

(A) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(B) SardarVallabhbhai Patel
(C) C. Rajagopalchari
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Answer:
(B) SardarVallabhbhai Patel

Explanation:
At the time of independence, the problem of integration of princely states was a big challenge for the national unity and integrity of India. Under such difficult times, Sardar Patel undertook the daunting tasks of uniting all 565 princely states of India. Known as an ‘Iron Man’ of India, Patel’s approach to the question of the merger of princely states into independent India was very clear. He was not in favour of any compromise with the territorial integrity of India.

Question 7.

Reorganization of the North-East was completed in:

(A) 1962
(B) 1972
(C) 1982
(D) 1992
Answer:
(B) 1972

Question 8.

What was Jawahar Lai Nehru’s first speech called?

(A) Wake of the Nation
(B) Breaking of Tyranny
(C) Tryst with Destiny
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Tryst with Destiny

Explanation:
“Tryst with Destiny” was a speech delivered by Jawahar Lai Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, to the Indian Constituent Assembly in the Parliament, on the eve of India’s Independence, towards midnight on 14 August 1947. The speech was on the aspects that transcended Indian history.

Question 9.

What was India’s partition plan called?

(A) Gandhi Plan
(B) Nehru Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) Jinnah Plan
Answer:
(C) Mountbatten Plan

Explanation:
Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, came up with a plan under which he proposed that the provinces be declared independent successor states. The plan was the last plan for Indian independence and included the principles of partition, autonomy, sovereignty, and the right to make the Indian constitution.

Question 10.

When did Mahatma Gandhi die?

(A) 30th January 1948
(B) 31st January 1948
(C) 30th December 1948
(D) 30th November 1948

Answer:
(A) 30th January 1948

Explanation:
Gandhi was assassinated on 30 January 1948 in the compound of Birla House, New Delhi by Nathuram Godse.

Question 11.

What was the stand of Indian Government on partition?

(A) India did not respond at all.
(B) India wanted peace, harmony and equality of religion.
(C) India wanted to become a Hindu nation.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(B) India wanted peace, harmony and equality of religion.

Explanation:
Indian Government believed in communal harmony and equality of religion for all. This highly important belief also found its place in the Constitution of India where India was declared a secular nation and the Fundamental Right of ‘Right to Religion’ was given to all citizens of India.

Question 12.

What was the first among the three challenges to India while building a nation-state?

(A) building a united nation
(B) poverty
(C) communal tensions
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) building a united nation

Explanation:
The first and the immediate challenge was to shape a nation that was united, yet accommodative of the diversity in our society.

Question 13.

Who was India’s Deputy Prime Minister at the time of integration of princely states?

(A) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(B) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(C) Narsimha Rao Reddy
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer:
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 14.

How were the boundaries of the states decided?

(A) On the basis of locality
(B) On the basis of linguistic principles
(C) On the basis of area
(D) None of the above
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question 1.

Assertion: The British Government took the view that all these 565 states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished.
Reason: This was a very serious problem and could threaten the very existence of a united India.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
The official policy statement of the Government of India made by Sardar Patel on July 5, 1947 made no such threats.
It reassured the princely states about the Congress’ intentions, and invited them to join independent India.

Question 2.

Assertion: The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into small principalities of different sizes.
Reason: Before 15 August 1947, peaceful negotiations had brought almost all states whose territories were contiguous to the new boundaries of India, into the Indian Union.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into smaller principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked.

Question 3.

Assertion: The Nizam of Hyderabad never negotiated with Sardar Patel. He was not at all agreed to accept any offer to join India.
Reason: The Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad.

Answer:
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:
Nizam entered into what was called the Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947 for a year while negotiations with the Indian government were going on.

Question 4.

Assertion: India adopted representative democracy based on the parliamentary form of government.
Reason: These features ensure that the political competition would take place in a democratic framework.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
India is a parliamentary Democratic Republic in which the President of India is the head of state and the Prime Minister of India is the head of government. It is based on the federal structure of government, although the word is not used in the Constitution itself. It assures a healthy and democratic political competition.

Question 5.

Assertion: The Constitution also set out in the Directive Principles of State Policy the welfare goals that democratic politics must achieve.
Reason: On 14-15 August 1947, not one but two nation-states came into existence – India and Pakistan.

Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
On 14-15 August 1947, not one but two nation-states came into existence India and Pakistan. This was a result of ‘partition’, the division of British India into India and Pakistan. Thus it was decided that what was till then known as ‘India’ would be divided into two countries, ‘India’ and ‘Pakistan’.

Question 6.

Assertion: It was decided to follow the principle of religious majorities for the partition.
Reason: The process of partition was smooth and none of the violence took place.

Answer:
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:
During the Partition of India, violence against women was an extensive issue. It is estimated that during the partition between 75,000 and 100,000 women were kidnapped and raped. India and Pakistan later worked to repatriate the abducted women. Muslim women were to be sent to Pakistan and Hindu and Sikh women to India.

Question 7.

Assertion: The problem was that two of the Muslim majority provinces of British India, Punjab and Bengal, had very large areas where the non- Muslims were in majority.
Reason: It was decided that these two provinces would be bifurcated according to the religious majority at the district or even lower level.

Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Since there was no possibility of large-scale migration of the people, the decision was taken to divide it according to the religious majority.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Study the cartoon carefully and give the answers to the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Unit 9 Challenges of Nation-Building - 1

Question 1.

Who propounded the ‘two nation theory’?

(A) Sardar Patel and Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Muslim League

Explanation:
According to the ‘two-nation theory’ advanced by the Muslim League, India consisted of not one but two ‘people’, Hindus and Muslims. That is why it demanded a separate country for the Muslims- Pakistan.

Question 2.

On what basis was the two-nation theory proposed?

(A) on the basis of differences among two communities, Hindu and Muslim
(B) on the basis of different political ideologies of Hindus and Muslims
(C) on the basis of communal discrimination
(D) all the above
Answer:
(A) on the basis of differences among two communities, Hindu and Muslim

Question 3.

Which two states were undecided to be part of either of these countries, at the time of partition?

(A) Travancore and Hyderabad
(B) Gujarat and Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Bengal
(D) Assam and Bengal
Answer:
(A) Travancore and Hyderabad

Explanation:
At the time of Independence, Britishers announced that with the end of their rule over India, all princely states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished.

Question 4.

Who among the following leaders were opposed the partition?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)

II. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows:
Thus it was decided that what was till then known as ‘India’ would be divided into two countries, ‘India’ and ‘Pakistan’. Such a division was not only very painful, but also very difficult to decide and to implement. It was decided to follow the principle of religious majorities. This basically means that areas where the Muslims were in majority would make up the territory of Pakistan. The rest was to stay with India. The idea might appear simple, but it presented all kinds of difficulties.

