NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 8
SubjectScience
ChapterChapter 3
Chapter NameSynthetic Fibres and Plastics
Number of Questions Solved15
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

NCERT TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
Explain why some fibres are called synthetic.
Answer.
Since man-made fibres are synthesised from petrochemicals, they are called synthetic fibres.

Question 2.
Mark the correct answer.
Rayon is different from synthetic fibres because
(a) it has a silk-like appearance
(b) it is obtained from wood pulp
(c) its fibres can also be woven like those of natural fibres
Answer.
(b) It is obtained from wood pulp.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

  1. Synthetic fibres are also called…………. or……………fibres.
  2. Synthetic fibres are synthesised from raw material called………..
  3. Like synthetic fibres, plastic is also a …………..

Answer.

  1. artificial, man-made.
  2. petrochemicals.
  3. polymer.

Question 4.
Give examples which indicate that nylon fibres are very strong.
Answer.
They are used to make parachutes, and ropes for rock climbing.

Question 5.
Explain why plastic containers are favoured for storing food.
Answer.
Three main advantages of using plastic containers for storing food are:

  1. They do not react with food items.
  2. They do not get rusted.
  3. They are light, strong and durable.

Question 6.
Explain the difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting plastics.
Answer.
Thermoplastics can be softened on heating and can be bent easily whereas thermosetting plastics cannot be softened on heating and breaks when forced to bend.

Question 7.
Explain why the following are made of thermosetting plastics.
(1) Saucepan handles
(2) Electric plugs Iswitches /plugboards.

Answer.
The above articles are made up of bakelite (a thermosetting plastic) because it is—

  1. the bad conductor of heat.
  2. poor conductor of electricity.

Question 8.
Categorise the materials of the following products into ‘can be recycled’ and ‘cannot be recycled’:
Telephone instruments, plastic toys, cooker handles, carry bags, ballpoint pens, plastic bowls, plastic covering on electrical wires, plastic chairs, electrical switches.
Answer.

Can be recycledCannot be recycled
Toys carry bags, plastic bowls, electric wire covering, plastic chairs.Telephone instruments, cooker handles, ballpoint pens, electrical switches.

Question 9.
Rana wants to buy shirts for summer. Should he buy cotton shirts or shirts made from synthetic material? Advise Rana, giving your reason.
Answer.
I would advise Rana to buy cotton shirts as cotton shirts absorb the sweat and thus endorse cooling. Besides, they also provide aeration.

Question 10.
Give examples to show that plastics are noncorrosive in nature.
Answer.

  1. It does not react with the chemical or other items stored in the containers made of it.
  2. It does not get rusted when exposed to moisture and air.
  3. It does not decompose when left in open for a long period.

Question 11.
Should the handle and bristles of a toothbrush be made of the same material? Explain your answer.
Answer.
The handles and bristles of a toothbrush should be made of a material which has lightweight good strength and is hygiene. “But the bristles should be soft enough so that ” they do not harm gums while the handle should be quite stiff so that it may not get bent while brushing.

Question 12.
‘Avoid plastics as far as possible.’ Comment on this advice.
Answer.
Since plastic takes several years to decompose, it is not environment friendly. It causes environmental pollution. Besides, when the synthetic material is burnt it takes a long time to get completely burnt. In the process, it releases a lot of poisonous fumes into the atmosphere causing air pollution.

Question 13.
Match the terms of Column A correctly with the phrases given in Column B.

Column AColumn B
(i) Polyester(a) Prepared by using wood pulp
(ii) Teflon(b) Used for making parachutes and stockings
(iii) Rayon(c) Used to make non-stick cookwares
(iv) Nylon(d) Fabrics do not wrinkle easily

Answer.

Column AColumn B
(i) Polyester(d) Fabrics do not wrinkle easily
(ii) Teflon(c) Used to make non-stick cookwares
(iii) Rayon(a) Prepared by using wood pulp
(iv) Nylon(b) Used for making parachutes and stockings


Question 14.

‘Manufacturing synthetic fibres are actually helping conservation of forests. ’ Comment.
Answer.
The synthetic fibres are made up of petrochemicals. So, manufacturing synthetic fibres does not depend upon plants. These synthetic fibres cater to the need of people up to great extent. Thus, the forests are not destroyed to manufacture clothes and other items. So, indirectly, we can come to the conclusion that manufacturing synthetic fibres is actually helping the conservation of forests.

Question 15.
Describe an activity to show that thermoplastic is a poor conductor of electricity.
Answer.
A thermoplastic (or plastic) is a poor conductor of electricity as shown in Fig. 3.3.
If we place a piece of copper in the gap touching points A and B (in Fig. 3.3), we observe that bulb glow. If we place plastic in the gap between A and B, we observe that the bulb will not glow. It means plastic is a poor conductor.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics 1

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 8
SubjectScience
ChapterChapter 2
Chapter NameMicroorganisms: Friend and Foe
Number of Questions Solved9
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe

NCERT TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

  1. Microorganisms can be seen with the help of a………………
  2. Blue-green algae fix………….. directly from the air and enhance the fertility of the soil.
  3. Alcohol is produced with the help of……………….
  4. Cholera is caused by………………….

Answer.

  1. microscope
  2. nitrogen
  3. yeast
  4. bacteria.

Question 2.
Tick the correct answer.
(a) Yeast is used in the production of
(i) sugar
(ii) alcohol
(iii) hydrochloric acid
(iv) oxygen
Answer.
(ii) alcohol

(b) The following is an antibiotic
(i) Sodium bicarbonate
(ii) Streptomycin
(iii) Alcohol
(iv) Yeast
Answer.
(ii) Streptomycin

(c) Carrier of malaria-causing protozoan is
(i) female Anopheles mosquito
(ii) cockroach
(iii) housefly
(iv) butterfly
Answer.
(i) female Anopheles mosquito

(d) The most common carrier of communicable diseases is
(i) ant
(ii) housefly
(iii) dragonfly
(iv) spider
Answer.
(ii) housefly

(e) The bread or idli dough rises because of
(i) heat
(ii) grinding
(iii) growth of yeast cells
(iv) kneading
Answer.
(iii) growth of yeast cells

(f) The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol is called
(i) nitrogen fixation
(ii) moulding
(iii) fermentation
(iv) infection
Answer.
(iii) fermentation.

Question 3.
Match the organisms in Column A with their action in Column B.

Column AColumn B

(i) Bacteria

(ii) Rhizobium

(iii) Lactobacillus

(iv)Yeast

(v) A protozoan

(vi) A virus

(a) Fixing nitrogen

(b) Setting of curd

(c) Baking of bread

(d) Causing malaria

(e) Causing cholera

(f) Causing AIDS

(g) Producing antibodies

Answer.

Column AColumn B
(i) Bacteria(e) Causing cholera
(ii) Rhizobium(a) Fixing nitrogen
(iii) Lactobacillus(b) Setting of curd
(iv) Yeast(c) Baking of bread
(v) A protozoan(d) Causing malaria
(vi) A virus(f) Causing AIDS

Question 4.
Can microorganisms be seen with the naked eye? If not, how can they be seen?
Answer.
No, we cannot see microorganisms with unaided eyes. They can be seen with the help of a microscope.

Question 5.
What are the major groups of microorganisms?
Answer.
Microorganisms are classified into four major groups based on their size. These are:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Protozoa
  4. Some algae.

Viruses are another type of microorganisms.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms Friend and Foe 1
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms Friend and Foe 2
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms Friend and Foe 3
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms Friend and Foe 4

Question 6.
Name the microorganisms which can fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.
Answer.
They are

  • Rhizobium
  • Azobhcter
  • blue-green algae (such as Anabaena and Nostoc), etc.

Question 7.
Write 10 lines on the usefulness of microorganisms in our lives.
Answer.
Microorganisms are useful for us in many ways e.g.,

  1. the bacterium, lactobacillus converts milk into curd.
  2. bacteria are also involved in the making of cheese.
  3. Acetobacter acetic is used for the production of acetic acid from alcohol.
  4. Yeast is used for the commercial production of alcohol and wine.
  5. Antibiotics are manufactured by growing specific microorganisms.
  6. Some bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen and increase soil fertility.
  7. Bacteria are used in the preparation of medicines like antibiotics and vaccines.
  8. Bacteria are used in the preservation of pickles and many other food items.
  9. Yeast is also used in the baking industry for making bread, pastries, and cakes.
  10. They act as cleansing agents and decompose the waste products into manure.

