Meaning of Globalization

Globalization means reduction or removal of Government restrictions on the movement of goods and services, capital, technology and talent across national borders. It is the process of increasing economic interdependence between countries and their economic integration in the form of world economy. Markets become international and global firms consider the whole world as one market.

Globalization in India – Trends and Issues

The process of globalization of Indian economy began largely in 1991 due to the unprecedented balance of payments crisis. Since then the pace of globalization has gained momentum:

• Foreign Direct Investment upto 100 per cent is now permitted in specified sectors.
• Foreign investors can invest in Indian companies through GDRs without any lock-in period.
• Indian companies are allowed to get themselves listed on overseas stock exchanges.
• Guidelines for Euro issues were liberalised.
• The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) has replaced the Foreign Exchange Regulations Act (FERA).

Impact of Globalization of Indian Economy

Globalization has made India a huge consumer market. There has been rapid increase in GDP and India’s exports. India has emerged as one of the fastest growing economies in the world. Our foreign exchange reserves are now huge and there has been rapid increase in foreign direct investment (FDI).

POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE EFFECTS OF GLOBALIZATION

Positive Effects

• Expansion of market
• Growth of independent money market
• Free flow of resources
• Advancements in technology
• Equilibrium in balance of payments
• Development of infrastructure
• Fligher living standards
• International cooperation

Negative Effects

• Cut-throat competition
• Rise in monopoly
• Increase in inequalities
• Takeover of domestic firms
• Removal of protection to domestic firms
• Affect on national sovereignty

1. A stock that provides regular dividends even during economic downturn is called
(a) Listed
(b) Crow Stock
(c) Income Stock
(d) Defensive Stock

2. Carrying forward a transaction from one settlement period to the next is known as
(a) Basket Trading
(b) Margin Trading
(c) Badla
(d) Option deal

3. Call is the opposite of
(a) Equity
(b) Bid
(c) Ask/offer
(d) Equity

4. A speculator who buys securities in anticipation of increase in prices is called
(a) Stag
(b) Bull
(c) Bear
(d) None of them

5. A bear market means
(a) A market wherein share prices are falling consistently
(b) A market wherein share prices are rising consistently
(c) A market wherein share prices are stable
(d) None of the above

6. Simultaneous purchase and sale of the same stock in two different markets is known as
(a) Basket trading
(b) Badla
(c) Arbitrage
(d) Margin Trading

7. Buying or selling all 30 scrips of sensex in pro-portion of their current weights in the sensex in one go is called
(a) Basket trading
(b) Arbitrage
(c) Badla
(d) Margin Trading

8. The relationship between the price of a share and the sensex is measurably
(a) Alfa
(b) Beta
(c) Book value
(d) Annuity

9. Combination of two or more firms into one firm is called
(a) Consolidation
(b) Yield
(c) Option
(d) None of the above

10. An option to buy a particular share at a specified price within a specified future period is known as
(a) Put option
(b) Bid
(c) Offer
(d) Case option

11. The value of a share printed on the share certificate is called
(a) Face value
(b) Market Value
(c) Future value
(d) Current value

12. Sensex is made up of how many scrips
(a) 50
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 20

13. Nifty consists of how many scrips
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50

14. When a company makes first issue of shares to the general public it is called
(a) ADR
(b) GDR
(c) CD
(d) IPO

15. A textile firm enters into cement manufacturing business. It is an example of:
(a) Consolidation
(b) Diversification
(c) Liquidation
(d) Turnaround

16. The strategy used to minimize the risk and maxi-mize the return on an investment is called
(a) Hedge
(b) Index
(c) Bid
(d) Offer

17. The statistical measure of changes in prices on a stock exchange is:
(a) Dividend
(b) Index
(c) Beta
(d) Bid

18. A security whose price is derived from one or more underlying assets is a
(a) Blue Chip
(b) Derivative
(c) Hedge
(d) Index

19. Piecemeal sale of the assets of a division of the company is called
(a) Modernization
(b) Diversification

20. Total share holding of an investor is known as his/her
(a) Mutual Fund
(b) Holding Period
(c) Pastfolio
(d) Limit order

21. Dividing a share with a face value of Rs. 100 each into 10 shares with a face value of Rs. 10 each is an example of
(a) Sheet selling
(b) Liquidation
(c) Diversification
(d) Stock split

22. Paid form of non-personal promotional of ideas, goods and services by an identified sponsor is called :
(a) Adventuring
(b) Sales promotion
(c) Personal Selling
(d) None of the above

23. The process of comparing the products and services with those of best in the industry to improve quality and performance is known as
(a) Advertising
(b) After-sale-Device
(c) Benchmarking
(d) None of the above

24. Commitment of customers to a particular brand is called
(a) Brand Equity
(b) Brand recognition
(c) Brand loyalty
(d) Benchmarking

25. A combination of several firms working together to build or buy something is known as:
(a) Business Modal
(b) Business Portfolio
(c) Combination
(d) Consortium

26. The values, beliefs and traditions shared by the members of a company is called
(a) Corporate culture
(b) Consortium
(c) Cross selling
(d) None of the above

27. Giving unique identity to a product to differentiate it from rival products means
(a) Direct marketing
(b) Differentiation
(c) Diversification
(d) None of the above

28. It is the process of eliciting support for a company and its activities from its employees. Name it
(a) Internal Marketing
(b) Direct Marketing
(c) Internet Marketing
(d) None of the above

29. A company created jointly by two or more companies for mutual advantage is called
(a) Consolidation
(b) Merger
(c) Joint Venture
(d) None of the above

30. Dividing the total market into several groups on the basis of consumer characteristics is known as:
(a) Market segmentation
(b) Market Development
(c) Market Research
(d) None of the above.

31. Offering existing products or their new version to a new customer group is called
(a) Market entity
(b) Market Positioning
(c) Market Development
(d) None of the above

32. Selecting the most attractive market segment for a particular product or product line is known as
(a) Market Positioning
(b) Market Entry
(c) Target Marketing
(d) None of the above

33. It is the exploitation of small market segments, name it
(a) Direct Marketing
(b) Niche Marketing
(c) Mass Marketing
(d) None of the above

34. A product’s customer benefit that no other product can claim is known as
(a) Opportunity
(b) Publicity
(c) Unique Selling Proposition
(d) None of the above.

35. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends, money to commercial banks for long period is called
(a) Repo Rate
(b) Goring Rate
(c) Bank Rate
(d) None of the above

36. The money deposit made by the buyer to the seller of real estate during negotiation stage is known as
(a) Earnest Money Deposit
(b) Fixed Deposit
(c) Current Deposit
(d) None of the above

37. The document issued by a bank on behalf of the importer promise to pay money for imported goods is called
(a) Letter of credit
(b) Debt Card
(c) Bank Draft
(d) None of the above

38. The rate of interest offered by the Reserve Bank of India on deposit of surplus funds by commercial banks is known as
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Repo Rate
(c) Reverse Repo rate
(d) None of the above

39. Jan Dhan Account is an example of
(a) Current Account
(b) Fixed Deposit Account
(c) Zero Balance Account
(d) None of the above

40. The rate of interest at which banks borrow money for short periods from the Reserve Bank of India is called.
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Repo Rate
(c) Reserve Repo Rate
(d) None of the above

41. Profits, people and planet together constitute a company’s
(a) Vision
(b) Mission
(c) Triple Bottom Line
(d) None of the above

42. Integration of national economies into a world economy is called:
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatization
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of the above

43. Molasses in sugar industry is an example of
(a) Joint product
(b) Unique product
(c) Byproduct
(d) None of the above

44. Sale of public enterprises to private sector is called
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatization
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of the above

45. Financial recovery of a loss making company is known as
(a) Turn around
(b) Privatization
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of the above

46. The roadmap of a company future is
(a) Mission
(b) Vision
(c) Business Module
(d) None of the above

47. The statement that defines what a company is and what it does is called
(a) Mission
(b) Vision
(c) Business Module
(d) None of the above

48. Activities involved in physical involvement of goods from the factory to market etc. is called
(a) Logistics
(b) Merger
(c) Mission
(d) None of the above

CA Foundation Business and Commercial Knowledge Study Material Chapter 2 Business Environment – Test Questions

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of business environment?
(a) Aggregative
(b) Dynamic
(c) Uncertain
(d) All of them.

2. Which of the following is an element of micro environment:
(a) Customers
(b) Competitors
(c) Suppliers
(d) All of them.

3. Which of following relates to population?
(a) Demographic environment
(b) Social environment
(c) Cultural environment
(d) Natural environment

4. Understanding of environment enables a business enterprise to
(a) focus on customers
(b) gain the first mover advantage
(c) become aware of impending threat
(d) All of them.

5. Demonetization and GST are examples of changes in
(a) Political environment
(b) Social environment
(c) Technological environment
(d) Global environment

6. Merger of associate banks of SBI into SBI is an example of changes in
(a) Economic environment
(b) Technological environment
(c) Social environment
(d) Demographic environment

7. Tick (✓) the correct alternative.
Demographic trends are a part of:
(a) economic environment III
(b) social environment
(c) political environment
(d) legal environment

8. State whether the following statements are True or False:
Wait and watch is a response of least resistance.
Big and powerful firms adopt the response of gaining command over the environment.
Innovative approach requires no feedback system.
Adaptation response involves anticipation of changes in business environment.

9. State whether the following statements are true or false.
Privatisation and globalisation are components of economic liberalisation.
Pressures for structural adjustments are a reason for globalisation.
Denationalisation is a form of privatisation.
Closure of small scale firms is a positive effect of economic liberalisation.

10. Fill in the blanks:

1. Business environment is the totality of …………… forces
2. Different elements of business environment are ……………
3. When business environment changes rapidly and suddenly …………… increases.
4. Industrial policy, monetary policy and fiscal policy are elements of …………… environment of business.
5. Business gets …………… from the environment and supplies …………… to the environment.

11. Match the items in column A with those in column B

12. Age, family size, sex composition and other people related elements are part of
(a) political environment
(b) economic environment
(c) demographic environment
(d) natural environment.

1. Who is the Chairman of Asian Paints Ltd. ?
(a) KBS Anand
(b) Ashwin Choksi
(c) Chimanlal Choksi
(d) Champaklal Choksey

2. Axis Bank was founded in:
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1993
(d) 1994

3. Who is the Chief Executive of Axis Bank ?
(a) Sanjiv Misra
(b) Jairam Sridharam
(c) Chanda Cochar
(d) Shikha Sharma

4. Bajaj Auto was founded at
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Pune
(d) Bengaluru

5. Who is the Chairman of Bajaj Auto
(a) Sanjiv Bajaj
(b) Rajiv Bajaj
(c) Jamnalal Bajaj
(d) Rahul Bajaj

6. In which year Bharti Airtel was founded ?
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1994
(d) 1995

7. Who is the Chairman of Bharti Airtel ?
(a) Deepak Mittal
(b) Navin Mittal
(c) Sunil Mittal
(d) Anil Mittal

8. Cipla operates in which industry
(a) Food
(b) Pharma
(c) Hotels
(d) All the above

9. Dr. Reddy’s laboratories was set up in
(a) 1980
(b) 1983
(c) 1984
(d) 1989

10. HDFC Bank was set up in
(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1993
(d) 1994

11. Which is India’s largest private sector hank
(a) Axis Bank
(b) SBI
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) HDFC Bank

12. Which company was formed by seven engineers with a capital of ? 10000
(a) Asian Paints
(b) Bharti Airtel
(c) Infosys
(d) None of the above

13. ITC was originally named as:
(a) Imperial Tobacco company
(b) Indian Tobacco company
(c) Indian Tea company
(d) None of the above

14. Larsen & Toubro Ltd. was founded by
(a) Indians
(b) Americans
(c) Danish
(d) Europeans

15. Reliance Industries Ltd. was founded by
(a) Anil Ambani
(b) Mukesh Ambani
(c) Akash Ambani
(d) Dhirubhai Ambani

16. State Bank of India was originally known as
(a) Centurion Bank
(b) United Bank of India
(c) Imperial Bank
(d) None of the Above

17. Which is the largest Commercial bank of India
(a) SBI
(b) ICICI Bank
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) Axis Bank

18. Which Company is the holding company of 100 independent companies of the Tata Group ?
(a) Tata Sons Ltd.
(b) TCS Ltd.
(c) Tata Steel Ltd.
(d) Tata Motors Ltd.

19. Which of the following are conglomerates
(a) Tata Sons Ltd.
(b) L&T Ltd.
(c) Reliance Industries Ltd.
(d) All of these

20. Which information technology company began as an edible oil firm
(a) Infosys
(b) Microsoft
(c) IBM
(d) Wipro

21. Wipro was founded in:
(a) 1948
(b) 1958
(c) 1945
(d) 1968

22. Which banking company is known worldwide for its credit cards
(a) Axis Bank
(b) ICICI Bank
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) American Express

23. Which company was set up in a garage
(a) Infosys
(b) HP
(c) Nestle
(d) Microsoft

24. Apple’s main business is
(a) Fruits
(b) Computers
(c) Retailing
(d) None of the above

25. IBM Corporation was founded in
(a) 1895
(b) 1911
(c) 1921
(d) 1931

26. Which global firm has an Indian as its chief executive
(a) HP
(b) IBM
(c) Microsoft
(d) None of the above

27. Good Food, Good Life is the Slogan of which company
(a) Walmart
(b) Britannia
(c) Parle
(d) Nestle

28. Which company is world’s largest retailer
(a) Shoppers Stop
(b) Smart
(c) Spencer
(d) Walmart

1. Classify the following into economic and non-economic activities.
(a) A mother cooking food for her children
(b) A teacher teaching in a coaching centre.
(c) A young boy helps an old man in crossing the road.
(d) The Chaat seller outside a school.
(e) A lady officer in Delhi Police

2. The income of a profession is called
(a) wage
(b) salary
(c) fee
(d) profit

3. In employment a person receives
(a) profit
(b) fee
(c) salary
(d) dividend

4. Income of a businessman is called
(a) wage
(b) salary
(c) fee
(d) profit

5. Which of the following is not a business activity:
(a) A housewife selling old newspapers
(b) A person selling vegetables in your locality
(c) A teacher teaching his daughter at home
(d) A painter painting houses of others

6. In which of the following occupations services of specialised nature are provided for fee
(a) Employment
(b) Business
(c) Profession
(d) Farming

7. Which of the following occupations involve maximum risk
(a) Employment
(b) Business
(c) Profession
(d) Teaching

8. Which of the following statements best describe economic activities.
(a) These activities are undertaken to earn money.
(b) These activities provide pleasure.
(c) These activities involve no risk
(d) These activities involve working outside the house.

9. The head of the joint Hindu family business is called
(a) Partner
(b) Manager
(c) Karta
(d) Member

10. The maximum number of partners in a partner-ship firm can be :
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 100

11. State whether the following statements are True or False:

(a) Taking photographs of mountains as a hobby is an economic activity.
(b) Teaching in a school is a non-economic activity.
(c) Service or employment is an economic activity.
(d) Business involves buying and selling of goods and services.
(e) Running a hair-cutting saloon is a business.
(f) Occupations of doctors, lawyers and char¬tered accountants are called professions.
(g) Economic activities are undertaken for earning a living.

12. Answer the following in Yes or No:

(a) A business activity can be carried out without sale or exchange.
(b) Business involves the creation of utilities.
(c) A business activity may be without a profit motive.
(d) Risk is an essential element of every business activity.
(e) Earning profits is the sole objective of business.
(f) Business is an economic activity.
(g) Profession involves greater risk than busi¬ness.

13. Name the following:

(a) The industry in which useful products are obtained from the earth and the sea.
(b) The trade in which goods are imported and exported to some other country.
(c) The branch of commerce which removes the hindrance of time.
(d) Buying and selling of goods in small quan-tities.

