NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectHistory
ChapterChapter 13
Chapter NameMahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond
Number of Questions Solved9
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond

Question 1.
How did Mahatma Gandhi seek to identify with the common people ?
Solution :
Mahatma Gandhi was appreciated by the people because he dressed like them, lived like them, and spoke their languages. He tried to identify with them in the following ways :

  • Gandhiji dressed himself in simple dhoti or loin cloth.
  • He spent part of each day working on the charkha (spinning wheel) and encouraged other nationalists to do likewise.
  • His new appearance i.e., shaved head and wearing a loincloth, came to symbolise asceticism and abstinence – the qualities he had in opposition to the consumerist culture of the modem world.

Question 2.
How was Mahatma Gandhi perceived by the peasants?
Solution :
India is a country of villagers and vast number of Indians are engaged in farming. Mahatma Gandhi knew that during freedom struggle his focus was to address the issues of farmers. He dressed like farmers. His involvement in Indian politics began in Champaran when he successfully resolved the issues of farmers. He stood for farmers against excesses of the British government like high taxes and oppressive tax collections.
Apart from all the above, mystery also surrounded the personality of Mahatma Gandhi. Many believed he was endowed with supernatural powers. Stories spread that those who spoke ill of Mahatma Gandhi suffered natural calamities.
Thus, farmers perceived Mahatma Gandhi as their saviour and still many believed he was bestowed with the power to perform miracles.

Question 3.
Why did the salt laws become an important issue of struggle ?
Solution :

  1. The salt laws became an important issue of stmggle because these laws gave the state a monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt.
  2. For in every Indian household, salt was indispensable, yet people were forbidden from making salt even for domestic use, compelling them to buy from shops at a high price.
  3. The salt tax at times was even fourteen times its value.
  4. According to Gandhiji, the government not only prevented the public from manufacturing but also destroyed what nature manufactured without effort. The salt officers were posted for carrying on destruction of natural salt.
  5. Gandhiji stated that the salt monopoly was a fourfold curse :
    • It deprived the people of a valuable easy village industry,
    • It involved wanton destruction of property that nature produced in abundance,
    • Its destruction meant more national expenditure, and
    • Tax of more than 1000 per cent was exacted from a starving people.

Question 4.
Why are newspapers an important source for the study of the national i movement ?
Solution :
Newspapers, published in English as well as in the different Indian languages are important contemporary sources because they tell us about daily movements of leaders. They report on their activities and their views. Newspapers publish the views of the ordinary people in different parts of the country and the ways in which they participate in the various movements. The newspapers tell us about the objectives of the people and their expectations from their leaders. The newspapers publish all types of views which are generally different from each other. For example, a newspaper published in London gave the view point and reaction of the British public while an Indian newspaper gave the reaction of the people of India. Thus, newspapers are an important source for the study of the national movement.

Question 5.
Why was the charkha chosen as a symbol of nationalism?
Solution :
Gandhiji used to work on charkha. He made it a symbol of our freedom movement. Following are the reasons for making it the symbol of our freedom struggle.
(a) Charkha symbolised manual labour.
(b) Gandhiji wanted to attach respect to manual labour. On charkha people worked with their own hand.
(c) Charkha was a low investment product hence anyone can afford it. It was a boost to the small scale industries.
(d) Charkha as it dignified manual labour. It also promoted the culture of doing one’s own work. It would also strike at the root of caste system.
(e) Charkha was used as tool to keep British imported clothes. Thus, Charkha became a symbol of Indian nationalism.

Question 6.
How was non-cooperation a form of protest?
Solution :
Non-cooperation was a form of protest in the following ways :

  1. Indians were asked to adhere to a “renunciation of all voluntary association with the government to end colonialism”.
  2. Gandhiji had joined hands with the Khilafat Movement to restore the Caliphate, a symbol of Pan-Islamism which had been abolished. It was also hoped that Britain would impose a harsh treaty on Turkey after its defeat in World War I.

Thus, it was a protest against the British policies in India and towards Turkey. Gandhiji hoped that if non-cooperation was effectively carried out, India would win Swaraj within a year.

Question 7.
Why were the dialogues at the Round Table Conference inconclusive?
Solution :
The dialogues at the Round Table Conference were inconclusive due to the following factors :

  1. The First Conference was held in November 1930 when the Civil Disobedience Movement was being organised by the Congress. So, none of its leaders was present in the conference and without Congress participation it could not succeed.
  2. Second Round Table Conference was held in the latter part of 1931. Gandhiji represented as the sole representative of

Congress. But his representation was challenged by the Muslim League, the Princes, and B.R. Ambedkar.
Under these circumstances, the Conference was inconclusive and could not take any decision.

Question 8.
In what way did Mahatma Gandhi transform the nature of the national movement?
Solution :
Before Gandhiji came to India, the national movement was limited to few sections of society. During the Swadeshi Movement of 1905-07, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai tried to make it an all-India phenomenon but even then the participation of ordinary people remained limited. In his speech at Banaras in February, 1916, even Gandhi said that Indian nationalism was an elite phenomenon – a creation of lawyers, doctors and landlords. He reminded that the peasants and workers were not represented there. He desired to make Indian nationalism more properly representative of the Indian people as a whole. And thereafter whenever he got a chance he tried to implement his desire into action. Thus, in 1917 and 1918, he took initiatives at Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda which marked Gandhiji as a nationalist with a deep sympathy for poor.

In 1919, he called for a countrywide campaign against the “Rowlatt Act”. The campaign in the Punjab led to Jallianwala Bagh massacre. This satyagraha made Gandhiji a truly nationalist leader. Gandhiji was encouraged by the success of these satyagrahas and decided to start “non¬cooperation” movement which totally changed the nature of the national movement because it was the first mass movement in which all classes of people — students, lawyers, peasants, etc. took part. Thus, by 1922 he had transformed Indian nationalism, thereby redeeming the promise he made in his BHU speech of February 1916. It was no longer a movement of professionals and intellectuals but of hundreds of thousands of peasants, workers and artisans.

Question 9.
What do private letters and autobiographies tell us about an individual? How are these sources different from official accounts ?
Solution :
(a)

  • Private letters give us a glimpse of individual’s thoughts.
  • In letters, a person expresses his anger and pain, his dismay and anxiety, his hopes and frustrations in ways in which he may not express himself in public statements.
  • Sometimes an individual cannot express his opinion in letters due to fear that a letter may be printed in future.

(b)

  • Autobiographies give us an account of the past of the individual. It is often rich in human detail.
  • Autobiographies tell us what an individual recollect from his memory. It could be important from the point of view of an individual.

(c) These sources – private letters and autobiographies – are different from official accounts because private letters and autobiographies are written according to the wishes of an individual. On the other hand, official accounts are written while performing official duty. These represents the view point of the government. For example, the fortnightly reports that were prepared by the Home Department were based on police information and expressed what the higher officials saw or wanted to believe.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given. NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectPhysics
ChapterChapter 4
Chapter NameMoving Charges and Magnetism
Number of Questions Solved28
CategoryNCERT Solutions

Question 1.
A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of 0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the center of the coil?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 1
Question 2.
A long straight wire carries a current of 35 A. What is the magnitude of the Held B at a point 20 cm from the wire ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 2

Question 3.
A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in the north to south direction. Give the magnitude and direction of R at a point 2.5 m east at the wire.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 3

Question 4.
A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90A in the east to west direction. What is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5 m below the line?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 4
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 4.1

Question 5.
What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length on a wire carrying a current of 8 A and making an angle of 30° with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 6

Question 6.
A 3.0 cm wire carrying a current of 10A is placed inside a solenoid perpendicular to its axis. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is given to be 0.27 T. What is the magnetic force on the wire?
Answer:
I = 10 A, B = 0.27 T
1 = 3cm = 0.3m
and θ = 90°
F = BI 1 sin θ
=0.27×10 × 0.03 × sin90°
= 0.27×10 x 0.03 x 1
= 8.1 × 10-2N.