Question 8.
Write a short paragraph on the harmful effects of microorganisms.
Answer.
The harms caused by microorganisms are as follows:

  1. Many communicable diseases, such as cholera, common cold, chickenpox, tuberculosis, etc., are caused by microorganisms.
  2. Malaria is caused by a microorganism called Plasmodium carried by the female Anopheles mosquito.
  3. The Female Aedes mosquito acts as a carrier of the dengue virus.
  4. Anthrax is a dangerous human and cattle disease caused by a bacterium called Bacillus anthracis.
  5. Several microorganisms cause diseases in plants like wheat, rice, potato, sugarcane, orange, apple, etc., and reduce the yield of the crops.
  6. Food poisoning is also caused by microorganisms. They make food poisonous by producing toxic substances in the food.

Question 9.
What are antibiotics? What precautions must be taken while taking antibiotics?
Answer.
The medicines, that kill or stop the growth of the disease-causing microorganisms, are called antibiotics. Streptomycin, tetracycline, erythromycin, etc. are some of the commonly known antibiotics which are made from fungi and bacteria.
The precautions to be taken while taking antibiotics are as follows :

  1. These medicines should be taken only on the advice of a qualified doctor.
  2. One must complete the course prescribed by the doctor.
  3. If anybody takes antibiotics when not needed, his/her body may develop resistance against that antibiotic.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 8
SubjectScience
ChapterChapter 1
Chapter NameCrop Production and Management
Number of Questions Solved11
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management

NCERT TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
Select the correct word from the following list and fill in the blanks, float, water, crop, nutrients, preparation

(a) The same kind of plants grown and cultivated on a large scale at a place is called __________.
Answer:
Crop

(b) The first step before growing crops is ___________ of the soil.
Answer:
Preparation

(c) Damaged seeds would ___________ on top of water.
Answer:
Float

(d) For growing a crop, sufficient sunlight, __________ and __________ from the soil are essential.
Answer:
water
Nutrients

Question 2.
Match items in column A with those in column B.

Column AColumn B
(i) Kharif crops(a) Food for cattle
(ii) Rabi crops(b) Urea and super phosphate
(iii) Chemical fertilisers(c) Animal excreta, cow dung, urine and plant waste
(iv) Organic manure(d) Wheat, gram, pea
(e) Paddy and maize

 

 

 

 

 

Answer.

Column AColumn B
(i) Kharif crops(e) Paddy and maize
(ii) Rabi crops(d) Wheat, gram, pea
(iii) Chemical fertilisers(b) Urea and superphosphate
(iv) Organic manure(c) Animal excreta, cow dung, urine, and plant waste

 

 

 

 

 

Question 3.
Give two examples of each:

  1. Kharif crop
  2. Rabi crop

Answer.

  1. Paddy, maize
  2. Wheat, gram.

Question 4.
Write a paragraph in your own words on each of the following:

  1. Preparation of soil
  2. Sowing
  3. Weeding
  4. Threshing

Answer.
(1) Preparation of soil: It is the first step before growing a crop. One of the most important tasks in agriculture is to turn the soil and loosen it. This allows the roots to penetrate deep in the soil. The process of loosening and turning of soil is called tilling or ploughing which is done by a plough. Ploughs are made of wood or iron. The ploughed fields may have big pieces of soil called crumbs. These crumbs are broken and the field is levelled for sowing and for irrigation.

(2) Sowing: It is the process of putting seeds in the soil. For this purpose, good quality seeds are selected which are clean, healthy, of good variety, and give a high yield. Seeds are sown with the help of a traditional funnel-shaped tool or a seed drill. An appropriate distance between the seeds is also important to avoid overcrowding.

(3) Weeding: In a crop field many other undesirable plants may grow naturally along with the crop. These are called weeds. Weeds should be removed to protect the crops. The process of removal of weeds is called weeding. Weeding is necessary because weeds compete with the cultivated plants for space, light, water, and nutrients. Some weeds are poisonous for animals and human beings. Tilling before sowing of crops helps in uprooting and killing of weeds, which may then dry up and get mixed with the soil. The weeds must be removed before they produce flowers and seeds. They are removed either manually or by using weedicides.

(4) Threshing: After harvesting, the crops are threshed for removing grain seeds from the chaff. This is carried out with the help of a thresher or a machine called ‘combine’ which is in fact a combined harvester and thresher.

Question 5.
Explain how fertilisers are different from manure.
Answer.

FertilisersManure

1.  Fertilisers are chemicals which are rich in a particular nutrient like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.

2. Excessive use of fertilisers destroys soil fertility.

1. Manures are decomposed organic matter obtained from plant or animal wastes.

2. The use of manures improves soil texture as well as its water-holding capacity.

Question 6.
What is irrigation? Describe two methods of irrigation which conserve water.
Answer.
The supply of water to crops at different intervals is called irrigation. The two methods of irrigation in which water is conserved are the sprinkler system and the drip system.

(1) Sprinkler system: This system is mostly used on uneven lands where water is available in smaller quantities. In this system, perpendicular pipes having rotating nozzles on the top are joined to the main pipeline at regular intervals. When water is allowed to flow through the main pipe under pressure with the help of a pump, it escapes from the rotating nozzles. It is sprinkled on the crop as if it is raining. It is very useful for sandy soil.

(2) Drip system: In this system, the water falls drop by drop just at the position of the roots. So, it is called a drip system. It is the best technique for watering fruit plants, gardens, trees, etc. This system consists of the main pipe to which lateral pipes are joined. The specially prepared nozzles are attached to these lateral pipes. The nozzles are grounded just near the roots of the plants. It provides water drop by drop to plants. Water is not wasted at all. So, it is a boon in regions where the availability of water is poor.

Question 7.
If wheat is sown in the Kharif season, what would happen? Discuss.
Answer.
The best season for the wheat crops is from November/December to March/April. If it is sown in the Kharif season its production will be decreased considerably.

Question 8.
Explain how soil gets affected by the continuous plantation of crops in a field.
Answer.
The continuous growing of crops makes the soil deficient in certain nutrients. To avoid this, the following practices should be facilitated:

  1. Crop rotation
  2. Manuring the soil
  3. Leaving field fallow

Question 9.
What are weeds? How can we control them?
Answer.
The undesirable plants in the field that grow naturally are called weeds. Weeds must be removed, otherwise, our own crop plants may not get sufficient water, nutrients, space, and light. So, they are removed either by manual method or by using weedicides.

The manual removal includes physical removal of weeds by uprooting or cutting them close to the ground from time to time. This is done with the help of a khurpi or a harrow. By using weedicides also, we can remove weeds. These weedicides damage only weeds and do not harm crops, e.g., 2, 4-D.

Question 10.
Arrange the following boxes in proper order to make a flow chart of sugarcane crop production.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management 1
Answer.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management 2
Question 11.
Complete the following word puzzle with the help of clues below.
Down
1. Providing water to the crops.
2. Keeping crop grains for a long time under proper conditions.
5. Certain plants of the same kind grown on a large scale.
Across
3. A machine used for cutting the matured crop.
4. A rabi crop that is also one of the pulses.
6. A process of separating the grain from the chaff.
Answer.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management 3

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NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 16 Environmental Issues

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 16 Environmental Issues

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 16 Environmental Issues

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Non-biodegradable pollutants are created by
(a) nature
(b) excessive use of resources
(c) humans
(d) natural disasters.
Answer:
(c) :
Non-biodegradable pollutants are created by humans which effects our environment adversely They have the tendency to accumulate, as they are not degraded or broken down naturally into harmless compounds e.g. DDT (dichloro- diphenyl trichloroethane), BHC (Benzene hexachloride), polythene bags, etc.

Question 2.
According to the Central Pollution Control Efoard, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of diameter
(a) 2.50 micrometers
(b) 5.00 micrometers
(c) 10.00 micrometers
(d) 7.5 micrometers.
Answer:
(a) : Particulate matter causing air pollution is differentiated into settleable (larger than 10 pm) and suspended (less than 10 pm) particulate matter. According to CPCB, particles of 2.5 pm and lesser diameter are most harmful to human health as they can pass deep into lungs causing breathing and respiratory problems.