First of all, there was no single belt of Muslim majority areas in British India. There were two areas of concentration, one in the west and one in the east. There was no way these two parts could be joined. So it was decided that the new country, Pakistan, will comprise two territories, West and East Pakistan separated by a long expanse of Indian territory. Secondly, not all Muslim majority areas wanted to be in Pakistan.

Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, the undisputed leader of the North Western Frontier Province and known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’, was staunchly opposed to the two-nation theory. Eventually, his voice was simply ignored and the NWFP was made to merge with Pakistan. The third problem was that two of the Muslim majority provinces of British India, Punjab and Bengal, had very large areas where the non-Muslims were in majority.

Eventually it was decided that these two provinces would be bifurcated according to the religious majority at the district or even lower level. This decision could not be made by the midnight of 14-15 August. It meant that a large number of people did not know on the day of Independence whether they were in India or in Pakistan. The Partition of these two provinces caused the deepest trauma of Partition.

Question 1.

Which principle was followed for the division of India and Pakistan?

(A) Principal of cultural majorities
(B) Principal of ethnicity of the people
(C) Principle of religious majorities
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Principle of religious majorities

Explanation:
The partition was caused by the two-nation theory presented by Muslim League, due to presented religious issues. Pakistan became a Muslim country, and India became a majority Hindu but secular country.

Question 2.

“There was no way these two parts could be joined.” For which of the below this sentence is meant to be:

(A) There were two areas of concentration, one in the west and one in the east.
(B) There were two belts one in north and another in west.
(C) There were two areas within the borders of modern India.
(D) There were two areas within the borders of modern Pakistan.
Answer:
(A) There were two areas of concentration, one in the west and one in the east.

Question 3.

Who was known as “Frontier Gandhi”?

(A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(B) Abdul Gaffar Khan
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Abdul Gaffar Khan

Explanation:
Ghaffar Khan was a Pashtun who greatly admired Mahatma Gandhi and his non-violent principles and saw support for the Congress as a way of pressing his grievances against the British frontier regime. He was called the Frontier Gandhi.

Question 4.

Which two provinces of British India had very large areas where non-Muslims were in majority?

(A) Punjab and UP
(B) Bengal and Gujarat
(C) Punjab and Haryana
(D) Punjab and Bengal
Answer:
(D) Punjab and Bengal

III. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows:
The Partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets, or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus. What also got divided were the financial assets, and things like tables, chairs, typewriters, paper-clips, books and also musical instruments of the police band The employees of the government and the railways were also ‘divided’. Above all, it was a violent separation of communities who had hitherto lived together as neighbours.

It is estimated that the Partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. Between five to ten lakh people were killed in Partition related violence. Beyond the administrative concerns and financial strains, however, the Partition posed another deeper issue. The leaders of the Indian national struggle did not believe in the two-nation theory. And yet, partition on religious basis had taken place. The Muslim population in India accounted for 12 per cent of the total population in 1951.

There were competing political interests behind these conflicts. The Muslim League was formed to protect the interests of the Muslims in colonial India. But most leaders of the national movement believed that India must treat persons of all religions equally and that India should not be a country that gave superior status to adherents of one faith and inferior to those who practiced another religion.

Question 1.

What was the number of the people who had to forcefully migrate across new borders?

(A) 83 lakh
(B) 81 lakh
(C) 80.5 lakh
(D) 80 lakh
Answer:
(D) 80 lakh

Question 2.

Who did not believe in “Two-Nation Theory”?

(A) The leaders of Indian National Struggle
(B) People of Pakistan
(C) Muslim League
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) The leaders of Indian National Struggle

Explanation:
The leaders of Indian National Struggle and Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan were not convinced by the two-nation theory and wanted a single united India as a home for both Hindus and Muslims.

Question 3.

What was the percentage of Muslim population in India in 1951?

(A) 12 percent
(B) 15 percent
(C) 12.5 percent
(D) 13.3 percent
Answer:
(A) 12 percent

Question 4.

Why Muslim League was formed?

(A) To propose two-nation theory.
(B) To look after the administration in newly formed Pakistan.
(C) To prepare the constitution of Pakistan
(D) To protect the interests of the Muslims in colonial India.
Answer:
(D) To protect the interests of the Muslims in colonial India.

Explanation:
The Muslim League was a political party established in 1906 in British India. Its strong advocacy, from 1930 onwards, for the establishment of a separate Muslim-majority nation-state, Pakistan, successfully led to the partition of India in 1947 by the British Empire

IV. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows:
The steps for creating a new state are as follows: A bill on a new state has to be recommended by the President. In India, it is usually the Cabinet which requests the President to do that. Article 3 makes it clear that the Parliament is the sole authority on making a decision on a new state.

President refers the bill to the State Assembly for its views giving it a certain period of time. Parliament is not obligated to follow on the views of State Assembly. If the State Assembly does not express its opinion within the specified period of time, the bill could be introduced in the Parliament after the expiry of the specified period.

Why did the authors of the constitution put complete responsibility of creating new states ONLY with the Parliament? Why did they not provide a bigger role for a State Assembly other than expressing ‘its views’ on the topic? To understand the intentions behind a certain clause in our Constitution the legal experts refer to the discussions of the authors that preceded the formulation of these clauses referred to as Constituent Assembly Debates (CAD). One legal expert clarifies:

When the Constituent Assembly was deliberating in November 1948 on the scope and content of Article 3, there was a proposal by Prof. KT Shah that the legislation constituting a new State from any region of a State should originate from the legislature of the State concerned. Had this procedure been approved, the power to decide the statehood of a region seeking separation would have been vested with the State legislature dominated by the elite of developed regions.

Opposing the same and using the then demand for an Andhra Province as an example, Shri K. Santhanam stated as under: “I wonder whether Professor Shah fully realizes the implications of his amendment. If his amendment is adopted, it would mean that no minority in any State can ask for separation of territory… unless it can get a majority in that State legislature. Take the case of Madras Province for instance.

The Andhra’s want separation. They bring up a resolution in the Madras Legislature. It is defeated by a majority. There ends the matter. The way of the Andhra’s is blocked altogether. They cannot take any further step to constitute an Andhra province.” Thus Article 3 emerged in its current form.

Question 1.

In India, who presents the bill for the formation of the new state to the President?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Ministers of the state
(C) Legislative
(D) Cabinet
Answer:
(D) Cabinet

Question 2.

To whom does the President refer the bill after his review?

(A) Parliament
(B) State Assembly
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) State Assembly

Question 3.

“The legislation constituting a new State from any region of a State should originate from the legislature of the State concerned.” This proposal who put forth by whom in 1948?

(A) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(B) Prof. KT Shah
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel
Answer:
(B) Prof. KT Shah

Question 4.

Where did the Andhra’s get resolution from?