Question 7.
Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8*0 A and 5*0 A in the same direction are separated by a distance of 4-0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm section of wire A.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 7

Question 8.
A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of windings of 400 turns each. The diameter of the solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A, estimate the magnitude of B inside the solenoid near its center.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 8

Question 9.
A square coil of side 10 cm consists for 20 turns and carries a current of 12 A. The coil is suspended vertically and the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 30° with the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of torque experienced by the coil?
Answer:
N = 20, A = 100 x 10-4 m2
I = 12 A
B = 0.8 T
θ = 30°
Torque, τ = NI(\(\bar { A }\) x \(\bar { B }\))
= 20 x 12 x 100 x 10-4 x 0.8 x sin 30°1
= 20 x 12 x 100 x 10-4 x 0.8 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
= 0.96 Nm

Question 10.
Two moving .coil meters, M1and M2 has the following particulars:
R1 = 10 Ω, N1 = 30, A1= 3.6 x 10-3m2, B1= 0.25 T
R2 = 14 Ω, N2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 x 10-3 m2, B2 = 0.50 T (The spring constants are identical for the two meters). Determine the ratio of (a) current sensitivity and (b) voltage sensitivity of M2 and M1.
Answer:
Using Current sensitivity = NBA/k
For M1 Current Sensitivity
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 9
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 10
Question 11.
In a chamber, a uniform magnetic field of 6.5G (1G = RHT) is maintained. An electron is shot into the field with a speed of 4.8 x 106 ms-1 normal to the field. Explain why the path of the electron is a circle. Determine the radius of the circular orbit,
(e =1.6 x 10-19 C, m = 9.1 x 10-31 kg).
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 11

Question 12.
In Exercise 4.11 obtain the frequency of revolution of the electron in its circular orbit. Does the answer depend on the speed of the electron? Explain.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 12

Question 13.
(a) A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8-0 cm carrying a current of 6-0 A is suspended vertically in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The field lines make an angle of 60° with the normal of the coil. Calculate the magnitude of the counter-torque that must be applied to prevent the coil from turning.
(b) Would your answer change, if the circular coil in (a) were replaced by a planar toil of some irregular shape that encloses the same area? (All other particulars are also unaltered)  (C.B.S.E. 1998 C )
Answer:
(a) Using τ = NBIA sin 9, we get
τ= 30 X 1 x 6 x n (8 X 10-2)2 sin 60
= 180 x it (8 x 10-2)2 0.866
= 3.13 N m
The magnitude of the counter-torque is 3 .13 N m
(b) Answer will not change because torque does not depend upon the shape of the coil provided it encloses the same area.

Question 14.
Two concentric circular coils X and Y of radii 16 cm and 10 cm, respectively, lie in the same vertical plane containing the north to south direction. Coil X has 20 turns and carries a current of 16 A: coil Y has 25 turns and carries a current of 18 A. The sense of the current in X is anticlockwise, and clockwise in Y, for an observer looking at the coils facing west. Give the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field due to the coils at their center.
Answer:
For Coil X
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 13
Question 15.
A magnetic field of 100 G (1 G = 10-4 T) is required which is uniform in a region of linear dimension about 10 cm and area of cross-section about 10-3 m2. The maximum current-carrying capacity of a given coil of wire is 15 A and the number of turns per unit length that can be wound round a core is at most 1000 turns m-1. Suggest some appropriate design particulars of a solenoid for the required purpose. Assume the core is not ferromagnetic.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 14
We may take I = 10 A and n = 800. The given solenoid may have a length of 50 cm having 400 turns and area of cross-section = 5 x 10-3m2 (five times the given value.)

Question 16.
For a circular coil of radius R and N turns carrying current I, the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point on its axis at a distance x from its center is given by,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 15
(a) Show that this reduces to the familiar result for field at the center of the coil.
(b) Consider two parallel co-axial circular coils of equal radius R, and number of turns N, carrying equal currents in the same direction, and separated by a distance R. Show that the field on the axis around the mid-point between the coils is uniform over a distance that is small as compared to R, and is given by,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 16
(Such an arrangement to produce a nearly uniform magnetic field over a small region is known as Helmholtz coils.)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 17
(b) Let there be two coils as mentioned in the statement. The magnetic field in a small region of length 2d about the mid-point of the space between the two coils is given by,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 18
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 19
Question 17.
A toroid has a core (non-ferromagnetic) of inner radius 25 cm and outer radius 26 cm, around which 3500 turns of a wire are wound. If the current in the wire is 11 A, what is the magnetic field
(i) outside the toroid
(ii) inside the core of the toroid, and
(iii) in the empty space surrounded by the toroid?
Answer:
(i) Zero
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 20

Question 18.
Answer the following questions:
(a) A magnetic field that varies in magnitude from point to point but has a constant direction (east to west) is set up in a chamber. A charged particle enters the chamber and travels undeflected along a straight path with constant speed. What can you say about the initial velocity of the particle?

(b) A charged particle enters an environment of a strong and non-uniform magnetic field varying from point to point both in magnitude and direction and comes out of it following a complicated trajectory. Would its final speed equal the initial speed if it suffered no collisions with the environment?

(c) An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform electrostatic field in the north to south direction. Specify the direction in which a uniform magnetic field should be set up to prevent the electron from deflecting from its straight-line path.
Answer:
(a) The force on a charged particle moving inside the magnetic field is given by
\({ \vec { F } }_{ m }=q(\vec { v } \times \vec { B } )\)
The force on the charged particle coil bd zero (will remain undeflected), if v x B is zero. Therefore, either the initial velocity v is parallel or anti-parallel to the magnetic field B.

(b) The magnetic field exerts force on the charged particle, which is always perpendicular to its motion and hence does no work. Therefore, charged particle will have its final speed equal to its initial speed, provided it suffered no collision with the environment.

(c) Under the action of the electrostatic field, the electron will be deflected towards north (towards the positive plate). It will remain undeflected if the force due to the magnetic field is towards south. As the velocity: y of the electron is from west to east, the expression for the magnetic Lorentz force i.e. \({ \vec { F } }_{ m }=-e(\vec { v } \times \vec { B } )\) it tells that the magnetic field \(\vec { B } \) should be applied along the vertical and in downward direction. The direction of the magnetic field may be found by applying Fleming’s left-hand rule.

Question 19.
An electron emitted by a heated cathode and accelerated through a potential difference of 2.0 kV, enters a region with uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. Determine the trajectory of the electron if the field (a) is transverse to its initial velocity, (b) makes an angle of 30° with the initial velocity.
Answer:
K.E, acquired by electron while passing through V
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 21
(b) When electron moves with velocity r making an angle of 30° with the direction of magnetic field, then r cos θ is
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 22

Question 20.

A magnetic field set up using Helmholtz coils (described in Exercise 4.16) is uniform in a small region and has a magnitude of 0.75 T. In the same region, a uniform electrostatic field is maintained in a direction normal to the common axis of the coils. A narrow beam of (single species) charged particles all accelerated through 15 kV enters this region in a direction perpendicular to both the axis of the coils and the electrostatic field. If the beam remains undeflected when the electrostatic field is 9.0 x 105 V m-1, make a simple guess as to what the beam contains. Why is the answer not unique.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 23
The given particle may be deutron.
The result is not unique because this e/m ratio can be true for He+ + , Li + + + etc.

Question 21.
A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 0.45 m and mass 60 g is suspended by two vertical wires at its ends. A current of 5.0 A is set up in the rod through the wires.”
(a) What magnetic field should be set up normally to the conductor in order that the tension in the wires is zero?
(b) What will be the total tension in the wires if the direction of current is reversed keeping the magnetic field the same as before? (Ignore the mass of the wires.) g = 9.8 ms-2.
Answer:
(a) The tension in the wire is zero if the force on the current-carrying wire due to current is equal and opposite to the weight of the wire. This is, BIl= mg
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 24
(b) In case the current is reversed, the tension is equal to the force acting on the wire due to the magnetic field plus the weight of the wire. This is,
T = BlL + mg
= 0.26 x 5 x 0.45 + 60 x 10-3 x 9.8
= 1.18 N.

Question 22.
The wires which connect the battery of an automobile to its starting motor carry a current of 300 A (for a short time). What is the force per unit length between the wires if they are 70 cm long and 1.5 cm apart? Is the force attractive or repulsive (H.S.E.B.2001)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 25
Since the currents in two wires are in opposite directions so the force is repulsive.