Question 3.
The material generally used for sound proofing of rooms like a recording studioand auditorium, etc is
(a) cotton
(b) coir
(c) wood
(d) styrofoam.
Answer:
(d)

Question 4.
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is
(a) propane
(b) methane
(c) ethane
(d) butane.
Answer:
(b) : Compressed Natural gas (CNG) is mostly methane. It is better alternative to petrol or diesel in terms of adverse effects on environment. In 2002, public transport vehicles in Delhi switched to CNG by the order of government as it bums more efficiently and cause lesser pollution.

Question 5.
World’s most problematic aquatic weed is
(a) Azolla
(b) Wolffia
(c) Eichhornia
(d) Trapa.
Answer:
(c) : Eichhornia crassipes (water hyacinth) is world’s most problematic aquatic weed, also called “Terror of Bengal”. Because of its very high rate of growth, it can cover the surface of whole water bodies, choke them and cause a threat to other aquatic life forms.

Question 6.
Which of the following causes biomagnification?
(a) SO2
(b) Mercury
(c) DDT
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) :
Biomagnification refer to increase in concentration of toxicant at successive trophic levels. This happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well-known for mercury and DDT.

Question 7.
The expanded form of DDT is
(a) dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane
(b) dichloro diethyl trichloroethane
(c) dichloro dipyrydyl trichloroethane
(d) dichloro diphenyl tetrachloroacetate.
Answer:
(a)

Question 8.
Which of the following material takes the longest time for biodegradation?
(a) Cotton
(b) Paper
(c) Bone
(d) Jute
Answer:
(c) :
Bones are made up of proteins (mainly collagen), inorganic minerals (calcium, hydroxyapatite) and organic ground substance. Out of these four options bone degradation will take the longest time. Collagen, because of its unique structures in one of the most resistant proteins to degradation. Inorganic ions like Ca , further strengthen the bones.

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) The Montreal protocol is associated with the control of emission of ozone depleting substances.
(b) Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases.
(c) Dobson units are used to measure oxygen content.
(d) Use 6f incinerators is crucial to disposal of hospital wastes.
Answer:
(c) :
Dobson units (DU) are used to represent the concentration or thickness of ozone (03) in our atmosphere. 100 = lppb (parts per billion). Thickness of ozone is more over equators than over poles. Ozone layer in stratosphere protects us from the harmful effects of UV radiation (including skin cancer, inflammation of cornea etc).

Question 10.
Among the following which one causes more indoor chemical pollution?
(a) Burning coal
(b) Burning cooking gas
(c) Burning mosquito coil
(d) Room spray
Answer:
(a) : Among the given four options, both burning of coal and burning of mosquito coil will cause chemical pollution, but burning of coal will cause more pollution. The main ingredient in mosquito coils is pyrethrum C (a natural extract from the chrysanthemum flower). At high doses, it is responsible for various respiratory disorders. The coal leads to release of a wide array of air pollutants (COX, SOX, NOetc.). Among these CO is very dangerous, it interfer with breathing process. People are generally advised not to sleep with coal burning in the closed room.

Question 11.
The green scum seen in the fresh water bodies is
(a) blue green algae
(b) red algae
(c) green algae
(d) both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(d) : The green scum seen in water bodies includes both green algae as well as blue-green algae. The excessive growth of such bloom forming algae is mainly because of presence of phosphates or nitrates in the water body (eutrophication). Such algal blooms can choke the water body. Green algae and blue-green algas (cyanobacteria) both are photosynthetic and decrease the dissolved oxygen content of water body. This kills much of flora and fauna of that water body. Later on, when microorganisms decompose these algae, further reduction in dissolved oxygen occurs.

Question 12.
The loudness of a sound that a person can withstand without discomfort is about
(a) 150 db
(b) 215 db
(c) 30 db
(d) 80 db.
Answer:
(d)

Question 13.

The major source of noise pollution, world wide is due to
(a) office equipment
(b) transport system
(c) sugar, textile and paper industries
(d) oil refineries and thermal power plants.
Answer:
(b)

Question 14.
Match correctly the following and choose the correct option
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 16 Environmental Issues 1

The correct matches is
(a) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – A, (iv) – B
(b) (i) – A, (ii) – C, (iii) – B, (iv) – D
(c) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C
(d) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A
Answer:
(a)

Question 15.
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into
(a) carbon dioxide and water
(b) carhon monaaxide
(c) methane .
(d) carbon dioxide and methane.
Answer:
(a) : Catalytic converters are fitted ‘ into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. Rhodium and PlatinumPalladium are examples of catalysts used in catalytic converters. They convert unburnt hydrocarbons into carbon dioxide and water and carbon monoxides to CO2 and nitric oxide to N2 gas.

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to remove sulphur from petroleum products?
(a) To reduce the emission of sulphur dioxide in exhaust fumes.
(b) To increase efficiency of automobiles + engines.
(c) To use sulphur removed from petroleum for commercial purposes.
(d) To increase the life span of engine silencers.
Answer:
(a) : By removing sulphur from petrol and diesel, the emission of SOcan be reduced , in exhaust. SO2 is a very harmful air pollutant. It can damage the vegetation by causing ,chlorosis. It can cause acid rain (by forming H2SO3 and H2SO4), damaging buildings and plants. In human beings it can cause irritation in eyes and damage to respiratory system (e.g. bronchitis).

Question 17.
Which pne of the following impurities is easiest to remove from wastewater?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Colloids
(c) Dissolved solids
(d) Suspended solids
Answer:
(d) : Suspended solids are relatively easier to remove from waste water. They constitute mainly sand, silt and clay. Most of these solids tend to settle if waste water is left undisturbed for sometime. They can be separated easily by physical means. Dissolved solids, both organic and inorganic (nitrates, phosphates etc) as well as bacteria and colloids are relatively difficult to separate.

Question 18.
Which one of the following diseases is not due to contamination of water?
(a) Hepatitis-B
(b) Jaundice
(c) Cholera
(d) Typhoid
Answer:
(a) : Hepatitis-B is caused by Hepatitis-B virus. It can be transmitted through blood transfusion, sexual contact, saliva and sharing of razors. It is not transmitted through contamination of water, as is the case with the rest of diseases.

Question 19.
Nuisance growth of aquatic plants and bloom forming algae in natural waters is generally due to high concentrations of
(a) carbon
(b) sulphur
(c) calcium
(d) phosphorus.
Answer:
(d) : Phosphorus in the form of phosphates as well as nitrates act as nutrients for the bloom-forming algae. Increased growth of algae because of these pollutants added to water bodies by human activities is called as cultural eutrophication. This literally, chokes the water body and lead to death of the organisms. Decomposition of these algae as well as dead water organisms, further deplete the dissolved oxygen content in water.

Question 20.
Algal blooms impart a distinct colour to water due to
(a) their pigments
(b) excretion of coloured substances
(c) formation of coloured chemicals in water facilitated by physiological degradation of algae
(d) absorption of light by algal.cell wall.
Answer:
(a) : Algal blooms are considered as pollutants of water, as they have very damaging effects on flora and fauna of that water body. They mostly consist of green algae and blue-green algae. The colour imparted by them depends on the colour of major pigment in them. For e.g., chlorophyll imparts the characteristic green colour. Also refer answer 19.

Question 21.
Match the items in Column-1 and Column-ll and choose the correct option.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 16 Environmental Issues 2

The correct match is:
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(i)
Answer:
(c)

Question 22.
In the textbook you came across Three Mile island and Chernobyl disasters associated with accidental leakage of radioactive wastes. In India we had Bhopal gas tragedy. It is associated with which of the following?
(a) CO2
(b) Methyl Isocyanate
(c) CFC’s
(d) Methycyanate
Answer:
(b) : In the night of December 2-3, 1984, gas clouds of methyl isocyanate (MIC) formed in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. The cause was leakage from the pesticide plant in union carbide India limited. The gas had acute health effects as well as long term effects. The acute effects lead to the death of more than 3000 people. Acute effects included suffocation, vomiting, pulmonary oedema as well as cerebral oedema.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Use of lead-free petrol or diesel is recommended to reduce the pollutants emitted by automobiles. What role does lead play?
Answer:
Lead inactivates catalyst of the catalytic converter.