14. Fill in the blanks:

(a) Business = Industry + ………….
(b) …………. means the production of goods and services.
(c) Commerce includes ‘trade and ………….’
(d) Conversion of raw materials and component parts into finished products is known as …………… industry.
(e) Agriculture is an …………… industry.
(f) Transport removes the hindrance of ……………

15. State whether the following statements are True or False:

(a) Industry and commerce are interchangeable terms.
(b) Commerce is a wider term than trade.
(c) Trade between two countries is known as internal trade.
(d) Conversion of cotton into cloth is an example of genetic industry.

16. Match the following:

17. Answer in Yes or No:

(a) The sole proprietor is the exclusive master of his business.
(b) The liability of a sole proprietor is limited.
(c) A sole proprietorship has no legal existence apart from its owner.
(d) Sole proprietorship is the oldest form of business organisation.
(e) It is difficult to set up a sole proprietorship.

18. Fill in the blanks:

(a) Sole proprietorship is the …………… form of business enterprises, (latest/oldest)
(b) Sole proprietorship is most suitable form …………… for business, (small/large)
(c) Liability of a sole proprietor is …………… (limited/ unlimited)
(d) Sole proprietorship …………… a separate legal entity, (has/does not have)
(e) It is to set up a sole proprietorship firm, (easy/difficult)

19. Fill in the blanks:

(a) The membership of a joint Hindu family business is acquired by ……………
(b) The liability of the karta in a joint Hindu family business is ……………
(c) A member of the joint Hindu family business demand division/of …………… property.
(d) All the members of a joint Hindu family business …………… part in its man agement.
(e) A member of the j oint Hindu family business …………… call for account of past profits while leaving the business.

20. State whether the following statements are True or False:

(a) A joint Hindu family business is the result of a contract between the members of the family.
(b) Every member of a joint Hindu family business is an agent of the firm.
(c) There is no limit on the number of members in a joint Hindu family business.
(d) Female members of a family do not have a share in the joint Hindu family business.
(e) A joint Hindu family business is not dissolved on the death of a member.

21. Match the following:

22. Name the following:

(a) A partnership in which the liability of one or more partners is limited.
(b) A partnership which is set up for an indefinite period of time.
(c) The document containing the terms and conditions of a partnership.
(d) The partner who contributes capital but does not take active part in the management
(e) Person who lends his name and goodwill for the benefit of a partnership firm.

23. State whether the following statements are True or False:

(a) Registration of a partnership is legally compulsory.
(b) Limited partnership is not allowed in India.
(c) A partnership can take as many partners as it likes.
(d) A minor can become a partner.
(e) Partners may come and go but the part-nership goes on forever.
(f) A person becomes a partner on his birth in the family.

24. Name the following:

(a) The person who promotes a business.
(b) The document containing the bylaws of a company.
(c) The documents inviting subscriptions for shares and debentures.
(d) The amount of money which must be raised before allotment of share.

25. Mark the following statements True or False:

(a) A private company must file a statement in lieu of prospectus.
(b) A company which does not want to prepare its own Articles of Association can adopt Table A.
(c) A company wanting to raise capital must issue a prospectus.
(cl) A private company can start its business immediately after incorporation.
(e) Capital clause is a part of the Articles of Association
(f) The Memorandum of Association defines the relationship of a company with or out¬siders.
(g) Every company must issue a prospectus to raise share capital.

26. Fill in the blanks:

(a) A company is legally …………… from its members.
(b) Liability of every member in a company is ……………
(c) Registration of a company is ……………
(d) A company is managed by a ……………
(e) In a private company, there must be at least …………… members.
(f) A company has …………… succession.

27. Name the following:
(a) A company in which the number of members cannot exceed 50:
(b) A company having at least seven members:

28. Match the following:

29. The capital of a company is divided into number of parts, each one of which is called
(a) Dividend
(b) Profit
(c) Interest
(d) Share

30. The form of business organisation in which there is separation of ownership and management is called
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) All these.

31. State whether the following statements are True or False:

(a) A joint stock company is separate legal entity.
(b) A company survives even if all its members die.
(c) A joint stock company is a voluntary association of persons.
(d) A joint stock company is less stable than a partnership.
(e) Registration of a joint stock company is optional.
(f) There can be no conflict of interest in a joint stock company.
(g) A company is an artificial legal person.

32. Fill in the blanks:

(a) The East India Company was a …………… company
(b) The Reserve Bank of India is a …………… company.
(c) Reliance Industries Limited is a …………… company.
(d) A does not have share capital.
(e) The liability of members of a company is unlimited.
(f) A company which holds 51% more of the shares of another company is called ……………
(g) Steel Authority of India Limited is a company.
(h) Coca Cola Corporation is a company.
(i) Minimum share capitalin a private company is Rs. ……………

33. State whether the following statements are True or False.

(a) There is no chartered company in India.
(h) LIC is a statutory company.
(c) At least five persons are needed to form a public company.
(d) The minimum paid up capital of a private company must be Rupees five lakh.
(e) A private company can invite public deposits.
(f) The shares of a public company are transferable.
(g) A subsidiary of a public company is also a public company.
(h) The concept of private company deemed to be public no longer exists in India.

1. Which of the following is not a regulatory body:
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) CCI
(d) SIDBI

2. Which of the following is not a development bank:
(a) IFCI
(b) IRDAI
(c) SIDBI
(d) NABARD

3. Give the full forms of the following:
(a) IFCI
(b) IRDA
(c) CCI
(d) SIDBI

4. SEBI was set up to regulate:
(a) Imports and exports
(b) Insurance Sector
(c) Capita markets
(d) Agriculture

5. Which of the following is the banker’s bank
(a) SIDBI
(b) EXIMbank
(c) IDBI
(d) RBI

6. Which of the following seeks to check monopolies
(a) RBI
(b) CCI
(c) SEBI
(d) IRDA

7. Which of the following is not a method of credit control
(a) CRR
(b) SLR
(c) Moral Session
(d) FBI

ICAI CA Foundation Business Law Study Material Notes | Important Case Studies for CA Foundation Law

We have attempted to present the CA Foundation Law Study Material in a lucid and simple style keeping in mind the students of under graduate level. The CA Foundation Business Law Study Material has been presented in a tabular form so that it becomes easier for the students to revise as well during the time of examination. To test the understanding of the student and also to enable them to have sufficient knowledge, a large number of exercise has been provided at the end of the chapters. The exercise covers a lot of Multiple Choice Questions, True and False type questions and also Theoretical Questions as well as questions in the pattern of Important Case Studies for CA Foundation Law.

CA Foundation Law Revision Notes Pdf Free Download | ICAI CA Foundation Business Law Study Material

The CA Foundation Law Revision Notes is divided into five units depending upon their respective Acts. The new syllabus and answers and hints for writing the answers further adds up to the value of the CA Foundation Law Questions with Answers.

CA Foundation Law Case Studies Questions with Answers

Business Law Notes for CA Foundation Unit 1 Indian Contract Act, 1872

• Nature of Contract
• Offer & Acceptance
• Capacity to Contract
• Consideration
• Free Consent
• Legality of Object & Consideration
• Void Agreements
• Contingent & Quasi Contracts
• Performance of a Contract
• Discharge of a Contract

CA Foundation Law Handwritten Notes Pdf Unit 2 Sale of Goods Act, 1930

• Formation of Contract of Sale
• Conditions & Warranties
• Transfer of Ownership
• Unpaid Seller

CA Foundation Law Revision Notes Unit 3 Indian Partnership Act, 1932

• General Nature of Partnership
• Relations of Partners
• Registration of a Firm & Dissolution of a Firm

CA Foundation Business Law Notes Unit 4 Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

• Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

CA Foundation Business Law Study Material Unit 5 Companies Act, 2013

• Companies Act, 2013

CA Foundation Business Law Question Paper

CA Foundation Law Chapter Wise Weightage

ICAI CA Foundation Business Law Notes

Unit 1 Indian Contract Act, 1872

• Chapter 1 Nature of Contract
• Chapter 2 Offer and Acceptance
• Chapter 3 Consideration
• Chapter 4 Capacity of Parties
• Chapter 5 Free Consent
• Chapter 6 Void Agreements
• Chapter 7 Contingent Contracts and Quasi Contracts
• Chapter 8 Performance of Contract
• Chapter 9 Discharge of Contract

Unit 2 Sale of Goods Act, 1930

• Chapter 10 Formation of Contract of Sale
• Chapter 11 Conditions and Warranties
• Chapter 12 Transfer of Ownership
• Chapter 13 Performance of Contract: Delivery and Payment
• Chapter 14 Rights of Buyer & Rights of Unpaid Seller
• Chapter 15 Auction Sale

Unit 3 Partnership Act, 1932

• Chapter 16 Nature of Partnership
• Chapter 17 Registration of Firm
• Chapter 18 Relations of Partners 170
• Chapter 19 Reconstitution and Dissolution of Firm

Unit 4 The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

• Chapter 20 The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Unit 5 The Companies Act, 2013

• Chapter 21 The Companies Act, 2013

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Law of Demand and Elasticity of Demand

1. Demand in economic sense means-
(a) mere desire for a commodity
(b) mere ability to pay price of the commodity
(c) mere wiling to pay the price of the commodity
(d) desire backed by ability and willingness to pay for the commodity desired

2. In economics, demand refers to-
(a) quantity demanded at a particular time
(b) quantity demanded backed by ability to pay
(c) quantity demanded of all goods
(d) quantity demanded at a particular price in a given period of time

3. The concept of demand demonstrates that-
(a) demand is always with reference to price
(b) demand is referred to in a given period of time
(c) buyer’s ability and willingness to pay
(d) all the above

4. Demand is a
(a) flow concept Le. quantity per unit of time
(b) stock concept
(c) wealth concept
(d) none of the above

5. Demand concept explains the ________ behaviour in response to change in price of a good.
(a) producer’s
(b) seller’s
(c) consumer’s
(d) none of the above

6. Individual Demand is also called-
(a) industrial demand
(b) market demand
(c) household’s demand
(d) all the above

7. ________ means quantity demanded of a good by a single consumer at various prices per unit of time.
(a) Market Demand
(b) Individual Demand
(c) Industrial Demand
(d) None of the above

8. _______ means the aggregates of the quantities
demanded by all consumers in the market at different prices per unit of time.
(a) Market Demand
(b) Individual Demand
(c) Industrial Demand
(d) Household Demand

9. All but one are the factors which affect individual demand. Find the odd one out.
(a) Price of related good
(b) Income of the consumer
(c) Tastes and preferences of consumer
(d) Number of consumers in the market

10. _________ is a tabular presentation showing different quantities demanded by buyers at different levels of prices in a given period.
(a) Supply Schedule
(b) Demand Schedule
(c) Production Schedule
(d) Cost Schedule

11. A demand schedule is shown as-
(a) a result of increase in the size of the family
(b) a result of change in tastes and preferences
(c) a function of price
(d) all the above

12. Market Demand is the sum total of-
(a) all quantities that producer’s can produce
(b) all quantities actually sold in the market
(c) all quantities demanded by individual households and consumers
(d) all the above

13. Demand of a good of several consumers when added together is called _______ demand.
(a) individual
(b) market
(c) joint
(d) independent

14. When a good can be used to satisfy two or more wants, it is said to have _______ demand.
(a) composite
(b) competitive
(c) joint
(d) market

15. Indirect demand of a good is also known as _______ demand.
(a) direct
(b) derived
(c) joint
(d) competitive

16. Which of the following is a determinant of Individual Demand?
(a) Cost of production
(b) Nature of commodity
(c) Economic Policies of the Government
(d) Tastes and Preferences of consumers

17. Which of the following is NOT the determinant of demand?
(a) Price of the commodity
(b) Price of related commodities
(c) Income of consumer
(d) None of the above

18. How are APPLES and ORANGES related when as a result of rise in price of Apples, demand for Oranges increases?
(a) Substitute goods
(b) Complementary goods
(c) Normal goods
(d) Inferior goods

19. If two goods are complementary then rise in the price of one results in-
(a) rise in demand for the other
(b) fall in demand for the other
(c) rise in demand for both
(d) none of these

20. If the demand for CNG increases as price of petrol increases, the two goods are-
(a) Normal goods
(b) Complementary goods
(c) Substitute goods
(d) Superior goods

21. Comforts lies between-
(a) inferior goods and necessaries
(b) luxuries and inferior goods
(c) necessaries and luxuries
(d) none of the above

22. When price of commodity rises, the demand for it _______ .
(a) rises
(b) contracts
(c) remain constant
(d) becomes negative

23. When the price of petrol goes up, demand for two-wheelers will-
(a) rise
(b) fall
(c) remain same
(d) none of these

24. An increase in the income of a consumer has effect on demand in general.
(a) no
(b) negative
(c) opposite
(d) positive

25. The demand for Scooter and petrol is an example of _______ demand.
(a) joint
(b) composite
(c) competitive
(d) market

26. _______ goods are those goods which are used for the production of other goods.
(a) Durable
(b) Producer’s
(c) Non-Durable
(d) Consumer’s

27. _______ goods are those which are used for final consumption.
(a) Durable
(b) Producer’s
(c) Non-Durable
(d) Consumer’s

28. Bread, Milk, Readymade clothes, T.V., etc. are examples of _______ goods
(a) perishable
(b) producer’s
(c) consumer’s
(d) inferior

29. The goods which cannot be consumed more than once, like milk are known as _______ goods.
(a) non-durable consumer goods
(b) producer’s
(c) inferior
(d) durable consumer goods

30. _______ goods meets only our current demand.
(a) producers
(b) durable consumer goods
(c) non-durable consumer goods
(d) inferior

31. The goods which can be consumed more than once over a period of time are known as _______ goods.
(a) non-durable consumer goods
(b) producer’s
(c) durable consumer goods
(d) inferior

32. When demand of any good depends upon the demand of another good, it is said to have _______ demand.
(a) joint
(b) derived
(c) competitive
(d) direct

33. The total demand for steel in the country denotes _______ demand.
(a) industry
(b) company
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) autonomous

34. If the demand for a product is independent of the demand for other goods, it is called as _______ demand.
(a) company
(b) industry
(c) autonomous
(d) derived

35. If the construction activity in housing sector, infrastructure, etc. rises, the demand for cement will _______ as it has _______ demand.
(a) rise ; autonomous
(b) fall; autonomous
(c) rise ; derived
(d) none of these

36. Demand for steel produced by Tata Iron and Steel Company is an example of _______ demand.
(a) industry
(b) company
(c) autonomous
(d) joint

37. When demand of any good reacts immediately to price changes, income changes, etc. it is said to have _______ demand.
(a) short-run
(b) long-run
(c) very short run
(d) very long run

38. A relative price is-
(a) price expressed in terms of money
(b) what you get paid for babysitting your cousin
(c) the ratio of one price to another
(d) equal to a money price

39. The quantity demanded of a good or service is the amount that-
(a) consumer plan to buy during a given period at a given price.
(b) firms are willing to sell during a given time period at a given price.
(c) a consumer would like to buy but may not be able to afford.
(d) is actually bought during a given period at a given price.