(A) Supreme Court
(B) Madras Legislature
(C) Madras high Court
(D) Delhi
Answer:
(B) Madras Legislature

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 7 Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy

February 10, 2023February 9, 2023 by Prasanna

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.

With which disparity of income and its distribution are associated?

(A) Absolute Poverty
(B) Relative Poverty
(C) Chronic Poverty
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Relative Poverty

Explanation:
Relative poverty means poverty defined in comparison to other people’s standing in the economy.

Question 2.

Relative Poverty is prevalent in:

(A) Capitalist Countries
(B) Socialist Countries
(C) Communist Countries
(D) Developed Countries
Answer:
(A) Capitalist Countries

Question 3.

Absolute Poverty is prevalent in:

(A) Communist Countries
(B) Developing Economies
(C) Socialist Economies
(D) Developed Countries
Answer:
(B) Developing Economies

Question 4.

Estimation of poverty in rural economies is at per day consumption of calories:

(A) Less than 2,200
(B) Less than 2,100
(C) Less than 2,400
(D) Less than 2,000
Answer:
(C) Less than 2,400

Explanation:
The threshold limit for food consumption has been set to 2,400 calories per day in rural areas below which the individual is considered as poor.

Question 5.

Estimation of poverty in urban areas is at the consumption of per day calories of:

(A) Less than 2,000
(B) Less than 2,100
(C) Less than 2,400
(D) Less than 2,200
Answer:
(B) Less than 2,100

Explanation:
The threshold limit for food consumption has been set to 2,400 calories per day in rural areas below which the individual is considered as poor.

Question 6.

What is the main reason of poverty in India in urban areas?

(A) Lack of professional education
(B) Unequal distribution of income
(C) Lack of family planning of income facilities
(D) Money inflation
Answer:
(A) Lack of professional education

Question 7.

Identify the correctly matched pair in Column A and Column B from the following:

Column A	Column B
(1) Green Revolution	(a) 1962
(2) PMJAY	(b) 2012
(3) NHMC	(c) 1960
(4) MGNREGA	(d) 2006

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(D) 4 – (d)

Explanation:
MGNREGA was launched by Govt, of India in 2006, to provide for the enhancement of livelihood security of the households in rural areas.

Explanation:
In 1979, the poverty line was defined by the Task Force on Projection of Minimum Needs and Consumption Demand as per capita cost per day to meet the daily requirement of 2,400 calories per day in rural areas and 2,100 calories per day in urban areas.

Question 8.

Identify the correctly matched pair in Column A and Column B from the following:

Column A	Column B
(1) Study Group	(a) 1961
(2) Task Force on Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand	(b) 1979
(3) Expert Group	(c) 1982
(4) Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana	(d) 1989

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(B) 2 – (b)

Question 9.

Identify the correctly matched pair in Column A and Column B from the following:

Column A	Column B
(1) Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme	(a) Nutritional Programme
(2) National Rural Livelihood Mission	(b) Social Assistance Programme
(3) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgaar Yojna	(c) Wage Employment Programme
(4) Mid-day Meal Scheme	(d) Infrastructure Development Programme

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(C) 3 – (c)

Explanation:
The Sampoorna Grameen
Rozgar Yojana was a scheme launched by the Government of India to gain the objective of providing gainful employment for the rural poor.

Question 10.

In which category, the loan taken for buying agriculture equipment is generally put:

(A) Short-Term Loan
(B) Medium-Term Loan
(C) Long-Term Loan
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Medium-Term Loan

Question 11.

Identify the correctly matched item from Column A to that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
(1) Reserve Bank	(a) 1969
(2) Regional Rural Bank	(b) 1975
(3) NABARD	(c) 1971
(4) Development Bank	(d) 1980

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(B) 2 – (b)

Question 12.

When was NABARD constituted?

(A) July, 1982
(B) June, 1982
(C) July, 1980
(D) July, 1984
Answer:
(A) July, 1982

Question 13.

Which institute do not provide direct loan to farmers?

(A) NABARD
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Regional Rural Bank
(D) Primary Agriculture Credit Society
Answer:
(A) NABARD

Explanation:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is an apex regulatory body for overall regulation and licensing of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India.

Question 14.

Identify the correctly matched item from Column A to that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
(1) NABARD	(a) Apex institute for rural credit
(2) RBI	(b) Established in 1975
(3) AXIS Bank	(c) Established in July 1982
(4) IDBI	(d) Not an institution for credit.

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(A) 1 – (a)

Explanation:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is an apex regulatory body for overall regulation and licensing of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India.

Question 15.

Farmer is forced to sale his products at low price because of:

(A) Ignorance about market information
(B) Financial problems
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 16.

AGMARK is related with:

(A) Agricultural production in government farms
(B) Standard quality of agricultural produce
(C) Heavy machinery
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Standard quality of agricultural produce

Explanation:
AGMARK is a certificate mark used in agricultural products in India, which ensures that it complies with the set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, an Indian Government agency.

Question 17.

Which of the following is not an institutional credit agency?

(A) Co-operative Societies
(B) Commercial and Regional Rural Banks
(C) NABARD
(D) Desi Banker
Answer:
(D) Desi Banker

Explanation:
Agriculture credits provided by government institutions are called institutional credit.

Question 18.

Credit that farmers need for consumption purpose such as on birth and death, etc. is called:

(A) Productive credit
(B) Unproductive credit
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Unproductive credit

Explanation:
Unproductive credit refers to the credit taken to meet consumption expenditures for social and religious purposes.

Question 19.

‘TRYSEM’ a programme made for the:

(A) Employment to retired government employees
(B) Employment to rural youths
(C) Employment to urban youths
(D) Credit to rural people
Answer:
(B) Employment to rural youths

Explanation:
Trysem was launched in 1979 as a separate national scheme for training rural youth for self employment.

Question 20.

The Union Government announce KUSUM scheme for promoting solar farming. In the term KUSUM, the letter ‘S’ stands for:

(A) Solar
(B) Suraksha
(C) Samvidhaan
(D) Sarvopari
Answer:
(B) Suraksha

Explanation:
KUSUM: Pradhan Mantri Kisan I Urja Suraksha Evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan

Question 21.

Which of the following statements is true?

(A) The need of agriculture credit which is required for the completion of agriculture works is known as agriculture productivity.
(B) Short-term credit is required for a period of 9 to 15 months for buying seeds, tools, manure, fertilizers, etc.
(C) Medium-term credit is required for about one to five years for digging wells, buying machinery, etc.
(D) Rural development is the process of giving employment to the low income group people living in rural areas and making these development efforts permanent.
Answer:
(C) Medium-term credit is required for about one to five years for digging wells, buying machinery, etc.