Question 2.
In which year was the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act amended to include noise as air pollutant.
Answer:
In 1987 the Air (prevention and control of pollution) act amended to include noise as air pollutant.

Question 3.
Name the city in our country where the entire public road transport runs on CNG.
Answer:
In Delhi the entire public road transport runs on CNG.

Question 4.
It is a common practice to undertake desilting of the overhead water tanks. What is the possible source of silt that gets deposited in the water tanks?
Answer:
The source of silt that get deposited in overhead water tank are soil particles, which are carried out with water from the source of supply like rivers etc.

Question 5.
What is cultural eutrophication?
Answer:
Ageing of lake at a faster rate due to presence of large amount of industrial and agricultural waste and domestic sewage produced as a result of human activities is called cultural or accelerated eutrophication.

Question 6.
List any two adverse effects of particulate matter on human health.
Answer:
The adverse effect of particulate matter on human health are:

  1. Breathing and respiratory problems, bronchitis, asthma.
  2. Irritation, inflammations and damage to lungs and premature death.

Question 7.
What is the raw material for polyblend?
Answer:
Any plastic waste is the raw material for polyblend.

Question 8.
Blends of polyblend and bitumen, when used, help to increase road life by a factor of three. What is the reason?
Answer:
Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic. Polyblend prepared from plastic film waste increases the water repelling property of bitumen, which increases the life of roads to three times.

Question 9.
Mentfon any two examples of plants used as wind breakers in the agricultural fields.
Answer:

  1. Prosopis
  2. Casuarina

Question 10.
Name an industry which can cause both air and thermal pollution and as well as eutrophication.
Answer:
Fertiliser industry can cause both air and thermal pollution and as well as eutrophication.

Question 11.
What is an algal bloom?
Answer:
Excess of nitrates and phosphates from fertilisers rundown into ponds, lakes, streams which led to thick growth of planktonic algae called algal bloom. The scum formed is blue green in colour. It is toxic and leads to suffocation of aquatic organisms.

Question 12.
What do you understand by biomagnification?
Answer:
Biomagnification is increase in concentration of certain toxic chemicals in successive trophic levels of a food chain, this phenomenon is well-known for DDT and mercury etc.

Question 13.
What are the three major kinds of impurities in domestic wastewater?
Answer:
Three major kinds of impurities in domestic wastewater are :

  1. Suspended solid particles (Sand, Silt and Clay)
  2. Dissolved materials (nitrates, phosphates, sodium and calcium etc.)
  3. Colloidal particles (faecal matter, bacteria, cloth and paper fibres etc.)

Question 14.
What is reforestation?
Answer:
Process of restoring of a forest that once existed but was removed at some point of time in the.past is known as reforestation.

Question 15.
What is the best solution for the treatment of electronic wastes?
Answer:
Evencs is a scientific method of treating e-wastes in an environment friendly manner.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is it true carpets and curtains/ drapes placed on the floor or wall surfaces can reduce noise level. Explain briefly?
Answer:
Yes, it is true that carpets and curtain/ drapes reduce the noise pollution, because being porous in nature they absorb sound and recluce the noise level.

Question 2.
What is hybrid vehicle technology?. Explain its advantages with a suitable example?
Answer:
Technology that involves running of vehicles at dual mode of fuel i.e. Petrol and CNG, is known as hybrid vehicle technology.CNG is a better fuel because it is completely combustible and produces less pollutants. CNG also helps in conservation of fossil fuels.

Question 3.
Is it true that if the dissolved oxygen level drops to zero, the water will become septic. Give an example which could lower the dissolved oxygen content of an aquatic body.
Answer:
Yes, it is true that when the level of dissolved oxygen drops to zero, the water becomes septic. This happens when the amount of organic waste becomes very high and almost all the oxygen content is completely utilised by decomposers. E.g., addition of sewage water in a water body lowers 02 level.

Question 4.
Name any one green house gas and its possible source of production on a large scale. What are the harmful effects of it?
Answer:
Major green house gases are CO2– 60%, CH4-20%, CFCS-14% and N2O-6%. Out of which CO2 is present in maximum amount. Source of CO2 is burning of fossil fuels, volcanic eruptions and respiration process. Due to increased level of CO2 in the atmosphere global atmospheric temperature during the past century has increased to 0.6%. It is called global warming, which results in melting of polar ice caps and rise in sea level etc.

Question 5.
It is a common practice to plant trees and shrubs near the boundary walls of buildings. What purpose do they serve?
Answer:
Growing of plants near the boundary wall of jauildings is known as Green muffler scheme, which reduces the noise pollution by absorbing sound. They also help in trapping of dust particles.

Question 6.
Why has the National Forest Commission of India recommended a relatively larger forest cover for hills than for plains?
Answer:
National Forest Commission has recommended 33% forest cover for plains and 67% forest cover for hills (1988) in his National Forest Policy. Because, forest are responsible for controlling soil erosion, land slides and moderate the climate whereas plains provide land for human settlements.

Question 7.
How can slash and burn agriculture become environment friendly?
Answer:
In slash and burn agriculture, the farmers cut down the trees of the forest and burn the plant remains. The ash is used as a fertiliser and land is used for farming or cattle grazing. After that area is left for several years for recovery. Slash and burn agriculture can become environment friendly if rows of trees and shrubs are left intact, while clearing the area for cultivation which will prevent soil erosion and invasion of weeds. There will be quicker recovery of forest after the area is abandoned.

Question 8.
What is the main idea behind ” Joint Forest Management Concept” introduced by the Government of India?
Answer:
Joint forest management (JFM) committees are set up with joint effort of Government and local communities for protecting and managing forests in sustainable manner. Village communities work together with the government as share the benefits. Presently, there are 84632 JFM committees with 17.33 million hectare forest area under them. Around 85.28 lakh families are involve in them all over the country.

Question 9.
What do you understand by Snow-blindness?
Answer:
Snow blindness is a temporary blindness caused by inflammation of cornea due to absorption of UV-B radiations. It leads to diminishing of eye sight, photoburning and later permanent damage to cornea that results in actual cataract.

Question 10.
How has DDT caused decline in bird population?
Answer:
DDT is a persistent pollutant. Excessive use of DDT, increases its concentration in successive trophic levels in food chain due to its accumulation in fat. This phenomenon is known as biomagnification. High concen-tration of DDT distrub calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of egg shell and their premature breaking that kills embryos eventually causing decline in bird population.

Question 11.
Observe the figure A and B given below and answer the following questions.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 16 Environmental Issues 3

(1) The power generation by the above two methods is non-polluting—True/False.
(2) List any two applications of solar energy.
(3) What is a photovoltaic cell?
Answer:

  1. True. Figure A is solar energy panel
    and figure B is wind mill. Both devices produce electricity, without polluting the environment.
  2. Applications of solar energy are:
    1. Solar Cookers
    2. Solar water heater
    3. Solar battery driven car
  3. Photovoltaic cell is the solar cell which transforms solar radiant energy into electrical energy.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on electronic waste. List the various sources of e-wastes and the problems associated with its disposal.
Answer:
Irreparable computers and other electronic goods are known as electronic wastes (e-wastes). Electronic waste is produced by damaged or discarded electronic goods, computer parts, keyboard, monitor, mouse, central processing unit (CPU) etc. Most of e-waste is dumped at landfill sites. The e-waste consists of lead and mercury etc, which may get leaked into soil water. e-wraste  should be disposed off either by incineration or pyrolysis or should be recycled.

Unlike developed countries, which have specifically built facilities for recycling of e-waste, in developing countries it is done manually. Thus workers are exposed to toxic substances present in e-waste. Recycling seems to be the best solution for treatment of e-waste provided it is carried out in eco- friendlv manner.

Question 2.
What is organic farming? Discuss the benefits of organic farming as a viable practice in the context of developing nations like India.
Answer:
Organic farming is a cyclical, zerowaste procedure where waste products from one process are cycled in as nutrients for other processes. This allows maximum utilisation of resources and increases the efficiency of production.