40. Coca-Cola and Thumbs-Up are substitutes. A rise in the price of Coca-Cola will _______ the demand of Thumbs-Up and the quantity demanded of Thumbs-Up will _______ .
(a) increase ; increase
(b) increase;decrease
(c) decrease ; decrease
(d) decrease;increase

41. If the price of Orange Juice falls, the demand for Apple Juice will _______ .
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) become negative

42. The demand for consumer goods is a _______ demand.
(a) direct
(b) indirect
(c) constant
(d) company

43. If the price of inferior goods fall, the demand for them will _______.
(a) rise
(b) fall
(c) remain constant
(d) become zero

44. The Law of Demand states _______ relation between demand and price of a commodity.
(a) a direct
(b) positive
(c) an indirect
(d) no

45. When total demand for a commodity whose price has fallen increases, it is due to
(a) income effect
(b) substitution effect
(c) complementary effect
(d) price effect

46. With a fall in the price of a commodity
(a) Consumer’s real income increases
(b) Consumer’s money income increases
(c) Consumer’s real income falls
(d) Consumer’s money income falls

47. When we draw a market demand curve, we _______.
(a) do not consider tastes, incomes and all prices
(b) assume that tastes, incomes and all other prices change in the same way price changes
(c) assume that tastes, incomes and all other prices are irrelevant
(d) assume that tastes, incomes and all other prices remain the same

48. All but one of the following are assumed to remain the same while drawing individual’s demand curve for a commodity. Which are is it?
(a) The tastes and preferences of the consumer
(b) Income of consumer
(c) The price of the commodity
(d) The prices of related commodities

49. A fall in price of a commodity leads to _______.
(a) a shift in demand curve
(b) a rise in consumer’s real income
(c) a fall in demand
(d) none of the above

50. If a fall in price of ‘y’ results in a decrease in the sale of ‘x’, the two good appear to be-
(a) substitute goods
(b) complementary goods
(c) inferior goods
(d) neutral goods

51. Which of the following is not a complementary good for pen?
(a) refills
(b) paper
(c) notebook
(d) rice

52. _______ goods are the goods which can be used with equal case in place of each other.
(a) Neutral
(b) Normal
(c) Complementary
(d) Substitute

53. Which of the following pairs of goods are an example of substitutes?
(a) Tea and Sugar
(b) Tea and Coffee
(c) Pen and Ink
(d) Shirt and Trouser

54. When the price of a substitute of good ‘X’ falls, the demand for good ‘X’
(a) rises
(b) falls
(c) remains unchanged
(d) None of these

55. If the demand rises with the rise in consumer’s real income, such a good is called _______.
(a) Normal goods
(b) Neutral goods
(c) Inferior goods
(d) Luxury goods

56. Giffen goods are-
(a) Normal goods
(b) Inferior goods
(c) Luxury goods
(d) Neutral goods

57. As the consumer’s income increases, the demand for necessaries of life will increase _______ to the increase in income.
(a) Less than proportionate
(b) More than proportionate
(c) Proportionate
(d) Nothing can be said

58. As the consumer’s income increases, the demand for comforts and luxuries will increase _______ to the increase in income.
(a) Less than proportionate
(b) More than proportionate
(c) Proportionate
(d) Nothing can be said

59. During boom period in economy, the demand for goods in general _______.
(a) rises
(b) falls
(c) remains same
(d) none of these

60. Larger the size of population of a country _______ is the demand for goods and services in general.
(a) lower
(b) ineffective
(c) neutral
(d) higher

61. In case the consumer expects a steep rise in price of Potatoes in future, his current demand for it will _______.
(a) remain same
(b) fall
(c) rise
(d) none of the above

62. All but one of the good’s demand is not affected by changes in weather conditions-
(a) Ice-cream
(b) Woollen clothes
(c) Cold drinks
(d) Wheat

63. If the government increase the rate of indirect taxes on goods and services, the demand for then will _______ in general.
(a) rise
(b) fall
(c) remain neutral
(d) be ineffective

64. If the government reduces the tax on any pro-duct, the demand for the product _______ in the short run.
(a) rises
(b) falls
(c) remain unchanged
(d) tax has nothing to do with the demand of any product

65. If the demand for petrol remains unchanged with rise in its price, it means petrol is a _______
(a) Normal good
(b) Necessity
(c) Luxury good
(d) Inferior good

66. If quantity demanded of good ‘X’ is plotted against the price of its substitute good ‘Y’, the demand curve will be-
(a) Vertical Straight line
(b) Positively sloped
(c) Horizontal Straight line
(d) Negatively sloped

67. Consider the following figure:

In the above figure, RS part of the demand curve represents-
(a) Superior good
(b) Inferior good
(c) Normal good
(d) Giffen’s good

68. In case of normal goods the income effect is _______
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) constant

69. Income effect on demand of a good is _______.
(a) positive for normal goods
(b) always positive
(c) negative for normal goods
(d) always negative

70. The Law of Demand is explained by-
(a) Cardinal approach
(b) Ordinal approach
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’

71. The Law of Demand refers to functional relation between-
(a) Price & Supply
(b) Price & Cost
(c) Price & Income
(d) Price & Demand

72. The term “Ceteris Paribus” in the Law of Demand means-
(a) All factors except one remain constant
(b) All factors remain constant
(c) All factors are variable
(d) None of the above

73. Which of the following is a variable and influencing factor in the Law of Demand?
(a) Consumer’s Income
(b) Consumer’s Tastes and Preferences
(c) Price of related goods
(d) Price of the good

74. The phrase “Other things being equal” in the Law of Demand means-
(a) Income of the consumer remain unchanged
(b) Price of related goods remain unchanged
(c) Tastes and Preferences of consumer remain unchanged
(d) All the above

75. The total effect of price change of a good is-
(a) Substitution Effect + Income Effect
(b) Substitution Effect + Price Effect
(c) Substitution Effect + Demonstration Effect
(d) Demonstration Effect + Veblen Effect

76. Substitution Effect subscribe to the inverse relation between P_x and Q_x in case of-
(a) normal goods only
(b) inferior goods only
(c) normal and inferior goods both
(d) none of the above

77. Income Effect does not subscribe to the inverse relation between P_x and Q_x in case of-
(a) both normal and inferior goods
(b) inferior goods
(c) normal goods
(d) none of the above

78. The Law of Demand will fail in case of inferior goods only if-
(a) Substitution Effect is greater than Income Effect
(b) Income Effect is greater than’Substitution Effect
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’

79. The Law of Demand is a _______ statement.
(a) Positive
(b) Normative
(c) Descriptive
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’

80. _______ refers to the effect of change in the price of a product on the consumer’s purchasing power.
(a) Real Income Effect
(b) Substitution Effect
(c) Consumer’s Surplus
(d) None of the above

81. When the price of Thumbs-up falls, other things being constant, buyers substitute Thumbs-up for Coca-Cola. This is called-
(a) Price Effect
(b) Substitution Effect
(c) Income Effect
(d) Veblen Effect

82. _______ refers to the buyer’s reaction to a change in the relative prices of two products, keeping the total utility constant.
(a) Consumer’s Surplus
(b) Income Effect
(c) Substitution Effect
(d) None of the above

83. The Law of Demand can be explained by-
(a) The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
(b) Indifference Curves
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’

84. Consumers buy a good till P_x = MU_x. If the price falls, the consumer will reach equilibrium-
(a) at a lower quantity
(b) at a higher quantity
(c) at zero quantity level
(d) all the above

85. “Petrol is becoming cheaper, yet the demand for cars is not rising”. This statement indicates that-
(a) The Law of Demand is not operative for cars
(b) The Law of Demand is operative for petrol
(c) The Demand Curve for cars will shift
(d) All the above

86. Downward slope of the demand curve shows-
(a) positive relationship between price and quantity demanded
(b) inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded
(c) no relationship between price and quantity demanded
(d) none of the above

87. In case of NORMAL GOODS, demand curve shows:
(a) a negative slope
(b) a positive slope
(c) zero slope
(d) none of these

88. Law of Demand fails in case of –
(a) normal goods
(b) Giffen goods
(c) inferior goods
(d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’

89. In case of Giffen’s Paradox, the slope of the demand curve is-
(a) parallel to X-axis
(b) positive
(c) negative
(d) parallel to Y-axis

90. A Giffen good is one for which a small change in price results in-
(a) zero income effect out weighted by a positive substitution effect
(b) zero income effect being equal to zero substitution effect
(c) negative income effect out weighed by a positive substitution effect
(d) none of these

91. The Law of Demand indicates the
(a) direction of change in demand of a commodity
(b) magnitude/amount of change in demand of a commodity
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) elasticity of demand

92. In case of Giffen goods, demand varies _______ with the price.
(a) inversely
(b) directly
(c) proportionately
(d) none of these

93. Analysis of the relationship between demand of a commodity and prices of related commodities is-
(a) Price Demand analysis
(b) Income Demand analysis
(c) Cross Demand analysis
(d) Market Demand analysis

94. _______ observed that when the price of inferior goods fall, the demand for such goods also fall.
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Dr. Alfred Marshall
(c) Ragnar Frisch
(d) Sir Robert Giffens

95. The Law of Demand was propounded by _______ in his book ‘Principles of Economics’.
(a) Lord Keyens
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Dr. Alfred Marshall
(d) Ragnar

96. The tendency of low income group to imitate the consumption pattern of high income group is known as _______ effect.
(a) Demonstration
(b) Copy
(c) Prestige
(d) Veblen

97. The Law of Demand is applicable for _______.
(a) Giffen’s Goods
(b) Prestige Goods
(c) Necessary Goods
(d) Normal Goods

98. When price changes and proportionate change in market demand is more than proportionate change in individual demand implies that the market demand curve is _______ than the individual demand curves.
(a) Steeper
(b) Flatter
(c) Vertical
(d) None of the above

99. A positively sloped demand curve implies
(a) Violation of the law of demand
(b) Giffen good
(c) Income effect is negative and greater than substitution effect
(d) All the above

100. An increase in consumer’s income will increase demand for a _______ but decrease demand for a _______.
(a) substitute good; inferior good
(b) normal good ; inferior good
(c) substitute good ; complementary good
(d) inferior good ; normal good

101. When the quantity of a good that a buyer demands rises when there is growth of purchases by other individuals, such an effect is called _______
(a) Bandwagon Effect
(b) Snob Effect
(c) Veblen Effect
(d) None of the above

102. When the quantity of a commodity that an individual buyer demand falls in response to the growth of purchases by other buyers, such an effect is called _______
(a) Bandwagon Effect
(b) Snob Effect
(c) Veblen Effect
(d) None of the above

103. Some buyer’s demand more of certain commodities at a higher price, such an effect is called _______.
(a) Bandwagon Effect
(b) Snob Effect
(c) Veblen Effect
(d) None of the above

104. The market demand curve in case of Veblen Effect is _______.
(a) steeper
(b) flatter
(c) vertical
(d) horizontal

105. The market demand curve in case of Bandwagon Effect is _______.
(a) less elastic
(b) steeper
(c) flatter
(d) horizontal

106. The market demand curve in case of Snob Effect is _______.
(a) flatter
(b) steeper
(c) less elastic
(d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’

107. A downward sloping Engel Curve shows –
(a) Normal goods
(b) Inferior goods
(c) Substitute goods
(d) Complementary goods

108. Assume that the market demand curve for Dinshaw Ice cream is known and given to us. With summer setting in, price remaining the same the consumers would –
(a) shift to a lower demand curve leftward
(b) move upward along the same demand curve
(c) shift to a higher demand curve rightward
(d) move downward along the same demand curve

109. An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes-
(a) upward to the right
(b) downward to the right
(c) upward to the left
(d) horizontal

110. What will be the impact on the demand curve of CARS when the price of petrol rises?
(a) There will be downward movement on demand curve
(b) Demand curve will shift to left
(c) There will be an upward movement on demand curve
(d) Demand curve will shift to right

111. What will be the impact on the demand curve of DESKTOP COMPUTERS when the price of LAPTOPS increase?
(a) There will be downward movement on demand curve
(b) Demand curve will shift to left
(c) There will be an upward movement on demand curve
(d) Demand curve will shift to right

112. What will be the impact on the demand curve of SUGAR with increase in its price?
(a) Downward movement along the demand curve
(b) Leftward shift of the demand curve
(c) An upward movement along the demand curve
(d) Rightward shift of the demand curve

113. The demand for TROUSERS will lead to _______ due to change in the preference in favour of JEANS.
(a) Extension in Demand of trousers
(b) Increase in Demand of trousers
(c) Contraction in Demand of trousers
(d) Decrease in Demand in trousers

114. The demand curve for BAJRA will when a poor person’s income rises.
(a) shift to the right
(b) shift to the left
(c) be downward sloping
(d) none of the above

115. Match the following—

116. If more is demanded at the same price or the same quantity is demanded at a higher price, it is known as-
(a) Extension of Demand
(b) Contraction of Demand
(c) Increase in Demand
(d) Decrease in Demand

117. A downward movement along the same demand curve means –
(a) more is demanded when the price of good falls
(b) more is demanded at the same price
(c) less is demanded at the same price
(d) less is demanded when the price of good rises

118. A leftward shift of the demand curve shows-
(a) more is demanded at the same price
(b) less is demanded when the price of good rises
(c) less is demanded at the same price
(d) more is demanded when the price of good falls

119. When same quantity of a good is demanded at a lower price, it is known as-
(a) Extension of Demand
(b) Increase in Demand
(c) Contraction of Demand
(d) Decrease in Demand

120. When less quantity is demanded as the price of good rises, there is ________.
(a) Downward movement along the demand curve
(b) Leftward shift of the demand curve
(c) An upward movement along the demand curve
(d) Rightward shift of the demand curve

For Q. Nos. 121 to 124 refer the following demand equation Q = 180 – 6p

121. At what price no one would be willing to buy the commodity?
(a) Rs. 20
(b) Rs. 30
(c) Rs. 40
(d) Rs. 15

122. If the commodity is given free Le. if the demand is autonomous, what is the quantity demanded?
(a) 180
(b) 160
(c) 140
(d) 120

123. If the price of the commodity falls down to Rs. 1, by how much will the quantity demanded change?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 12
(d) 10

124. The total quantity demanded when the price is Rs. 1 p.u. is-
(a) 180
(b) 174
(c) 190
(d) 186

For Q. Nos. 125 to 127 refer the following demand equation
Q_x = 12 – 2 P_x

125. What would be the quantity demanded at a price of Rs. 3?
(a) 4 units
(b) 5 units
(c) 6 units
(d) 8 units

126. What would be the price when quantity demanded is zero?
(a) Rs. 8
(b) Rs. 4
(c) Rs. 5
(d) Rs. 6

127. What would be the quantity demanded when the price is zero?
(a) 12 units
(b) 10 units
(c) 22 units
(d) 20 units

128. The demand function of a commodity ‘X’ is given by Q_x = 20 – 3 P_x. What would be he value of P_x when the corresponding value of Q_x = 14.
(a) Rs. 5
(b) Rs. 4
(c) Rs. 3
(d) Rs. 2

129. At a price of Rs. 10 p.u. the market demand of a commodity is 58 units, out of which consumer ‘A’ has purchased 20 units and consumer ‘B’ has purchased 10 units. How much quantity consumer ‘C’ has purchased?
(a) 28 units
(b) 26 units
(c) 24 units
(d) 22 units

130. The linear demand function is given as- Q = 80 – 20 P. Derive the market demand function when there are 100 consumers in the market.
(a) Q = 8000 – 20 P
(b) Q = 80 – 2000 P
(c) Q = 8000 – 2000 P
(d) None of the above

131. All but one can be referred as Variations in Demand. Which one is not variation in demand?
(a) Movement along the same demand curve
(b) Shifting of demand curve
(c) Changes in the Quantity Demanded
(d) Expansion and Contraction of Demand

132. In case of Expansion and Contraction of Demand, the demand curve-
(a) shifts to the right
(b) shifts to the left
(c) remains the same
(d) none of the above

133. A movement along the demand curve means-
(a) expansion of demand
(b) contraction of demand
(c) changes in the quantity demanded
(d) all the above

134. Change in the demand of a commodity due to the factors other than price is known as-
(a) Increase and Decrease in Demand
(b) Changes in Demand
(c) Shift in Demand
(d) All the above

135. Increase in demand leads to-
(a) Leftward shift of the demand curve
(b) Rightward shift of the demand curve
(c) Upward movement on the same demand curve
(d) Downward movement on the same demand curve

136. Which of the following would result in the shifting of the demand curve?
(a) Increase in the tax on shoes
(b) Growth in the size of population
(c) Changes in weather conditions
(d) All the above

137. Shift in demand does not take place due to-
(a) Change in consumer’s tastes and preferences
(b) Advertisement
(c) Trade conditions
(d) Change in the price of the commodity

138. A rightward shift in the demand curve for Bread would be predicted from-
(a) A decrease in the number of breakfast eaters
(b) A change in tastes
(c) A fall in the price of Bread
(d) A rise in the price of Corn Flakes