Explanation:
Classification of Agricultural

Credit:
Short-Term Credit It is required for buying seeds, tools, manure, fertilizers, etc. Medium-Term Credit It is required for digging wells, buying machinery, etc. Long-Term Credit It is required for the purchase of tractors, land, costly equipment, tube wells, etc.

Question 22.

Active factor in production is:

(A) Physical Capital
(B) Human Capital
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Human Capital

Explanation:
Since the real work of production is done by labour it is considered as the active factor of production.

Question 23.

Human Development is:

(A) An end
(B) A means
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) An end

Question 24.

Identify the correctly matched pair from Column A to that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. AICTE	(a) All India Council of Techno-logical Education
2. UGC	(b) Universal Grant College
3. NCERT	(c) National Council for Education Research and Technology
4. ICMR	(d) Indian Council for Medical Research

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(D) 4 – (d)

Explanation:
AICTE: All India Council for Technical Education
UGC: University Grant Commission NCERT: National Council for Educational Research and Technology ICMR: Indian Council for Medical Research

Question 25.

Human Capital Formation includes:

(A) Expenditure on education
(B) Expenditure on health
(C) Expenditure on training
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Human capital formation is a process of adding to human capital over time. Human capital can be developed through the creation of skilled, trained and efficient staff by providing better education, health care facilities, etc. Highly skilled people can create new ideas and new ways to produce. Therefore, spending on education, health and on-the-job training are important resources for building human capital.

Question 26.

A man remains absent from work due to illness. It will affect:

(A) Safety of work
(B) Salary/Income
(C) Productivity
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 27.

Education increases peoples:

(A) Productivity
(B) Skill
(C) Income
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Education enhances productivity and innovation and promotes entrepreneurship and technological advancement. In addition it plays a very important role in protecting economic and social progress and improving income distribution.

Question 28.

Human Capital includes:

(A) Health
(B) Education
(C) Professional Skill
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Human capital are the amount of knowledge, skills, experience and social attributes that contribute to a person’s ability to perform a function in a way that reflects economic value.

Question 29.

Identify the correctly matched pair from Column A to that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Sarva Siksha Ab- hiyan	(a) Rural Education
2. National Council of Educational Re-search and Training	(b) Adult Education
3. Indira Gandhi National Open University	(c) Higher Education
4. Kendra Vidhyalaya	(d) Elementary Education

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(C) 3 – (c)

Question 30.

Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the problems in Human Development in India?

(A) Problem of estimation of total stock of human capital.
(B) Problem of estimation of growth rate of hu-man capital formation.
(C) Problem of migration from one place to an-other.
(D) Neglect of on-the-job training programme.
Answer:
(C) Problem of migration from one place to an-other.

Question 31.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to education in India?

(A) An essential element of human resource development.
(B) All the Indians are highly educated.
(C) There is no problem of drop-outs from school.
(D) The examination system is the best in the world.
Answer:
(A) An essential element of human resource development.

Question 32.

The difference between labour force and work force is:

(A) Total employed labour
(B) Disguised unemployed labour
(C) Unemployed labour
(D) Seasonal unemployed labour
Answer:
(C) Unemployed labour

Question 33.

In an economy, labour force and work force are equal in a situation when the:

(A) Population grows at slower rate
(B) No growth in population
(C) No unemployment
(D) Growth rate of population is greater than growth rate of employment
Answer:
(C) No unemployment

Explanation:
The labour force equals the I employed plus the unemployed members the I civilian non-institutional population.

Question 34.

A kind of unemployment in which workers seems to be working but its contribution to production is negligible is called:

(A) Seasonal Unemployment
(B) Disguised Unemployment
(C) Industrial Unemployment
(D) Educated Unemployment
Answer:
(B) Disguised Unemployment

Explanation:
Disguised unemployment means that number of workers employed in a job are much more than actually required. It is invisible in nature but when some workers are withdrawn from work, total production remains unchanged. It is said to be disguised unemployment.

Question 35.

Disguised unemployment is a characteristic of:

(A) Industry
(B) Trade
(C) Agriculture
(D) Transport
Answer:
(C) Agriculture

Explanation:
Disguised unemployment is more common in developing countries with overcrowding. It can be characterized by low productivity and is often associated with informal labour markets and agricultural labour markets, which can hold large numbers of workers.

Question 36.

Workers who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood are called:

(A) Ministers
(B) Public servant
(C) Self employed
(D) Government doctor
Answer:
(C) Self employed

Explanation:
Persons who own and run a business to earn a living are known as self- employed.

Question 37.

Urban people are mainly engaged in the:

(A) Primary sector
(B) Service sector
(C) Training
(D) Agriculture
Answer:
(B) Service sector

Question 38.

India is an:

(A) Industrial country
(B) Scientifically developed country
(C) Agrarian nation
(D) Service developed country
Answer:
(C) Agrarian nation

Explanation:
India is an agrarian economy, as it is called the backbone of Indian economy. About 60% to 70% of India’s population depends upon agriculture for their livelihood.

Question 39.

Those who are working in the formal sector enjoy:

(A) Economic benefits
(B) Social security benefits
(C) Education advantages
(D) Cultural benefits
Answer:
(B) Social security benefits

Explanation:
Social security benefits are payments made to qualified retirees and disabled people, and to their spouses, children, and survivors.

Question 40.

Owing to the efforts of the following organisation, Indian government initiated modernisation and also provision of social security measures to informal sector workers:

(A) GNP
(B) NSSO
(C) ILO
(D) LPG
Answer:
(C) ILO

Explanation:
ILO stands for International Labour Organization that is committed to the promotion of social justice and human and labour rights, pursuing its mission of establishing that workers’ peace is essential for prosperity.

Question 41.

Identify the correctly matched pair from Column A to that of Column B:

Group A	Group B
(1) Beginning of Swama Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna (SJGSY)	(a) 2006
(2) Beginning of Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana	(b) 2001
(3) Beginning of National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme	(c) 1997
(4) Beginning of Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY)	(d) 1999

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(B) 2 – (b)

Explanation:
Sampooma Grameen Rozgar Yojana was launched on 25 September, 2001. The program is geared towards itself in nature and aims to provide employment and food to people in rural areas living below the poverty line.

Question 42.

Unemployment which is caused by the introduction of new machinery, improvement of production techniques, labour saving devices, etc. is called:

(A) frictional unemployment
(B) casual unemployment
(C) structural unemployment
(D) technological unemployment
Answer:
(D) technological unemployment

Question 43.

Which type of unemployment is more in India?

(A) Open unemployment
(B) Disguised unemployment
(C) Seasonal unemployment
(D)Educated unemployment
Answer:
(B) Disguised unemployment

Explanation:
Because India is an Agrarian country.

Question 44.