Question 23.
A uniform magnetic field of 1.5 T exists in a cylindrical region of a radius 10.0 cm, its direction parallel to the axis along east to west. A wire carrying a current of 7.0 A in the north to south direction passes through this region. What is the magnitude and direction of the force on the wire if,
(a) the wire intersects the axis,
(b) the wire is turned from N-S to the northeast-northwest direction?
(c) the wire in the N-S direction is lowered from the axis by a distance of 6.0 cm?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 26

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 27
Question 24.
A uniform magnetic field of 3000 G is established along the positive z-direction. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carries a current of 12 A. What is the torque on the loop in the different cases shown in Figure? What is the force on each case? Which case corresponds to stable equilibrium?
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 28
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 29
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 30

Question 25.
A circular coil of 20 turns and a radius of 10 cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.10 T normal to the plane of the coil. If the current in the coil is 5.0 A, what is the
(a) total torque on the coil,
(b) the total force on the coil,
(c) average force on each electron in the coil due to the magnetic field?
(The coil is made of copper wire of cross-sectional area 10-5 m2, and the free electron density in copper is given to be about 1029 m3)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 31

Question 26.
A solenoid 60 cm long and of radius 4.0 cm has 3 layers of windings of 300 turns each. A 2.0 cm long wire of mass 2.5 g lies inside the solenoid (near its center) normal to its axis; both the wire and the axis of the solenoid are in the horizontal plane. The wire is connected through two leads parallel to the axis of the solenoid to an external battery which supplies a current of 6.0 A in the wire. What value of current (with an appropriate sense of circulation) in the windings of the solenoid can support the weight of the wire? g = 9.8 ms-2.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 32

Question 27.
A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 12 Q and the meter shows full-scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. How will you convert the meter into a voltmeter of range 0 to 18 V?
Answer:
Here 1=3 mA = 3 x 10-3 A
Galvanometer resistance, G = 12 Ω The galvanometer can be converted into the voltmeter of range 0 to V (here V = 18 V) by connecting a high series resistance R given
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 33

Question 28.
A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15Ω and the meter shows full-scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. How will you convert the meter into an ammeter of range 0 to 6?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 34

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers Perceptions of Society

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travelers Perceptions of Society are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers Perceptions of Society.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectHistory
ChapterChapter 5
Chapter NameThrough the Eyes of Travelers Perceptions of Society
Number of Questions Solved9
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers Perceptions of Society

Question 1.
Write a note on the Kitab-ul-Hind.
Solution :

  1. The Kitab-ul-Hind is written in Arabic and is simple and lucid.
  2. It has 80 chapters on subjects such as religion, and philosophy, festivals, astronomy, alchemy, manners and customs, social life, weights and measures, iconography, laws and metrology.
  3. Al-Biruni adopted a distinctive structure in each chapter, beginning with a question, following this up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with a comparison with other cultures. This almost geometric structure is remarkable for its precision and predictability.
  4. He probably intended his work for peoples living along the frontiers of the subcontinent.

Question 2.
Compare and contrast the perspectives from which Ibn Battuta and Bernier wrote their accounts of their travels in India.
Solution :
Both have written them accounts in their different prospectives. While Ibn Battuta describe everything that impressed and excited him because of his novelty, Bernier had followed a different intellectual tradition. He wrote whatever he saw in India.
Bernier wanted to pin point the weakness of the Indian society and considered the Mughal India Inferior to European society. In his description Ibn Battuta recorded his observation about new culture, people, believes and values.

Question 3.
Discuss the picture of urban centres that emerges from Bernier’s account.
Solution :
During the seventeenth century, about 15 per cent of the population in India lived in cities. This was higher than the urban population in Western Europe in the same period. In spite of this Bernier described Mughal cities as “Camp towns”. These towns owed their existence, and depended for their survival on the imperial camp. He believed that these camp towns came into existence when the imperial court moved in and rapidly declined when it moved out. He stated that these “camp towns” did not have viable social and economic foundations. They were dependent on imperial patronage.

The above picture of urban centres that emerges from Bernier’s account does not seem to be correct because it is an oversimplified picture. There were all kinds of urban centres or towns i.e., manufacturing towns, trading towns, port towns, sacred centres and pilgrimage towns.

Question 4.
Analyse the evidence for slavery provided by Ibn Battuta.
Solution :
Travellers who left written accounts, sometimes took special inequalities for granted as a “natural” state of affairs. For example, is the evidence for slavery provided by Ibn Battuta that is as given below :

  1. Slaves were openly sold in markets, like any other commodity and were regularly exchanged as gifts.
  2. When Ibn Battuta reached Sind, he purchased “horses, camels and slaves” as gifts for Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq.
  3. When he reached Multan, he presented the governor with, “a slave and horse together with raisins and almonds”.
  4. Muhammad bin Tughlaq, informs Ibn Battuta, was so happy with the sermon of a preacher named Nasiruddin that he gave him “a hundred thousand tankas (coins) and two hundred slaves”.
  5. According to Ibn Battuta’s accounts there were female slaves in the service of the Sultan. They were experts in music and dance. Female slaves were also employed by the Sultan to keep a watch on his nobles.
  6. Slaves were generally used for domestic labour, particularly for carrying women and men on palanquins or dola.

Question 5.
What were the elements of the practice of sati that drew the attention of Bernier ?
Solution :
Bernier chose the practice of sati for detailed description. The elements of the practice of sati that drew the attention of Bernier were that while some women seemed to embrace death cheerfully, others were, forced to die. For example at Lahore, he saw a most beautiful young widow sacrificed. She was hardly twelve years of age and was forced by the Brahmanas and others towards the pyre and was burnt alive.

Question 6.
Discuss Al-Biruni’s understanding of the caste system.
Solution :
Al-Biruni’s description of the caste system in India was as given below :

  1. He tried to explain the caste system by looking for parallels in other societies. For example, he noted that in Ancient Persia, there were four categories i.e., knights and princes; monks, fire-priests and lawyers; physicians, astronomers and other scientists; and finally, peasants and artisans. Thus, he stated that social divisions were not unique to India. He, however, pointed out that within Islam, Ml men were considered equal, differing only in their observance of piety.
  2. He accepted the Brahmanical description of the caste system but disapproved of the notion of pollution. The conception of social pollution was, according to him, contrary to the laws of nature.

Thus, Al-Biruni’s understanding of the caste system was deeply influenced by his study of normative Sanskrit texts which laid down the rules governing the system from the point of view of the Brahmanas.

Question 7.
Do you think Ibn Battuta’s account is useful in arriving at an understanding of life in contemporary urban centres? Give reasons for your answer.
Solution :
Battuta’s observation about the cities of India.
(i)  According to him, Indian cities had many exciting opportunities and are useful for those who had the necessary drive, skill and resources.
(ii) The Indian cities were prosperous and densely populated.
(iii) These cities had colourful market trading in different kinds of goods.
(iv) Delhi was the largest city of India and had a lot of population. Daultabad was an another important city of India which challenged Delhi in size.
(v) The cities were not only the centre of economic transactions but also the centres of! social and cultural activities.
(vii) Most of the bazars in the cities had temple and mosques.
(viii) Cities also had fixed places for public performances by dancer, musicians and singer. He found that many towns derived their wealth and prosperity through the appropriation of surplus from villages.
(ix) Indian goods were in great demand in west Asia and South-east Asia. So the artisans and merchants earned huge profit.

Question 8.
Discuss the extent to which Bernier’s account enables historians to reconstruct contemporary rural society.
Solution :
Bernier’s account does not enable historians much to reconstruct contemporary rural society. His accounts contain discussions trying to place the history of the Mughals within some sort of a universal framework. He constantly compared Mughal India with contemporary Europe, generally emphasising the superiority of the latter.
His description of rural society was far from truth. For example, he thought that in the Mughal Empire, the Empire owned all the land and distributed it among his nobles. This had disastrous consequences for the economy and society. Owning to crown ownership of land, argued Bernier, landholders could not pass on their land to their children. So, they were averse to any long-term investment in the sustenance and expansion of production. This had resulted in uniform ruination of agriculture, excessive oppression of peasantry and a continuous decline in the living standards of all sections of society, except the ruling aristocracy. He also stated that there was no middle state in India.

The above description does not give us a true picture of rural society. None of the Mughal official document suggest that the state was the sole owner of land. Abul Fazl describes the land revenue as “remunerations of sovereignty”. In fact, during the sixteenth and seventeenth centimes, rural society was characterised by considerable social and economic differentiation. At one end were the big zamindars and on the other were the “untouchable” landless labourers. In between was the big peasant who used hired labour and engaged in commodity production, and the smaller peasant who could barely produce for his subsistence.