139. Consider the following demand curve-

State whether-
(a) The two goods are complementary
(b) The two goods are substitutes
(c) The two goods are not related
(d) None of the above

140. Consider the following figure-

It shows-
(a) Inferior goods
(b) Giffen goods
(c) Normal or Superior goods
(d) All the above

141. Consider the following figure-

Demand
It shows demand curve for-
(a) Necessities
(b) Comforts and Luxuries
(c) Inferior Goods
(d) None of the above

142. Consider the following figure-

It shows demand curve for-
(a) Necessities
(b) Comforts and Luxuries
(c) Inferior Goods
(d) None of the above

143. Consider the following figure-

It shows demand curve for-
(a) Necessities
(b) Comforts and Luxuries
(c) Inferior Goods
(d) None of the above

144. Which of the following is shown in the figure?

(a) An increase in demand
(b) Indifference Curve
(c) Supply Curve
(d) None of the above

145. Other things being equal a decrease in demand can be caused by-
(a) A rise in the price of the commodity
(b) A rise in the income of the commodity
(c) A fall in the price of the commodity
(d) A fall in the income of the consumer

146. A rational consumer is a person who
(a) behaves judiciously all the time
(b) is not influenced by the advertisement
(c) knows the prices of goods in different markets and buy the cheapest
(d) has perfect knowledge of the market

147. A normal demand curve of a commodity-
(a) is vertical straight line curve
(b) has a negative slope
(c) is horizontal straight line curve
(d) has a positive slope

148. If the quantity demanded of a commodity is plotted against the price of a substitute goods ceteris paribus the curve is expected to be-
(a) Vertical
(b) Negatively sloped
(c) Horizontal
(d) Positively sloped

149. Income effect operates when there is an-
(a) increase in real income due to fall in price of the commodity
(b) increase in real income due to rise in price of the commodity
(c) increase in real income due to rise in demand of the commodity
(d) increase in money income due to fall in the price of the commodity

150. Who explained the abnormal shape of demand curve for diamonds through the doctrine of conspicuous consumption?
(a) Thorstein Veblen
(b) Robert Giffen
(c) David Ricardo
(d) Alfred Marshall

151. Conspicuous good are also known as-
(a) prestige goods
(b) snob goods
(c) Veblen goods
(d) all the above

152. Elasticity of demand is defined as the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good to changes in
(a) price of the commodity
(b) price of related goods
(c) income of the consumer
(d) all the above

153. ________ was the economist to formulate the concept of price elasticity of demand.
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Paul Samuelson
(d) Edwin Cannon

154. The concept of Elasticity of Demand whenever referred unless otherwise specified always means-
(a) Price Elasticity of Demand
(b) Income Elasticity of Demand
(c) Cross Elasticity of Demand
(d) All the above

155. The concept of price elasticity of demand analyses-
(a) direction of change in response to change in price of the commodity
(b) degree of change in response to change in price of the commodity
(c) absolute change in response to change in price of the commodity
(d) none of these

156. When there is no change in quantity demanded in response to any change in price, it is a situation of-
(a) infinite price elasticity
(b) unitary price elasticity
(c) zero price elasticity
(d) high price elasticity

157. Price Elasticity of Demand is defined as-
(a) Change in quantity demanded ÷ Change in Price
(b) % Change in quantity demanded ÷ % Change in Price
(c) Change in quantity demanded ÷ % Change in Price
(d) % Change in quantity demanded ÷ Change in Price

158. Price Elasticity of Demand is given by-

159. When percentage change demand is less than percentage change in price, demand is-
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) less than unitary elastic
(d) more than unitary elastic

160. When percentage change in demand is equal to percentage change in price, demand is-
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) unitary elastic
(c) perfectly inelastic
(d) more elastic

161. Price Elasticity of demand is always because of relationship between price and quantity demanded
(a) negative ; inverse
(b) positive ; direct
(c) negative ; positive
(d) positive ; inverse

162. Coefficient of price elasticity of demand ranges from to
(a) one ; infinity
(b) zero ; infinity
(c) zero ; one
(d) none of the above

163. When there is an infinite demand at a particular price and demand becomes zero with a slight rise in the price then
(a) demand by commodity is perfectly elastic
(b) E_d = ∞
(c) demand curve is horizontal straight line parallel to X-axis
(d) all the above

164. When percentage in quantity demanded is more than percentage change in price then
(a) demand of commodity is highly elastic
(b) E_d > 1 and demand curve is flatter
(c) E_d < 1 and demand curve is steeper
(d) Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ 1

165. When demand curve is parallel to X-axis, elasticity of demand is-
(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) greater than unity
(d) infinity

166. Which curve is called rectangular hyperbola?
(a) Highly Elastic Demand Curve
(b) Less Elastic Demand Curve
(c) Unitary Elastic Demand Curve
(d) None of the above

167. When demand curve is parallel to Y-axis, elasticity of demand is-
(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) less than unity
(d) more than unity

168. As the demand curve becomes flatter and flatter, the elasticity of demand becomes-
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) equal to infinity
(d) equal to zero

169. When the demand for a commodity does not change with the increase in its price from Rs. 2 to Rs. 5, then elasticity of demand is
(a) E = ∞
(b) Ed = 0
(c) E_d < 1
(d) E_d > 1

170. Slope of perfectly elastic demand curve is equal to ________
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

171. On all points of a rectangular hyperbola demand curve, elasticity of demand is –
(a) equal to one
(b) zero
(c) more than one
(d) less than one

172. When slope of demand curve = 0, the elasticity of demand is-
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) oo
(d) none of the above

173. To say that the demand for a commodity is elastic means-
(a) That the demand curve slopes downward to the right
(b) That more is sold at a lower price
(c) That a rise in price will increase total revenue
(d) That the change in quantity sold is proportionately greater than the change in price

174. A demand curve is perfectly inelastic if-
(a) a rise in price causes a fall in quantity demanded
(b) a fall in price causes rise in sellers total receipts
(c) the commodity in question is very perishable
(d) a change in price does not change quantity demanded

175. When the demand curve is vertical straight line, demapd is-
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) relatively elastic
(d) relatively inelastic

176. For goods with perfectly inelastic demand-
(a) ∆q = 0
(b) ∆q < ∆p
(c) ∆q = ∆p
(d) ∆p = 0

177. For goods with less elastic demand-
(a) ∆q > ∆p
( b) ∆q = ∆p
(c) ∆q < ∆p
(d) none of the above

178. If the demand of a commodity is less elastic the demand curve will be-
(a) Horizontal line
(b) Vertical line
(c) Downward sloping to the right, flatter
(d) Downward sloping to the right, steeper

179. Rectangular hyperbola is also called-
(a) Equilateral Hyperbola
(b) Vertical Line
(c) Square
(d) Horizontal Line

180. The factor which generally keeps the price elasticity of demand for a good low is-
(a) Variety of uses of that good
(b) Its low price
(c) Close – substitutes for that good
(d) High proportion of the consumer’s income spent on it

181. If you spend more on rent than on soap, your price elasticity of demand for housing is likely to be-
(a) greater than your price elasticity of demand for soap
(b) less than your price elasticity of demand for soap
(c) equal to your price elasticity of demand for soap
(d) none of the above

182. The demand for common salt has low price elasticity because-
(a) it has no close substitute
(b) it is necessity
(c) it constitutes only a small proportion of consumer’s expenditure
(d) all the above

183. The devaluation of currency would increase the export earnings only when demand for the nation’s exports in foreign market is-
(a) Elastic
(b) Inelastic
(c) Perfectly Inelastic
(d) Unitary Elastic

184. The demand for sugar and tea is usually:
(a) Elastic
(b) Inelastic
(c) Perfectly elastic
(d) Perfectly inelastic

185. Availability of close substitutes makes the demand-
(a) Less elastic
(b) More elastic
(c) Perfectly elastic
(d) Perfectly inelastic

186. Elasticity is greater than unity for-
(a) necessaries
(b) luxuries
(c) complementary goods
(d) inferior goods

187. Complementary goods exhibit ________ elasticity of demand.
(a) low
(b) high
(c) unitary
(d) none of the above

188. All but one of the following commodities has elastic demand. Which one has inelastic demand?
(a) Coca-Cola
(b) Butter for poor person
(c) Cigarettes
(d) Electricity

189. Demand is ________ in the long period than in the short period.
(a) less elastic
(b) perfectly elastic
(c) perfectly inelastic
(d) more elastic

190. The demand for necessities is ________
(a) Highly elastic
(b) Highly inelastic
(c) Slightly elastic
(d) Slightly inelastic

191. If the demand for a commodity is ________, the entire burden of indirect tax will fall on the consumer.
(a) Relatively inelastic
(b) Perfectly inelastic
(c) Relatively elastic
(d) Perfectly elastic

192. Which of the following helps the manager to estimate the demand of a commodity?
(a) Price of the commodity
(b) Price of the substitute commodities
(c) Elasticity of the commodity
(d) All the above

193. The price elasticity of demand for a face cream is estimated to be ONE, no matter what the price or quantity demanded. In this case-
(a) a 1096 increase in price will result in 1096 increase in quantity demanded
(b) a 1096 increase in price will result in 1096 fall in quantity demanded
(c) an increase in price will increase the seller’s revenue
(d) none of the above

194. If demand is ________ then price cuts will ________ spending.
(a) perfectly inelastic ; increase
(b) elastic; increase
(c) elastic; decrease
(d) none of the above

195. Suppose the demand for Dosa at Dosa Plaza is elastic. If the owner of the restaurant is consid¬ering raising the price, it can expect relatively-
(a) large fall in quantity demanded
(b) large fall in demand
(c) small fall in quantity demanded
(d) small fall in demand

196. If a 1096 rise in the price of a commodity causes the demand to fall by 2096
(a) demand was inelastic
(b) demand was infinitely elastic
(c) demand was elastic
(d) none of the above

197. On typical straight line demand curve, the elasticity of demand at a point where it meets the price axis is-
(a) 2
(b) 0.75
(c) 1
(d) infinite

198. On a straight line demand curve the elasticity of demand at the mid-point of the curve is-
(a) 1/2
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 1

199. To measure price elasticity over large changes in price we use ________
(a) point elasticity method
(b) arc elasticity method
(c) income elasticity method
(d) none of the above

200. If the demand for a good is elastic, an increase in its price will cause the total expenditure of the consumers of the good to
(a) Remain the same
(b) Increase
(c) Decrease
(d) None of these

201. When the price of Good ‘X’ goes up by 1096 its demand falls from 800 units to 600 units. What is the price elasticity of Good ‘X?
(a) – 2.5 with flatter demand curve
(b) 2.5 with flatter demand curve
(c) – 1.5 with steeper demand curve
(d) 1.5 with steeper demand curve

202. The demand by a consumer for a commodity falls by 1096 when its price increases from ₹ 5 to ₹ 6 per unit. What is the price elasticity of demand?
(a) unitary elastic
(b) 0.5
(c) .8
(d) 1.5

203. 30 units of a commodity is purchased by a consumer at the price of ₹ 46 per unit. When the price rises to ₹ 50 per unit, he buy 15 units only. The co-efficient of elasticity do demand is –
(a) 4.75
(b) 5
(c) 5.75
(d) 6

204. A consumer spends ₹ 40 on a good at a price of ₹ 1 per unit and ₹ 60 at a price of ₹ 2 per unit. The elasticity of demand is-
(a) 0.25
(b) 2.5
(c) .35
(d) 3.5

205. A consumer buy 20 units of a good at ? ₹ 10 p.u. The price elasticity of demand of this good is -1. How much quantity would be demanded by the consumer when the PRICE FALLS to ₹8 p.u.?
(a) 21 units
(b) 22 units
(c) 23 units
(d) 24 units

206. A consumer buy 40 units of a commodity at ₹ 5 per unit. Its Ed = -3. How much demand of quantity he will buy at ₹ 6 per unit?
(a) 15 units
(b) 16 units
(c) 17 units
(d) 18 units

207. The market demand of a commodity at ₹ 4 per unit is 100 units. The price RISES and as a result its market demand falls to 75 units. If E_d = -1, find out its new price.
(a) ₹ 5
(b) ₹ 6
(c) ₹ 7
(d) ₹ 8

208. A consumer buy 80 units of a commodity at ₹ 4 per unit. When the price FALLS, he buy 100 units. If E_d = -1, the new price will be-
(a) ₹ 3.5
(b) ₹ 3
(c) ₹ 2.5
(d) ₹ 2

209. Demand for good ‘X’ is perfectly inelastic. What will be the change in demand if price falls from ₹ 10 per unit to ₹ 5 per unit?
(a) No change in demand
(b) Large change in demand
(c) Medium change in demand
(d) None of the above

210. What happens to total expenditure on a commodity when its price falls and its demand is price elastic?
(a) Total expenditure will remain constant
(b) Total expenditure will fall
(c) Total expenditure will increase
(d) None of the above

211. As the price of a product falls by 7%, the total expenditure on it has gone up by 3.5%. The elasticity of demand of this product is-
(a) E_d = 0
(b) E_d > l
(c) E_d < 1
(d) E_d = 1

212. Let Q_x = 1400/p Find, total expenditure on good ‘X’ when P_x falls from ₹ 6 to ₹ 1 ; derive the value of E_d and what shape the demand curve will take?
(a) ₹ 1400 ; E_d = 1 and rectangular hyperbola
(b) ₹ 1400 ; E_d < 1 and steep demand curve
(c) ₹ 1400 ; E_d > 1 and flatter demand curve
(d) ₹ 2800 ; E_d = 1 and rectangular hyperbola

213. The demand of a commodity was 100 units initially. With the rise in price by ₹ 5, the quantity demanded falls by 5 units. Elasticity of demand is 1.2. Find out the price BEFORE the change in demand.
(a) ₹ 100
(b) ₹ 140
(c) ₹ 120
(d) ₹ 160

214. Regardless of changes in its price, if the quantity demanded of a good remains constant, then the demand curve for the good will be-
(a) horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) positively sloped
(d) negatively sloped

215. The total revenue of the seller will increase with a fall in price if-
(a) demand is unitary
(b) the percentage change in quantity demand¬ed is less than percentage in price
(c) demand is inelastic
(d) the percentage in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price

216. Point elasticity is useful for which of the following situations?
(a) A restaurant is considering increasing the price of dosa from ₹ 100 to ₹ 200
(b) Lakme is considering lowering the price of its lipsticks by 50%
(c) Maruti Car Ltd. lower the price of Alto 800 by ₹ 1,000
(d) None of the above

217. If there are finite change in price and quantity demanded over a stretch on the demand curve, it is called-
(a) Arc elasticity
(b) Point elasticity
(c) Average elasticity
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’

218. The formula used in the Arc Elasticity method is-

219. When price elasticity at a single point on a demand curve is measured, we use ____
(a) Proportionate Method
(b) Geometric Method
(c) Total Expenditure Method
(d) Arc Elasticity

220. The exact and precise co-efficient of elasticity cannot be found by _____ method.
(a) Proportionate Method
(b) Geometric Method
(c) Total Expenditure Method
(d) Arc Elasticity

221. ____ method only classifies elasticity into elastic, inelastic or unitary elastic.
(a) Proportionate Method
(b) Geometric Method
(c) Total Expenditure Method
(d) Arc Elasticity

222. Slope of a demand curve may remain constant but elasticity still can does change. This is-
(a) Absolutely correct as slope of a curve and its elasticity are not the same thing
(b) Absolutely incorrect as slope of a curve and its elasticity are same thing
(c) Partly correct and partly incorrect
(d) None of the above

223. Let slope of demand curve = -0.5. The elasticity of demand will be ____ if initial price is ₹ 20 per unit and initial quantity is 50 units of the commodity
(a) – 0.6
(b) – 0.7
(c) – 0.8
(d) – 0.9

For Q. Nos. 224 to 226 refer the following information. Given –

224. What is the price of the commodity when Quantity Demanded is 20 units ?
(a) ₹ 4
(b) ₹ 5
(c) ₹ 6
(d) ₹ 7

225. What is the price of the commodity when the Quantity Demanded is 30 units?
(a) ₹ 4
(b) ₹ 5
(c) ₹ 6
(d) ₹ 7

226. Using percentage method, the price elasticity of demand is-
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.0
(c) 2.5
(d) 3.0

