NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the “Native”, Educating the Nation

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the “Native”, Educating the Nation

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science.Here we have given. NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the “Native”, Educating the Nation

Question 1.
Match the following:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation 1
Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation 2

Question 2.
State whether True or False:

  1. James Mill was a severe critic of the Orientalists. True
  2. The 1854 Despatch on education was in favour of English being introduced as a medium of higher education in India. True
  3. Mahatma Gandhi thought that promotion of literacy was the most important aim of education. False
  4. Rabindranath Tagore felt that children ought to be subjected to strict discipline. False

Question 3.
Why did William Jones feel the need to study Indian history, philosophy, and law?
Answer:

  1. In order to understand India, it was necessary to discover the sacred and legal texts that were produced in the ancient period.
  2. Only those texts could reveal the real ideas and laws of the Hindus and Muslims and only a new study of these texts could form the basis of future development in India.
  3. He believed that this project would not only help the British learn from Indian culture, but it would also help Indians rediscover their own heritage and understand the lost glories of their past.
  4. In this process, the British would become the guardians of Indian culture as well as its masters.

Question 4.
Why did James Mill and Thomas Macaulay think that European education was essential in India?
Answer:
Both James Mill and Thomas Macaulay saw India as an uncivilized country that needed to be civilized. And for this purpose, European education Was essential. They felt that knowledge of English would allow Indians to read some of the finest literature of the world, it would make them aware of the developments in Western science and philosophy. teaching English could thus be a way of civilizing people, changing their tastes, values, and culture.

Question 5.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi want to teach children handicrafts?
Answer:

  1. According to him, this would develop a person’s mind and soul.
  2. Simply, learning to read and write by itself does not count as education. So, people had to work with their hands, learn a craft, and know-how different things operated. This would develop their mind and their capacity to understand.

Question 6.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi think that English education had enslaved Indians?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi was dead against English education. He argued that this type of education had created a sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians. It had made them see Western civilization as superior and had destroyed the pride they had in their own culture. It had cast an evil spell on Indians. Education in English had crippled them, distanced them from their own surroundings, and made them strangers in their own lands. What is more, it had enslaved them.

Question 7.
Find out from your grandparents about what they studied in school.
Answer:

  • Urdu/Hindi language
  • Mathematics
  • The social study, Drawing.

Question 8.
Find out about the history of your school or any other school in the area you live.
Answer:
History of our school

  • Established as a middle school — Organised in tents.
  • No furniture.
  • Supplied furniture by Government.
  • Rooms got constructed.
  • Raised to secondary than to senior school.
  • After 10 years Pucca building got constructed.
  • All the amenities provided.
  • Now a full-fledged and flourishing Sarvodaya Bal Vidyalaya upto 12th standard.

Objectives Type Questions

1. Match the following:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation 3
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation 4
Answer:
(i)  e
(ii)  f
(iii) a
(iv) b
(v)  d
(vi) c

2. State whether True or False:

  1. Mahatma Gandhi was the promotor of the English language. False
  2. William Jones had respect for ancient cultures. True
  3. Thomas Macaulay thought that European education was necessary for India. True
  4. William Carey had an appointment as a Supreme Court Judge. False
  5. Hindu College was set up at Banaras to encourage the study of ancient Hindi texts, False
  6. William Adam was a Scottish missionary True

3. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Mahatma Gandhi favoured Indian languages as a medium of instruction.
  2. William Jones had respect for Indian ancient cultures.
  3. Charles Wood emphasised the practical benefits of a system of European
  4. Rabindra Nath Tagore started the Santiniketan in 1901.
  5. According to Adam’s report, there were over 1 lakh Pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

1. William Jones was a linguist because
(a) he had studied Greek and Latin
(b) he knew French and English
(c) he had learned Persian
(d) all of these

2. Who set up the Asiatic Society of Bengal?
(a) William Jones
(b) Henry Thomas Colebrooke
(c) Nathaniel Halhed
(d) All of these

3. Madrasa was set up in, Calcutta in the year
(a) 1750
(b) 1761
(c) 1771
(d) 1781

4. According to whom, “English education had enslaved Indians”?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) Aacharya Vinoba Bhave

5. The Education Act was introduced in the year
(a) 1850
(b) 1835
(c) 1910
(d) 1900

6. Asiatick Researches (Journal) was NOT started by
(a) Henry Thomas Colebrooke
(b) Henry Thomas
(c) Nathaniel Halhed
(d) William Carey

7. Study of which of the following was NOT the purpose of setting up Madrasa in Calcutta in 1781?
(a) Arabic
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Persian
(d) Islamic laws

8. Who was Charles Wood?
(а) The President of the Board of Control of the Company

(b) Commissioner of the Board of Control of the Company
(c) An Educationist
(d) None of the above

9. The English Education Act was passed
(a) to materialize Macaulay’s thinking
(b) to make English the medium of instruction for higher education
(c) to stop the promotion of oriental institutions
(d) all of the above

10. What type of school did Tagore want to set up?
(a) Where the child was happy
(b) Where he/she could be free and creative
(c) He/she was able to explore her own thoughts and desire
(d) All of the above

11. Who said this “Education means all-round drawing out of the best in child and man-body, mind and spirit”?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(d) None of these

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the “Native”, Educating the Nation, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 8 Civilising the “Native”, Educating the Nation, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given. NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectPhysics
ChapterChapter 5
Chapter NameMagnetism and Matter
Number of Questions Solved25
CategoryNCERT Solutions

Question 1.
Answer the following questions regarding earth’s magnetism :
(a) A vector needs three quantities for its specification. Name the three independent quantities conventionally used to specify the earth’s magnetic field.
(b) The angle of dip at a location in southern India is about 18°. Would you expect a greater or smaller dip angle in Britain ?       (C.B.S.E. 1995)
(c) If you made a map of magnetic field lines at Melbourne in Australia, would the lines seem to go into the ground or come out of the ground ?
(d) In which direction would a compass free to move in the vertical plane point to, if located right on the geomagnetic north or south pole ? (C.B.S.E. 1995)
(e) The earth’s field, it is claimed, roughly approximates the field due to a dipole of
magnetic moment 8 x 1022 JT_1 located at its center. Check the order of magnitude of this number in some way.
(f) Geologists claim that besides the main magnetic N­S poles, there are several local poles on the earth’s surface oriented in different directions. How is such a thing possible at all ?
Answer:

(a) Magnetic elements

  • Declination
  • Dip and
  • Horizontal intensity

(b) Greater in Britain (it is about 70°), because Britain is closer to the magnetic north pole.