Question 9.
Read this excerpt from Bernier :
Numerous are the instances of handsome pieces of workmanship made by persons destitute of tools, and who can scarcely be said to have received instruction from a master. Sometimes they imitate so perfectly articles of European manufacture that the difference between the original and copy can hardly be discerned. Among other things, the Indians make excellent muskets, and fowling-pieces, and such beautiful gold ornaments that it may be doubted if the exquisite workmanship of those articles can be exceeded by any European goldsmith. I have often admired the beauty, softness, and delicacy of their paintings.

List the crafts mentioned in the passage. Compare these with the descriptions of artisanal activity in the chapter.
Solution :
(a) The following crafts have been mentioned in the passage :

  • muskets;
  • fowling-pieces;
  • gold ornaments;
  • paintings.

(b) There were imperial Karkhanas or workshops for the artisans where embroiderers, goldsmiths, painters, varnishers, joiners, turners, tailors and shoe-makers, manufacturer of silk, brocade and fine muslins were employed. They worked the whole day and in the evening they returned to their homes. The artisans were employed in manufacturing carpets, gold and silver cloths and various sorts of silk and cotton goods. Bernier also stated that the Indian artisans were expert in copying goods that it was difficult to differentiate between the original and the duplicate.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers Perceptions of Society help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers Perceptions of Society, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Class 12 Chemistry NCERT Solutions for Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements is the best guide for the students appearing for boards and competitive exams. The solutions contain answers to the questions provided in the textbook. These help in strengthening all the concepts related to chapter 7 that help in better preparations.

NCERT Solutions not only help the students appearing in different boards but also the one’s appearing in the competitive exams. The students can practice the solutions provided by the subject experts.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectChemistry
ChapterChapter 7
Chapter NameThe p-Block Elements
Number of Questions Solved74
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 explains the p block elements and their properties, The elements in group 15, 16 and 17 are discussed along with their properties. Various concepts such as electronegativity, chemical and physical properties, ionization therapy, etc. are discussed in detail.

This chapter is important from examination perspective and the students are advised to go through the NCERT Solutions for better practice. The solutions are provided along with the diagrams for better understanding.

NCERT IN-TEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Why are pentahalides more covalent than trihalides in the members of the nitrogen family?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of the elements of nitrogen family (group 15) is ns2p3. Because of the inert pair effect, the valence s-electrons cannot be released easily for the bond formation. This means that the elements can form trivalent cation (E3+) by releasing valence p-electrons while it is difficult to form pentavalent cation (E5+). Under the circumstances, if all the five valence electrons are to be involved in the bond formation, the compounds showing pentavalency or +5 oxidation state must be of covalent nature. This is particularly the case in the higher members (Sb, Bi) of the family where the inert pair effect is quite prominent.

Question 2.
Why is BiH3 the strongest reducing agent amongst all the hydrides of Group 15 elements?
Answer:
This is because as we move down the group, the size increases, as a result, length of E-H bond increases and its strength decreases, so that the bond can be broken easily to release H2 gas. Hence, BiH3 is the strongest reducing agent.

Question 3.
Why is N2 less reactive at room temperature?
Answer:
In the nitrogen molecule (N2), two atoms of nitrogen are linked by triple bond (N = N). Due to small atomic size of the element (atomic radius = 70
pm), the bond dissociation enthalpy is very high (946 kJ mol1). This means that it is quite difficult to cleave or break the triple bond at room temperature. As a result, N2 is less reactive at room temperature.

Question 4.
Mention the conditions required for the maximum yield of ammonia.
Answer:
In Haber’s process, ammonia is formed by the following reaction.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 1
According to Le-chatelier’s principle, the favourable conditions for the maximum yield of ammonia are :
(i) Low temperature : But optimum temperature of 700 K is necessary to keep the forward reaction in progress.
(ii) High pressure : Pressure to the extent of about 200 atm is required.
(iii) Catalyst & promoter : In order to achieve the early attainment of equilibrium, iron oxide acts as catalyst. Along with that; K2O, Al2O3 or Mo metal may act as the promoter to increase the efficiency of the catalyst.

Question 5.
How does ammonia react with blue solution having Cu2+ ions ?
Answer:
When ammonia gas is passed through blue solution containing Cu2+ ions to give a soluble complex with deep blue colour.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 2

Question 6.
What is the covalency of nitrogen in N2O5?
Answer:
The covalent structure of nitrogen pentoxide (N2O5) is given. Since the nitrogen atom has shared four electron pairs, its covalency is four in the molecule of N2O5.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 3

Question 7.
Bond angle in PH4+ is higher than that in PH3. Why?
Answer:
P in PH3 is sp3-hybridized with 3 bond pairs and one lone pair around P. Due to stronger lp-bp repulsions than bp-bp repulsions, tetrahedral angle decreases from 109°28′ to 93.6°. As a result, PH3 is pyramidal. In PH4+, there are 4 bp’s and no lone pair. As a result, there are only identical bp-bp repulsions so that PH4+ assumes tetrahedral geometry and the bond angle is 109°28′.Hence, bond angle of PH4+ > bond angle of PH3

Question 8.
What happens when white phosphorus is heated with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2?
Answer:
A mixture of sodium hypophosphite and phosphine gas is formed upon heating the reaction mixture in an inert atmosphere.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 4

Question 9.
What happens when PCl5 is heated?
Answer:
Upon heating, PCl5 dissociates to give molecules of PCl3 and Cl2. Actually, the two P—Cl (a) bonds with more bond length break away from the molecule leaving three P— Cl(e) bonds attached to the central P atom since these are more firmly linked
PCl5 \(\underrightarrow { heat } \) PCl3 + Cl2
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 5

Question 10.
Write the balanced equation for the hydrolytic reaction of PCl5 in heavy water.
Answer:
With heavy water (D2O) ; phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5 reacts as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 6

Question 11.
What is the basicity of H3PO4 ?
Answer:
The acid is tribasic since it has three P—OH bonds which can release H+ ions.

Question 12.
What happens when phosphorus acid (H3PO3) is heated ? (C.B.S.E. 2008)
Answer:
In phosphorus acid (H3PO3), central atom P is in +3 oxidation state. Upon heating, it gives a mixture PH 3 (P in -3 oxidation state) and H3PO4 (P in +5 oxidation state). This means that phosphorus acid undergoes disproportionation reaction.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 7

Question 13.
List the important sources of sulphur.
Answer:
Combined sulphur exists as sulphates, such as gypsum, epsom, baryte and sulphides such as galena, zinc blende, copper pyrites, etc. Traces of sulphur occur as hydrogen sulphide in volcanoes. Few organic materials like eggs, proteins, garlic, onion, mustard, hair and wool contain sulphur. 0.03 – 0.1% sulphur is present in the earth’s crust.

Question 14.
Write the order of the thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 elements.
Answer:
The order of thermal stability of hydride is :
H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
This is related to the bond dissociation enthalpies of the E—H bonds where E stands for the element.
E—H bond :                                           O—H S—H Se—H Te—H
Bond dissociation enthalpy : (kJ mol-1) 463    347      276  238
Based on bond dissociation enthalpy, H2O is maximum stable thermally while H2Te is the least stable.

Question 15.
Why is H2O a liquid and H2S a gas?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 8
In H2O, the electronegativity difference between 0(3·5) and H(2·1) is more than difference between S(2·5) and H(21) in H2S. As a result, O—H bond is more polar than S—H bond. This leads to inter molecular hydrogen bonding in H20 molecules while it is almost absent in the molecules of H2S. The H2O molecules get associated and consequently exist as liquid (water). The association in H2S molecules is negligible and it exists as a gas at room temperature.

Question 16.
Which of the following does not react with oxygen directly? Zn, Ti, Pt, Fe
Answer:
Pt being a noble metal does not react with oxygen directly. In contrast, Zn, Ti and Fe are active metals and hence they react with oxygen directly to form their oxides.