The land is cultivated by using techniques such as crop rotation, green manure, composting, biofertilisers and biopesticides etc. In developing nations like India, organic farming is important to meet the food demand, we are using excessive chemical fertilisers which are polluting our soil and water resources.
Benefits of organic farming :

  1. It reduces the use of chemical fertilisers and prevent from their ill effects.
  2. It controls pest without harming the environment.
  3. It produces nutritious and quality food.
  4. It helps in conservation of natural resources by their efficient utilisation.
  5. It maintains the soil fertility.

Question 3.
Water logging and soil salinity are some of the problems that have come in the wake of the Green Revolution. Discuss their causes and adverse effects to the environment.
Answer:
Water logging is submerging of land under water. Water logging is caused by excessive irrigation, Kutcha irrigation channels, presence of impermeable under-ground soil pans and improper drainage of water during irrigation. Besides affecting the crops, water logging draws salt to the surface of soil. Salt is deposited as a thin crust on the land surface, which leads to soil salination.
This decreases absorption capacity of water and mirterals by the root system of plants. Adverse effects :

  1. Water logging and soil salination cause loss of land productivity.
  2. Fertility of land reduces from 30 – 80%.
  3. Increased soil content affects the growth of crops and causes extreme damage to agriculture.
    In India more than 20% irrigated land is damaged due to it.

Question 4.
What are multipurposetrees? Give the botanical and local names of any two multipurpose trees known to you and list their uses.
Answer:
Multipurpose trees are the trees that are deliberately grown and managed for more than one output. They supply food to us but at the same time supplies firewood or add nitrogen to the soil or supplies some other combination of multiple outputs.

  1. Plants like Ficus variegata (gulhar), Daucos carrota (Carrot), Phaseolus vulgaris (common bean), Coleus (Makandi) fix carbon monoxide a chief pollutant in air.
  2. Pinus (Pinus tree), Juniper us (common juniper), Quercus (oak) can use oxides of nitrogen.
  3. Biodiesel plants e.g., jatropha and Pongammia, Pinnatn used to produce biodiesel which can be used as a substitute for diesel.

Question 5.
What are the basic characteristics of a modern landfill site. List any three and also mention the reasons for their use.
Answer:
Characteristics of modern landfill include:

  1. Methods to contain leachate such as lining clay or plastic liners
  2. Compaction and covering of the waste to prevent it from being blown by wind.
  3. Installation of landfill gas extraction system to extract the gas for use in generation of power.
    Landfilling is simple economic method which by recyfling and recovery of waste reduces waste. Modern landfill reduces the negative effects on the environment and on human health related to landfilling.

Question 6.
How does an electrostatic precipitator work?
Answer:
Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are most widely used devices to separate the particulate matter on the basis of charges. It can remove over 99% of particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant. It has electrode wires that are maintained at several thousand volts, which produce a corona that releases electrons. These electrons attach to dust particles giving them a net negative charge. The collecting plates are grounded and attract the charged dust particles. The velocity of air between the

Question 7.
Observe figure and answer the following questions.
(1) What ecological term is used to describe the DDT accumulation at different trophic levels?
(2) List any one effect of DDT accumulation on birds.
(3) Will DDT accumulation lead to eutrophication?
(4) Does it affect the BOD?
(5) Name disease caused by accumulation of any heavy metal.
Answer:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 16 Environmental Issues 4

  1. The ecological term used to describe the DDT accumulation at different trophic levels is called biomagnification.
  2. High concentration of DDT disturbs the calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of egg shell and premature breaking. The shell breaks during incubation. This causes decline in bird population.
  3. DDT accumulation does not lead to eutrophication because eutrophication is caused by excess of nitrates and phosphates and domestic sewage.
  4. BOD is the amount of oxygen required to decompose the biodegradable organic wastes. DDT is non bio-degradable waste and so does not affect BOD.
  5. Biomagnification of heavy metal mercury in the fishes and consumption of such fishes causes minamata disease in man. plates must be low enough to allow the dust to fall. It is most effective device to remove particulate pollutants.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 16 Environmental Issues 5

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NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following countries has the hiqhest biodiversity?
(a) Brazil
(b) South Africa
(c) Russia
(d) India
Answer:
(a) : The environment of Brazil is characterised by high biodiversity. Brazil’s large area comprises different ecosystems, which together sustain some of the world’s greatest biodiversity. It has the most known species of plants (55,000), freshwater fish (3,000) and mammals (700). Birds and reptiles are also found in abundance.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?
(a) Destruction of habitat
(b) Invasion by alien species
(c) Keeping animals in zoological parks
(d) Over-exploitation of natural resources
Answer:
(c) : Keeping animals in zoological parks is not a cause for loss of biodiversity rather it is a method of conservation of biodiversity.

Question 3.
Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
(a) Lantana
(b) Cynodon
(c) Parthenium
(d) Eichhornia
Answer:
(b) : Lantana, Eichhornia and Parthenium are all exotic species, which had been introduced in India. Lantana camara has  replaced many species in forests of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Eichhornia (water hyacinth) has clogged water bodies including wetlands resulting in death of several aquatic plants and animals. Parthenium has pushed out several herbs and shrubs from open places in the plains.

Question 4.
Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?
(a) Rain forest of North-East India
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Thar Desert
(d) Western Ghats
Answer:
(a) : Pitcher plant is mainly found in rain forest of North-East India. This plant grows in the soil which has low nitrate. Hence, they obtain their nitrogen nutrition by trapping insects.

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a feature of biodiversity hotspots?
(a) Large number of species
(b) Abundance of endemic species
(c) Mostly located in the polar regions
(d) Mostly located in the tropics
Answer:
(c) : Hotspots are areas of high endemism and high species richness. All over the world, some 34 such spots have been identified, including 3 in India (Western Ghats, Indo- Burma and Himalayas). The environmental conditions in polar regions do not favour large number of species or species richness.

Question 6.
Match the animals given in Column A with their location in Column B.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation 1

Choose the correct match from the following.
(a) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
(b) i-D, ii-C, iii-A, iv-B
(c) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
(d) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
Answer:
(d)

Question 7.
What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauwolfa and Aconitum?
(a) All are ornamental plants.
(b) All are phylogenic link species.
(c) All are prone to over exploitation.
(d) All are exclusively present in the Eastern Himalayas.
Answer:
(c) : Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauwolfia and Aconitum have either medicinal or ornamental importance. Hence, they are prone to over exploitation.

Question 8.
The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following National Parks?
(a) BhitarKanika
(b) Bandipur
(c) Kaziranga
(d) Corbett park
Answer:
(c)

Question 9.
Amongst the animal groups given below, which one has the highest percentage of endangered species?
(a) Insects
(b) Mammals
(c) Amphibians
(d) Reptiles
Answer:
(c) :
The percentage number of endangered species in the list of threatened ones is 19% mammals, 17%birds, 21% reptiles, 22% amphibians.

Question 10.
Which one of the following is an endangered plant species of India?
(a) Rauwolfia serpentina
(b) Santalum album (Sandal wood)
(c) Cycas beddqmei
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d)

Question 11.
What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and African catfish?
(a) All are endangered species of India.
(b) All are key stone species.
(c) All are mammals found in India.
(d) All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.
Answer:
(d) :
Lantana, Eichhornia and African catfish are exotic species or non-native species. Exotic species are often introduced for their economic and other uses. They often become invasive .and drive away the local species. These species are considered to be second major cause of extinction of species. Exotic species have proved harmful to both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

Question 12.
The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to
(a) increased number of predatory birds
(b) over exploitation by humans
(c) non-availability of the food
(d) bird flu virus infection.
Answer:
(b) :
Passenger pigeons (Ectopistes migratorious) were once one of the most abundant birds on our planet, living in North
AmeVica. But hunting on a very massive scale as well as deforestation, lead to their extinction. Many cruel ways were used for their hunting. The last individual of this species died in 1914 in Cincinnati Zoo.

Question 13.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country.
(b) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes.
(c) Steller’s sea cow is an extinct animal.
(d) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.
Answer:
(c) :
Steller’s sea cow became extinct due to over exploitation by humans.

Question 14.
Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?
(a) Mangroves
(b) Desert
(c) Coral reefs
(d) Alpine meadows
Answer:
(c) :
Coral reefs have the highest biodiversity with its macrobiota representing about 4-5% of the described global biota.