(c) Field lines of B due to the earth’s magnetism would seem to come out of the ground.

(d) Compass needle can move only in the horizontal plane. Since the field is entirely vertical no direction is shown by the needle.
(e) Using the formula for magnetic field on the equatorial line of a magnetic dipole i.e.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 1
This value tells the order of magnitude of magnetic field of earth.
(f) Geologists are correct to think so because it is an approximation to consider the magnetic field of earth to be a single dipole field. The magnetised mineral deposits can be treated as local dipoles on earth.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions :
(a) The earth’s magnetic field varies from point to point in space. Does it also change with time ? If so, on what time scale does it change appreciably ?
(b) The earth’s core is known to contain iron. Yet geologists do not regard this as a source of the earth’s magnetism. Why ?
(c) The charged currents in the outer conducting regions of the earth’s core are thought to be responsible for earth’s magnetism. What might be the ‘battery’ (i.e. the source of energy) to sustain these currents ?
(d) The earth may have even reversed the direction of its field several times during its history of 4 to 5 billion years. How can geologists know about the earth’s field in such distant past ?
(e) The earth’s field departs from its dipole shape substantially at large distances (greater than about 30,000 km). What agencies may be responsible for this distortion ?(f) Interstellar space has an extremely weak magnetic field of the order of 1012 T. Can such a weak field be of any significant consequence ? Explain.
Answer:

(a) Yes, it changes with time. After a few hundred years, the earth’s magnetic field undergoes an appreciable change.

(b) The temperature inside the earth is so high that it is impossible for the iron to remain as a magnet and act as a source of the magnetic field. The magnetic field due to the earth is considered to be due to the circulating electric currents induced in the iron in the molten state and other conducting materials inside the earth.

(c) A possible explanation can be the phenomenon of radioactivity.

(d) Analysis of the rock magnetism /earth’s magnetic field gets recorded in certain rocks during solidification, (through weekly) provides clues to the geomagnetic history.

(e) At large distances, the earth’s magnetic field gets modified by the fields produced by the motion of ions in the earth’s ionosphere.

(f) At very-very large distances like interstellar distances the small fields can significantly affect the charged particles like that of cosmic rays. For small distances, the deflections are not noticeable for small fields but at very large distances the deflections are significant.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 2NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 2
clearly small value of B gives a very large value of radius R

Question 3.
A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 X 10-2 J. What is the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet ?
Answer:
Using τ- MB sin θ, we get
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 3

Question 4.
A short bar magnet of magnetic moment m = 0.32 JT-1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. If the bar is free to rotate in the plane of the field, which orientation would correspond to its (a) stable, and (b) unstable equilibrium ? What is the potential energy of the magnet in each case ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 4

Question 5.
A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 x 10-4 m2 carries a current of 3.0 A. Explain the sense in which the solenoid acts like a bar magnet. What is its associated magnetic moment ?
Answer:
When current is passed through the solenoid, the magnetic field is produced along with its axis. The magnetic field lines emanate from one end and enter the other just as in the case of a bar magnet. The two ends of the solenoid act as the two poles of a bar magnet.
Here, the number of turns in the solenoid = 800
I = 3A
A = 2.5 x 10-4m2
The magnetic moment of the solenoid,
M = (IA) x number of turns
= 3 x 2.5 x 10-4 x 800
= 0.6 Am2

Question 6.
If the solenoid in Exercise 5.5 is free to turn about the vertical direction and a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.25 T is applied, what is the magnitude of the torque on the solenoid when its axis makes an angle of 30° with the direction of the applied field ?
Answer:
Using x = MB sin θ, we get
x = 0.6 x 0.25 x sin 30
= 0.6 x 0.25 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
= 0.3 x 0.25 = 0.075 Nm
= 7.5 x 10-2 Nm.

Question 7.
A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 JT-1 lies aligned with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.22T.
(a) What is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn the magnet so as to align its magnetic moment, (i) normal to the field direction, (ii) opposite to the field direction ?
(b) What is the torque on the magnet in cases (i) and (ii)?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 5

Question 8.
A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 X 10-4 m2, carrying a current of 4.0 A, is suspended through its center allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane.
(a) What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid ?
(b) What is the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 7.5 x 10-2 T is set up at an angle of 30° with the axis of the solenoid?
Answer:
N =2000, A= 1.6 x 10-4m2, I = 4.0 A
(a) m = ANI = 1.6 x 10-4 x 2000 x 4.0
= 1.28 Am2, along the axis

(b) B = 7.5 x 10-2T, θ = 30°
Net force = 0
τ = mB sin θ = 1.28 x 7.5 x 10-2 x sin 30
= 0.64 x 7.5 x 10-2
= 4.800 x 10-2 Nm
By the action of this, the solenoid can come to the direction of the external field.

Question 9.
A circular coil of 16 turns and radius 10 cm carrying a current of 0.75 A rests with its plane normal to an external field of magnitude 5.0 x 10-2 T. The coil is free to turn about an axis in its plane perpendicular to the field direction. When the coil is turned slightly and released, it oscillates about its stable equilibrium with a frequency of 2.0 s_1. What is the moment of inertia of the coil about its axis of rotation ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 6
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 7

Question 10.
A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north tip pointing down at 22° with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.35 G. Determine the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 8
Question 11.
At a certain location in Africa, a compass points 12° west of the geographic north. The north tip of the magnetic needle of a dip circle placed in the plane of magnetic meridian points 60° above the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s field is measured to be 0.16 G. Specify the direction and magnitude of the earth’s field at the location.
Answer:
Using BH = B cos δ, we get
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 9

Direction of B is 12° west of geographic meridian making upward angle of 60° with horizontal.