Question 17.
Complete the following reactions :
(i) C2H4 + O2
(ii) Al + O2
Answer:
(i) C2H4 + 3O2 \(\underrightarrow { heat } \) 2CO2 + 2H2O
(ii) 4Al + 3O2 \(\underrightarrow { heat } \) 2Al2O3

Question 18.
Why does O3 act as a powerful oxidising agent ? (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Answer:
Upon heating, ozone (O3) readily decomposes to give molecular oxygen (O2) which is more stable along with nascent oxygen (O). The released nascent oxygen readily takes part in oxidation reactions. Therefore, ozone acts as a powerful oxidising agent.
O3 \(\underrightarrow { heat } \) O2 + O (Nascent)

Question 19.
How is ozone estimated quantitatively ?
Answer:
When ozone reacts with an excess of KI solution buffered with a borate buffer (pH = 9.2), iodine is liberated which can be titrated against standard solution of sodium thiosulphate. This is used as a method of estimation of ozone quantitatively.

Question 20.
What happens when sulphur dioxide gas is passed through an aqueous solution of Fe(III) salt ?
Answer:
The gas is a reducing agent and reduces a Fe(III) salt to Fe(II) salt.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 9

Question 21.
Comment on the nature of two S—O bonds formed in SO2 molecule. Are the two bonds in the molecule equal ?
Answer:
The two S—O bonds in the molecule are equal with bond length equal to 143 pm. This means that SO2 molecule exhibits two resonating structures as shown below.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 10

Question 22.
How is presence of SO2 detected ?
Ans.
Presence of SO2 is detected by bringing a paper dipped in acidified potassium dichromate near the gas. If the paper turns green, it shows the presence of SO2 gas.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 11

Question 23.
Mention three areas in which H2SO4 plays an important role.
Answer:
(i) It is used in the manufacture of fertilizers such as (NH4)2 SO4 , calcium superphosphate.
(ii)It is used as an electrolyte in storage batteries.
(iii)It is used in petroleum refining, detergent industry and in the manufacture of paints, pigments and dyes.

Question 24.
Write the conditions to maximise the yield of sulphuric acid by Contact process.
Answer:
Catalytic oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide. Sulphur dixocide is oxidised to sulphur trioxide with air in the presence of V2O5 or platinised asbestos acting as the catalyst
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 12

Question 25.
Why is \({ K }_{ { a }_{ 2 } }\) < \({ K }_{ { a }_{ 1 } }\) for H2SO4 in water ?
Answer:
H2SO4 is a very strong acid in water largely because of its first ionisation to H3O+ and HSO4– The ionisation of HSO4 to H3O+ and SO42- is very very small. That is why, \({ K }_{ { a }_{ 2 } }\) < \({ K }_{ { a }_{ 1 } }\).

Question 26.
Considering the parameters such as bond dissociation enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy and hydration enthalpy, compare the oxidising power of F2 and Cl2.
Answer:
Fluorine is a better oxidising agent than chlorine because E°F2/F- is higher than E°Cl2/Cl- It is mainly due to low bond dissociation energy, high hydration energy and lower electron gain enthalpy, non-availability of d-orbitals in valence shell, that results in higher reduction potential of F2 than chlorine.

Question 27.
Give two examples to show the anomalous behaviour of fluorine.
Answer:
The anomalous behaviour of fluorine, the first member of the halogen family as compared to the rest of the members is due to its very small size, very high electronegativity and absence of vacant d-orbitals in the valence shell. It is supported by the following points.
(i) Fluorine shows only negative oxidation state of -1 in its compounds. The other members exhibit both positive and negative oxidation states.
(ii) Fluorine forms hexafluoride with sulphur (SF6). No other member of the family forms hexahalide with sulphur.

Question 28.
Sea is the greatest source of some halogens. Comment.
Answer:
The name halogen is a Greek Word meaning lsea salt forming’. Sea is a major source of a members of halogens particularly chlorine, bromine and iodine and they exist as the soluble salts of sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium etc. The deposits of dried up sea water contain sodium chloride and carnallite (KClMgCl2.6H2O). Sea weeds contain nearly 0-5 percent of iodine. Similarly Chile saltpeter contains about 0-2% of sodium iodate (NaIO3).

Question 29.
Give reason for the bleaching action of Cl2.
Answer:
Bleaching by chlorine occurs in the presence of moisture. In fact, it releases nascent oxygen on reacting with HO which carries bleaching. Since the reaction cannot be reversed, the bleaching by chlorine is permanent.
Chlorine bleaches by oxidation Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HOCl → HCl + [O]
The nascent oxygen reacts with dye to make it colourless.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 13

Question 30.
Name two poisonous gases which can be prepared from chlorine gas.
Answer:
Two poisonous gases are phosgene and mustard gas.

Question 31.
Why is ICl more reactive than I2 ? (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The reactivity of ICl is due to its polar nature (I—Cl). Iodine (I2) being non-polar is comparatively less reactive chemically.

Question 32.
Why is helium used in diving apparatus?
Answer:
A mixture of helium and oxygen does not cause pain due to very low solubility of helium in blood as compared to nitrogen.

Question 33.
Balance the equation : XeF6 + H2O → XeO2F2 +HF (H.P. Board 2013)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 14

Question 34.
Why has it been difficult to study the chemistry of radon ?
Answer:
Radon (Rn) is a radioactive element with very short half period of 3-82 days. Therefore, it becomes quite difficult to study the details about the chemistry of the element.

NCERT EXERCISE

Question 1.
Discuss the general characteristics of group 15 elements with reference to their electronic configuration, oxidation state, atomic size, ionisation enthalpy and electronegativity.
Answer:
(i) Electronic configuration: All the elements in group 15 have 5 valence electrons. Their general electronic configuration is ns2np3

(ii) Oxidation states:
All these elements have 5 valence electrons and require three more electrons to complete octets. However, gaining electrons is very difficult as the nucleus will have to attract three more electrons. This can take place only with nitrogen as it is the smallest in size and the distance between the nucleus and the valance shell is relatively small. The remaining elements of this group show a formal oxidation state of -3 in their covalent compounds.

In addition to the -3 state, N and P also show -1 and.-2 oxidation states. All the elements present in this group show +3 and +5 oxidation states. However, the stability of the +5 oxidation state decreases down the group, whereas the stability of+3 oxidation state increases. This happens because of the inert pair effect.

(iii) Ionization energy and electronegativity First ionization energy decreases on moving down a group. This is because of increasing atomic sizes. As we move down a group, electronegativity decreases, owing to an increase in size.

(iv) Atomic size:
On moving down a group, the atomic size increases. This increase in the atomic size is attributed to an increase in the number of shells.

Question 2.
Why does the reactivity of nitrogen differ from phosphorus?
Answer:
N2 exist as a diatomic molecule containing triple bond between two N-atoms. Due to the presence —of the triple bond between p  the two N-atoms, the bond dissociation energy is large (941 .4 kJ mol-1 ). As a result of this N2 is inert and unreactive whereas, phosphorus exists as a tetratomic molecule, containing P – P single bond. Due to the presence of single bond, the bond dissociation energy is weaker (213 kJmol-1 ) than N a N triple bond (941 .4 kJ mol-1 ) and moreover due to presence of angular strain in P4 tetrahedra. As a result of this, phosphorus is much more reactive than nitrogen.

Question 3.
Discuss the trends in chemical reactivity of group 15 elements.
Answer:
(a) Hydrides: The hybrids are covalent with pyramidal structures NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 43 and the central atom is sp3 hybrilised. The presence of the lone pair of electrons on the central atom distorts the geometry of the molecules and the bond angle less than that of a regular tetrahedron.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 15
(b) Halides:
Elements of group 15 form two types of halides viz. trihalides and pentahalides. The halides are predominantly basic (Lewis bases) in nature and have lone pair of electrons (central atom is sp3 hybridized). The pentahalides are thermally less stable than the trihalides.