Question 15.
Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?
(a) Taiga forest
(b) Tundra forest
(c) Amazon rainforest
(d) Rain forests of North East India
Answer:
(c) :
Amazon rainforests are also called as the lungs of the planet earth. This rainforest in South America is the largest and most diverse tropical rain forest on our planet. It contributes around 20% of the total oxygen in our planet.

Question 16.
The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from
(a) Datura
(b) Rauwolfia
(c) Atropa
(d) Papaver.
Answer:
(b) : Reserpine is an alkaloid that has been used as an anti hypertensive drug i.e., drug to lower blood pressure. It is obtained from the dried roots of Raiavolfia serpentina (Sarpagandha).

Question 17.
Which of the following groups exhibits more species diversity?
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Algae
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Fungi
Answer:
(d)

Question 18.
Which of the below mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations?
(a) Tropics
(b) Temperates
(c) Alpines
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(a) : There are no unfavourable seasons in tropics. Continued favourable environment has helped tropical organisms to gain more niche specialisation and increased diversity. Hence, tropics exhibit lesser seasonal variations.

Question 19.
The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as
(a) CITES Convention
(b) The Earth Summit
(c) G-16 Summit
(d) MAB Programme.
Answer:
(b) : Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro (1992), Brazil, promoted Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) which was signed by 152 nations. Its recommendations came into effect on 29th December 1993. India became a party to this Convention on Biological Diversity in May, 1994.

Question 20.
What is common to the techniques (1) in vitro fertilisation, (2) Cryo preservation and (3) tissue culture?
(a) All are in situ conservation methods.
(b) All are ex situ conservation methods.
(c) All require ultra modern equipment and large space.
(d) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms.
Answer:
(b) : Conservation of biodiversity can be broadly classified into two types : in situ (on-site) and ex situ (off site). Examples of in situ strategies include National parks, sanctuaries, Biosphere reserves etc. It is the preferred method to maintain species of wild animals in their natural habitats. This approach helps in conservation of total ecosystem. Ex situ approaches include conservation of those organisms, whose species may become extinct or decline heavily in number (due to a variety of reasons) in their natural habitat. This includes seed banks, cryopreservation, tissue culture, in vitro fertilisation etc.

 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What characteristics make a community stable?
Answer:
Characteristics which make community stable are :

  1. Resistance to occasional disturbance (natural or man made).
  2. Resistance to invasion by alien species.

Question 2.
What could have triggered mass extinctions of species in the past?
Answer:
The exact reason for mass extinctions of species in the past is not known. Scientists however assume that drastic environmental changes that followed events such as asteroid or meteorite impact or volcanic eruptions lead to mass extinctions.

These environmental changes include fall in temperature causing global cooling that trapped sea water in polar ice caps leading to lowering of sea level; or rise in temperature leading to disrupted ocean circulation patterns, green house effect and depletion of ozone layer etc.

Question 3.
What accounts for the greater ecological diversity of India?
Answer:
Greater ecological biodiversity in India is due to greater geographical and topographical diversity in the form of rainforest, deciduous forests, temperate forests, deserts, mangroves, wet lands alpine meadows etc.

Question 4.
According to David Tilman, greater the diversity, greater is the primary productivity. Can you think of a very low diversity man-made ecosystem that has high productivity?
Answer:
Man made ecosystems like agricultural cropfields of wheat, maize, sorghum, paddy etc., show high productivity but low diversity.

Question 5.
What does ‘Red’ indicate in the IUCN Red list (2004)?
Answer:
Red’ being the sign of danger, in IUCN Red list (2004) indicates threatened species. These species are under various degrees of extinction risk.

Question 6.
Explain as to how protection of biodiversity hotspots alone can reduce up to 30% of the current rate of species extinction.
Answer:
Hotspots are the areas that are rich in species, have high endemism, and are under constant threat. Although it bears only 2.4% of land area of the world, but by protecting hotspots the current rate of extinction of species can be reduced upto 30%.

Question 7.
What is the difference between endemic and exotic species?
Answer:
Endemic species refers to plant or animal species that is restricted to one or a few localities in its distribution. Endemic species are usually confined to islands and are vulnerable to extinction whereas exotic species is a species of organism that is not native to a locality having been moved there from its natural range by humans or other agents. Some alien species, such as rats, are introduced mainly by accident in cargoes or transport vessels, while others are transferred intentionally, often for their ornamental or economic value.

Question 8.
How does species diversity differ from ecological diversity?
Answer:
Species diversity is the variety in the number and richness of the species of a region. Species diversity is product of both species richness or evenness or equitability, i.e., species richness weighed by species evenness. For example, big cats, like tiger (Panthera tigris), and lion (Panthera leo) belong to the same genus Panthera but they all differ at the species level.

Ecosystem diversity explains the diverse number of niches, trophic levels and various ecological processes that sustain energy flow, food webs and recycling of nutrients. Within the geographical area, there may be variable number of ecosystems/habitats.

Question 9.
Why is genetic variation important in the plant Rauwolfia vomitoria
Answer:
Rnumnifin vomitoria grows in different ranges of Himalaya. This plant is a source of an alkaloid ‘reserpine’ which has medicinal value. Genetic variation is important for potency and concentration of active chemical reserpine present in it.

Question 10.
What is Red Data Book?
Answer:
International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources which which is now called World Conservation Union (WCU) maintains a red data book or red list which is a catalogue of taxa facing risk of extinction.
Red list has eight categories of species:

  1. extinct
  2. extinct in wild
  3. critically endangered
  4. endangered
  5. vulnerable
  6. lower risk
  7. data deficiency
  8. not evaluated.

Question 11.
Define gene pool.
Answer:
The sum total of all the genes found in an inbreeding population is known as gene pool.

Question 12.
What does the term ‘frugivorous’ mean?
Answer:
The term frugivorous is used for fruit eating animals.

Question 13.
What is the expanded form of IUCN?
Answer:
IUCN stands for ‘International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources’.

Question 14.
Define the terms (1) Bioprospecting (2) Endemism
Answer:

  1. Bioprospecting refers to exploring molecular, genetic and species level products of economic importance.
  2. Endemism refers to presence of some species in particular region only and nowhere else.

Question 15.
What is common to the species shown in figures A and B?
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation 2
Answer:
Both are invasive weed species.

Question 16.
What is common to the species shown in figure A and B?

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation 3
Answer:
Both are keystone species.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is the presently occurring species extinction different from the earlier mass extinctions?
Answer:
In earlier time, extinction of species occurred mainly due to natural causes or calamities like volcanic eruption, asteroid impact which lead to drastic environmental changes, etc., while at present human activities like deforestation, over-exploitation, pollution, intensive agriculture, introduction of alien species, etc., are the major causes of species extinction.

Question 2.
Of the four major causes for the loss of biodiversity alien species invasion, habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation and co-extinctions which according to you is the major cause for the loss of biodiversity? Give reasons in support.
Answer:
Out of thy four causes for the loss of biodiversity, habitat loss and fragmentation seems to be the major cause of biodiversity losses. Loss of habitats result in annihilation of plants, microorganisms and forcing out of animals which in alien lands die out after some time. Fragmentation of habitats results in disruption of complex interactions amongst species, destruction of species in the cleared regions, annihilation of species restricted to deeper undisturbed parts of forests and decreased biodiversity in the habitat fragments. Animals requiring large territories (e.g., mammals, birds) are badly affected. Migrating animals would go astray and get killed.

Question 3.
Discuss one example, based on your day-to-day observations, showing how loss of one species may lead to the extinction of another.
Answer:
It has been observed that certain mutualistic relationships exist in nature. Extinction of one will automatically cause extinction of other. E.g., if the host fish becomes extinct, all the parasites exclusively found on it will also become extinct.

Question 4.
A species-area curve is drawn by plotting the number of species against the area. How is it that when a very large area is considered the slope is steeper than that for smaller areas?
Answer:
species-area relationship graph, Z is slope of line or regression coefficient which generally is 0.1-0.2 regardless of taxonomic group or region. When species area relationship is considered for a large area the slope of line becomes steeper having a value of 0.6-1.2. This is because the larger area has more food availability and other resources, so obviously more species can thrive there.

