Obul

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree

I. COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow each :

1. It takes much time to kill a tree,
Not a simple jab of the knife
Will do it. It has grown Slowly consuming the earth,
Rising out of it, feeding
Upon its crust, absorbing
Years of sunlight, air, water,
And out of its leprous hide
Sprouting leaves. (Page 110)

Questions

(a) What will a simple jab of the knife not do to a tree ?
(b) Where has the tree grown ?
(c) What did the tree need to grow ?
(d) How does its bark look ?

Answers

(а) It will not kill a tree.
(b) It has grown on the earth’s surface.
(c) It needed sunlight, air, water and the earth’s crust.
(d) It looks like the leprous hide.

2. So hack and chop
But this alone won’t do it.
Not so much pain will do it.
The bleeding bark will heal
And from close to the ground
Will rise curled green twigs,
Miniature boughs
Which if unchecked will expand again
To former size. (Page 110) (Imp.)

Questions

(a) What alone will not do to the tree ?
(b) What will happen after the bark bleeds ?
(c) When will small boughs grow to their former size ?
(d) Give the meaning of ‘miniature’.

Answers

(a) Hacking and chopping will not kill the tree.
(b) It will soon heal.
(c) When they will not be checked.
(d) It is ‘small’.

3. No,
The root is to be pulled out —
Out of the anchoring earth ;
It is to be roped, tied,
And pulled out—snapped out Or pulled out entirely,
Out from the earth-cave, (Pages 110-111) (V. Imp.)

Questions

(a) What shall one have to do to kill the tree ?
(b) How does the earth give protection to the tree ?
(c) How is the earth seen in relation to it ?
(d) Name the poetic device used in the last line here.

Answers

(a) One shall have to pull out or snap out the tree from the roots.
(b) It anchors the tree and keeps it firmly standing.
(c) It is like a cave to preserve it.
(d) It is ‘metaphor’.

4. And the strength of the tree exposed
The source, white and wet,
The most sensitive, hidden
For years inside the earth. (Page 111)

Questions

(a) What happens when the tree is pulled out ?
(b) How does the source of the tree look ?
(c) Where has the source of the tree laid ?
(d) Give the meaning of ‘sensitive’.

Answers

(a) Its strength is seen.
(b) It looks white and wet.
(c) It has laid inside the earth.
(d) It is ‘that is easily affected’.

5. Then the matter
Of scorching and choking In sun and air,
Browning, hardening,
Twisting, withering,
And then it is done. (Page 111) (M. Imp.)

Questions

(a) What happens to the tree after it is pulled out ?
(b) Which colour does the tree acquire then and how does it look ?
(c) What happens to the tree after all these stages ?
(d) What is ‘it’ in the last line ?

Answers

(a) It is scorched and choked.
(b) It acquires brown colour. It looks hardened.
(c) It is then killed.
(d) ‘It’ here means the action of killing the tree.

II. TEXTUAL QUESTIONS
(Page 111)

Thinking About the Poem

I.

1. Can a “simple jab of the knife” kill a tree ? Why not ?
2. How has the tree grown to its full size ? List the words suggestive of its life and activity.
3. What is the meaning of “bleeding bark” ? What makes it bleed ?
4. The poet says “No” in the beginning of the third stanza. What does he mean by this ?
5. What is the meaning of “anchoring earth” and “earth cave” ?
6. What does he mean by “the strength of the tree exposed” ? (CBSE 2016)
7. What finally kills the tree ?

Answers

1. No, it can’t. It is because the bark of the tree will heal on its own after some time.
2. It has consumed the earth and fed on its crust. It has absorbed light, air and water for years. The words are : consuming, feeding, absorbing sunlight, air and water.
3. It means the bark giving out juice etc., after it is cut. A knife’s or axe’s cut makes it bleed.
4. By ‘No’ he means to say that to kill a tree one should not hack, chop or jab it with a
5. It means the earth that gives protection to the tree. The earth, that is, the soil keeps the tree in its grip and gives life to it. ‘Earth cave’ means a hole inside it. This looks like a small cave. The tree has its roots in it.
6. The strength of the tree are its roots. When the tree is pulled out, these are exposed.
7. Pulling out the tree in one jerk with ropes etc., finally kills the tree.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Democratic Rights

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Democratic Rights.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Bihar go to Punjab to work on the farms.
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.
(c) Men and women government employees get the same salary.
(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children.
Answer:
(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children.