227. Life saving drugs has ____ demand.
(a) inelastic
(b) elastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic

228. The price elasticity of demand is 0.5. The percentage change in quantity is 4. What is the percentage in price?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12

229. When price of a commodity gets doubled, its quantity demanded is reduced to half. The coefficient of price elasticity of demand will be-
(a) – 1
(b) – 0.5
(c) – 1.5
(d) – 2

230. Calculate the price elasticity of demand-

(a) – 1
(b) – 2
(c) – 2.5
(d) – 1.5

231. The price elasticity of demand for good ‘X’ is twice that of good ‘Y’. Price of ‘X’ falls by 5% while that of good ‘Y’ rises by 5%. The percentage change in the quantities demanded of X and Y will be
(a) 10% and 5%
(b) 5% and 10%
(c) 10% and 15%
(d) 15% and 20%

232. A consumer buys a certain quantity of a good at a price of ₹ 10 per unit. When the price falls to ₹ 8 per unit, he buys 40% more quantity. The price elasticity of demand will be-
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
Consider the following diagram to answer questions from 233 to 234

233. At a price of OP the total expenditure of the consumer is-
(a) OC RP₁
(b) OBTP
(c) BCRT
(d) None of the above

234. At a price of OP₁ the total expenditure of the consumer is-
(d) OC RP₁
(b) OBTP
(c) BCRT
(d) None of the above

235. All demand curves but one indicate same elasticity of demand at all their points-
(a) Horizontal Straight Line Demand Curve
(b) Vertical Straight Line Demand Curve
(c) Relatively Elastic Demand Curve
(d) Rectangular Hyperbola

236. The point where the downward sloping straight line demand curve intercept the horizontal axis, price elasticity of demand is ____ because price at the point is ____
(a) zero ; zero
(b) = 1; zero
(c) > 1 ; zero
(d) < 1 ; zero

237. If the price elasticity of demand is ZERO, it means expenditure on the commodity may ____ with the change in price of the commodity.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) increase or decrease
(d) remain constant

238. The price elasticity of demand is higher, when the price of the commodity is-
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) constant
(d) zero

239. If 10% increase in price of good ‘X’ causes a 10% increase in expenditure on good ‘X’, elasticity of demand is equal to ____
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) zero

240. Price of the commodity increases from ₹ 10 to ₹ 12 per unit and expenditure on the commodity increases by 20%, elasticity of demand would be-
(a) 3
(b) zero
(c) 2
(d) 1

241. The income elasticity of demand in case of an inferior good is-
(a) positive
(b) zero
(c) negative
(d) infinite

242. If a good is a luxury, its income elasticity of demand is-
(a) positive & less than one
(b) negative but greater than one
(c) positive and greater than one
(d) zero

243. When a given change in income does not lead to any change in the quantity demanded, it is called as-
(a) negative income elasticity of demand
(b) income elasticity of demand less than one
(c) zero income elasticity of demand
(d) income elasticity of demand is greater than one

244. The goods having zero income elasticity of demand are called goods.
(a) luxury
(b) comfort
(c) necessity
(d) neutral

245. Salt, Match Box, etc. are ____ goods as Σy = 0
(a) neutral
(b) necessary
(c) luxury
(d) none of the above

246. As income rises, the consumer will go in for superior goods and as a result the demand for inferior goods will fall. This implies-
(a) income elasticity of demand less than one
(b) negative income elasticity of demand
(c) zero income elasticity of demand
(d) unitary income elasticity of demand

247. Firms that supply products with higher income elasticity of demand can expect ____ as the economy grows.
(a) rise in sales
(b) fall in sales
(c) constant sales
(d) first rise then

248. Firms that supply products with relatively low income elasticity of demand experience in an economic downturn.
(a) rise in sales
(b) fall in sales
(c) stable sales
(d) none of the above

249. Which one of the following is income inelastic product/service?
(a) Air travel
(b) Visit to water park
(c) Life Saving Drugs
(d) Dinner at a five star hotel

250. The responsiveness of demand of a commodity to the change in income is known as-
(a) price elasticity of
(b) income elasticity demand of demand
(c) cross-elasticity
(d) none of the above of demand

251. The responsiveness of the change in quantity demanded of one commodity due to a change in the price of another commodity is known as-
(a) price elasticity of demand
(b) income elasticity of demand
(c) cross elasticity of demand
(d) none of the above

252. Cross elasticity of demand between two perfect substitutes will be-
(a) low
(b) very high
(c) infinity
(d) very low

253. Complementary goods like tea and sugar have a ____ cross elasticity of demand.
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite

Consider the following information to answer Q. Nos. 254 to 256
The following elasticities relating to demand for CORN are given-

• Price Elasticity E_P = 1.50
• Cross Elasticity between the demand for CORN and price of WHEAT = 0.75
• Income Elasticity, E_y = 0.50

254. If the price of corn rises, other things being the same, the consumers will spend ____ on corn.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same amount
(d) none of the above

255. The above information shows that wheat and corn are ____
(a) neutral goods
(b) necessity
(c) complementary goods
(d) substitute goods

256. If income rises, the share of income spent on corn will-
(a) remain same
(b) increase
(c) fall
(d) none of the above

257. Given – Q_x = 500 – 4 P_x
Find elasticity demand when price = ₹ 25
(a) .50
(b) .25
(c) 1
(d) .75

258. Give – Q_x = 20 – 2 P_x, what is the price elasticity of demand when price is ₹ 5?
(a) 0.50
(b) .25
(c) 1
(d) .75

259. If the amounts of two goods purchased increase or decrease simultaneously when the price of one changes, then the cross elasticity of demand between then is-
(a) one
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) zero

260. Of the following commodities, which has the lowest elasticity of demand?
(a) Car
(b) Tea
(c) Houses
(d) Salt

261. Suppose your income increases by 20% and demand for a commodity increases by 10%, then the income elasticity of demand is-
(a) infinity
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) positive

262. Which of the following does not have uniform elasticity of demand at all points?
(a) A downward sloping demand curve
(b) A vertical demand curve
(c) A rectangular hyperbola demand curve
(d) A horizontal demand curve

263. A negative income elasticity of demand for a commodity indicates that as income falls the amount of commodity purchased-
(a) remains unchanged
(b) falls
(c) rises
(d) none of these

264. In which case the elasticity shown by different points of a curve is the same?
(a) A rectangular hyperbola curve
(b) A straight line curve
(c) A downward sloping curve
(d) None of these

265. “The proportional change in quantity purchased divided by the proportional change in price”. The quotation is given by-
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Cobb – Douglas
(c) Joan Robionson
(d) Adam Smith

266. If the quantity demanded of a commodity is plotted against the price of a substitute goods, the curve is expected to be-
(a) Vertical
(b) Positively sloped
(c) Horizontal
(d) Negatively sloped

267. Cross elasticity of demand between petrol and automobiles is-
(a) infinite
(b) high
(c) zero
(d) low

268. There are two goods ‘X’ and ‘Y’. The cross elas¬ticity of demand for ‘X’ with respect to price of ‘Y’ is greater than zero, they are-
(a) complementary to each other
(b) complementary goods
(c) substitutes
(d) close substitutes

269. If two demand curves are shooting downward from the same point, then-
(a) flatter curve have greater elasticity of demand
(b) steeper curve have greater elasticity of demand
(c) both curves show same elasticity of demand since they shoot down from the same point
(d) none of the above

270. If income elasticity for the household for good A is 2, then the good is-
(a) necessity item
(b) inferior good
(c) luxury item
(d) neutral good
Consider the following figure to answer Q. Nos. 271 to 273

271. In the figure above elasticity of demand at point ‘D’ is-
(a) < elasticity of demand at point ‘C’
(b) > elasticity of demand at point ‘C’
(c) = elasticity of demand at point ‘C’
(d) None of the above

272. Price at point ‘B’ price is ____ and therefore elasticity of demand is ____
(a) high ; high
(b) low; low
(c) zero ; zero
(d) zero ; high/low

273. The elasticity of demand at point ‘A’ is-
(a) low
(b) infinite
(c) high
(d) zero
Consider the following figure to answer Q. Nos. 274 to 276

274. In the figure above, for a given fall in price to P₁ the change in quantity is highest in case of-
(a) d₁
(b) d₂
(c) d₃
(d) None of the above as all curves shoot from same point

275. Demand curve d₂ is-
(a) more elastic than d₁
(b) less elastic than d₁
(c) more elastic than d₂
(d) none of the above

276. Of the three demand curves highest elasticity is denoted by-
(a) d₁
(b) d₂
(c) d₃
(d) all show same elasticity

277. If the quantity demanded of a commodity is plotted against the price of a complementary good, the demand curve will be-
(a) Negatively sloped
(b) Positively sloped
(c) Vertical
(d) Horizontal

278. Income of a household rises by 10% and its demand for jawar falls by 4%. In this case jawar is ____ good.
(a) Normal
(b) Luxurious
(c) Inferior
(d) Neutral

279. If Cross Elasticity of Demand is equal to Zero, it means that the goods are-
(a) Perfect Substitute goods
(b) Complementary goods
(c) Unrelated goods
(d) Substitutes

280. If the quantity demanded of Tea rises by 5% when the price of Coffee increase by 20%, the Cross Elasticity of demand between Tea and Coffee is-
(a) – 0.25
(b) 0.25
(c) – 4
(d) 4

Theory of Consumer Behaviour

281. Want satisfying power of a commodity is called-
(a) consumption
(b) utility
(c) production
(d) value addition

282. Utility depends on the ____ of a want.
(a) intensity
(b) quality
(c) novelty
(d) uniformity

283. All but one are the commodities that have both utility and usefulness except-
(a) pencil
(b) notebook
(c) tobacco
(d) clothes

284. Utility is-
(a) a subjective and relative concept
(b) morally or ethically colourless
(c) different from pleasure
(d) all the above

285. Utility may be defined as-
(a) power of a commodity to satisfy wants
(b) usefulness of a commodity
(c) desire for a commodity
(d) none of the above

286. The utility of a commodity is ____
(a) its accepted social value
(b) the extent to which it is of practical use
(c) the fact that it is wanted by some people
(d) its relative scarcity

287. Utility is measured in terms of-
(a) Grams
(b) Seconds
(c) Centimeter
(d) Utils

288. Utility is-
(a) usefulness
(b) moral implications
(c) legal implications
(d) none of the above

289. The cardinal approach postulates that utility can be ____
(a) compared
(b) measured
(c) ranked
(d) all the above

290. Cardinal Utility Theory is associated with-
(a) W.S. Jevons
(b) Dr. A. Marshall
(c) H.H. Gossen and Walras
(d) All the above

291. Cardinal Utility approach is also known as-
(a) Indifference Curve Analysis
(b) Hicks and Allen Approach
(c) Marginal Utility Analysis
(d) All the above

292. Marginal Utility Approach is also called-
(a) Ordinal Utility Analysis
(b) Hicks and Allen Approach
(c) Cardinal Utility Analysis
(d) All the above

293. According to marginal utility analysis, utility can be measured as-
(a) 1^st, 2^nd, 3^rd ……
(b) 1,2,3, ……
(c) Nominal numbers
(d) All the above

294. Cardinal measure of utility is required in-
(a) Marginal Utility Theory
(b) Indifference Curve Theory
(c) Revealed Preference Theory
(d) None of the above

295. Which of the following approaches uses MONEY as a measuring rod of utility-
(a) Ordinal
(b) Cardinal
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’

296. Which of the theories is applicable under Cardinal Approach to Utility?
(a) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
(b) Law of Equi-Marginal Utility
(c) Consumer Surplus Theory
(d) All the above

297. All but one are the assumptions of the Cardinal Utility Theory. Which one is not the assumption?
(a) Rational Consumer
(b) Constant Marginal Utility of money
(c) Perfectly Competitive Market
(d) Independent Utilities

298. Which of the following assumptions ignores the presence of complementary and substitute goods in Cardinal Utility Theory?
(a) Rational Consumer
(b) Constant Marginal Utility of money
(c) Independent Utilities
(d) None of the above

299. The price that a consumer is ready to pay for a commodity represents the utility he is expecting from the commodity means-
(a) Utility is measurable
(b) Utility is not measurable
(c) Money is the measuring rod of utility
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’

300. Consumer makes all calculations carefully and then purchase the commodities in order to maximize his utility means consumer is-
(a) careless
(b) rational
(c) irrational
(d) unpredictable

301. Which of the following statements regarding ordinal utility is true?
(a) Utility can be measured, but cannot be ranked in order of preferences
(b) Utility can be measured only
(c) Utility can neither be measured nor be ranked in order or preferences
(d) Utility cannot be measured, but can be ranked in order of preferences

302. The cardinal approach to utility assumes marginal utility of money is-
(a) Zero
(b) Constant
(c) Increasing Trend
(d) Decreasing Trend

303. ____ is the sum total of the utility derived from additional units of a commodity
(a) Average utility
(b) Marginal utility
(c) Total utility
(d) Ordinal utility

304. _____ is the addition made to the total utility by the consumption of additional unit of a commodity
(a) Marginal Utility
(b) Total Utility
(c) Average Utility
(d) Ordinal Utility

305. Marginal Utility can be stated by-
(a)

(b) Additional utility derived from additional unit of a commodity
(c) TU_n – TU_n-1
(d) All the above

306. Utility of a good can be termed as the ____
(a) Monetary value a consumer gains from consuming a particular good
(b) The difference between what a consumer is willing to pay and actually pays
(c) The satisfaction a consumer derives from the consumption of a particular good
(d) The desire to consume a good

307. Marginal Utility-
(a) is always positive
(b) is always negative
(c) can be positive or negative but not zero
(d) can be positive or negative or zero

308. Total Utility can be calculated as-
(a) TU = Σ MU
(b) TU = MU₁ + MU₂ + MU₃ + MU_n
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) none of the above

309. When only ONE unit of the commodity is consumed-
(a) MU = TU
(b) MU > TU
(c) MU < TU
(d) none of these

310. When marginal utility is negative, total utility is-
(a) zero
(b) diminishing
(c) maximum
(d) minimum

311. When total utility is maximum, marginal utility becomes-
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) positive
(d) negative

312. Total Utility is ____ when marginal utility is positive
(a) maximum
(b) diminishing
(c) increasing
(d) minimum

313. When TU is increasing at a diminishing rate, MU must be-
(a) increasing
(b) decreasing
(c) constant
(d) negative

314. MU of a particular commodity at the point of saturation is-
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) greater than unity
(d) less than unity

315. Which of the following equation is incorrect?

316. The rate of which TU changes is indicated by-
(a) MU
(b) TU
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) none of these

317. With the increase in consumption by ONE unit of the commodity, TU increases from 120 to 150, then marginal utility is-
(a) 50
(b) 1.25
(c) 0.88
(d) 30

318. The shape of MU curve is-
(a) upward sloping
(b) Concave to origin
(c) downward sloping
(d) straight line

319. TU starts diminishing when-
(a) MU is positive
(b) MU is increasing
(c) MU is negative
(d) MU is constant

320. TU curve-
(a) always rises
(b) always falls
(c) first falls and then rises
(d) first rises at a diminishing rate, reaches maximum point and then falls

321. MU curve will be below X-axis when-
(a) MU is positive
(b) MU is negative
(c) MU is zero
(d) MU is constant

322. What is called the point of satiety?
(a) The point where MU >0
(b) The point where MU < 0
(c) The point where MU = 0
(d) None of these

323. ____ states that marginal utility of a good diminishes as the consumer consumers additional units of a good.
(a) The Law of Equi-Marginal Utility
(b) The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
(c) Revealed Preference theory
(d) None of the above

324. MU curve of a consumer is also his ____
(a) indifference curve
(b) total utility curve
(c) supply curve
(d) demand curve