Find the odd one out:

(A) Owner of a salon
(B) A cobbler
(C) A cashier in Mother Dairy
(D) A tuition master
Answer:
(C) A cashier in Mother Dairy

Explanation:
Except cashier in Mother dairy, all are self-employed’

Question 45.

Find odd one out:

(A) Rickshaw puller who works under a rickshaw owner
(B) Mason
(C) Mechanic shop worker
(D) Shoe shine boy
Answer:
(D) Shoe shine boy

Explanation:
Only shoe shine boy comes under the category of self-employed.

Question 46.

Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Employment means a situation in which a person willing to work and able to work does not get employment at the prevailing wage rate.
(B) Employment is an indicator of that situation in which worker is engaged in some productive activity for earning his living.
(C) Labour supply refers to the amount of labour that are unwilling to offer services corresponding to a particular wage rate.
(D) An arrangement in which a worker uses his own resources to make a living is known as casual workers.
Answer:
(B) Employment is an indicator of that situation in which worker is engaged in some productive activity for earning his living.

Question 47.

Which of the following is not true about the causes of unemployment in India?

(A) Rapid increase in population
(B) High rate of economic development
(C) Inadequate economic planning.
(D) The nature of agriculture is seasonal
Answer:
(B) High rate of economic development

Question 48.

Identify the correctly matched pair of Column A to that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
(1) Structural Unemployment	(a) Arises due to change in demand pattern and supply structure
(2) Disguised Unemployment	(b) Not working by choice
(3) Seasonal Unemployment	(c) Invisible in nature
(4) Casual Unemployment	(d) Arises due to movement of labour

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D)4 – (d)
Answer:
(A) 1 – (a)

Explanation:
With the passage of time, when demand pattern of goods changes there will be change in demand pattern for labour Some labour in one sector becomes idle while there may be demand in the other sector. Since labour cannot immediately switch over to new pattern, therefore, it causes
structural unemployment

Question 49.

Identify the correctly matched pair of column A to that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
(1) Self-Employed Labour	(a) Works in his own company
(2) Hired Worker	(b) Works using his own resources
(3) Casual Worker	(c) Works whenever they want
(4) Regular Worker	(d) Works all the time

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D)4 – (d)
Answer:
(A) 1 – (a)

Question 50.

To which type of infrastructure, transport is related?

(A) Economic
(B) Social
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Economic

Explanation:
Economic infrastructure is the key institutions that directly benefit the production and distribution process in the economy. Roads, railways, telecommunications systems, waterways, airports, financial institutions, electricity, water supply, etc. are examples of economic infrastructure.

Question 51.

Social infrastructure helps in production and distribution:

(A) In direct form
(B) In indirect form
(C) In no way
(D) In both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(B) In indirect form

Explanation:
Unlike economic infrastructure, social infrastructure indirectly increases productivity and production of goods and services. For example, the availability of better health care and medical facilities makes for an endless supply of healthy workers which is also reflected in the- state of increased productivity levels.

Question 52.

Agriculture waste is the source of energy:

(A) Commercial
(B) Non-Commercial
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Non-Commercial

Explanation:
The sources of energy that are usually availably free of cost to the users are referred to as non-commercial energy. Examples are: Firewood, agricultural waste, dried dung.

Question 53.

Identify the correctly matched pair of column A to that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
(1) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana	(a) May 2016
(2) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana	(b) May 2015
(3) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana	(c) Aug. 2014
(4) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme	(d) Feb. 2006

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(D) 4 – (d)

Explanation:
MGNREGA was launched by Govt, of India in 2006, to provide for the enhancement of livelihood security of the households in rural areas

Question 54.

Which of the following statements is not true regarding infrastructure in India?

(A) Infrastructure increases the productivity of productive resources.
(B) Infrastructure raises the standard of living and economic development of the country.
(C) All those factors like-energy, transport, communication, schools, colleges and hospitals do not form part of infrastructure.
(D) Infrastructure refers to the basic supporting structure which is built to provide different kinds of services in an economy. 52
Answer:
(C) All those factors like-energy, transport, communication, schools, colleges and hospitals do not form part of infrastructure.

Question 55.

Which of the following statements is not true about the power sector in India?

(A) Government needs to invest on the infrastructure to meet growing demand for electricity, India’s commercial energy supply needs to grow at about 7%.
(B) There has been an increase in profits of State Electricity Boards.
(C) Private sector power generators are yet to play their role in a major way.
(D) There is general public unrest due to high power tariffs and prolonged power cuts in different parts of the country.
Answer:
(B) There has been an increase in profits of State Electricity Boards.

Question 56.

Identify the correctly matched pair of the items in Column A (Government Schemes) to that of Column B.

Column A	Column B
1. Ayushman Bharat	(a) Sep., 2018
2. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan	(b) Oct. 2018
3. Make in India	(c) Oct. 2015
4. Digital India	(d) May 2014

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(A) 1 – (a)

Explanation:
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana of the Government of India, launched by Prime Minister on September 23, 2018, is a national health insurance scheme that aims to provide free access to health care for low-income people in the country.

Question 57.

Identify the correctly matched pair of the items in Column A (Government Schemes) to that of Column B (Period they were active):

Column A	Column B
1. National Health Protection Scheme	(a) 2005-2018
2. National Rural Health Mission	(b) 2005-2012
3. National Health Insurance Scheme	(c) 2015-2017
4. Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme	(d) 2012-2018

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(B) 2 – (b)

Explanation:
National Rural Health Mission (2005-2012) was launched to provide quality health care to rural people, especially the vulnerable group.

Question 58.

Which of the following is not used as a strategy for Sustainable Development?

(A) Use of bio-gas
(B) Use of solar power
(C) Use of thermal power
(D) Use of hydel power
Answer:
(A) Use of bio-gas

Explanation:
Burning oil, liquid natural gas (LNG), coal, and other substances are used to create thermal power, and these substances are non-renewable resources. Thus, thermal power is not a strategy of sustainable development.

Question 59.

The essential condition for sustainable growth is:

(A) Protection of natural resources
(B) Pollution free growth
(C) Quality of life
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 60.

Physical environment includes:

(A) Land
(B) Water
(C) Air
(D) AH of the above
Answer:
(D) AH of the above

Explanation:
The physical environment includes air, land, water, animals and plants, buildings and other infrastructure, as well as all natural resources that provide our basic needs and opportunities for social and economic development.

Question 61.

To check water pollution following method can be adopted:

(A) Commerce
(B) Better engine for cars
(C) Re-use of industrial waste
(D) Use of non-polluting sources for energy.
Answer:
(C) Re-use of industrial waste

Question 62.

Out of following one is non-renewable source:

(A) Forest
(B) Water
(C) Sun rays
(D) Coal
Answer:
(D) Coal

Explanation:
Coal is classified as a nonrenewable energy source because it takes millions of years to form.

Question 63.