Question 2.
Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to criticise the government
(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution
Answer:
(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution

Question 3.
Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to adequate livelihood
(c) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to privacy
Answer:
(c) Right to protect one’s culture

Question 4.
Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls:

1. Freedom to propagate one’s religion
2. Right to life
3. Abolition of untouchability
4. Ban on bonded labour

Answer:

1. Right to Freedom of Religion
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right to Equality
4. Right against Exploitation

Question 5.
Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference.
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.
Answer:
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
Reasons:

• Rights are necessary for the very existence of democracy.
• In a democracy, every citizen has the right to vote.

Question 6.
Are there restrictions on the Right to Freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.

1. Indian citizens need permission to enter some border areas of the country for reasons of security.
2. Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population.
3. The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections.

Answer:

1. It is justified. The security of the country is the first duty of a government, and this cause can stop the people from visiting the border areas.
2. This action is also justified. The local population may not be financially strong to protect its interests. Outsiders can take away their rights in their own area, so such a step of the government is correct.
3. Not justified. The publication of a book can only be banned if it disturbs the peace and hurts the sentiments of a section of people, and not on grounds of protecting the ruling party’s prospects in the next election.

Question 7.
Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community ? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position”. Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance.
Answer:
In Manoj’s case, two fundamental rights are being violated.

1. Right to Equality. Everyone is equal in the eyes of law. No one can be denied admission on the grounds of his birth. The person is also practising untouchability which is a punishable offence. His right to opportunity is also being violated.
2. Right to Freedom. Manoj has the right to apply for any job anywhere as long as he is qualified for it. No one can force him to do a certain job against his wishes.

Question 8.
When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her, “You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o A.K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao.” She did not agree. She said “If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?” In your opinion, who is right in this dispute? and why?
Answer:
In this dispute, Madhurima is correct. She is entitled to right to equality and therefore she can choose to use either her maiden name or her husband’s surname. Forcing her to use to her husband’s surname will result in infringement of her right.

Hope given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 are helpful to complete your homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online tutoring for you.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
Food security of a nation is ensured if all of its citizens have enough nutritious food available, all persons have the capacity to buy food of acceptable quality and there is no barrier to access to food.

Question 2.
Which are the people more prone to food insecurity?
Answer:
The people more prone to food insecurity are:

1. Landless people with little or no land to depend on.
2. Traditional artisans
3. Providers of traditional services, petty self-employed workers and destitutes, including beggars
4. Urban casual labourers engaged in seasonal activities.
5. The SCs, STs and some sections of the OBCs.
6. People affected by natural disasters.

Question 3.
Which states are more food insecure in India?
Answer:
The states of Uttar Pradesh (eastern and south-eastern parts), Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, West Bengal, Chattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra account for the largest number of food-insecure people in the country.

Question 4.
Do you believe that Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains? How?
Answer:
Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains. The country has avoided famines even during adverse weather conditions since the advent of the Green Revolution in the early 1970s. A variety of crops being grown all over the country is an outcome of the Green Revolution.

Question 5.
A section of people in India is still without food. Explain.
Answer:
A section of the people is insecure during a few months when they remain unemployed because of the seasonal nature of agricultural work. They are engaged in seasonal activities and are paid very low wages that just ensure bare survival. At times it so happens that they have to stay without food.

Question 6.
What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?
Answer:
When there is a disaster or a calamity, the production of food grains decreases in the affected areas. This in turn creates a shortage of food in the area. Due to the food shortages, the prices go up. The raised prices of food affect the capacity of many people to buy the same. When a calamity occurs in a very wide area or is stretched over a long period of time, it may cause a situation of starvation. Massive starvation can take the form of famine.