Question 5.
It is possible that productivity and diversity of a natural community remain constant over a time period of, say one hundred years?
Answer:
Although a typical community maintains itself, more or less in equilibrium with the prevailing conditions of the environment, in nature, communities are never stable; rather, they are dynamic, changing more or less regularly over time and space. They are never found permanently in complete balance with their component species, or with the physical environment. Environment is always changing over a period of time due to

  1. variations in climatic and physiographic factors, and
  2. The activities of the species of the communities themselves.
    These influences bring about marked changes in the dominants of the existing community, which is thus, sooner or later replaced by another community at the same place.

Question 6.
There is greater biodiversity in tropical/ subtropical regions than in temperate region. Explain.
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Higher diversity in tropical areas is because of the following reasons:

  1. Speciation is a function of time. Temperate areas have undergone frequent glaciation in the past. It killed most of the species. No such disturbance occurred in tropics where species continued to flourish and evolve undisturbed for millions of years.
  2. There are no unfavourable seasons in tropics. Continued favourable environment has helped tropical organisms to gain more niche specialisation and increased diversity.
  3. More solar energy is available in tropics. This promotes higher productivity and increased biodiversity.
  4. Resource availability is higher in tropics.
  5. There is reduced competition in tropics due to favourable environment.
  6. Rate of extinction is low in tropics.

Question 7.
Why are the conventional methods not suitable for the assessment of biodiversity of bacteria?
Answer:
All forms of bacteria cannot be cultured in normal laboratory conditions which creates a problem in studying their morphological and biochemical characteristics. Biodiversity can be studied by examining morphological and biochemical characters. Such conventional methods cannot be applied for assessment of biodiversity of bacteria.

Question 8.
What criteria should one use in categorising a species as threatened?
Answer:
A threatened species is one which is unable to realise its full biotic potential and is, therefore, liable to become extinct. The inability of realising full biotic potential is due to depletion of food, habitat deterioration, over-exploitation, alien species, etc.

Question 9.
What could be the possible explanation for greater vulnerability of amphibians to extinction as compared to other animal groups?
Answer:
Amphibians are the group of animals which can live both on land and in water. They do not have scales and their skin is permeable to gases. A vast majority of amphibian species have to maintain moist skin surfaces because a significant amount of breathing occurs through skin. They easily get affected by the fluctuations in the surrounding environment.

Their eggs lack shell and hence are prone to dessication in an unprotective environment. Variations in environmental patterns can affect their physiological and reproductive features thereby affecting the survival and continuation of their race which accounts for their greater vulnerability to extinctions as compared to other animal groups.

Moreover, as amphibians need both aquatic and terrestrial habitats to survive, threats to either habitat can affect their population. Hence, amphibians are more vulnerable to habitat modification than the organisms which require only one habitat type.

Question 10.
Howido scientists extrapolate the total number of species on Earth?
Answer:
Scientists make a statistical comparison of the temperate-tropical species richness of an exhaustively studied group of insects and extrapolate this ratio to other groups of animals and plants to come up with a gross estimate of the total number of species on earth.

Question 11.
Humans benefit from diversity of life. Give two examples.
Answer:
Humans derive numerous benefits from diversity of living organisms. These are discussed as follows:
(1) Useful products : Plant species provide a variety of useful products such as timber, crops, fruits and vegetables, gums, resins, dyes, fragrance, perfumes, waxes, lubricants, hydrocarbons, rubber, latex, tannins, paper, tea, coffee, dry-fruits etc. Animals like goat, hen etc., serve as good source of food to humans. Milk, flesh, honey, egg, etc. are all useful animal products. Similarly, animal species provide, wool, fur, skin, leather, lac, silk, waxes, lubricants, pearls, ivory, horns, antlers etc. Large number of substances with therapeutic properties are obtained from variety of plant species. For example, quinine is obtained from the bark of plant Cinchona to combat malaria; taxol from the bark of trees Taxus brevifolia, Taxus baccata for treating cancer; reserpine from Rauwolfia serpentina for treating blood pressure and schizophrenia.

(2) Indirect benefits : Oxygen which made the earth hospitable and is indispensable for survival of almost all living organisms comes from plants which release it in the earth’s atmosphere by the process of photosynthesis. Plants also help in maintaining water cycle, replenishment of water table, bringing rains, preventing soil erosion and flood etc.
Aesthetic values of various natural ecosystems provide the opportunity of ecotourism and hence means of earning to humans.

Question 12.
List any two major causes other than anthropogenic causes for the loss of biodiversity.
Answer:
Loss of biodiversity may be due to:
(1) Natural extinction – Species with small population are always in danger of extinction due to natural causes like inbreeding depression, increased number of predators, development of more competitive species and environmental fluctuations like severe drought, severe winter, harsh summer, excess rain, floods, etc.

(2) Mass extinction – Many species dis-appeared due to catastrophes like glaciation, volcanoes, meteoriteimpact etc. Mass extinction has occurred many times in geological history. E.g., disappearance of dinosaurs coupled with loss of more than 50% of the existing species at the end of cretaceous period.

Question 13.
What is an endangered species? Give an example of an endangered plant and animal species each?
Answer:
Endangered species are those species which are facing high risk of extinction in the near future due to decrease in their habitat and excessive predation or poaching. Example of endangered animal is red panda (Ailurus fulgens). Example of endangered plant is Lycopodium nutans.

Question 14.
What are sacred groves and their role in biodiversity conservation?
Answer:
Sacred groves are forest patches around places of worship which are held in high esteem by tribal communities. They are the most undisturbed forest patches (island of pristine forests) which are often surrounded by highly degraded landscapes.
Some examples of sacred groves are-

  1. Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya.
  2. Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan.
  3. Sarguja, Chand and Batsar areas of Madhya pradesh.
  4. Western Ghats of Maharashtra and Madhya pradesh.

Role , of sacred groves in biodiversity conservation are as follows:
Sacred groves are serving as refugia for a number of rare, endangered and endemic species. Not a single branch is allowed to be cut from these forests. As a result many endemic species which are rare or have become extinct ‘ elsewhere can be seen to flourish here.

Question 15.
Suggest a place where one can go to study coral reefs, mangrove vegetation and estuaries.
Answer:
Place suggested for studying coral reefs is Andaman and Nicobar island. Mangrove vegetation can be well studied in West Bengal sunderbans and estuaries can be studied in coastal areas of Kerala.

Question 16.
1s it true that there is more solar energy available in the tropics? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Tropics lie on either side of equator between 30° south latitudes. It is limited in latitude by the tropic of cancer in the northern hemisphere and the tropic of capricorn in the southern hemisphere. The tropics include the areas on earth surrounding the equator where the sun reaches a subsolar point (a point directly overhead). These regions receive the most direct sunlight and heat energy from the sun and are the hottest.

Question 17.
What is co-extinction? Explain with a suitable example?
Answer:
When a species becomes extinct, the plant or animal species associated with it in an obligatory way also becomes extinct. This is called co-extinction. E.g., if the host fish becomes extinct, all the parasites exclusively found on it will also become extinct.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Elaborate how invasion by an alien species reduces the species diversity of an area.
Answer:
Non-native or alien species are often introduced inadvertently for their economic and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away the local species. These species are considered to be second major cause of extinction of species. Exotic species have proved harmful to both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. This can be explained as follows:

Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) was introduced in Indian waters to reduce pollution. It has clogged water bodies including wetlands at many places resulting in death of several aquatic plants and animals. Nile Perch (a predator fish) was introduced in lake Victoria of South Africa. It killed and eliminated ecologically unique assemblage of over 200 native species of small cliched fish.

Question 2.
How can you, as an individual, prevent the loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity has great importance to mankind. But certain human activities are leading to biodiversity losses. In order to maintain biodiversity we all need to put an effort to save our ecosystem. Following measures can be undertaken to prevent biodiversity losses:

  1. Educate people about the importance of wildlife and their conservation.
  2. Implementing laws imposed by the government to protect biodiversity.
  3. Avoiding over-exploitation of natural re-sources.
  4. Promoting afforestation.
  5. Avoiding the introduction of alien species.
  6. Checking habitat loss and fragmentation of species.
  7. Reducing pollution, etc.

Question 3.
Can you think of a scientific explanation, besides analogy used by Paul Ehrlich, for the direct relationship Answer:
Species diversity is formally measured as an index combining numbers and proportion of each species present in an ecosystem. A species diversity index reflects the number of links in a food web. The relationship between species diversity and ecosystem stability has been the most studied and debated topic since 1950.