325. ____ curve is the slope of the TU curve.
(a) MU Curve
(b) Average Utility Curve
(b) Supply Curve
(d) Indifference Curve

326. At saturation point the slope of total utility curve is ____
(a) rising
(b) falling
(c) zero
(d) none of these

327. Constant Marginal Utility of Money means ___
(a) quantity
(b) importance
(c) composition
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’

328. A curve which first move upwards then down wards is naturally ____
(a) Marginal Utility Curve
(b) Average Utility Curve
(c) Total Utility Curve
(d) Demand Curve

329. The peradox of value means that-
(a) people are irrational in consumption choices
(b) the total utilities yielded by commodities do not necessarily have relationship to their prices
(c) value has no relationship to utility schedule
(d) free goods are goods that are essential to life

330. The value paradox (diamond and water paradox) arises because-
(a) Water has too low price
(b) Value in use differs from utility
(c) Diamonds are too high priced
(d) Value-in-use differs from value-in-exchange

331. In ONE COMMODITY, case, the consumer is at equilibrium when-

332. The second samosa consumed gives lesser satisfaction to Mohan. This is a case of-
(a) Law of Demand
(b) Law of Diminishing Returns
(c) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
(d) Law of Supply

333. Marginal Utility of a commodity depends on its quantity and is –
(a) inversely proportional to its quantity
(b) not proportional to its quantity
(c) independent of its quantity
(d) none of the above

334. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility?
(a) Homogenity
(b) Continuity
(c) Standard Unit
(d) None of the above

335. MU of one commodity has no relation with MU of another commodity implies-
(a) assumption of uniform quality
(b) assumption of rational consumer
(c) assumption of independent utilities
(d) assumption of reasonable quantity

336. Consumer in consumption of single commodity ‘X’ will be at equilibrium when-
(a) MUx = Px
(b) Mux >Px
(c) Mux < Px
(d) all the above

337. if Mux >Px then consumer-
(a) is not at equilibrium
(b) he will buy more of X good
(c) he will buy less of X good
(d) both ‘a’ and ‘b’

338. Suppose the price of good X is given as ₹ 8 and the MU in terms of money for 4 units is given as-

How many units should a consumer purchase to maximize satisfaction?
(a) 4 units
(b) 3 units
(c) 2 units
(d) 1 unit

339. Following is the utility schedule of a person-

If the commodity is sold for ₹ 4 and MU of one rupee is 5 utils, how many units will the consumer buy to maximize satisfaction?
(a) 1 unit
(b) 2 units
(c) 3 units
(d) 4 units

340. Suppose that an ice-cream is sold for ₹ 30. Ritu has already eaten 3 ice-creams. Her MU from eating the 3rd ice-cream is 90 utils. MU of ₹ 1 is 3 utils. Should she eat more ice-creams or stop?
(a) Stop eating more ice-creams
(b) Continue eating more ice-creams
(c) Stop after eating one more ice-cream
(d) Eat 2 more ice-creams

341. If one burger give you satisfaction of 15 utils and two burgers give total satisfaction of 25 utils, then the marginal utility of second burger is-
(a) 10 utils
(b) 11 utils
(c) 12 utils
(d) 13 utils

342. ____ refers to a situation when a consumer maximizes his satisfaction with his limited income.
(a) Producer’s Equilibrium
(b) General Equilibrium
(c) Consumer’s Equilibrium
(d) None of these

343. The general condition of consumer’s equilibrium with respect to any particular product is-

344. The consumer is in equilibrium and is consuming good-X only. The MU from last unit of good X consumed is 50 utils and Mu_m =10. What is the price of good X?
(a) ₹ 5
(b) ₹ 40
(c) ₹ 10
(d) ₹ 4

345. The principal limitation of utility analysis re¬lates to the basic assumption that utility can be expressed in terms of-
(a) cardinal numbers
(b) ordinal numbers
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) none of these

346. Marginal Utility theory is based on ____ from a good.
(a) actual satisfaction
(b) anticipated satisfaction
(c) realised satisfaction
(d) none of these

347. Which one of the following is the ODD one?
(a) Law of Substitution
(b) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
(c) Indifference curve analysis
(d) Law of Variable Proportions

348. Which statement is correct in connection with utility?
1. It is same for all consumer
2. It is a subjective concept
3. It is different for all its consumers
4. It’s a want satisfying power
5. It decreases uniformly for all its consumers
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3 and 5 only

349. The excess of the price which a person would be willing to pay rather than go without the thing over that he actually does pay is called-
(a) extra satisfaction
(b) surplus satisfaction
(c) consumer’s surplus
(d) all the above

350. The doctrine of consumer’s surplus is based on ____
(a) Elasticity of Demand
(b) Indifference Curve Analysis
(c) Law of Substitution
(d) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

351. The term optimum allocation of consumer’s expenditure on different goods and services is used in-
(a) Law of Demand
(b) Giffens Paradox
(c) Law of Equi-Marginal Utility
(d) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

352. Buyer’s surplus is highest in the case of _____
(a) Luxuries
(b) Comforts
(c) Necessaries
(d) All the above
For Q – Nos. 353 to 355, refer the following figure :

353. In the above figure, the total utility is represented by the area ____
(a) DPR
(b) OQRP
(e) OQRD
(d) none of these

354. In the above figure, the given price is _____ and the consumer for OQ amount of commodity spends a total amount of money equal to the area _____
(a) OP ; POOR
(b) OD ; POOR
(c) OP ; DPR
(d) OD ; DPR

355. In the above figure, the consumer’s surplus is shown by the area-
(a) POOR
(b) DPR
(c) OQRD
(d) none of these
For Q. Nos. 356 and 359 refer the following figure

356. In the above diagram, the consumer’s surplus at the price of P₁ is equal to the area-
(a) P₁CA
(b) P₁OQ₁
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) none of these

357. In the above diagram when price of the commodity decreases from P₁ to P₂, the gain in consumer’s surplus is equal to ____
(a) AP₃C
(b) AP₂D
(c) P₁P₂DC
(d) AP₃B

358. In the above diagram, when price of the commodity rises from P1 to P3, the loss in consumer’s surplus is equal to ___
(a) AP3B
(b) AP1C
(c) AP2D
(d) P1P3 BC

359. The consumer’s surplus at the price P₁ is ____ than the consumer’s surplus at the price of P₃ but ____ at the price of P₂.
(a) greater; less
(b) less ; greater
(c) same at all the prices
(d) none of these

360. The area of consumer’s surplus is correctly shaded in ____

361. The concept of consumer’s surplus is useful in ____
(a) Distinguishing between value-in-use and value-in-exchange
(b) Comparing the advantages of different places
(c) Useful in cost benefit analysis of projects
(d) All the above

362. Amit divides his income entirely between Good X and Good Y. He allocates his income between these two goods is such a way that he maximizes his satisfaction. His MU from extra unit of Y is 4 Utils and the price of Y is ₹ 40. If the price of X is ₹ 80, how much of X good he consumes per day?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10

363. A free good is plentiful so as to have no price, will be used upto the point where its marginal utility is ____
(a) zero
(b) highest
(c) lowest
(d) none of these

364. The more rapidly the marginal utility of additional units of a good falls, the will be the elasticity of demand.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) zero
(d) infinite

365. According to utility theory, for a consumer who is maximizing total utility, Mu_a / Mu_b

366. In which of the following fields the concept of consumer’s surplus is useful?
(a) Monetary policy
(b) Tax policy
(c) Investment policy
(d) Fixing remuneration on factors

367. An example of a commodity having consumers surplus is ____
(a) Salt
(b) Branded Shirt
(c) Machinery
(d) Pen

368. Consumer’s surplus means-
(a) difference between market price and individual price
(b) difference between actual and potential price
(c) low price is prevailing
(d) happiness of the consumer

369. Consumer’s surplus is measured with the help of ____
(a) market demand curve
(b) marginal productivity curve
(c) marginal utility curve
(d) none of these

Consider the following details to answer Q. Nos. 370 to 372
Given Px = ₹ 2 and Py = ₹ 1 and income = ₹ 12.
Also given is the utility schedule of good X & Y.

370. How many units of X and Y the consumer will buy in order to maximize utility?
(a) 2 units of X & 6 units of Y
(b) 3 units of X & 5 units of Y
(c) 4 units of X & 4 units of Y
(d) 3 units of X & 6 units of Y

371. What will be the total utility received by the Consumer from the two commoddities
(a) 90
(b) 92
(c) 93
(d) 95

372. How much of total income will the consumer spend on good X and good Y?
(a) ₹ 3 & ₹ 6
(b) ₹ 6 & ₹ 6
(c) ₹ 6 & ₹ 3
(d) ₹ 3 & ₹ 3

373. When the price of both the commodities is same, the consumer attains maximum satisfaction where

374. A consumer will purchase more of Good-x than Good-Y, only when :

375. A locus of constant utility is called the ____
(a) expansion path
(b) utility function
(c) indifference curve
(d) demand function

376. An indifference curve is ____
(a) downward sloping and convex to origin
(b) downward sloping and concave to origin
(c) upward sloping and convex to origin
(d) vertical and parallel to y-axis

377. The slope of indifference curve show-
(a) marginal rate of substitution
(b) level of satisfaction to the consumer
(c) elasticity of indifference curve
(d) none of the above

378. At a point near the right hand below corner of a indifference curve, the MRS of commodity ‘X’ for commodity ‘Y’ is-
(a) very high
(b) very low
(c) zero
(d) neither high nor low

379. As one moves upward towards left along an indifference curve, the MRS of commodity ‘X’ for commodity ‘Y’-
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) is constant
(d) fluctuates

380. A higher IC denotes-
(a) a higher level of satisfaction
(b) a lower level of satisfaction
(c) same level of satisfaction
(d) none of the above

381. Which of the following is not a characteristics of the indifference curve-
(a) downward sloping to the right
(b) convex to the origin
(c) intersecting at one point
(d) none of the above

382. IC theory assumes that-
(a) buyers can measure satisfaction
(b) buyers can identify preferred combinations of goods
(c) the prices of the goods are equal
(d) none of the above

383. An IC shows all combinations of two commodities which-
(a) give the same level of satisfaction to the consumer
(b) represent the highest level of satisfaction to the consumer
(c) give the different level of satisfaction to the consumer
(d) none of the above

384. The slope of IC tends to diminish as we move down the curve means-
(a) MRS is constant
(b) MRS is increasing
(c) MRS is decreasing
(d) none of the above

385. Marginal rate of substitution of ‘X’ for ‘Y’ is calculated as-

386. In an indifference map, higher IC indicates :
(a) lower level of satisfaction
(b) same level of satisfaction
(c) higher level of satisfaction
(d) either same or higher level of satisfaction

387. MRS is determined by-
(a) satisfaction level of the consumer
(b) income of the consumer
(c) tastes of the consumer
(d) preferences of the consumer

388. A set of ICs drawn in a graph is called-
(a) indifference curve
(b) indifference map
(c) budget line
(d) budget set

389. An IC is convex to origin because of-
(a) diminishing marginal utility
(b) diminishing marginal productivity
(c) diminishing marginal cost
(d) diminishing marginal rate of substitution

390. Marginal Rate of Substitution indicates the slope of-
(a) budget line
(b) indifference curve
(c) total utility curve
(d) demand curve

391. The slope of IC is different at different points of the curve
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) ∴ slope of IC is measured by MRS which falls
(d) Both ‘a’ & ‘c’

392. Only one IC will pass through a given point on an indifference map implies that-
(a) One combination can lie only on one IC
(b) One combination can lie on two ICs.
(c) One combination can lie on as many ICs.
(d) none of the above

393. Considering the map, the satisfaction derived from the combination is _____

(а) A > B, B > C but A > C
(b) A>B>C
(c) A < B > C
(d) C > B > A

394. A consumer may not be in equilibrium at point C or D because _____

(a) MRS_xy = Px / Py
(b) The whole income is not spent
(c) Point E gives higher level of Satisfaction with the same expenditure as on point C and D
(d) Of sufficiency of income

395. On an indifference curve, the MRS falls when-
(a) moving upwards
(b) moving downwards
(c) at the middle
(d) none of these

396. Should a consumer move upward along an IC, his total utility-
(a) First increases and then decreases
(b) First decreases and then increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Increases

397. Which of the following is not an assumption of ordinal utility analysis?
(a) Consumers are consistent in their preference
(b) Consumers can measure the total utility
(c) Consumers are non-satiated with respect of two goods
(d) None of the above

398. All points on the same IC represent-
(a) Equal satisfaction
(b) Higher satisfaction
(c) Lower satisfaction
(d) All the above

399. IC approach deals with-
(a) One commodity only
(b) Two commodities
(c) Many commodities
(d) No commodities at all

400. If two goods were perfect substitutes of each other, the IC will be-
(a) Curvilinear
(b) linear
(c) right angled
(d) convex to origin

401. A downward sloping linear IC indicates that the rate of MRSxy is-
(a) diminishing
(b) increasing
(c) constant
(d) zero

402. In the case of two perfect substitute goods, the IC will be-
(a) L – shaped
(b) U – shaped
(c) S – shaped
(d) Straight line

403. If a consumer has monotonic preferences, which bundle will he choose?
(a) (10,8)
(b) (8,6)
(c) (10,7)
(d) (8,8)

404. If a consumer has monotonic preferences how would he rank his preference over the bundles (10,9); (9,9) (10,10)-
(a) (10,9) (10,10) ; (9,9)
(b) (10,10) (10,9) ; (9,9)
(c) (9,9) (10,10) ; (10,9)
(d) None of the above

405. When an IC is L shaped, then two goods will be-
(a) Perfect Substitute Goods
(b) Perfect Substitute
(c) Perfect Complementary Goods
(d) Complementary Goods

406. The Other name associated with ordinal approach apart from R.G.D. Allen and J.R. Hicks is-
(a) Edgeworth
(b) Vilfredo Pareto
(c) Slutsky
(d) All the above

407. _____ depicts complete scale of consumer’s tastes and preferences.
(a) Budget Line
(b) MU curve
(c) Indifference curve map
(d) One indifference curve

408. One combination can lie only on one IC means-
(a) Only one IC will pass through the point
(b) Two ICs will pass through the point
(c) As many ICs can pass through the point
(d) None of the above

409. When the quantity of one good is increased in the combination, the quantity of other is reduced to maintain same level of satisfaction. This means that IC is ____
(a) positively sloped
(b) vertical straight line
(c) horizontal straight line
(d) negatively sloped

410. When the combinations on a IC do not represent same level of satisfaction, it means IC is _____
(a) positively sloped
(b) horizontal straight line
(c) vertical straight line
(d) all the above

411. is a graphical representation of all possible combination of two goods which can be purchased given income and prices.
(a) Budget Line
(b) Price Opportunity Line
(c) Consumption Possibility Line
(d) All the above

412. If a combination is below the Budget Line, it indicates that there is-
(a) Underspending by a consumer
(b) Overspending by a consumer
(c) Full spending by a consumer
(d) None of the above

413. All combinations that lie on the budget line are _____
(a) unaffordable by consumer
(b) affordable by consumer
(c) attainable by consumer
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

414. Each point on the budget line shows-
(a) the ratio of change in MU
(b) the ratio of prices of two goods
(c) Marginal Rate of Substitution .
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

415. A shift of the budget line, when prices are constant, is due to-
(a) change in demand
(b) change in income
(c) change in preference
(d) change in utility

416. Slope of budget line is indicated by-

417. The budget line of a consumer in the analysis of IC is-
(a) Vertical straight line
(b) Horizontal straight line
(c) Straight line sloping down towards right
(d) Straight line sloping upwards towards right

418. The budget line is not known as-
(a) consumption possibility curve
(b) price line
(c) price opportunity line
(d) isoutility line

419. Refer the following figure-

Figure denotes-
(a) Change in income
(b) Change in price of Good-X
(c) Change in price of Good-Y
(d) Change in the prices of both Good X & Y

420. When the prices of both Good-X and Good-Y change by same percentage, a rise in price will-
(a) shift the budget line upwards
(b) shift the budget line downwards
(c) no shift in budget line
(d) all the above

421. If the budget line does not shift it means-
(a) prices of both goods X & Y has changed by same percentage
(b) there is no change in the prices of both goods X & Y
(c) money income of consumer has changed
(d) income of the consumer and prices of both goods X & Y change by same percentage

422. If price of Goods-X falls and price of Good-Y rises then budget line will-
(a) shift upward
(b) shift downward
(c) rotate
(d) remain same

423. Refer the following figure, what change budget line shows –

(a) Px fails and Py rises
(b) Px rise and Pv falls
(c) Px=Py
(d) none of the above

Refer the following to answer question nos. 424 to 426
A consumer wants to buy two good X and Y. The prices of the two goods are ₹ 4 and ₹ 5 respectively. The consumers income is ₹ 20.