Question 7.
Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger.
Answer:
Hunger has chronic and seasonal dimensions.
Chronic Hunger Seasonal Hunger Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality. Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their very low income and in turn inability to buy food even for survival. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of casual labour.

Question 8.
What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government.
Answer:
The government has designed the food security system carefully to ensure the availability of food to all sections of society. The system is composed of two componfents, i.e.,

1.  Buffer Stock
2. Public Distribution System (PDS)

In addition to the above, the government has launched several Poverty Alleviation Programmes (PAPs) that comprise a component of food security. Some of these programmes are Mid-day Meals, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY), and Food For Work (FFW).

The two schemes launched by the government in this direction are:

1. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). This scheme was launched in December 2000. Under this scheme, one crore of the poorer among the BPL families, to be covered by the Public Distribution System, were identified. Twenty-five kilograms of food grains were made available to each of the – eligible families at a highly subsidized rate. After about two years, the quantity was enhanced from twenty-five kg to thirty-five kg. In June 2003 and August 2004, an additional fifty lakh families were added to this scheme twice. In this way, about two crore families have been brought under the AAY.
2. Annapurna Scheme (APS). It was launched in 2,000 with a special target group of ‘indigent senior citizens’. The functioning of the scheme was linked with the existing network of the PDS. Under this scheme, 10 kg of food grains were made available to them free of cost.

Question 9.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock is created by the government to ensure the availability of food to all the sections of society. It helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during periods of calamity.

Question 10.
Write notes on:
(a) Minimum Support Price
(b) Buffer Stock
(c) Issue Price
(d) Fair Price Shops
Answer:
(a) Minimum Support Price. This is the pre-announced price at which the government purchases food grains particularly, wheat and rice, from the farmers to create a buffer stock. This price is announced by the government every year before the sowing season as an incentive to the farmers to raise the production of the desired crop. The rising MSPs have raised the maintenance cost of procuring food grains by the government as well as induced farmers to divert land from the production of coarse grains to the production of these crops.

(b) Buffer Stock. It is the stock of food grains, particularly wheat and rice, which the government procures through the Food Corporation of India (FCI). The FCI purchases these cereals directly from the farmers of those states where they are in surplus. The price of these commodities are announced much before the actual sowing season of these crops. The food grains thus purchased by the FCI are kept in big granaries and called ‘Buffer Stock’.

(c) Issue Price. In order to help the poor strata of the society, the government provides them food grains from the buffer stock at a price much lower than the market price. This subsidised price is known as the ‘Issue Price’.

(d) Fair Price Shops. The food grains procured by the government through the Food Corporation of India are distributed among the poorer sections of the society through ration shops. These are called ‘Fair Price Shops’ because food grains are supplied to the poor through these shops at a price lower than the market price, which is often high.

Question 11.
What are the problems with the functioning of ration shops?
Answer:
Out of Syllabus.

Question 12.
Write a note on the role of co-operatives in providing food and related items.
Answer:
The cooperatives are also playing an important role in food security in India especially in the southern and western parts of the country. The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people. For example, out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94 percent are being run by the cooperatives.

Hope given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 are helpful to complete your homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online tutoring for you.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.
(b) People select the representative of their choice is an election.
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary.
(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer.
Answer:
Statement (c) is false.

Question 2.
Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.
Answer:
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.

Question 3.
List all the different election-related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities are given below: Releasing election manifesto, counting of votes, making of voters’ list, election campaign, declaration of election results, casting of votes, ordering of re-poll, announcing election schedule, filing nomination.
Answer:
Election-related activities:

1. Announcing election schedule
2. Filing nominations
3. Making of voters’ list
4. Releasing election manifesto
5. Election campaign
6. Casting of votes
7. Counting of votes
8. Declaration of election results.
9. Ordering of re-poll.