Following are included in strategies for sustained development:

(A) Wind Energy
(B) Solar Energy
(C) Bio-compost
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 64.

Identify the correctly matched pair from the items in Column A by matching them to the items in column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Environment Degradation	(a) Soil Erosion
2. Land Pollution	(b) Future Use
3. Sustainable Development	(c) Leads to Poverty
4. Air Pollution	(d) Green house Gases

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D)4 – (d)
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Air pollution includes greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide. Greenhouse gases cause the climate to warm by trapping heat from the Sun in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Question 65.

Identify the correctly matched pair from the items in Column A by matching them to the items in column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Sustainable Development	(a) The process whereby the real per capita income of a country increases over a long period of time.
2. Economic De-velopment	(b) Development that means the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs.
3. Economic Growth	(c) Comprehensive concept including increasing real per capita income of a country over a long period of time along with reduction in poverty, inequality and unemployment.
4. Environment	(d) The total planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources.

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(D) 4 – (d)

Question 66.

Identify the correctly matched pair from the items in Column A by matching them to the items in Column B:

Column A	Column B
1. Use of Coal	(a) Less pollution
2. Use of LPG	(b) Global warming
3. Use of CNG	(c) Increases pollution
4. Use of Air Conditioners	(d) Ozone layer depletion

(A) 1 – (a)
(B) 2 – (b)
(C) 3 – (c)
(D) 4 – (d)
Answer:
(D) 4 – (d)

Explanation:
Air conditioners consume large amounts of electricity, and the fluorocarbons they use as refrigerants deplete the ozone layer and contribute to global warming.

Question 67.

Which industry employs the largest number of women in India?

(A) Tea
(B) Textile
(C) Jute
(D) Coal
Answer:
(A) Tea

Explanation:
The tea industries employ thousands of women for tea plantation, harvesting and cutting works.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Casual labourers are most vulnerable in the society.
Reason (R): Casual labourers don’t have a permanent earning facility and their earning varies a lot. They can even lose their jobs with a slight dip in the economic growth.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Calorie-based norm is not an adequate measure to identify the poor.
Reason (R): This method does not differentiate between the very poor and the other poor.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
This mechanism takes into account expenditure on food and a few other items as proxy for income. It ignores many other vital factors associated with poverty; for instance, the accessibility to basic education, health care, drinking water and sanitation.

Question 3.

Assertion (A): Poverty and unemployment are related to each other.
Reason (R): Unemployment leads to poverty.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
When unemployment prevails, people don’t get income. As a result, they are not able to get necessities of life and they become poor. Unemployment gives birth to poverty. Therefore, there is a direct relationship between poverty and unemployment.

Question 4.

Assertion (A): It is essential to develop proper storage facilities in rural areas.
Reason (R): Farmers can wait for better price for their products in the market.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
They are forced to sell their crops at very low prices to traders because of the fear of getting damage from fire, rodents or pests due to lack of proper storage facilities.

Question 5.

Assertion (A): In rural India, horticulture plays a vital role in providing food and nutrition to the rural population.
Reason (R): Various horticultural activities in Indian villages have improved the economic conditions of many farmers. Such activities have become a lucrative source of livelihood for many women in the rural India.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Question 6.

Assertion (A): The Prime Minister urged to increase the rural income by increasing non-farm activities.
Reason (R): Non-farm activities (agro-processing industries, poultry, craft, handloom) provide alternative avenues for sustainable livelihood and may raise the level of income as the risks due to fluctuations in production and market prices is generally less.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
Agriculture in India is mainly a seasonal occupation, however, during off seasons, it becomes difficult to find employment and stabilize farmer’s income. Thus, the Prime Minister has urged appropriately in the best interest of the farmers of the rural India.

Question 7.

Assertion (A): Physical capital helps in formation of human capital.
Reason (R): Physical capital is passive in nature.

Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
Human capital helps in formation of physical capital.

Question 8.

Assertion (A): Human Capital Formation gives birth to innovation, invention and technological improvements.
Reason (R): Investment in education creates ability to adopt newer technologies, facilitates invention and innovation since educated workforce generally adapts to modern technologies and innovation,

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
Human Capital Formation not only increases the productivity of available human resources but also stimulates innovation and creates ability to adopt new technologies.

Question 9.

Assertion (A): Indian economy is marching ahead towards progress.
Reason (R): The contribution of agriculture in national income is declining but the contribution of industries and service sector is increasing continuously. It is an indicator of economic development of Indian Economy.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Question 10.

Assertion (A): Less women are found in regular salaried employment.
Reason (R): Women workers accord highest- priority to self-employment because of mobility of female labour work force both in urban as well as in rural areas.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Question 11.

Assertion (A): Meena is a housewife. Besides taking care of household chores, she works in the cloth shop which is owned and operated by her husband. She is considered as self-employed worker.
Reason (R): Self-employed workers are those who uses their own resources to earn and make a living.

Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
A person who participates in the production process and contributes to GDP formation is referred to as a worker. As here, Meena works in a cloth store to support her husband and contribute to GDP by donating her services, therefore, she can be considered an worker.

Question 12.

Assertion (A): Bengaluru in Karnataka is referred to as Silicon Valley of India, as it is the hub of IT based industries.
Reason (R): Presence of world class communication facilities help it to attract many multinational companies that makes it hub of IT based industries.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
Bangaluru is also known as the “Silicon Valley of India” because of its role in promoting the IT industry in India. Infosys, ISRO, Infosys, HA1, Wipro and other Indian technology organizations have their headquarters in the city.

Question 13.

Assertion (A): Investors are reluctant to invest in tidal energy projects.
Reason (R): Tidal energy has high cost and low running cost. As a result, a tidal power scheme may not give returns for years.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
Tidal energy has a high capital cost i.e., installation cost.

Question 14.

Assertion (A): Medical Tourism is great opportunity for India.
Reason (R): Indian health services combine the latest medical technologies with qualified professionals and are cheaper for foreigners. By upgrading health services, it can be a great opportunity for India.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Question 15.

Assertion (A): Sustainable development is the only way that will allow economy to have a proper development.
Reason (R): Sustainable development is the development in which the economy is developed considering the needs of the future generation.

Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation:
Dimensions of Sustainable Development:
(i) social development
(ii) economic development
(iii) environmental development
As all three aspects are included in sustainable development, thus sustainable development is the only way that will allow economy to have a proper development.

Question 16.

Assertion (A): Indian government is investing a lot in Solar Energy.
Reason (R): Solar Energy is a clean form of energy and thus does very minimum harm to the environment.

Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Question 17.

Assertion (A): Soil Erosion is the major environmental problem faced by India.
Reason (R): India is an agricultural economy

Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Explanation:
Soil Erosion is the major environmental problem faced by India because faulty practices of farming.