Question 12.
A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48 JT-1. Give the direction and magnitude of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of 10 cm from the center of the magnet on (a) the axis, (b) the equatorial lines (normal bisector) of the magnet.
Answer:
On axial line
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 10

Question 13.
A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its axis aligned along the magnetic north-south direction. Null points are found on the axis of the magnet at 14 cm from the center of the magnet. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.36 G and the angle of dip is zero. What is the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of the magnet at the same distance as the null-points (i.e., 14 cm) from the center of the magnet ? (At null points, Held due to a magnet is equal and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.)
Answer:
Magnetic field at the equatorial line of the magnet is given
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 11

Question 14.
If the bar magnet in Exercise 5.13 is turned around by 180°, where will the new null-points be located ?
Answer:
When magnet is turned around 180°, its south pole lies in the geographical south direction. Hence null point will lie on the equatorial line at a distance x from die center of the magnet.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 12

Question 15.
A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 5.25 x 10-2 JT-1 is placed with its axis perpendicular to the earth’s field direction. At what distance from the center of the magnet, the resultant field is inclined at 45° with the earth’s field on (a) its normal bisector and (b) its axis. Magnitude of the earth’s field at the place is given to be 0.42 G. Ignore the length of the magnet in comparison to the distances involved.
Answer:
Normal bisector
(a) Let resultant magnetic field of a magnet at point P makes an angle θ= 45° with the earth’s field. Therefore,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 13
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 14
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 15
Question 16.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same magnetising field) when cooled? (C.B.S.E. 1991)
(b) Why is diamagnetism, in contrast, almost independent of temperature?
(c) If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly) greater or (slightly) less than when the core is empty?
(d) Is the permeability of a ferromagnetic material independent of the magnetic field? If not, is it more for lower or higher fields?
(e) Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every point. (This fact is analogous to the static electric field lines being normal to the surface of a conductor at every point). Why?
(f) Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet ?
Answer:
(a) When cooled, the tendency of the thermal agitation to disrupt the alignment of magnetic dipoles decreases in the case of paramagnetic materials. Hence they display greater magnetisation.

(b) The atoms of a diamagnetic do not have an intrinsic magnetic dipole moment. On placing a diamagnetic sample in a magnetic field, the magnetic moment of the sample is always opposite to the direction of the field. It is not affected by the thermal motion of the dipoles.

(c) Since bismuth is diamagnetic, the field in the core coil be sightly less than that when a core is empty.

(d) Permeability of a ferromagnetic material depends on applied magnetic field. Permeability is more for lower magnetic field.

(e) One of the reasons for this fact is that when a material has µr > > 1, the field lines meet the material nearly normally.

(f) Yes, a paramagnetic sample with saturated magnetisation will have the same .order of magnetisation as the magnetisation of a ferromagnetic substance. However, the saturated magnetisation will require magnetising field too high to achive. Further, there may be a minor difference in the strengths of the atomic dipoles of paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials.

Question 17.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Explain qualitatively on the basis of domain picture the irreversibility in the magnetisation curve of a ferromagnet.
(b) The hysteresis loop of a soft iron piece has a much smaller area than that of a carbon steel piece. If the material is to go through repeated cycles of magnetization, which piece will dissipate greater heat energy ?
(c) ‘A system displaying a hysteresis loop such as a ferromagnet is a device for storing memory.’ Explain the meaning of this statement.
(d) What kind of ferromagnetic material is used for coating magnetic tapes in a cassette player, or for budding ‘memory stores’ in a modern computer ?
(e) A certain region of space is to be shielded from magnetic fields. Suggest a method.
Answer:
A piece of carbon steel will dissipate a greater amount of heat energy as its hysteresis loop has a greater area.
The magnetisation produced in a ferromagnet does not have a unique value corresponding to the applied magnetizing field.

In addition, the magnetisation produced depends on the history of the magnetisation i.e. the number of cycles of magnetisation, it has been taken through. In other words, the value of magnetisation of a ferromagnet is a record or memory of its magnetisation. If information bits can be made corresponding to the cycles of magnetization, the system displaying the hysteresis loop of the ferromagnet can act as a device for storing the information.

  • ceramics are used for coating magnetic tapes in a cassette player or for building memory stores in a modem computer. Ceramics are specially treated barium iron oxides and are also called ferrates.
  • The shielding of the region can be done by surrounding it with soft iron rings. The magnetic field lines will be drawn into the rings and the enclosed region will become free of the magnetic field.

Question 18.
A long straight horizontal cable carries a current of 2.5 A in the direction 10° south of west to 10° north of east. The magnetic meridian of the place happens to be 10° west of the geographic meridian. The earth’s magnetic field at the location is 0.33 G, and the angle of dip is zero. Locate the line of neutral points (Ignore the thickness of the cable). (At neutral points, magnetic field due to a current-carrying cable is equal and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.)
Answer:
Let neutral point lies at a distance x from the cable. Now, at neutral point, magnetic field due to cable is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction of the earth’s magnetic field.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 16

Question 19.
A telephone cable at a place has four long straight horizontal wires carrying a current of 1.0 A in the same direction east to west. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.39 G, and the angle of dip is 35°. The magnetic declination is nearly zero. What are the resultant magnetic fields at points 4.0 cm below the cable?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 17
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 18

Question 20.
A compass needle free to turn in a horizontal plane is placed at the center of circular coil of 30 turns and radius 12 cm. The coil is in a vertical plane making an angle of 45° with the magnetic meridian. When the current in the coil is 0.35 A, the needle points west to east.
(a) Determine the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the location.
(b) The current in the coil is reversed, and the coil is rotated about its vertical axis by an angle of 90° in the anticlockwise sense looking from above. Predict the direction of the needle. Take the magnetic declination at the place to be zero.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 19

Question 21.
A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields. The angle between the field directions is 60°, and one of the fields has a magnitude of 1.2 x 10-2 T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibrium at an angle of 15° with this field, what is the magnitude of the other field ?
Answer:
Here B, = 1.2 X 10-2 T,θ1= 15°, θ2 = 45°.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 20
The dipole will be in equilibrium, if torque acting on dipole due to B1 is equal and opposite to the torque acting on dipole due to B2.
That is, MBsin = MB2 sin θ2
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 21

Question 22.
A monoenergetic (18 keV) electron beam intially in the horizontal direction is subjected to a horizontal magnetic field of 0.40 G normal to the initial direction. Estimate the up or down deflection of the beam over a distance of 30 cm (me = 9.11 x 10-19 Q.
[Note. Data in this exercise are so chosen that the answer will give you an idea of the effect of earth’s magnetic field on the motion of the electron beam from the electron gun to the screen in a TV set.]
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 22
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 23