(c) Oxides: All the elements of this group form two types of oxides ie., M2O3 and M2O5 and are called trioxides and pentoxides

Question 4.
Why does NH3 form hydrogen bonding while PH3 does not?
Answer:
The N—H bond in ammonia is quite polar on account of the electronegativity difference of N (3·0) and H (2·1). On the contrary, P—H bond in phosphine is almost non-polar because both P and H atoms have almost same electronegativity (21). Due to polarity, intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present in the molecules of ammonia but not in those of phosphine.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 19

Question 5.
How is nitrogen prepared in the laboratory? Write the chemical equations of the reactions involved.
Answer:
Laboratory preparation: Dinitrogen is prepared in the laboratory by heating a solution containing an equivalent amount of sodium nitrite and ammonium chloride.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 20

Question 6.
How is ammonia manufactured industrially?
Answer:
Ammonia is prepared on a commercial scale by Haber’s Process from dinitrogen and dihydrogen by the following chemical reaction
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3; ∆fH° = – 46.1 kJ mon-1
Dihydrogen needed for the commercial preparation of ammonia is obtained by the electrolysis of water while dinitrogen is obtained from the liquefied air as a fractional distillation. The two gases are purified and also dried.
These are compressed to about 200 atmosphere pressure and are then led into the catalyst chamber packed with the catalyst and the promoter.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 21

Question 7.
Illustrate how copper metal gives different products on reaction with HNO3.
Answer:
Anhydrous nitric acid is colourless, fuming, and pungent-smelling liquid. However, it acquires a yellowish-brown colour in the presence of sunlight. HNO3 decomposes to give NO2 gas which dissolves and imparts its yellowish-brown colour.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 22
On strong heating, the acid decomposes to give NO2 and O2
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 23

Question 8.
Give the resonating structures of NO2 and N2O5.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 24

Question 9.
The HNH angle value is higher than those of HPH, HAsH, and HSbH angles; why?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 25
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 26

The above trend in the H-M-H bond angle can be explained on the basis of the electronegativity tif central atom. Since nitrogen is highly electronegative, there is high electron density around nitrogen. This causes greater repulsion between the electron pairs around nitrogen, resulting in maximum bond angle. We know that electronegativity decreases on moving down a group consequently. The repulsive interactions between the electron pairs decrease, thereby decreasing the HMH bond angle.

Question 10.
Why does R3P = O exist but R3N = O does not (R = alkyl group)?
Answer:
Nitrogen does not contain d-orbitals. As a result, it cannot expand its covalency beyond four and cannot form pπ – dπ multiple bonds. In contrast, P contains the d-orbitals, and can expand its covalency beyond 4 and can form pπ-dπ multiple bonds. Hence R3P = O exist but R3N = O does not.

Question 11.
Explain why is NH3 basic while PH3 is feebly basic in nature. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2008, 2009, Jharkhand Board 2009)
Answer:
NH3 is distinctly basic while BiH3 is feebly basic.
Nitrogen has a small size due to which the lone pair of electrons are concentrated in a small region. This means that the charge density per unit volume is high. On moving down a group, the size of the central atom increases, and the charge gets distributed over a large area decreasing the electron density. Hence the electron-donating capacity of group 15 elements hydrides decreases on moving down the group.

Question 12.
Nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule (N2) while phosphorus a tetra-atomic molecule (P4). Why?
Answer:
Nitrogen is diatomic gaseous molecule at ordinary temperature due to its ability to form pπ – pπ multiple bonds. The molecule has one σ and two π – bonds. Phosphorus exists as discrete tetratomic tetrahedral molecules as these are not capable of forming multiple bonds due to repulsion between non-bonded electrons of the inner core.

Question 13.
Write the main difference between the properties of white and red phosphorus. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2012)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 27

Question 14.
Why does nitrogen show catenation properties less than phosphorus?
Answer:
The catenation properties depend upon the strength of the element-element bond. The N-N bond strength is much weaker (due to the repulsion of lone pairs on nitrogen because of its small size) than the P-P bond strength, therefore, nitrogen shows catenation less than phosphorus.

Question 15.
Give one disproportionation reaction of phosphorus acid (H3PO3).
Answer:
Upon heating to about 573 K, phosphorus acid undergoes disproportionation as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 28

Question 16.
Can PCl5 act as oxidising as well as a reducing agent? Justify.
Answer:
In general, the molecules of a substance can behave as a reducing agent if the central atom is in a position to increase its oxidation number. Similarly, they can act as an oxidising agent if the central atom is in a position to decrease its oxidation number. Now, the maximum oxidation state or oxidation number of phosphorus (P) is +5. It cannot increase the same but at the same time can decrease its oxidation number. In PCl5, oxidation number of P is already +5. It therefore, cannot act as a reducing agent. However, it can behave as an oxidising agent in certain reactions in which its oxidation number decreases. For example,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 29

Question 17.
Justify the placement of O, S, Se, Te and Po in the same group of the periodic table in terms of electronic configuration, oxidation states and hydride formation.
Answer:
The members of the oxygen family are placed in group 16 of p-block. Their inclusion in the same group is justified on the basis of the following characteristics.
1. Electronic configuration. Members of the family have ns2p4 configuration. Their group (10 + 6) is 16.
2. Oxidation states. With exception of oxygen which exhibits -2 oxidation state in its compounds (OF2 and H2O2 are exceptions), rest of the members of the family show variable oxidation states (-2, +2, +4, +6) in their compounds.
3. Hydride formation. All the members of the family form covalent hydrides (MH2) in which the central atom is sp3 hybridised. These have angular structures and their characteristics show regular gradation.NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 30
FeS + H2SO4 (dil.) → FeSO4 + H2S
Na2Se + H2SO4 (dil.) → Na2SO4 + H2Se

Question 18.
Why is dioxygen a gas while sulphur is a solid? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The oxygen atom has a tendency to form pπ-pπ multiple bonding due to its small size and high electronegativity. As a result, oxygen exists as a diatomic molecule. These mol¬ecules are held together by weak van der Waal’s forces of attraction which can be easily overcome by collisions of the molecules at room temperature. Therefore, O2 is the gas at room temperature.

Sulphur, on the other hand, because of its bigger size and lower electronegativity, does not form pπ-pπ multiple bonds. Instead, it prefers to form an S-S single bond and form polyatomic complex molecules having eight atoms per molecule (S8) and have puckered ring structure. Therefore, S atoms are strongly held together and it exists as a solid.

Question 19.
Knowing the electron gain enthalpy values for O → O and O → O2- as – 141 kJ mol-1 and 702 kJ mol-1 respectively, how can you account for the formation of a large number of oxides having O2- species and not O ?
Answer:
The stability of an ionic compound depends on its lattice energy. The more the lattice energy of a compound, the more stable it will be. Lattice energy is directly proportional to the charge carried by an ion. When a metal combines with oxygen, the lattice energy of the oxide involving O2- ion is much more than the oxide involving O ion. Hence, we can say that the formation of O2- is energetically more favourable than the formation of O

Question 20.
Which aerosols deplete ozone?
Answer:
Aerosols or chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s) such as freon (CCl2F2) deplete ozone layer by supplying chlorine-free radicals (Cl) which convert ozone into oxygen.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 31

Question 21.
Describe the manufacture of H2SO4 by Contact process.
Answer:
Sulphuric acid is manufactured by the Contact process which involves three steps :

  1. burning of sulphur or sulphide ores in air to generate SO2.
  2. conversion of SO2 to SO3 by the reaction with oxygen in the presr nee of a catalyst (V2O5), and
  3. absorption of SO3 in H2SO4 to give oleum (H2S2O7).

A flow diagram for the manufacture of sulphuric acid is shown in the figure. The SO2 produced is purified by removing dust and other impurities such as arsenic compounds. The key step in the manufacture of H2SO4 is the catalytic oxidation of SO2 with O2 to give SO3 in the presence of V2O5 (catalyst).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 32

The reaction is exothermic, reversible and the forward reaction leads to a decrease in volume. Therefore, low temperature and high pressure are favourable conditions for maximum yield. But the temperature should not be very low otherwise rate of reaction will become slow.

In practice, the plant is operated at a pressure of 2 bar and a temperature of 720 K. The SO3 gas from the catalytic converter is absorbed in concentrated H2SO4 to produce oleum. Dilution of oleum with water gives H2SO4 of the desired concentration. In the industry, two steps are carried out simultaneously to make the process a continuous one and also to reduce the cost.

Question 22.
How is SO2 an air pollutant?
Answer:

  • It combines with water vapour present in the atmosphere to form sulphuric acid. This causes acid rain. Acid rain damages soil, plants and buildings, especially those made of marble.
  • Even in very low concentrations, SO2 causes irritation in the respiratory tract. It causes throat and eye irritation and can also affect the larynx to cause breathlessness.
  • It is extremely harmful to plants. Plants exposed to sulphur dioxide for a long time lose colour from their leaves. This condition is known as chlorosis. This happens because the formation of chlorophyll is affected by the presence of SO2.