Question 4.
Surekha is an officer in charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what should she focus on for each of the following stages of election:

1. Election campaign
2. Polling day
3. Counting day

Answer:

1. Election campaign:
   • Sulekha should ensure that the candidates are not bribing the voters.
   • She should ensure that no candidate appeals for votes in the name of caste and religion.
   • She should make sure that no candidate uses government resources for campaigning.
   • No candidate should be allowed to spend more than 25 lakhs in a constituency for the Lok Sabha elections.
2. Polling day:
   • Sulekha should ensure that voting takes place in a fairway.
   • No unfair means like booth capturing should take place.
   • Once the polling is over, EVMs should be sealed and taken to a secure place.
3. Counting day:
   • On a fixed day, only EVMs from constituency should be opened.
   • The agents of all contestants should ensure that counting is done properly.
   • If she finds any foul play, an objection can be raised to the Election Commission, which will verily it and may go for re-polling in that constituency.

Question 5.
The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidates who won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of these communities in the population of the US. Based on this would you suggest a system of reservation in the US Congress. If yes, why and for which communities? If no, why not?

Answer:
Based on the table, a reservation for the Hispanic community is a good idea. This is to make their representation in proportion to the percentage of their population.

Question 6.
Chinappa was convicted of torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections?
Answer:
No, this decision does not go against the principle of democratic elections because:

1. Chinappa is a criminal as he was convicted of torturing his wife for dowry.
2. Satbir is also guilty of practicing untouchability, which is a crime.
3. If there are serious criminal cases pending against candidates they are not allowed to contest elections.
4. This system has been introduced in the directions from the Supreme Court.

Hope given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 are helpful to complete your homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online tutoring for you.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
(a) Struggle by the people.
(b) Invasion by foreign countries,
(c) End of Colonialism.
(d) People’s desire for freedom.
Answer:
(b) Invasion by foreign countries

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is true about today’s world?
(a) Monarchy as a form of government has vanished.
(b) The relationship between different countries has become more democratic than ever before.
(c) In more and more countries rulers are being elected by the people.
(d) There are no more military dictators in the world.
Answer:
(c) In more and more countries rulers are being elected by the people.

Question 3.
Use one of the following statements to complete the sentence:
Democracy in the international organisations requires that
(a) The rich countries should have a greater say.
(b) Countries should have a say according to their military power.
(c) Countries should be treated with respect in proportion to their population.
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.
Answer:
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.

Question 4.
Based on the information given in this chapter, match the following countries and the path democracy has taken in that country.

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)

Question 5.
What are the difficulties people face in a non-democratic country? Give answers drawing from the examples given in this chapter.
Answer:
Citizens of non-democratic countries face a lot of difficulties. These are listed below:

1. They are not allowed to choose their leader or raise a voice against changing their leader.
2. They aren’t entitled to form political parties without the consent of the one in power. They do not have the rights to form independent trade unions or are allowed to strike.
3. They do not enjoy the right to freedom of speech and expression because there is a possibility that people can be arrested for any trivial matter.
4. For example, the military coup of 1973 in Chile and the Communist government in Poland, which ruled till 1990, are examples of oppressive undemocratic rule.

Question 6.
Which freedoms are usually taken away when a democracy is overthrown by the military?
Answer:
When democracy is overthrown by the military, freedom is curbed and the following incidents are usually witnessed:

1. The military does whatever it wishes to do and no one has the authority to question them.
2. The military government tortures harass, imprisons, and also kills people who had gone against them during their takeover. Moreover, citizens are not allowed to show displeasure against any of their policies.
3. People are barred from expressing their opinions freely, from forming any trade unions or even having the right to vote.

Question 7.
Which of the following positions can contribute to democracy at the global level? Give reasons for your answer in each case.
(a) My country gives more money to international institutions. Therefore, I want to be treated with
more respect and exercise more power. .
(b) My country may be small or poor. But my voice must be heard with equal respect because these decisions will affect my country.
(c) Wealthy nations will have a greater say in international affairs. They cannot let their interests suffer just because they are outnumbered by poor nations.
(d) Big countries like India must have a greater say in international organisations.
Answer:
(b) Because in a democracy all nations must have equal powers while the rest of the statements support the rich and the developed nations. They cannot contribute to democracy on a global level.

Hope given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 are helpful to complete your homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online tutoring for you.