Question 23.
A sample of paramagnetic salt contains 2.0 x 1024 atomic dipoles each of dipole moment 1.5 x 10-23 JT-1. The sample is placed under a homogeneous magnetic field of 0.64 T and cooled to a temperature of 4.2 K. The degree of magnetic saturation achieved is equal to 15%. What is the total dipole moment of the sample for a magnetic field of 0.98 T and a temperature of 2.8 K ? (Assume Curie’s law).
Answer:
Magnetic dipole moment of sample,
M = 15% of M (1.5 x 10-23) (2 x 1024) = 30 JT-1
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 24
Question 24.
A Rowland ring of mean radius 15 cm has 3500 turns of wire wound on a ferromagnetic core of relative permeability 800. What is the magnetic field B in the core for a magnetizing current of 1.2 A?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 25

Question 25.
The magnetic moment vectors μs and μl; associated with the intrinsic spin angular momentum S and orbital angular momentum Z, respectively, of an electron are predicted by quantum theory (and verified experimentally to a high accuracy) to be given by μs= -(e/m)S, μl= -(e/2m)l. Which of these relations is in accordance with the result expected classically? Outline the derivation of the classical result.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 26

We hope the We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 provides detailed solutions for the questions asked in the textbook. The solutions are provided by subject experts and the students can refer to these to prepare well for the exams. NCERT Solutions are a guide to the students appearing in different boards like MP board, UP board, CBSE, Gujarat board, etc.

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 3 Electrochemistry is very important from the examination point of view. All the analytical and conceptual details are provided in the NCERT Solutions Class 12 Chapter 3 that will help the students to score well.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectChemistry
ChapterChapter 3
Chapter NameElectrochemistry
Number of Questions Solved33
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry

The production of electricity from chemical reactions and the use of electrical energy to bring non-spontaneous chemical transformations is known as electrochemistry. Both the theory and the practical portions are very important in this chapter.

Class 12 Chemistry chapter 3 Electrochemistry explains different types of cells and the differences between the two. Important concepts such as Gibb’s energy and equilibrium constant are also discussed here.

NCERT IN-TEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
How would you determine the standard electrode potential of the system ; Mg2+/Mg ?
Answer:
n order to determine E° value of Mg2+/Mg electrode, an electrochemical cell is set up in which a Mg electrode dipped in 1 M MgSO4 solution acts as one half cell (oxidation half cell) while the standard hydrogen electrode acts as the other half cell (reduction half cell). The deflection of voltmeter placed in the cell circuit is towards the Mg electrode indicating the flow of current. The cell may be represented as :
Mg/Mg2+ (1 M) || H+(l M)/H2(1 atm), Pt
The reading as given by voltmeter gives \({ E }_{ cell }^{ \circ }\)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 1
The expected value of standard electrode potential (E°) = -2-36 V.

Question 2.
Can you store copper sulphate solution in a zinc pot ?
Answer:
No, it is not possible. The E° values of the copper and zinc electrodes are as follows :
Zn2+(aq) + 2e → Zn(s) ; E° = – 0·76 V
Cu2+(aq) + 2e → Cu(s) ; E° = + 0·34 V
This shows that zinc is a stronger reducing agent than copper. It will lose electrons to Cu2+ ions and redox reaction will immediately set in.
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Thus, copper sulphate solution cannot be stored in zinc pot.

Question 3.
Consultthe table of standard electrode potentials and suggest three substances that can oxidise ferrous ions under suitable conditions.
Answer:
Oxidation of Fe2+ converts it to Fe3+, i.e.,Fe2+ –>Fe3+ +e ; E°ox= – 0.77 V Only those substances can oxidise Fe2+ to Fe3+ which are stronger oxidizing agents and have positive reduction potentials greater than 0.77 V, so that EMF of the cell reaction is positive. This is so for elements lying below Fe3+/Fe2+ in the series ex: Br2, Cl2 and F2.

Question 4.
Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution with pH equal to 10.
Answer:
For hydrogen electrode, H+ + e → 1/2H2
Applying Nernst equation,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 2

Question 5.
Calculate e.m.f. of the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0·002M) → Ni2+(0·160M) + 2Ag(s) Given that \({ E }_{ cell }^{ \circ }\) = 1.05 V. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2015)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 3

Question 6.
The cell in which the following reaction occurs
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(s) has \({ E }_{ cell }^{ \circ }\) = 0-236 V at 298 K.
Calculate standard Gibbs energy and equilibrium constant for the reaction.
Answer:
The two half reactions are :
2Fe3+ + 2e → 2Fe2+ and 2I → I2 + 2e
For the above reaction, n = 2
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 4

Question 7.
Why does the conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution?
Answer:
Conductivity of a solution is the conductance of ions present in a unit volume of the solutions. On dilution, no. of ions per unit volume decreases. Hence, the conductivity decreases.

Question 8.
Suggest a way to determine the \({ A }_{ m }^{ \circ }\) for water.
Answer:
Water (H2O) is a weak electrolyte. Its molar conductance at infinite dilution i.e., \({ A }_{ m }^{ \circ }\) can be determined in terms of \({ A }_{ m }^{ \circ }\) for strong electrolytes. This is in accordance with Kohlrausch’s Law.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 5

Question 9.
The molar conductance of 0·025 mol L-1of methanoic acid is 46·15 cm2 mol-1. Calculate its degree of dissociation and dissociation constant. Given λ°(H+) = 349·6 S cm2 mol-1 and λ°(HCOO) = 54·6 S cm2 mol-1.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 6

Question 10.
If a current of 0·5 ampere flows through a metallic wire for 2 hours, then how many electrons flow through the wire ?
Answer:
Quantity of charge (Q) passed = Current in amperes x Time in seconds = (0·5 A) X (2 x 60 x 60 s)
= 3600 As = 3600 C
No. of electrons flowing through the wire by passing a charge of one faraday (96500 C) = 6·022 x 1023
No. of electrons flowing through the wire by passing a charge of 3600 C
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 7

Question 11.
Suggest a list of metals that are extracted electrolytically.
Answer:
Na, Ca, Mg and Al

Question 12.
Consider the reaction :
Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) + 14H+ + 6e → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O.
What is the quantity of electricity in coulombs needed to reduce 1 mole of Cr2\({ O }_{ 7 }^{ 2- }\) ions ?
Answer:
The quantity of electricity in coulombs is 6 F or 6 x 96500 C = 5·76 x 105 C.

Question 13.
Write the chemistry of recharging the lead storage battery highlighting all the materials that are involved during recharging.
Answer:
Chemical reactions while recharging :
Chemical reactions while recharging :
2PbSO4 + 2H2O → PbO2 + Pb + 2H2SO4
Electricity is passed through the electrolyte PbSO4 which is converted into PbO2 and Pb.
Recharging is possible in this case because the PbSO4 formed during discharging is a solid and sticks to the electrodes. Therefore, it can either take up or give electrons during recharging.