Question 23.
Why are halogens strong oxidising agents?
Answer:
The general electronic configuration of halogens is np5, where n = 2-6. Thus, halogens need only one more e- to complete their octet and to attain the stable noble gas configuration. Also, halogens are highly electronegative with low dissociation energies and high negative electron gain enthalpies. Therefore, they have a high tendency to gain an election. Hence, they act as strong oxidizing agents.

Question 24.
Explain why does fluorine form only one oxoacid (HOF).
Answer:
The members of the halogen family with the exception of fluorine show variable oxidation states due to the availability of rf-orbitals for the bond formation. They form a number of oxoacids such as HOX, HOXO, HOXO2, and HOXO3. However, fluorine which is highly electronegative and has no rf-orbitals, forms only one oxoacid (HOF) in which its oxidation state is +1.

Question 25.
Explain why in spite of nearly the same electronegativity, nitrogen is involved in hydrogen bonding while chlorine is not.
Answer:
Both chlorine and oxygen have almost the same electronegativity values, but chlorine rarely forms hydrogen bonding. This is because in comparison to chlorine, oxygen has a smaller size and as a result, a higher electron density per unit volume.

Question 26.
Write two uses of ClO2.
Answer:
ClO2 is a strong oxidising agent. Therefore,
(i) It acts as bleaching agent for paper pulp in paper industry and in textile industry.
(ii) It acts as germicide for disinfecting water.

Question 27.
Why are halogens coloured?
Answer:
All the halogens are coloured in nature. The colour deepens with the increase in the atomic number of the element from fluorine to iodine.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 33
The cause of the colour is due to the absorption of energy from the visible light by the molecules for the excitation of outer non -bonded electrons to higher energy levels. The excitation energy depends upon the size of the atom. Fluorine has the smallest size and the force of attraction between the nucleus and electrons is very large.

Question 28.
Write the reactions of F2 and Cl2 with water.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 34

Question 29.
How can you prepare Cl2 from HCl and HCl from Cl2? Write chemical equations only.
Answer:
(i) HCl can be oxidised to chlorine with the help of a number of oxidising agents like MnO2, KMnO4, K2Cr2O7 etc.
Mn0O2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
(ii) Cl2 can be reduced to HCl by reacting with H2 in the presence of sunlight. The gas on passing through water dissolves to form hydrochloric acid
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 35

Question 30.
What inspired N. Bartlett for carrying out the reaction between Xe and PtF6?
Answer:
The X-ray study of the compound has shown it be a crystalline solid consisting of O2+ and (PtF6] ions. In this reaction, PtF6 has oxidised O2 to O2+ ion. Bartlett through than PtF6 should Xe to xe+ since first ionisation enthalpy of xenon (1176 kJ mol-1) is quite close to that of O2 (1180 kJ mol-1).
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 36

Question 31.
What is the oxidation state of phosphorus in the following?
(a) H3PO3
(b) PCl3
(c) Ca3P2
(d) Na3PO4
(e) POF3
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 37

Question 32.
Write balanced equations for the following :
(i) NaCl is heated with sulphuric acid in the presence of MnO2
(iii) Chlorine gas is passed into a solution of Nal in water.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 38

Question 33.
How are xenon fluorides XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 obtained ?
Answer:
Xenon forms three binary fluorides, XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 by the direct reaction of elements under appropriate experimental conditions.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 39

Question 34.
With what neutral molecule is ClO isoelectronic? Is that molecule a Lewis base?
Answer:
OF2 and ClF are isoelectronic to ClO, out of which ClF is a Lewis base.

Question 35.
How are XeO3 and XeOF4 prepared?
Answer:
Preparation of XeO3. By complete hydrolysis of XeF6.
XeF6 + 3H2O → XeO3+ 6HF.
Preparation ofXeOF4. By partial hydrolysis of XeF6.
XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4+ 2HF.

Question 36
Arrange the following in the order of property indicated for each set:
(i) F2, Cl2, Br2, I2 – increasing bond dissociation enthalpy.
Answer:
Bond dissociation energy usually decreases on moving down a group as the atomic size increases. However, the bond dissociation energy of F2 is lower than that of Cl2 and Br2. This is due to the small atomic size of fluorine, Thus, the increasing order for bond dissociation energy among halogens is as follows:
I2 < F2 < Br2 < Cl2

(ii) HF, HCl, HBr, HI – increasing acid strength.
Answer:
HF < HCl < HBr < HI
The bond dissociation energy of HX molecules where X – F, Cl, Br, I, decreases with an increase in the atomic size. Since H – I bond is the weakest, HI is the strongest acid.

(iii) NH3, PH3, ASH3, SbH3, BiH3 – increasing base strength.
Answer:
BiH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 < NH3 On moving from nitrogen to bismuth, the size of the atom increases while the electron density on the atom decreases. Thus, the basic strength decreases.

Question 37.
Which one of the following does not exist?
(i) XeOF4
(ii) NeF2
(iii) XeF2
(iv) XeF6.
Answer:
NeF2 does not exist because the element Ne(Z = 10) with 1s22s22p6 does not have vacant 2d orbitals. As such, there is no scope of any electron promotion even by a highly electronegative element.

Question 38.
Give the formula and describe the structure of a noble gas species which is isostructural with :
(i) \(IC{ l }_{ 4 }^{ – }\)
(ii) \(IB{ r }_{ 2 }^{ – }\)
(iii) \(Br{ O }_{ 3 }^{ – }\)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 40
(i) Structure of \(IC{ l }_{ 4 }^{ – }\). The central I atom has in all 8 electrons (7 valence electrons +1 due to negative charge). Out of these, it shares 4 electrons with four atoms of Cl and the remaining four electrons constitute two lone pairs. In all, there are six pairs. The structure of the ion must be octahedral or distorted square planar in order to minimise the forces of repulsion among the two electrons pairs. \(IC{ l }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) has (7 + 4 x 7 + 1) = 36 valence electrons and it iso-electronic and iso-structural with XeF4 (8 + 4 x 7) which has also 36 valence electrons.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 41
(ii) Structure of \(IB{ r }_{ 2 }^{ – }\).
In \(IB{ r }_{ 2 }^{ – }\) ion, the central I atom has 8 valence electrons (7 + 1). Out of these, it shares 2 electrons with two atoms of Br and the remaining 6 electrons constitute three lone pairs. In all, there are five pairs. The structure of the ion must be trigonal bipyramidal or linear in order to minimise the force of repulsion among the three lone electrons pairs. IBrf has (7 + 2 x 7 + 1) = 22 valence electrons and is isoelectronic as well as iso-structural with noble gas species XeF2 which has also 22 (8 + 2 x 7) electrons.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 42
(iii) Structure of \(Br{ O }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) ion. In \(Br{ O }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) ion, the central Br atom has 8 valence electrons (7 + 1). Out of these, it shares 4 with two atoms of O forming Br=0 bonds. Out of the remaining four electrons, 2 are donated to the third O atom and account for its negative charge. The remaining 2 electrons constitute one lone pair. In order to minimise the force of repulsion, the structure of \(Br{ O }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) ion must be pyramidal. \(Br{ O }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) ion has (7 + 3 x 6 + 1) = 26 valence electrons and is isoelectronic as well as iso-structural with noble gas species Xe03 which has also 26 (8 + 3 x 6) electrons.

Question 39.
Why do noble gases have comparatively large atomic sizes?
Answer:
Noble gases do not form molecules. In the case of noble gases. the atomic radii correspond to Van der Waa1s radii. On the other hand, the atomic radii of other elements correspond to their covalent radii. By definition, Yan der Waal’s radii are larger than covalent radii. It is for this reason that noble gases are very large in size as compared to other atoms belonging to the same period.

Question 40.
List the uses of neon and argon gases.
Answer:
Uses of Neon:

  • Neon lights are used for commercial advertisements.
  • It consists of a long tube fitted with electrodes at both ends.
  • On filling the tube with neon gas and passing electric discharge of about 1000 volt potential, a bright red light is produced.
  • Different colours can be obtained by mixing neon with other gases.
  • For producing blue or green light neon is mixed with mercury vapours.