Case-Based MCQs

I. Read the following hypothetical case study carefully and answer the questions follow on the basis of the same.
Since ages, farmers in India have taken recourse to debt. In the earlier times the same was from informal sources. Since independence with the efforts of the government, formal sector has actively come into picture. Farmers borrow not only to meet their investment needs but also to satisfy their personal needs.

Uncertainty of income caused by factors likes crop failure caused by irregular rainfall, reduction in ground water table, locusi/other pest attack, etc. These reasons push them into the clutches of the private money lenders, who charge exorbitant rates of interest which add to their miseries.

Various governments in India, at different times for different reasons, introduced debt relief/waiver schemes. These schemes are used by governments as a quick means to extricate farmers from their indebtedness, helping to restore their capacity to invest and produce, in short to lessen the miseries of the farmers across India.

The costs and benefits of such debt relief schemes are, however, a widely debated topic among economists.
Some economists argue that such schemes are extremely beneficial to the poor and marginalised farmers while others argue that these schemes add to the fiscal burden of the government, others believe that these schemes may develop the expectation of repeated bailouts among farmers which may spoil the credit culture among farmers.

Question 1.

Uncertainty of income for farmers in India is majorly caused by ……………

(A) Irregular rainfall
(B) Unavailability of loans
(C) locust/other pest attack
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation:
Uncertainty of income caused by factors likes crop failure caused by:
(i) irregular rainfall,
(ii) reduction in ground water table,
(iii) locust/other pest attack, etc.

Question 2.

Some economists argue that debt waiver schemes are extremely beneficial to the poor and marginalised farmers, as these schemes reduce the burden of ………………

(A) Indebtedness
(B) Personal Expenditure
(C) Crop failure
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Indebtedness

Explanation:
Various governments in India, from time to time for various reasons, introduced debt relief/waiver schemes. These programs are being used by governments as a quick way to get farmers out of their debt, helping to restore their investment and productivity potential, in short reducing the plight of farmers across India.

Question 3.

The rural banking structure in India consists of a set of multi-agency institutions is expected to dispense credit at cheaper rates for agricultural purposes to farmers.

(A) Regional Rural Banks
(B) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Regional Rural Banks

Explanation:
The institutional structure of rural banking today consists of a set of multiagency institutions, which are:
(i) Commercial banks
(ii) Regional Rural Banks (HHBs)
(iii) Co-operatives and Land development banks
Recently, Self-Help Groups (henceforth SHGs) have also emerged.

Question 4.

……………. is the most prominent body responsible for providing loans for long term land development.

(A) Regional Rural Banks
(B) Land Development Banks
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Land Development Banks

Explanation:
Land development bank provides long-term funds for various agriculture related projects besides development of land and business.

II. Read the following news report and answer the Question5-8 on the basis of the same:

New Delhi:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday launched the Ayushman Bharat Scheme via video-conferencing to extend health insurance coverage to all residents of Jammu and Kashmir. The Prime Minister’s Office said the scheme will ensure universal health coverage, and focus on providing financial risk protection and ensuring quality and affordable essential health services to all individuals and communities.

Union Home Minister Amit Shah and the Union Territory’s Lieutenant Governor, Manoj Sinha, also spoke on the occasion.
The scheme will provide free-of-cost insurance cover to all residents of the UT of Jammu and Kashmir, the PMO said, adding that it will extend financial cover of upto ₹ 5 lakhs per family on a floater basis to all residents of the UT.

There is provision for operational extension of the ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana’ (PM – JAY) to approximately 15 lakh additional families, the PMO statement said, adding that the scheme will operate on insurance mode in convergence with PM – JAY. The benefits of the scheme will be portable across the country. The hospitals empanelled under the PM – JAY scheme shall provide services under this scheme as well, the PMO said. – The Economic Times – 26th December, 2020

Question 5.

What does the Ayushman Bharat Scheme provide?

(A) Better health care facility
(B) Cheaper health care facility
(C) Health Insurance
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) Health Insurance

Explanation:
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana of the Government of India is a national health insurance scheme of the state that aims to provide free access to healthcare for low income earners in the country.

Question 6.

What is the main benefit of the scheme?

(A) Bring a lot of people in the purview of health care.
(B) Make health care affordable for the rich in India.
(C) Alleviating poverty in India.
(D) Improving the education in India.
Answer:
(A) Bring a lot of people in the purview of health care.

Explanation:
The scheme is launched to ensure, universal health coverage, and focus on providing financial risk protection and ensuring quality and affordable essential health services to all individuals and communities.

Question 7.

The financial cover under the scheme is of per family.

(A) ₹ 5 Lakhs
(B) ₹ 15 Lakhs
(C) ₹ 10 Lakhs
(D) ₹ 20 Lakhs
Answer:
(A) ₹ 5 Lakhs

Question 8.

…………….. is the other name of the scheme.

(A) PM – JAY
(B) PM – JAI
(C) PM – AJAY
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) PM – JAY

Explanation:
The scheme will operate on insurance mode in convergence with PM-JAY.

Parties and the Party Systems in India Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Whom would you like to identify the slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’ with?

Prime Minister Jawahar Lai Nehru passed away in May:

was unanimously chosen as the leader of the Congress Parliamentary Party after the death of Nehru.

In the decade of 1960’s, the Congress Party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi was affected by:

The economic situation in 1967 triggered off:

The had played a role in the installation of Indira Gandhi as the Prime Minister by ensuring her election as the leader of the Parliamentary Party.

The Syndicate wanted Indira Gandhi to act as a:

The Grand Alliance of opposition of 1971:

Whom would you like to identify the slogan ‘Indira Hatao’ with?

Which period of Indian politics was referred to as “dangerous decade”?

For how many years Lai Bahadur Sashtri remained cabinet minister prior becoming the PM?

Who gave slogan “Garibi Hatao”?

Why Indira Gandhi was called “Goongi Gudiya” in Indian Politics?

Why the results of general elections 1967 were called ‘political earthquake’?

Whose name was proposed by the syndicate for the Presidential elections 1969?

When did congress party split into two groups?

When Indira Gandhi recommended dissolution of Lok Sabha?

In General Elections 1971 which party was supported by the majority of the voters?

What was the motto of Grand Alliance?

Assertion: Our leaders were conscious of the critical role of politics in any democracy. Reason: They.did not see politics as a problem; they saw it as a way of solving the problems.

Assertion: The elections had to be postponed twice and finally held from October 1951 to February 1952. Reason: But this election is referred to as the 1951 election since most parts of the country voted in January 1951.

Assertion: The Indian National Congress was expected to lose this election. Reason: The Congress party, as it was popularly known, had inherited the legacy of the national movement.