Question 14.
Suggest two materials other than hydrogen that can be used as fuels in fuel cells.
Answer:
Methane and Methanol.

Question 15.
Explain how rusting of iron can be envisaged as the setting up of an electrochemical cell.
Answer:
Iron (Fe) is involved in the redox-reaction that is carried in the electrochemical cell which is set up. As a result, it slowly dissolves and the metal surface gets rusted or corroded.
The redox-reaction may be described as follows :
At anode: Fe (s) undergoes oxidation to release electrons
F2(s) → Fe2+(aq) + 2e–              ….(oxidation)
At cathode: The electrons which are released participate in the reduction reaction and combine with H+ ions released from carbonic acid (H2CO3) formed by the combination of CO2 and H2O present.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 8

NCERT EXERCISE

Question 1.
Arrange the following metals in the order in which they displace each other from the solution of their salts: Al, Cu, Fe, Mg and Zn.
Answer:
Mg, Al, Zn, Fe, Cu, Ag.

Question 2.
Given the standard electrode potentials
K+/K = – 2·93 V, Ag+/Ag = 0·80 V
Hg2+/Hg = 0·79 V ; Mg2+/Mg = – 2·37V, Cr3+/Cr = – 0·74 V
Arrange these metals in increasing order of their reducing power.
Answer:
Less the electrode potential more will be the reducing power.
Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg < K.

Question 3.
Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction
Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) takes place. Further show :
(i) which electrode is negatively charged ?
(ii) the carriers of the current in the cell.
(iii) individual reaction at each electrode. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008)
Answer:
The galvanic cell in which the given reaction takes place is depicted as:
Zn(s) | Zn2+ (aq) || Ag+ (aq) | Ag(s)
(i) Zn electrode (anode) is negatively charged
(ii) Tons are carriers of current in the cell and in the external circuit, current from silver to Zinc.
(iii) The reaction taking place at the anode is given by,
Zn(s) -H → Zn2+(aq) + 2e
The reaction taking place at the cathode is given
Ag++ e → Ag(s)

Question 4.
Calculate the standard cell potentials of galvanic cell in which the following reactions take place
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 9
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 10

Question 5.
Write the Nernst Equation and calculate e.m.f. of the following cells at 298 K :
(i) Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0·001 M) || Cu2+ (0·0001 M) | Cu(s) (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008, 2013)
(ii) Fe(s) | Fe2+ (0·001 M) || H+ (1 M) | H2(g) (1 bar) | Pt(s)
(iii) Sn(s) | Sn2+ (0·050 M) || H+ (0·02 M) | H2(g) (1 bar) | Pt(s) (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2013, 2015)
(iv) Pt(s) | Br2(l) | Br (0·010 M) || H+ (0·030 M) | H2(g) (1 bar) | Pt(s)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 11
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 12

Question 6.
In the button cell widely used in watches and in other devices, the following reaction takes place:
Zn (s) + Ag2O (s) + H2O (l) → Zn2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s) + 2OH (aq)
Determine E° and ∆G° for the reaction. (C.B.S.B. Delhi 2005, Outside Delhi 2006 Supp., 2008, C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2010)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 13

Question 7.
Define conductivity and molar conductivity for the solution of an electrolyte. Discuss their variation with concentration.
Answer:
The conductivity of a solution is defined as the conductance of a solution 1 cm in length and the area of cross-section cm2.1 is represented by K.

Conductivity always decreases with a decrease in concentration both for weak and strong electrolytes. This is because the number of ions per unit volume that carry the current in a solution decreases with a decrease in concentration.

Molar conductivity of a solution at a given concentration is the conductance of volume V of a solution containing 1 mole of the electrolyte kept between two electrodes with the area of cross-section A and distance of unit length.

Molar conductivity increases with a decrease in concentration. This is because the total volume of the solution containing one mole of the electrolyte increases on dilution.

Question 8.
The conductivity of 0·20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0·0248 S cm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity.
(C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008, 2013)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 14

Question 9.
The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0·001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500 Ω. What is the cell constant if the conductivity of 0·001M KCl solution at 298 K is 0·146 x 10-3 S cm-2? (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2007, 2008, 2013)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 18

Question 10.
The conductivity of sodium chloride solution at 298 K has been determined at different concentrations and results are given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 19
Calculate molar conductivity for all the concentrations and draw a plot between \({ A }_{ m }^{ c }\) and \(\sqrt { c } \). Find the value \({ A }_{ m }^{ \circ }\) from the graph.
Answer:
\(\frac { 1S{ cm }^{ -1 } }{ 100S{ m }^{ -1 } } =1\) (unit conversion factor)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 20
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 21
\({ A }_{ m }^{ \circ }\) can be obtained on extrapolation to zero concentration along Y-axis. It is 124·0Scm2mol-1.

Question 11.
The conductivity of 0·00241 M acetic acid is 7·896 x 10-5 S cm-1. Calculate the molar conductivity. If A° for acetic acid is 390·5 S cm2 mol-1, what is its dissociation constant? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008, C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2016)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 22

Question 12.
How much charge is required for the reduction of :
(i) 1 mol of Al3+ to Al
(ii) 1 mol of Cu2+ to Cu
(iii) 1 mol of Mn\({ O }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) to Mn2+.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 23

Question 13.
How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce.
(i) 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl2?
(ii) 40.0 g of Al from molten Al203?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 24

Question 14.
How much electricity is required in coulomb for the oxidation of
(i) 1 mol of H2O to O2
(ii) 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 25
For the oxidation of two moles of FeO, charge required = 2 F
For the oxidation of one mole of FeO, charge required = 1 F = 96500 C.