Paul Ehrlich in his rivet popper hypothesis tried to prove the dependence of ecosystem stability on species diversity. Another scientific explanation to his theory is as follows :
If we imagine that only one food chain is operating in an ecosystem where only one species is occupying each trophic level then this type of food chain is most susceptible to destruction as loss or extinction of any species can lead to destruction of other species dependent on it for food. On the other hand, if many alternatives are available at each trophic level in the food sequence a food web will be formed decreasing the dependence of a species on a particular species for food. Then even extinction of one species will not affect any other species due to availability of alternative food. That is why, in nature food chains never operate singly rather many food chains are interconnected to form food web which gives stability to the ecosystem.

Question 4.
Though the conflict between humans and wildlife started with the evolution of man, the intensity of conflict has increased due to the activities of modern man. Justify your answer with suitable examples.
Answer:
Since the humans evolved on earth, they have been exploiting wildlife for their survival and continuity. Initially the degree of exploitation of wildlife was very less but with increasing civilisation and modernisation, the humans are becoming more demanding. Their ever increasing population is inventing new ways for better survival and existence which at times are interferring with the ways of nature leading to extinction of wildlife species. Hence, the conflict between humans and wildlife continues and has been worsened.
This can be explained as follows:
(1) Destruction of habitat and fragmentation : Over-population, urbanisation and industrialisation require additional land every year. It can come through destruction or fragmentation of natural habitats of wild animals through filling wetlands, ploughing grasslands, cutting down trees, burning a forest and clearing some area of vegetation. Loss of habitat results in annihilation of plants, microorganisms and forcing out of animals Which in alien lands die out after some time. Fragmentation of habitats results in disruption of complex interactions amongst species, destruction of species in the cleared regions, annihilation of species restricted to deeper undisturbed parts of forests and decreased biodiversity in the habitat fragments.

(2) Indiscriminate hunting : Hunting of animals for food, hide, tusks, horn, at excessive levels may lead to species extinction. Dodo bird and passenger pigeon have already become extinct. Many species of fish, molluscs, sea turtle and whales are facing the risk of extinction.

(3) Introduction of alien species:

  • Non-native or alien species are often introduced inadvertantly for their economic and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away the local species. These species are considered to be second major cause of extinction of species.
  • Carrot grass has replaced herbs and shrubs of open spaces.
  • Water hyacinth has become dominant species in pools and ponds.
  • Pollution : Excessive use of pesticides has polluted both groundwater and surface 6. water bodies. Many sensitive species have disappeared.
  • Intensive agriculture : Spread of agriculture is at the cost of wetlands, grasslands and forests. Destruction of habitats results in extinction of species. Intensive agriculture is also based on a few high yielding varieties. As a result, there is reduction in the genetic diversity. It increases vulnerability of the crop plants to sudden attack by pathogens and pests.

Question 5.
What is an ecosystem service? List any four important ecosystem services provided by the natural ecosystems. Are you in favour or against levying a charge on the service provided by the ecosystem?
Answer:
A wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic benefits provided by ecolpgical process of an ecosystem are called ecosystem services. Services of healthy forest ecosystem are –

  1. Forests provide food in the form of roots, tubers, leaves fruits etc.
  2. They provide timber for building purposes of houses, ships, railway sleepers, sport good, agriculture tools etc.
  3. Number of useful products like camphor, essential oils, tannins dyes gums, resins, drugs are obtained from forests.
  4. Trees in forests produce oxygen during photosynthesis and keep environment cool by regulating transpiration and precipitation.
  5. Trees prevent soil erosion floods and provide shelter.
  6. Many insect pollinators help in pollination of plants thereby bring about flower and fruits formation.
  7. Microbes help in decomposition of waste products and recycling of nutrients. Ecosystem provides lots of services. Instead of putting a price tag or levying a charge against service a sincere effort should be made to protect ecosystem to continue its services.

Question 6.
Describe the consumptive use value of biodiversity as food, drugs and medicines, fuel and fibre with suitable examples.
Answer:
The consumptive use value of biodiversity as food, drugs and medicines, fuel and fibre has been described as follows :
(1) Source of food : Several thousand species of edible plants and animals are known. However, 85% of the world’s food production is met by cultivating less than 20 plant species. Three carbohydrate-rich crops namely, wheat, corn (maize) and rice alone yield nearly two-third of the food production. To meet the demands of increasing human population, man is not only exploring new varieties of plants but also animal food. Biodiversity is also used as a source material for breeding improved varieties. To improve the desired traits, commercial/domesticated. species are crossbred with their wild relatives.

In this way, disease resistant and high yielding varieties of crops (e.g.,wheat, rice, maize, sugarcane) and fruits have been developed. For example, cross breeding of wild rice species has helped ! in developing new varieties which are resistant to four main rice diseases. Similarly, potato has been made resistant to late blight disease, potato mosaic virus, five races of cyst nematodes etc., through crossbreeding experiments. Also, hybrid animals varieties have been produced to increase the production of milk, meat, eggs etc. This indicates the need for protecting biodiversity for breeding programmes in agriculture, horticulture, floriculture, animal husbandry, apiculture, sericulture, lac culture, piggery, poultry and fishery.

(2) Fibers : A variety of plant species such as cotton, flax, hemp, jut, Agave, etc., are the major sources of fibers. More and more variety of plants are being explored for obtaining superior fibers.

(3) Useful products : Plant species provide a variety of useful products such as gums, resins, dyes, fragrance, perfumes, waxes, lubricants, hydrocarbons, rubber, latex, tannins, paper, tea, coffee, dry-fruits etc. Similarly, animal species provide, wool, fur, skin, leather, honey, lac, silk, waxes, lubricants, pearls, ivory, horns, antlers etc.

(4) Drugs and medicines : Large number of substances with therapeutic properties are obtained from variety of plant species. For example, quinine is obtained from the bark of plant Cinchona to combat
malaria ; taxol from the bark of Taxus for treating cancer; morphine from Papaver somniferum for pains; reserpine from Rauwolfia serpentina for treating blood pressure and schizophrenia. Ayurvedic medicines available in the market for treating innumerous diseases in man are based on plant product.

(5) As fuel wood : 80% of forest wood (most trees) are used as fuel wood. E.g., Acacia nilotica, Albizzia sp. Mangifera indica etc.

Question 7.
Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. What could be the possible reasons?
Answer:
Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles, because of the following reasons :

  1. Temperature decreases and conditions become harsh.
  2. Both the amount and intensity of solar radiation decreases.
  3. Limited resource availability.
  4. Higher competition due to unfavourable environment.
    Speciation is generally a function of time and environmental stability, so if conditions are too harsh, it is difficult for species to survive.

Question 8.
Explain briefly the ‘rivet popper hypothesis’ of Paul Ehrlich.
Answer:
According to this hypothesis proposed by Paul Ehrlich (1981), the relationship between species richness and ecosystem functioning is non-linear, and may follow a variety of possible trajectories. The loss of a few species (or rivets holding together an aeroplane) will create no problem in the beginning, but beyond a certain point losses will cause catastrophic effect. Loss of rivets or key species that drive major ecosystem functions is a more serious threat for the ecosystem. Besides, the rich biodiversity is not only essential for ecosystem health, but imperative for the very survival of the human beings.

Question 9.
The relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola. Give a brief explanation.
Answer:
German naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt while exploring the wilderness of South American jungles found that within a region the species richness increased with increasing area but upto a certain limit. The relationship between species richness and area turned out to be rectangular hyperbola for a wide variety of taxa Whether they are birds, bats, freshwater fishes or flowering plants. On a logarithmic scale it is a straight line and is represented by equation: log S = log C + Z log A
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation 4
Here S is species richness, Z is slope of line or regression coefficient, C is Y intercept while A is area. The relationship between area and species richness in most cases is represented by a rectangular hyperbola which indicates that if we take a larger area under consideration then the number of species increases because more individuals get included in the sample and large areas are environmentally more heterogenous than small areas. But this increase in number is neither uniform nor unlimited. Ecologists have proposed wide range of factors determining the slope and elevation of species area curve. These factors include relative balance between immigration and extinction, rate and magnitude of disturbance predator-prey dynamics, etc.

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