424. If the consumer spends the entire money income to buy only Good-X, how much quantity he can buy of it?
(a) 5 units
(b) 6 units
(c) 4 units
(d) 3 units

425. If the consumer spends the full income only to buy Good-Y, how much quantity he would be able to buy of it-
(a) 5 units
(b) 6 units
(c) 4 units
(d) 3 units

426. The slope of the budget line is-
(a) 0.9
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.7
(d) 0.5

427. A consumer can buy 6 units Good-X and 8 units of Good-Y if he spends his entire income. The prices of the two goods are ₹ 6 and ₹ 8 respectively. What is the consumer’s income.
(a) ₹ 100
(b) ₹ 150
(c) ₹ 200
(d) ₹ 250

428. Ravi consumes Apples and Bananas whose price are ₹ 6 and ₹ 3 p.u. respectively. If he is in the state of equilibrium, the value of marginal rate of substitution is-
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

429. A budget constraint line is a result of
(a) market price of good X
(b) market price of good Y
(c) income of the consumer
(d) all the above

430. The budget line equation is-

431. The consumer will maximize his satisfaction and will be at equilibrium where-
(a) budget line is tangent to IC
(b) price line crosses on IC
(c) price line does not touch the IC
(d) none of the above

432. How many indifference curves can touch the price line-
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) As many as possible
(d) No IC will touch

433. MRSxy = p_x / p_y where-
(a) consumer is in equilibrium
(b) consumer is not at equilibrium
(c) producer is at equilibrium
(d) none of the above

434. The point where the budget line is tangent to an IC-
(a) equal amounts of goods give equal satisfaction
(b) the ratio of prices of the two goods equals MRS
(c) the prices of the goods are equal
(d) none of the above

435. Maximisation of total utility is an assumption of a consumer in an analysis that is-
(a) Indifference curve approach
(b) Demand analysis
(c) Utility analysis
(d) All the above

436. A consumer is in equilibrium at the point of tangency of his IC and the price line, because-
(a) He cannot go below
(b) He cannot go beyond
(c) He cannot go along
(d) None of the above

437. Which of the following conditions is necessary for utility to be maximum?

Consider the following figure and answer question Nos. 438 and 439

438. The consumer is not at equilibrium at point C, since-
(a) MRSxy > Px / Py
(b) MRSxy = Px / Py
(c) MRSxy < Px / Py (d) None of the above

439. The consumer is at equilibrium at point E, since-
(a) MRSxy > Px / Py
(b) MRSxy = Px / Py
(c) MRSxy < Px / Py
(d) MUx = MUy

440. In a situation where MRSxy > p_x / p_y , the consumer would react by-
(a) reducing the consumption of Good – X
(b) increasing the consumption of Good – Y
(c) increasing the consumption of Good – X
(d) none of these

441. When MRSxy < p_x / p_y , in order to reach equilibrium, the consumption of-
(a) Good-Y should increase
(b) Good-X should increase
(c) Good-Y should decrease
(d) None of these

442. The situation of a consumer is better when-
(a) MRSxy >Px / Py
(b) MRSxy < Px / Py
(c) MRSxy = Px / Py
(d) none of these

Read the following to answer question Nos. 443 and 444
A consumer wants to buy two goods X and Y. He has ₹ 24 to spend. The prices of two goods X and Y are ₹ 4 and ₹ 2 respectively.

443. Which of the following bundles a consumer would be able to buy-
(a) 4X and 5Y
(b) 2X and 7Y
(c) 3Xand6Y
(d) None of the above

444. What will be the MRSxy when the consumer is at equilibrium-
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 2:2

445. At the point of equilibrium on Indifference Curve-
(a) Slope of budget line = slope of IC
(b) Slope of budget line > slope of IC
(c) Slope of budget line < slope of IC
(d) None of the above

446. In case of IC approach, an income effect means-
(a) a movement towards X-axis
(b) a movement towards the right
(c) a movement towards another indifference curve
(d) a movement along the indifference curve

447. In the case of substitution effect in IC approach, the consumer moves-
(a) along the same IC from left to right
(b) up and down along the same IC
(c) from a point on IC to a point on budget line
(d) none of these

448. IC is downward sloping from left to right since more X and less Y gives-
(a) less satisfaction
(b) more satisfaction
(c) equal satisfaction
(d) maximum satisfaction

Supply

449. In economics, supply means-
(a) quantity of a commodity which is actually offered for sale at a given price in a given period of time
(b) quantity of a commodity which is offered for sale at a particular price
(c) stock of commodity which is sold at a give price
(d) none of the above

450. Which of the following is not true in case of supply?
(a) Supply is a flow concept
(b) Supply is a stock concept
(c) Supply is directly related to price
(d) Market supply is horizontal summation of the individual supply curves

451. When price rises, quantity supplied-
(a) expand
(b) falls
(c) increases
(d) is unchanged

452. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Supply does not depends on Govts, tax policy
(b) Stock is the quantity brought to market for sale
(c) There is difference between stock and supply
(d) Stock and supply are always equal

453. The supply of good refers to-
(a) actual production of a good
(b) total stock of the good
(c) stock available for sale
(d) amount of the good offered for sale at a particular price per unit of time

454. According to law of Supply-
(a) there is positive relation between supply and price
(b) there is negative relation between supply and price
(c) there is constant relation between supply and price
(d) there is no relation between supply and price

455. ______ shows the quantity of goods a producer or seller wishes to sell at a given price level
(a) Average Product Curve
(b) Marginal Product Curve
(c) Supply Curve
(d) Total Product Curve

456. The supply curve slopes-
(a) Slopes downward from left to right
(b) Slopes upwards from left to right
(c) Slopes upward from right to left
(d) None of the above

457. Graphical presentation of supply curve of an individual firm in the market is called-
(a) producer’s demand curve
(b) consumers demand curve
(c) individual supply curve
(d) market supply curve

458. When the state of technology improves, supply
(a) fall
(b) contract
(c) increase
(d) expand

459. When government imposes taxes, supply will
(a) expand
(b) increase
(c) contract
(d) decrease

460. Movement along the supply curve occurs due to-
(a) rise in price of the commodity
(b) fall in price of the commodity
(c) factors other than own price of the commodity
(d) both ‘a’ and ‘b’

461. Supply curve shifts rightward due to-
(a) increase in the number of firms
(b) fall in the price of factors of production
(c) new and better technology
(d) all the above

462. Expansion of supply takes place due to-
(a) change in goal of the firm
(b) rise in price of the commodity
(c) number of firms
(d) technique of production

463. If producer expects an increase in price of goods in the near future, then current supply will:
(a) fall
(b) rise
(c) remain constant
(d) become zero

464. When more units of the good are supplied at a higher price, it is called-
(a) Contraction of supply
(b) Change in supply
(c) Extension in supply
(d) Increase in supply

465. When supply price increases in the short run, the profit of the producer-
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Decreases a bit

466. The long-run supply curve of a diminishing cost industry is-
(a) downward sloping to right
(b) upward sloping to left
(c) horizontal
(d) vertical

467. The law of supply does not apply to-
(a) agriculture goods
(b) industrial goods
(c) perishable goods
(d) both ‘a’ and ‘c’

468. When supply falls due to factors other than own price of the commodity, it means-
(a) contraction of supply
(b) decrease in supply
(c) extension of supply
(d) none of these

469. In case of contraction of supply, there is-
(a) an upward movement on supply curve
(b) shift of supply curve to the right
(c) downward movement on supply curve
(d) shift to supply curve to the left

470. In case of increase in supply, there is –
(a) an upward movement on supply curve
(b) shift of supply curve to the right
(c) downward movement on supply curve
(d) shift to supply curve to the left

471. Imposition of a unit tax, shifts the supply curve-
(a) to the right
(b) to the left
(c) to the right as well
(d) none of these as to the left

472. Due to incentives like tax holiday, subsidies which reduces the cost of production, the supply quantity will-
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain Constant
(d) Become zero

473. In case of failure of rains, floods, etc. the supply of agricultural goods will-
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant
(d) Become zero

474. The percentage change in quantity supplied due to percentage in price is called-
(a) Expansion of supply
(b) inelastic supply
(c) elasticity of supply
(d) changes in supply

475. Elasticity of supply refers to the responsiveness of quantity supplied to changes in its-
(a) Demand
(b) Price
(c) Cost of production
(d) State of technology

476. When supply curve is a vertical straight line, it indicates _____ supply
(a) unitary elastic
(b) perfectly elastic
(c) perfectly inelastic
(d) relatively elastic

477. A straight line supply curve passing through origin forming 50° indicates-
(a) E =0
(b) E_s= 1
(c) E_s > 1
(d) E_s < 1

478. Elasticity of supply for a positively sloped supply cure that starts from price axis is –
(a) zero
(b) greater than one
(c) less than one
(d) equal to one

479. In case of perfectly elastic supply the supply curve is-
(a) rising
(b) vertical
(c) falling
(d) horizontal

480. Supply is relatively elastic in-
(a) very short period
(b) short period
(c) long period
(d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’

481. When supply curve is parallel to X-axis, elasticity of supply is-
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) unity
(d) negative

482. If the co-efficient of elasticity of supply is 0.6, the supply is-
(a) perfectly inelastic
(b) inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) elastic

483. When upward sloping straight line curve shoots up from quantity axis, it implies-
(a) E_s < 1
(b) E_s > 1
(c) E_s = 1
(d) E_s = 0

484. Which of the above curves unitary elastic demand?

(a) Curve A
(b) Curve B
(c) Curve C
(d) all the above

485. Elasticity of supply for a positively sloped supply that shoots from origin
(a) E_s < 1
(b) E_s > 1
(c) E_s = 1
(d) E_s = ∞

486. The supply of perishable goods is-
(a) relatively elastic
(b) relatively inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) none of the above

487. The supply function of a commodity is given by – Q = 20 + 3 Px. If the price is ₹ 6, the quantity supplied is-
(a) 35 units
(b) 38 units
(c) 40 units
(d) 42 units

Refer the following supply function to answer 0. Nos. 488 to 490
Q_s = -10 + 2p

488. How much quantity is supplied at a price of ₹ 10?
(a) 10 units
(b) 8 units
(c) 12 units
(d) 6 units

489. At which price, the supply would be zero?
(a) ₹ 1
(b) ₹ 3
(c) ₹ 4
(d) ₹ 5

490. Calculate the price at which, the firm is willing to supply 100 units
(a) ₹ 55
(b) ₹ 50
(c) ₹ 45
(d) ₹ 40

491. When price of a commodity falls by 20%, the quantity supplied falls by 25%, the price elasticity of supply is-
(a) 0.75
(b) 1.25
(c) 1.50
(d) 1.75

492. A vegetable vendor sells 80 quintals of potatoes at a price of ₹ 4 p. kg. The elasticity of supply of potatoes is known to be 2. How much quantity will he sell at ₹ 5 p. kg.?
(a) 100 quintals
(b) 110 quintals
(c) 120 quintals
(d) 130 quintals

493. When the price of a good rises from ₹ 15pu to ₹ 19pu, its quantity supplied increases from 75 units to 95 units. The price elasticity of supply is-
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

494. Total revenue of a firm rises from ₹ 50 to ₹ 100 when the price rises from ₹ 5 pu to ₹ 10 pu. The co-efficient of E_s =
(a) 0
(b) 0.8
(c) 1
(d) 1.2

495. The price of a commodity doubles, to its response the quantity supplied increases 4 times of orig¬inal quantity supplied. The co-efficient of price elasticity of supply is-
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

496. A price of ₹ 10 p.u. the quantity supplied is 500 units. If the price falls by 10% and quantity supplied falls to 400 units, the co-efficient of price elasticity of supply is-
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

497. Market forces refer to-
(a) Demand
(b) Supply
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’

498. Supply is the-
(a) limited resources that are available with the seller
(b) cost of producing a good
(c) entire relationship between the quantity supplied and the price of good
(d) willingness to produce

499. In a very short period the supply-
(a) can be changed
(b) cannot be changed
(c) can be increased
(d) none of the above

500. If the demand is more than supply, then the pressure on price will be-
(a) upward
(b) downward
(c) constant
(d) none of the above

501. A perfectly inelastic supply curve shooting up from X-axis shows-
(a) constant supply at higher price
(b) constant supply at lower price
(c) constant supply at zero price
(d) all the above

502. What is incorrect about advertisement elasticity?
(a) It is the responsiveness of good’s demand to changes in firm’s expenditure on advertising
(b) It is also called promotional elasticity of demand
(c) Advertising elasticity of demand is typically positive
(d) all the above

503. All but one are correct about demand forecasting. Which one is not correct?
(a) Demand forecasting is the art and science of predicting probable demand of a product in future
(b) Demand forecasting is a simple guesses
(c) It considers past behaviour pattern and prevailing trends in the present
(d) Demand forecasting plays an important role in planning and decision making

504. The burden of forecasting is put on customers in _____ method of demand forecasting
(a) Survey of buyers intentions
(b) collective opinion
(c) Expert opinion
(d) Controlled experiments

505. Delphi technique was developed by-
(a) Schumpeter
(b) Nicholas Kaldor
(c) Olaf Helmer
(d) Hawtrey

506. Collective opinion method of demand forecasting is useful for _____ forecasting.
(a) short run
(b) long run
(c) secular period
(d) none of the above

507. _____ method of forecasting is useful in use of capital goods.
(a) Collective opinion
(b) Expert Opinion
(c) Barometric
(d) Survey of buyer’s intention

508. Which of the following affect the demand for non-durable consumer goods?
(a) Disposable Income
(b) Price
(c) Demography
(d) All the above

509. What would be the shape of the supply curve of T-shirts, if the seller offers to sell any number of T-shirts at ₹ 250?
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Upward sloping
(d) Downward sloping

510. All the following factors affect the demand for durable consumer goods except-
(a) special facilities for use
(b) credit facilities
(c) disposable income
(d) social status

511. ____ is considered as a ‘naive’ approach to demand forecasting.
(a) Trend Projection Method
(b) Expert Opinion Method
(c) Collective Opinion Method
(d) Regression Analysis

512. Short-term demand forecasting is useful for-
(a) current production scheduling
(b) purchases of. raw materials
(c) inventory of stocks
(d) all the above

513. A firm planning capacity expansion and diversification will go in for-
(a) Short term demand forecasting
(b) Medium term demand forecasting
(c) Long term demand forecasting
(d) Current demand forecasting

Answers

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Economics is a science because
(a) Systematised study
(b) Scientific laws
(c) Has its own methodology
(d) All the above

2. Positive statements concern what is; normative statements concern—
(a) What was
(b) What is the normal situation
(c) What will be
(d) What ought to be

3. Which of the following statements are positive statements?
(i) India is overpopulated.
(ii) Agricultural income should be taxed.
(iii) Service-class people should be exempted from income tax
(vi) There is tremendous tax evasion in India.
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) i and iv
(d) iii and iv

4. The central problems of an economy arises because of—
(a) Unlimited wants
(b) Scarce resources having alternative uses
(c) Limited wants and unlimited resources
(d) Both (a) and (b)

5. The central problems relating to allocation of resources are—
(a) What to produce?
(b) How to produce?
(c) For whom to produce?
(d) All the above.