Question 15.
A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolyzed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5·0 ampere for 20 minutes. What weight of Ni will be produced at the cathode? (Atomic mass of Ni = 58·7). (Jharkhand Board 2009)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 26

Question 16.
Three electrolytic cells A, B, and C containing electrolytes zinc sulphate, silver nitrate, and copper sulphate respectively, were connected in series. A steady current of 1·50 ampere was passed through them until 1·45 g of silver was deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current flow? What weight of copper and of zinc were deposited? (Atomic mass of Cu = 63·5 ; Zn = 65·3; Ag = 108) (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2008, Jharkhand Board 2010)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 27
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 28

Question 17.
Predict if the reaction between the following is feasible:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 29
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 30
Answer:
The reaction is feasible if the EMF of the cell reaction is positive.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 31

Question 18.
Predict the products of electrolysis of each of the following :
(i) An aqueous solution of AgNO3 using silver electrodes.
(ii) An aqueous solution of AgNO3 using platinum electrodes.
(iii) A dilute solution of H2SO4 using platinum electrodes. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2007)
(iv) An aqueous solution of CuCl2 using platinum electrodes. (C. B. S. E. Sample Paper 2010)
Answer:
(i) An aqueous solution of AgNO3 using silver electrodes :
Both AgNO3 and water will ionise in aqueous solution
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 32
At cathode: Ag+ ions with less discharge potential are reduced in preference to H+ ions which will remain in solution. As a result, silver will be deposited at cathode.
Ag+ (aq) + e → Ag (deposited)
At anode: An equivalent amount of silver will be oxidised to Ag+ ions by releasing electrons.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 33
(ii) An aqueous solution of AgNO3 using platinum electrodes:

In this case, the platinum electrodes are the non-attackable electrodes. On passing current the following changes will occur at the electrodes.
At cathode: Ag+ ions will be reduced to Ag which will get deposited at the cathode.
At anode: Both \({ NO }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) and OH ions will migrate. But OH ions with less discharge potential will be oxidised in preference to \({ NO }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) ions which will remain in solution.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 34
Thus, as a result of electrolysis, silver is deposited on the cathode while O2 is evolved at the anode. The solution will be acidic due to the presence of HNO3.
(iii) A dilute solution of H2SO4 using platinum electrodes:
On passing current, both acid and water will ionise as follows:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 35
At cathode:
H+ (aq) ions will migrate to the cathode and will be reduced to H2.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 36
Thus, H2 (g) will be evolved at the cathode.
At anode: OH ions will be released in preference to \({ SO }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) ions because their discharge potential is less. They will be oxidized as follows:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 37
Thus, O2 (g) will be evolved at the anode. The solution will be acidic and will contain H2SO4.
(iv) An aqueous solution of CuCl2 using platinum electrodes :
The electrolysis proceeds in the same manner as discussed in the case of AgNO3 solution. Both CuCl2 and H2O will ionise as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry 38
At cathode:
Cu2+ ions will be reduced in preference to H+ ions and copper will be deposited at the cathode

Cu2+ (aq) + 2e → Cu (deposited)

At anode: C ions will be discharged in preference to OH ions which will remain in solution.

Cl → Cl + e; Cl + Cl → Cl2 (g)

Thus, Cl2 will be evolved at the anode.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition Politics, Memories, Experiences

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition Politics, Memories, Experiences are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition Politics, Memories, Experiences.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectHistory
ChapterChapter 14
Chapter NameUnderstanding Partition Politics, Memories, Experiences
Number of Questions Solved9
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition Politics, Memories, Experiences

Question 1.
What did the Muslim League demand through its resolution of 1940?
Solution :
The resolution of 23 March 1940, demanded a measure of autonomy for the Muslim- majority areas of the subcontinent. It never mentioned partition or Pakistan. Sikandar Hayat Khan, who had drafted the resolution was the Punjab Premier and leader of the Unionist Party. He declared in the Punjab Assembly on 1 March, 1941 that he was opposed to a Pakistan that would mean “Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere… “If Pakistan means unalloyed Muslim Raj in the Punjab then I will have nothing to do with it”. He reiterated his plea for a loose (united) confederation with considerable autonomy for confederating units.

Question 2.
Why did some people think of Partition as a very sudden development?
Solution :
Some people think that partition of India in 1947 was a sudden development. Many Muslim leaders were not serious in their demand for Pakistan as a separate nation. On many occasions, Jinnah used the idea of Pakistan to seek favours from the British and to block concessions into the Congress. Even the Muslims were confused about the idea of Pakistan. They could not think of their future in an independent country called Pakistan. Many people had migrated to the new country with the hope that they would soon come back to India as soon as the situation improved.
In fact, the partition was so sudden that nobody could imagine it.

Question 3.
How did ordinary people view Partition?
Solution :
Ordinary people did not know what the Partition was and it would affect their lives in the future. They even did not know about the different areas of the subcontinent. Migrants thought they would return to their original place as soon as peace prevailed again.

Question 4.
What were Mahatma Gandhi’s arguments against Partition?
Solution :

  1. Mahatma Gandhi opposed the Partition by arguing that both Hindus and Muslims were bom of same soil and they had the same blood, ate the same food, drank the same water and spoke the same language. So, they were similar to each other.
  2. He stated that the demand for Pakistan put forward by the Muslim League was un- Islamic and sinful because Islam stands for the unity and brotherhood of mankind and not for disrupting the oneness of the human family. So, those who wanted Partition were enemies alike of Islam and India.

Question 5.
Why is Partition viewed as an extremely significant marker in South Asian history?
Solution :
The following reasons can be put forward for the given view:

  • The partition of India had a unique nature. This partition was based on religions. The partition took place in the name of the communities. History has never witnessed such type of partition.
  • The partition marked a severe violence. Innumerable people were killed. People began to kill each other irrespective of their earlier relation. Earlier they lived with each other in harmony and peace but now started to kill each other. Government machinery failed to check this.
  • People faced a lot of problems. Their life became miserable. Their near and dear ones were killed. Many people were abducted.
  • People moved across the border. Most of the Muslims of India crossed over to Pakistan and almost all Hindus and Sikhs came to India from Pakistan. They were forced to start their life afresh.
  • People lost all their movable and immovable property all of a sudden. They became homeless and forced to live in refugee camps.