Assertion: What distinguished the dominance of the Congress party in India from all the other cases was it happened under democratic conditions. Reason: Many parties contested elections in conditions of free and fair elections and yet the Congress managed to win election after election.

Assertion: The roots of the extraordinary success of the Congress party go back to the legacy of the freedom struggle. [0] Reason: This was similar to the dominance the African National Congress has enjoyed in South Africa after the end of apartheid.

Assertion: Congress accommodated the revolutionary and pacifist, conservative and radical, extremist and moderate and the right, left and all shades of the centre. Reason: All these members had differences in deciding the party policies and launching freedom struggle.

Assertion: This coalition-like character of the Congress gave it an unusual strength. Reason: Congress acted as an extremist as far as coalition politics is concerned and handled all the issues arbitrarily.

What does the cartoon represent?

Why Indira Gandhi in the picture looks pleased?

Identify the person wearing garland in winning position.

Who is lying on the ground?

The cartoon depicts the results of which elections?

What was the outcome of these elections labelled as?

Who are depicted as the players in the cartoon?

Which party did Indira Gandhi lead in 1971 elections?

Why Shastri resigned from the position of Railway Minister?

What was the tenure of Shastri as a PM of India?

What two major crises India faced during Shastri’s tenure?

What was the famous slogan given by Shastri?

In how many states Congress lost majority?

What is the current name of Madras?

On what agenda DMK came into power in Tamil Nadu?

In how many states a coalition government of non-congress parties were formed?

Who was called “Gungi Gudiya”?

Whose name was proposed for president by Indira Gandhi?

Who was the vice-president to Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan?

Who was the first president to die in the office?

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers

India’s Foreign Policy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Nehru was our first Prime Minister as well as:

The foreign policy of independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of:

The …………. laid foundation for Non Alignment Movement established in 1961 with Nehru as the co-founder.

Select the correct option for the leader and the country that helped to reach the Tashkent agreement between India and Pakistan:

Sri Lanka is a member of :

It was in that full diplomatic relations were restored between India and Pakistan.

The first nuclear explosion undertaken by India was in May:

The period when the nuclear test was conducted was a difficult period in:

India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in:

Why stronger countries’ foreign policies were supported by many countries after WW2?

In post WW2 era, why the tensions were erupted between India and US?

When did India and China signed Panchsheel agreement?

When did India intervened the Bangladesh Liberation War?

Who among the Prime Ministers of wishes to review the “no first use” policy?

Assertion: The Indian national movement was not an isolated process. It was a part of the worldwide struggle against colonialism and imperialism. Reason: It influenced the liberation movements of many Asian and African countries.

Assertion: While India was trying to convince the other developing countries about the policy of non-alignment, Pakistan joined the US-led military alliances. Reason: Unlike its relationship with Pakistan, free India began its relationship with China on a very friendly note.

Assertion: The Sino- Indian conflict affected the opposition as well. Reason: This and the growing rift between China and the Soviet Union created irreconcilable differences within the Communist Party of India (CPI).

Assertion: Indian air crafts attacked parts of Pakistan and the army moved into POK and Swat Valley. Reason: After months of diplomatic tension and military build-up, a full-scale war between India and Pakistan broke out in December 1971.

Assertion: Nehru had always put his faith in science and technology for rapidly building a modern India. Reason: A significant component of his industrialization plans was the nuclear programme initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi . Bhabha.

Assertion: There are no differences among political parties about how to conduct external relations. Reason: Indian politics is generally marked by a broad agreement among the parties on national integration, protection of international boundaries, and on questions of national interest.

What message does this cartoon convey?

Which year does the event happened?

Which event does this cartoon depict?

Which two countries relationship were strained after Suppression of Tibetan culture?

Who was the foreign minister during the time of Pt. Nehru?

What were the three major objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy?

Which of the following leaders were in favour of supporting the US bloc?

What was the nature of the policy of US bloc?

Which of the following nuclear treaties were rejected by India?

When did India conduct series of nuclear tests?

Why India’s foreign policy shifted to become more pro-US?

Assertion: Our leaders were conscious of the critical role of politics in any democracy.
Reason: They.did not see politics as a problem; they saw it as a way of solving the problems.

Assertion: The elections had to be postponed twice and finally held from October 1951 to February 1952.
Reason: But this election is referred to as the 1951 election since most parts of the country voted in January 1951.

Assertion: The Indian National Congress was expected to lose this election.
Reason: The Congress party, as it was popularly known, had inherited the legacy of the national movement.

Assertion: What distinguished the dominance of the Congress party in India from all the other cases was it happened under democratic conditions.
Reason: Many parties contested elections in conditions of free and fair elections and yet the Congress managed to win election after election.

Assertion: The roots of the extraordinary success of the Congress party go back to the legacy of the freedom struggle. [0]
Reason: This was similar to the dominance the African National Congress has enjoyed in South Africa after the end of apartheid.

Assertion: Congress accommodated the
revolutionary and pacifist, conservative and radical, extremist and moderate and the right, left and all shades of the centre.
Reason: All these members had differences in deciding the party policies and launching freedom struggle.

Assertion: This coalition-like character of the Congress gave it an unusual strength.
Reason: Congress acted as an extremist as far as coalition politics is concerned and handled all the issues arbitrarily.

Assertion: While India was trying to convince the other developing countries about the policy of non-alignment, Pakistan joined the US-led military alliances.
Reason: Unlike its relationship with Pakistan, free India began its relationship with China on a very friendly note.

Assertion: The Sino- Indian conflict affected the opposition as well.
Reason: This and the growing rift between China and the Soviet Union created irreconcilable differences within the Communist Party of India (CPI).

Assertion: Indian air crafts attacked parts of Pakistan and the army moved into POK and Swat Valley.
Reason: After months of diplomatic tension and military build-up, a full-scale war between India and Pakistan broke out in December 1971.

Assertion: Nehru had always put his faith in science and technology for rapidly building a modern India.
Reason: A significant component of his industrialization plans was the nuclear programme initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi . Bhabha.

Assertion: There are no differences among political parties about how to conduct external relations.
Reason: Indian politics is generally marked by a broad agreement among the parties on national integration, protection of international boundaries, and on questions of national interest.

Assertion: The example of Orissa shows us that it is not enough to say that everyone wants development.
Reason: For ‘development’ has same or similar meanings for different sections of the people.

Assertion: Development could not be left to private actors, that there was the need for the government to develop a design or plan for development.
Reason: The Bombay Plan wanted the state to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investments.

Assertion : Huge allocations were made for large- scale projects like the Bhakhra Nangal Dam.
Reason: Agricultural sector was hit hardest by Partition and needed urgent attention.

Assertion: The draft of the First Five Year Plan and then the actual Plan Document, released in December 1951, generated a lot of excitement in the country.
Reason: This draft failed to meet the expectations of the country as it did not have anything for common men.