6. The problem of ‘What to produce’ relates to—
(a) The distribution of produced goods and services
(b) The technique of production to produce good
(c) The distribution of income among factor owners
(d) None of these

7. Micro economics deals with—
(a) Inflation in the country
(b) The economic behaviour of an individual unit
(c) The per capita income
(d) The problems of poverty and unemployment in the country

8. The objective of macro-economics is to study about—
(a) Problems, principles and policies relating to full employment of available resources
(b) Problems, Principles and policies relating to optimum allocation of resources
(c) Growth of resources
(d) Both a and c

9. Micro economics covers the study of—
(i) Consumer’s behaviour
(ii) Producer’s equilibrium
(iii) Fiscal system of an economy
(iv) Factor pricing
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iv
(c) i, ii and iii (d) i, ii and iv

10. Macro-economics is also known as—
(i) Method of Lumping
(ii) Price Theory
(iii) General equilibrium analysis
(iv) Aggregative Economics
(a) i and ii only
(b) iii and iv only
(c) i, iii and iv only
(d) ii, iii and iv only

11. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Micro and Macro economics are complementary to each other
(b) Every macro-economic problem requires micro-economic analysis for its proper understanding
(c) Micro-economic behaviour can be added-up to derive macro-economic behaviour.
(d) What is macro from the national angle is micro from world angle

12. A theory may contain all but one of the following—
(a) An unorganised collection of facts about the real world!
(b) A set of definitions of the terms used.
(c) A set of assumptions
(d) One or more hypotheses

13. Positive economics deals with—
(a) What is
(b) What ought to be
(c) Both ‘a’ ‘b’
(d) None of these

14. Micro economics does not cover—
(a) Consumer behaviour
(b) Factor Pricing
(c) General price level
(d) Product Pricing

15. Find the odd—
(a) Normative economics is concerned with welfare propositions.
(b) Normative economics is prescriptive in nature.
(c) Normative economics is regulatory in nature.
(d) Economic laws are hypothetical.

16. A mixed economy to solve its central problems relies on—
(a) Economic planning
(b) Price mechanism
(c) Price fixing
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

17. In a socialist economy, the basic force of economic activity is profit. This statement is—
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) Partially correct
(d) None of these

18. The interference of the government is very limited in—
(a) Socialist economy
(b) Capitalist economy
(c) Mixed economy
(d) All the above.

19. Both private and public sectors exist side by side in—
(a) China
(b) U.S.A.
(c) India
(d) Russia

20. In a competitive economy, the uncrowned king is—
(a) Government
(b) Producer
(c) Consumer
(d) Seller

21. Wastes of competition are found in—
(a) Capitalist economy
(b) Socialist economy
(c) Mixed economy
(d) None of these

22. A dual system of pricing exists in—
(a) Capitalist economy
(b) Socialist economy
(c) Mixed economy
(d) None of these

23. One of the important features of capitalist economy is—
(a) Economic planning
(b) Price mechanism
(c) Economic equalities
(d) Social welfare

24. ‘A government deficit will reduce unemployment and cause an increase in prices.’ This statement is—
(a) Positive
(b) Normative
(c) Incomplete
(d) None of these

25. Positive economics remains strictly neutral towards ends. This means that—
(a) Positive economics study the facts as they are
(b) Positive economics is prescriptive in nature
(c) Positive economics is based on ethical, philosophical and religious beliefs
(d) Only (a) and (b)

26. “During the boom periods when aggregate demand, national income and prices are high, entrepreneurs tend to make high profits”. This statement shows—
(a) Effect of micro-economic variables on macro variables
(b) Effect of macro-economic variables on micro variables
(c) Inter-dependence of micro and macro-economics
(d) Both (b) and (c)

27. Social insurance, sickness benefits, old age pension, etc are some social benefits provided by—
(a) State in capitalist economy
(b) State in socialist economy
(c) State in mixed economy
(d) Both (b) and (c)

28. In a capitalistic economy what to produce depends on—
(a) governments is policy
(b) consumer’s preference
(c) profits of firm
(d) none of these

29. The economy in which the government allows freedom of action of all economic units is essentially—
(a) a socialist economy
(b) a mixed economy
(c) a capitalistic
(d) none of the these

30. Which of the following is not correct about capitalistic system—
(a) Too much of waste due to cut throat competition
(b) There is right of private property.
(c) Conditions are not favourable for equitable distribution of wealth.
(d) There is central planning authority.

31. Which of the following is not the feature of socialist economy ?
(a) Economic planning
(b) Social welfare
(c) Private ownership of productive resources
(d) Economic equalities

32. Micro economics is also known as—
(a) Price theory
(b) Slicing method
(c) Product theory
(d) Both (a) and (b)

33. Economics is an art as—
(a) it teaches us to do
(b) it provides practical solutions to various economic problems.
(c) it is practice of knowledge
(d) all the above

34. Study of the problem of poverty denotes that economics is—
(a) a science
(b) an art
(c) both a science and an art
(d) neither a science nor an art

35. Framing suitable policies to solve inequalities of income denotes that economics is—
(a) a science
(b) an art
(c) both a science and an art
(d) neither science nor an art

36. Study of unemployment problem and then framing suitable policies to reduce the extent of unemployment shows that economics is—
(i) Both a science and an art
(ii) Neither a science nor an art
(iii) Positive science
(iv) Normative science
(a) i and iii only
(b) ii and iv only
(c) i, iii and iv
(d) ii, iii and iv

37. _____ economics explains cause and effect relationship between economic phenomena
(a) Positive
(b) Normative
(c) Empirical
(d) Applied

38. Positive economics concerns .
(a) what should be
(b) what is
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) what ought to be

39. Normative economics is in nature
(a) modern
(b) descriptive
(c) prescriptive
(d) none of the above

Q. 40 to Q. 43 are based on the following conversation
Ram : “Rise in prices of goods have made it difficult to make two ends meet”
Shy am : “Yes, the cost of cultivation too has increased very much”.
Raghu : “Government should take steps to curb the price rise and provide relief to common man”.
Bhola : “Yes, he government should deal strictly on hoarders and black marketers”.

40. In the above conversation whose statements shows positive aspect of Economics?
(a) Ram
(b) Shyam
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Bhola

41. In the above conversation whose statements shows normative side of economics
(a) Shyam
(b) Raghu
(c) Bhola
(d) Both (b) and (c)

42. Shyam’s statement in the above conversation shows—
(a) What is
(b) What can be
(c) What ought to be
(d) What will be

43. Bhola’s statement in the above conversation shows—
(a) What is
(b) What should be the things
(c) What was
(d) None of the above

44. As compared to other economic systems, inequalities of incomes is relatively less in economic system
(a) Capitalist
(b) Socialist
(c) Mixed
(d) None of the above

45. Price-mechanism is an important feature of –
(i) Market economy
(ii) Regulated economy
(iii) Mixed economy
(iv) Capitalist economy
(a) i and ii only
(b) iii and iv only
(c) i and iii only
(d) i and iv only

46. Consumers and produces make their choices based on the market forces of demand and supply in—
(a) Socialist (Command) Economy
(b) Mixed Economy
(c) Capitalist Economy
(d) Closed Economy

47. The problem of what goods and services are produced and how much, is covered by the general term—
(a) resource allocation
(b) choice of technique of production
(c) distribution
(d) macro-economics

48. Business Economics is generally in nature.
(a) normative
(b) positive
(c) neutral
(d) descriptive

49. Capital intensive technique would be chosen in a
(a) labour surplus economy where the relative price of capital is lower
(b) capital surplus economy where the relative price of capital is lower
(c) developed economy where technology is better
(d) developing economy where technology is poor

50. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Business economics is a normative in nature
(b) Business economics is closely related with statistics
(c) Business economics only considers micro variables
(d) Business economics is also called Managerial economics

51. All of the following are within the scope of Business Economics except
(a) Capital Budgeting
(b) Risk Analysis
(c) Business Cycles
(d) Accounting Standards

52. Which of the following is considered as a disadvantage of allocating resources in a capitalist economy?
(a) Income will tend to be unevenly distributed
(b) People do not get goods of their choice
(c) Men of initiative and enterprise are not rewarded
(d) Profits will tend to be low

ANSWERS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The term business cycle refers to –
(a) fluctuations in aggregate economic activity over time.
(b) ups and down in the production of goods
(c) increasing unemployment
(d) declining savings

2. Expansion phase all but one of the following characteristics.
(a) Increase in national output
(b) Increase in consumer spending
(c) Excess production capacity of industries
(d) Expansion of bank credit

3. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of business cycle?
(a) They are recurrent
(b) They are not at regular intervals
(c) They have uniform causes
(d) All the above

4. The turning points of the business cycle are
(a) Expansion and Peak
(b) Peak and Contraction
(c) Contraction and Trough
(d) Peak and Trough

5. _____ refers to the top or the highest point of business cycle.
(a) Expansion
(b) Peak
(c) Expansion and Peak
(d) None of the above

6. Involuntary unemployment is almost zero in the _____ phase of business cycle.
(a) Expansion
(b) Contraction
(c) Trough
(d) Depression

7. The economy is said to be overheated at the _____ phase of business cycle.
(a) Expansion
(b) Peak
(c) Contraction
(d) Depression

8. Cost of living increases when business cycle is _____
(a) expanding
(b) contracting
(c) at peak
(d) at lowest point

9. There is large scale of involuntary unemployment in the _____ phase of business cycle.
(a) expansion
(b) peak
(c) contraction
(d) none of the above

10. Fall in the level of investments, fall in production, fall in employment, fall stock prices, etc. are found during _____ phase of business cycle.
(a) expansion
(b) boom
(c) peak
(d) contraction

11. All but one are the endogenous factors of business cycle
(a) War
(b) Changes in government spending
(c) Money supply
(d) Fluctuations in investments

12. _____ is the severe form of recession with lowest level of economic activity.
(a) Upswing
(b) Depression
(c) Downswing
(d) Peak

13. Fall in the interest rates is a typical feature of
(a) recovery
(b) boom
(c) depression
(d) contraction

14. During depression _____ industry suffer from excess production capacity.
(a) capital goods
(b) consumer durable goods
(c) non-durable goods
(d) both ‘a’ and ‘b’

15. The great depression of _____ caused enormous misery and human sufferings
(a) 1929 – 33
(b) 1919 – 23
(c) 1940 – 53
(d) 1950 – 63

16. The lowest level of economic activity is called _____
(a) contraction
(b) trough
(c) recovery
(d) none of the above

17. There is end of pessimism and the beginning of optimism at ______
(a) expansion
(b) peak
(c) trough
(d) depression

18. Which of the following is not the features of business cycle?
(a) Business cycle follow perfectly timed cycle
(b) Business cycle vary in intensity
(c) Business cycle vary in length
(d) Business cycle have no set pattern

19. The trough of a business cycle occur when _____ hits its lowest point.
(a) the money supply
(b) the employment level
(c) inflation in the economy
(d) aggregate economic activity

20. Industries that are most adversely affected by business cycles are the _____
(a) Durable goods and services sector
(b) Non-durable goods and services
(c) Capital goods and Non-durable goods sectors
(d) Capital goods and durable goods sectors

21. _____ indicators change before the economy itself changes.
(a) Lagging
(b) Coincident
(c) Leading
(d) concurrent

22. _____ indicators change after the economy as a whole changes.
(a) Lagging
(b) Coincident
(c) Leading
(d) Concurrent

23. Changes in stock prices, profit margins and profits, manufacturing activity, etc. are examples of _____ indicator.
(a) Leading
(b) Lagging
(c) Concurrent
(d) Coincident

24. A variable that moves later than aggregate economic activity is called _____
(a) a leading variable
(b) a coincident variable
(c) a lagging variable
(d) a cyclical variable

25. While _____ indicators forecast economic fluctuation, _____ indicators confirm the trends.
(a) lagging ; leading
(b) lagging ; coincident
(c) coincident ; leading
(d) leading ; lagging

26. A variable that occur simultaneously with the business cycle movements is _____ indicator.
(a) Leading
(b) Lagging
(c) Coincident
(d) Cyclical

27. Coincident indicators show _____
(a) the current state of business cycle
(b) the rate of change of expansion
(c) the rate of change of contraction
(d) all the above

28. At the time of Great Depression of 1930s, the global GDP fell by around _____
(a) 12%
(b) 14%
(c) 15%
(d) 10%

29. Which one of the following is not correct about business cycle?
(a) They occur simultaneously in all industries and sectors
(b) They affect not only output level but also other related variables
(c) They are international in character
(d) None of the above

30. Which of the following describes best a typical trade cycle?
(a) Economic expansions are followed by economic contractions
(b) Inflation is followed by rising income and employment
(c) Economic expansions are followed by economic growth and development
(d) Stagflation followed by rising employment

31. During upswing, the unemployment rate and output _____
(a) rises ; falls
(b) rises ; rises
(c) falls ; rises
(d) falls ; falls

32. Which of the following does not occur during expansion phase?
(a) Consumer spending increases
(b) Employment increases as demand for labour rises
(c) Business profits and business confidence increase
(d) None of the above

33. When aggregate economic activity is declining, the economy is said to be in _____
(a) contraction
(b) an expansion
(c) a trough
(d) a turning point

34. Which one of the following is not an example of coincident indicator?
(a) GDP
(b) inflation
(c) retail sales
(d) New orders for plant and machinery

35. Which one of the following is an example of lagging indicator?
(a) personal income
(b) new orders for plant and equipment
(c) the consumer price index
(d) slower deliveries

36. _____ is of the view that fluctuations in economic activities are because of fluctuations in aggregate effect demand.
(a) Keyens
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Nicholas Kaldor
(d) Joan Robinson

37. High rate of investment brings _____
(a) high level of employment
(b) increase in the aggregate demand
(c) increase in output
(d) all the above

38. If any unemployment exists during expansion phase of business cycle, it is _____ un employment.
(a) voluntary and frictional
(b) technological and structural
(c) frictional and structural
(d) structural and involuntary

39. The most probable outcome of increase in aggregate demand is _____
(a) expansion of economic activity
(b) contraction of economic activity
(c) stable economic activity
(d) volatile economic activity

40. According to _____ a trade cycles is a purely monetary phenomena
(a) Keyens
(b) Hawtrey
(c) Schumpeter
(d) Nicholas Kaldor

41. Optimistic and pessimistic mood of the business community also affects the economic activities is the view of _____
(a) Hawtrey
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Pigou
(d) Keyens

42. According to _____ trade cycles occur due to onset of innovations
(a) Hawtrey
(b) Adam Smith
(c) JM Keyens
(d) Schumpeter

43. Business cycles appear due to present fluctuations in prices affecting the output and employment in future is _____
(a) Cobweb theory by Nicholas Kaldor
(b) Ordinal theory by Allen & Hicks
(c) Cobweb theory by J.M. Keyens
(d) None of the above

44. Production of _____ goods fall during the war times.
(a) arms and ammunition
(b) non-durable and capital
(c) capital and weapons
(d) capital and consumer

45. During war times most of the productive resources are diverted for the production of
(a) capital goods
(b) consumer goods
(c) weapons and arms
(d) service

46. Economic recession is characterized by all of the following except _____
(a) Decline in investments, employment
(b) Increase in the price of inputs due to increased demand for inputs
(c) Investors confidence is shaken
(d) Demand for goods, services decline

47. Production of new and better goods and services using new technology results in _____
(a) expansion of employment
(b) increase in the incomes and profits
(c) boost to economy
(d) all the above

48. Understanding the business cycle is important for business managers because _____
(a) they affect the demand for their products
(b) they affect their profits
(c) to frame appropriate policies and forward planning
(d) all the above

49. Businesses whose fortunes are closely linked to the rate of economic growth called _____
(a) Cyclical business
(b) Capital good business
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of the above

50. If the population growth rate is higher than the economic growth rate it will result in _____
(a) higher income ; lower savings ; lower employment
(b) lower income ; lower savings ; lower investment
(c) higher investment ; lower income ; higher saving
(d) lower income ; lower savings ; higher employment

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