Question 6.
Why was British India partitioned?
Solution :
Partition of India was not a sudden event because even in its resolution of March 1940, the Muslim League had only demanded a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent. It was a culmination of events such as communal politics that started developing in the opening decades of the twentieth century as mentioned below :

  1. Government of India Act 1909 and 1919 – The British Government granted separate electorate for Muslims in 1909. These were expanded in 1919. Separate electorates implied that Muslims could elect their own representatives in designated constituencies. Thus, religious identities were encouraged. Community identities no longer indicated simple difference in faith and belief: but they led to active opposition and hostilities between communities.
  2. Events during 1920s and 1930s – During the 1920s and 1930s, Muslims were agitated by the activities of the Hindus such as “music-before-mosque”, cow protection movement, and shuddhi movement of Arya Samaj. Similarly, Hindus were angered by the rapid spread of tabligh (propaganda) and tanzim (organisation). These activities led to riots at different places and deepened differences between two communities.
  3. The provincial elections of 1937 and the Congress ministries – In the elections of 1937, Congress did well but Muslim League failed poorly in the constituencies reserved for Muslims. The Muslim League wanted to form a joint government with the Congress in United Provinces where Congress had won an absolute majority. The Congress had, therefore, rejected the offer. This led to drifting away of the Muslim League but thereafter Muslim League doubled its efforts at expanding its social support.
  4. Policies of the Congress ministries – The Congress ministry in UP wanted to abolish landlordism which was supported by the Muslim League. The Congress also could gain much in its mass contact programme in UP. But its policies alarmed the conservative Muslims.
  5. Rise of Hindu Mahasabha and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh – The rise of Hindu Mahasabha and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh which had over 100,000 trained and highly disciplined cadres pledged to an ideology of Hindu nationalism, convinced Muslims that India was a land of the Hindus.

The above factors created differences between two communities but inspite of this fact remains that the Cabinet Mission (1946) plan that recommended a loose three-tier confederation was accepted by all the major parties. It was due to later developments such as ‘Direct Action da/ (16 August, 1946), riots and violence, fear of Sikh leaders and Congressmen in the Punjab and a section of bhadralok. Bengali Hindus in Bengal which compelled the Congress to accept the partition of the country.

Question 7.
How did women experience Partition?
Solution :
For women, partition was horrible. Women were raped, abducted and many times forced to live with strangers and start a new life. They were deeply traumatised and began to develop new family bonds in the changed circumstances.

Women became victims on both the sides of the border. They were forced to live in a strange circumstances. But the government officials of both the countries did not take any serious step to consult those women. Women were left on their fate.

They were even murdered by their own family members. When the men realized that the women of their family would fall into the hands of the enemy, they killed their women with their own hands. To escape from the hands of enemy, in a Sikh village, ninety women were said to have voluntarily jumped into a well.

Question 8.
How did the Congress come to change its views on Partition?
Solution :
Initially, the proposals of the Cabinet Mission were accepted by all the major political parties but due to differences over interpretation of the plan, neither the Congress, nor the League agreed to the Cabinet Mission’s proposal. Thereafter, following developments took place:

  • The Muslim League announced 16 August 1946 as “Direct Action Day” for winning its Pakistan demand.
  • “Direct Action Day” led to riots at Calcutta and other places.
  • At that time, many Sikh leaders and Congressmen in the Punjab were convinced that Partition was a necessary evil, otherwise they would be swamped by Muslim majority and Muslim leaders would dictate their terms to them.
  • Similarly, a section of bhadralok, Bengali Hindus, who wanted political power to remain with them, began to fear the “permanent tutelage of Muslims”. They were in a numerical minority so only a division of the province could ensure their political dominance.

Thus, under these circumstances, the Congress had no option except to agree to the Partition.

Question 9.
Examine the strengths and limitations of oral-history. How have oral-history techniques furthered our understanding of Partition ?
Solution :
The strengths and limitations of oral-history are as mentioned below :
(a) Strengths :

  • It helps us grasp experiences and memories in detail. It enables historians to write richly textured, vivid accounts of what happened to people during Partition.
  • Oral-history enables historians to broaden the scope of their discipline by writing experiences of the poor and the powerless who have been generally ignored in mainstream history.

(b) Limitations :

  • The oral-history lacks concreteness. Its chronology is not precise.
  • The uniqueness of personal experience makes generalisation difficult because a large picture cannot be built from micro-evidence and one witness is no witness.
  • Oral accounts deal with tangible issues. Small individual experiences are not relevant to unfold larger processes of history.

But inspite of above shortcomings the oral-history is important because it can be corroborated by other sources. The experiences of the people during Partition are significant and should be used to check other sources and vice-versa.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition Politics, Memories, Experiences help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 14 Understanding Partition Politics, Memories, Experiences, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital Vijayanagara

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectHistory
ChapterChapter 7
Chapter NameAn Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara
Number of Questions Solved9
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara

Question 1.
What have been the methods used to study the ruins of Hampi over the last two centuries ? In what way do you think they would have complemented the information provided by the priests of the Virupaksha temple ?
Solution :
(a) The methods used to study the ruins of Hampi over the last two centuries were as given below:

  • Colonel Colin Mackenzie, an engineer, antiquarian and an employee of the English East India Company discovered the ruins at Hampi in 1800. He prepared the first survey map of site.
  • From 1856, photographers began to record the monuments which enabled scholars to study them.
  • Since 1836, epigraphists began collecting several dozen inscriptions found at the temples at Hampi.
  • Thereafter the historians collated the information from above sources with accounts of foreign travellers and other literature written in Telugu, Kannada, Tamil and Sanskrit.

(b) The above methods would have complemented the information provided by the priests of the Virupaksha temple because that was based on the memories of the priests. The earlier information was corroborated by the inscriptions, photographs, maps and accounts of foreign travellers and other material.

Question 2.
How were the water requirements of Vijayanagara met ?
Solution :
The water requirements of Vijayanagara were met in the following ways :

  1. Its location is the natural basin formed by the river Tungabhadra which flows in a north-easterly direction. The stunning granite hills form a girdle around the city. A number of streams flow down to the river from these rocky outcrops.
  2. The embankments were built along these streams to create reservoirs of varying
    sizes.
  3. Tanks were built to store rainwater and conduct it to the city. The most important tank built is now called Kamalapuram tank. Water from this tank irrigated fields nearby as well as was also conducted through a channel to the “royal centre”.
  4. The Hiriya canal drew water from a dam across the Tungabhadra and irrigated the cultivated valley that separated the “sacred centre” from the “urban core”.

Question 3.
What do you think were the advantages and disadvantages of enclosing agricultural land within the fortified area of the city?
Solution :
Advantages of enclosing agriculture land within fortified area:
(i) It had an elaborate canal system which drew water from the Tungabhadra to provide irrigation facilities.
(ii) It enclosed agricultural tracts, cultivated fields, gardens, and forests.
(iii) This enclosure saved crops from being eaten by wild animals.
(iv) In the medieval period, sieges were laid to starve the defending armies into submission. These sieges lasted for many months or many years. So the rulers of Vijayanagara adopted and elaborated a strategy to protect the agricultural belt and built large granaries.

Disadvantages
(i) This system was very expensive.
(ii) During adverse, circumstances this system proved inconvenient to the farmers.
(iii) The farmers had to seek the permission of gate-keeper to reach their field.
(iv) If enemy encircled the field the farmer could not look after their field.

Question 4.
Figure given below is an illustration of another pillar from the Virupaksha temple. Do you notice any floral motifs? What are the animals shown? Why do you think they are depicted? Describe the human figures shown.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital Vijayanagara
Solution :
(a) There are many floral motifs.
(b) Horses and elephants have been shown in the pillar.
(c) The Vijayanagara kings competed with contemporary rulers including the Sultans of the Deccan and the Gajapati rulers of Orissa – for control of the fertile river valleys and resources generated by lucrative overseas trade. The kingdom remained in constant state of military preparedness. So, the kings paid attention to improve harbours and encouraged its commerce so that horses, elephants, precious gems, etc. are freely imported. Thus, due to the importance of horses and elephants in the warfare, these animals had been depicted on the pillars.
(d) The images of gods have been shown in the pillar. One devotee has also been shown before a Shiva linga.

Question 5.
What do you think was the significance of the rituals associated with the mahanavami dibba?
Solution :
The mahanavami dibba was one of the most impressive platforms in the “king’s palace”. It was located on one of the highest points in the city. Rituals associated with the structure probably coincided with mahanavami (literally the great ninth day) of the ten day Hindu festival during the autumn months of September and October, known variously as Dusehra (northern India), Durga Puja (in Bengal) and Navaratri or Mahanavami (in peninsular India). The Vijayanagara kings displayed their prestige, power and suzerainty on this occasion.

The ceremonies such as worship of the image, worship of the state horse, the sacrifice of buffaloes and other animals were performed on this occasion. Dances, wrestling matches, processions of caparisoned horses, elephants, chariots, soldiers and ritual presentations were held before the kings, guests, the chief nayakas were held. On the last day, the king inspected his army and the armies of the nayakas who brought rich gifts for the king as well as the stipulated tribute. Thus, there was great significance of the rituals associated with the mahanavami dibba.

Question 6.
Discuss whether the term “royal centre” is an appropriate description for the part of the city for which it is used.
Solution :
The term “royal centre” is an appropriate description for the part of the city for which it is used because the Royal center had more than 60 temples. Most of these temples were constructed by the ruler of Vijayanagara Empire to express their supremacy. The royal centre had 30 palaces. These were made of perishable material. A brief description of the building of Royal centre are as given below:
(i) One of the most beautiful buildings in the royal centre is the Lotus Mahal. It was named by British travellers in the nineteenth century. While the name is certainly romantic, historians are not quite sure what the building was used for. One suggestion, found in a map drawn by Mackenzie, is that it may have been a council chamber, a place where the king met his advisers.
(ii) Most temples were located in the sacred centre. One of the most spectacular of these is the Hazara Rama Temple. This was probably meant to be used only by the king and his family.

Question 7.
What does the architecture of buildings like the Lotus Mahal and elephant stables tell us about the rulers who commissioned them ?
Solution :
The Lotus Mahal had nine towers – a high central one, and eight along the sides. Although it is not clear for what the building was used for but according to Mackenzie, it may have been a council chamber, place where the king met his advisers. Elephant stables were located close to the Lotus Mahal.

The architecture of Lotus Mahal tells us that the rulers used to consult their advisers on various issues and problems and meetings were held in the council chamber i.e., Lotus Mahal. The construction of “elephant stables” shows that the rulers took interest in the trade of elephants as well as in keeping them properly because elephants were very important factor in the warfare. It is perhaps one of reasons that elephants and horses have been depicted on the panels of the Hazara Rama temple.

Question 8.
What are the architectural traditions that inspired the architects of Vijayanagara ? How did they transform these traditions ?
Solution :
(a) The architectural traditions that inspired the architects of Vijayanagara were as given below :

  1. Prior to Vijayanagara, Cholas in Tamil Nadu and the Hoysalas in Karnataka had extended patronage to elaborate temples such as the Brihadishvara temple, Thanjavur and the
    Chennakeshava temple at Belur. The rulers of Vijayanagara built on these traditions and carried them literally to new heights.
  2. Like Indo-Islamic architecture, there was an arch on the gateway leading into fortified settlement as well as dome over the gate.
  3. The architecture of tombs and mosques located in the urban core resembles that of the mandapas found in the temples of Hampi.
  4. The Pallavas, Chalukyas, Hoysalas and Cholas encouraged temple building as a means of associating themselves with the divine – the deity was identified with the king. The choice of the site Vijayanagara was perhaps inspired by the existence of the shrines of Virupaksha and Pampadevi.
  5. The arches in the Lotus Mahal were inspired by Indo-Islamic technique.

(b) They transformed these traditions in the followings ways :

  1. In the fortifications, according to Abdur Razzaq, no mortar or cementing agent was employed. The stone blocks were wedge shaped, which held them in place, and the inner portion of the walls was of earth packed with rubble.
  2. Royal portrait sculpture was innovated and developed. It was displayed in temples and the king’s visits to temples were treated as important state occasions.
  3. In temple architecture, new features were structures of immense scale best exemplified by the Raya gopurams or royal gateways. They often dwarfed the towers on the central shrines and signalled the presence of the temple from a great distance. Other features include mandapas or pavilions and long, pillared corridors.

Question 9.
What impressions of the lives of the ordinary people of Vij ay an agar a can you cull from the various descriptions in the chapter ?
Solution :
The various descriptions in this chapter give the following impression of the lives of the ordinary people of Vijayanagara :

  1. Horses were imported from Arabia and Central Asia. This trade was done by the traders and local communities of merchants i.e., kudirai chettis or horse merchants.
  2. There were markets dealing in spices, textiles and precious stones.
  3. Vijayanagara boasted of a wealthy population that demanded high-value exotic goods.
  4. Portuguese traveller Barbosa described the houses of ordinary people, which have not survived as “the other houses of the people are thatched, but nonetheless well-built and arranged according to occupations, in long streets with many open places”. Besides this there is little archaeological evidence of the houses of ordinary people.
  5. There were numerous shrines and small temples which implies that there were variety of cults, supported by different communities.
  6. There were wells, rainwater tanks, temple tanks which may have served as sources of water to the ordinary town dwellers.
  7. Paes gives us a vivid description of a bazaar. He states that the provisions, such as rice, wheat, barley, etc. were available cheaply and abundantly. This means that the life of the ordinary people was good and they did not suffer for want of essential things.

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