Uses of Argon:

  • Like helium, it is also used to create an inert atmosphere in welding aluminium and stainless steel.
  • It is filled in electric bulbs along with 25% nitrogen.
  • It is also used in radio valves.
  • Argon alone or its mixture with neon is used in tubes for producing lights of different colours.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 provides excellent solutions for the questions asked in the textbook. The step wise solutions and diagrammatic representations make the concepts easy to understand. The subject experts have given the best explanations to the queries. The students appearing for the board exams or competitive exams can refer to these for better preparations.

CBSE, MP board, UP board, Gujarat board, etc. have the NCERT Solutions for reference in the curriculum. Chemistry is an important subject and requires conceptual analysis. The detailed explanations in the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 will help the students to score well in the examination.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectChemistry
ChapterChapter 4
Chapter NameChemical Kinetics
Number of Questions Solved39
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics

Class 12 Chemistry chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics is an important chapter and is often asked in the examination. Chemical kinetics helps to understand the chemical reactions. This chapter explains all about the rate of reaction and the factors determining the rate of reaction.

NCERT IN-TEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
For a reaction R → P, the concentration of a reactant changes from 0·03 M to 0·02 M in 25 minutes. Calculate the average rate of the reaction using the units of seconds.
Answer:
For a reaction, R → P
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 1

Question 2.
In a reaction, 2A → Products, the concentration of A decreases from 0·5 mol L-1 to 0·4 mol L-1 in 10 minute. Calculate the rate during this interval.
Answer:
For the reaction: 2A → Products
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 2

Question 4.
Fora reaction,A+B —> Product; the rate law is given by, r =k [ A]1/2 [B]2. What is the order of the reaction?
Answer:
Order of reaction. = 1/2+ 2 = 21/2 or 2.5

Question 4.
The conversion of the molecules X to Y follows second order kinetics. If concentration of X is increased to three times, how will it affect the rate of formation of Y ?
Answer:
For the reaction X → Y
Reaction rate (r) = k[X]2
If the concentration be increased to three times, then
Reaction rate (r’) = k [3X]2
\(\frac { { r }^{ ‘ } }{ r } =\frac { k\left[ 3X \right] ^{ 2 } }{ k\left[ X \right] ^{ 2 } } =9\)

Question 5.
A first order reaction has rate constant of 1·15 x 10-3 s-1. How long will 5 g of this reactant take to reduce to 3g?
Answer:
For the first order reaction,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 3

Question 6.
Time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its initial concentration is 60 minutes. If the decomposition is a first order reaction, calculate the rate constant of the reaction.
Answer:
For the first order reaction ;
Rate constant (k) = \(\frac { 0.693 }{ { t }_{ 1/2 } } =\frac { 0.693 }{ \left( 60min \right) } \)
= \(\frac { 0.693 }{ \left( 60\times 60s \right) } =1.925\times { 10 }^{ -4 }{ s }^{ -1 }\)

Question 7.
What will be the effect of temperature on rate constant?
Answer:
With the rise in temperature by 10°, the rate constant of a reaction is nearly doubled. The dependence of rate constant on temperature is given the Arrhenius equation, k = A e-Ea/RT where A is the Arrhenius constant and Ea is activation energy of the reaction.

Question 8.
In general, it is observed that the rate of a chemical reaction doubles with every 10° rise in temperature. If the generalisation holds for a reaction in the temperature range 295 K to 305 K, what would be the value of activation energy for the reaction? (C.B.S.E. Delhi2005 Supp., Pb. Board2007)
Answer:
According to Arrhenius equation,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 4

Question 9.
The activation energy for the reaction, 2HI(g) → H2(g) + I2(g) is 208·5 kJ mol-1. Calculate fraction of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or greater than activation energy.
Answer:
The fraction of the molecules (x) having energy equal to or more than activation energy may be calculated as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 5

NCERT Exercise

Question 1.
The rate expression for the following reactions determine the order of reaction and the dimensions of the rate constant.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 6
Answer:
(a) 2
(b) 2
(c) 3/2
(d) 1

Question 2.
For the reaction, 2A + B → A2 B, the rate = k [AJ[B]2 with k = 2.0 x 10-6 mol-2 L2 s-1. Calculate the initial rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.1 mol L-1, [B] = 0.2 mol L-1. Calculate the rate of reaction after [A] is reduced to 0.06 mol L-1.
Answer:
Initial rate of reaction = k [A] [B]2
= (20 x 10-6 mol-2 s-1) (0.1 mol L-1) (0.2 mol L-1)2 = 8 x 10-9molL-1 s-1.
When [A] is reduced from 010 mol L-1 to 0.06 molL-1, i.e., 0.04 mol L-1 of A has reacted, the concentration of B reacted, is = 1/2 x 0.04 mol L-1 = 0.02 mol L-1
Concentration of B, remained after reaction with A = 0.2 – 0-02=0.18 mol L-1
Now, rate=(20 x 10-6 mol-2 L2 s-1) (0.06 mol L-1) (0.18 molL-1)2
= 3-89 x 10-9mol L-1 s-1

Question 3.
The rate of decomposition of NH3 on the platinum surface is zero order. What is the rate of production of N2 and H2 if k = 2·5 x 10-4 Ms-1? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 7

Question 4.
The decomposition of dimethyl ether leads to the formation of CH4, H2, and CO, and the reaction rate is given by the expression:
rate = k [CH3OCH3]3/2
The rate of reaction is followed by increase in pressure in a close vessel and the rate can also be expressed in terms of partial pressure of dimethyl ether :
rate = k [pCH3OCH3]3/2
If the pressure is measured in bar and time in minutes, then what are the units of rate and rate constant ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 8

Question 5.
Mention the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.
Answer:

  • Concentration of reactants
  • Temperature
  • Nature of reactants and products
  • Exposure to light (Radiation)
  • Presence of catalysts.

Question 6.
A reaction is second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of the reactant is
(i) doubled
(ii) reduced to 1/2? (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2008, 2009)
Answer:
Let the reaction be; A → Products
Reaction rate (r) = k [A]2 (for second order reaction)
(i) When concentration is doubled, the rate of reaction may be expressed as :
Reaction rate (r’) = k [2A]2
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 9
reaction rate becomes four times.
(ii) When concentration is reduced to half, the rate of reaction may be expressed as :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 10
reaction rate will be reduced to 1/4.

Question 7.
What is the effect of temperature on the rate constant of a reaction? How can this effect of temperature on rate constant be represented quantitatively?
Answer:
Increasing the temperature on decreasing the activation energy will result in an increase in the rate of reaction and an exponential increase in the rate constant. On increasing the temperature the fraction of molecules which collide with energy greater than Ea increases and hence the rate constant (exponentially)
K = A -ea/RT, quantitative representation of temperature effect on rate constant.

Question 8.
In pseudo-first-order hydrolysis of ester in water, the following results were obtained.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 11
(i) Calculate the average rate of reaction between the time interval 30 to 60 seconds.
(ii) Calculate the pseudo first order rate constant for the hydrolysis of ester.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 12

Question 9.
A reaction is first order in A and second order in B
(i) Write differential rate equation.
(ii) How is rate affected when the concentration of B is tripled?
(iii) How is rate affected when the concentration of both A and B are doubled? (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2010, 2013)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 13

Question 10.
In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction was measured for different initial concentration of A and B as given ahead :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 14
What is the order of reaction with respect to A and B?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 15

Question 11.
The following data were obtained at 300 K for the reaction 2A + B → C + D:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 16
Calculate the rate of formation of D when [A] = 0·5 mol L-1 and [B] = 0·2 mol L-1.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 17
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 18

Question 12.
The reaction between A and B is first order with respect to A and zero-order with respect to B. Fill in the blanks in the following table:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 19
Answer:
The rate equation for the reaction is: r = k [A]1 [B]0
(i) Comparing experiments I and II,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 20
Thus, the concentration of A in experiment II is 0·2 M
(ii) Comparing experiments II and in.
When the concentration of A is made double, the reaction rate will also become twice.
∴ Rate of reaction in experiment III is 8·0 x 10-2
(iii) Comparing experiments I and IV.
Since the reaction rates are the same in both the experiments, the molar concentration of A in experiment IV must be the same as in experiment I i. e., it must be 0·1 M.

Question 13.
Calculate the half-life of the first-order reaction from their rate constants given as
(a) 200 s-1
(b) 2 min-1
(c) 4 year-1.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 21

Question 14.
The half-life for the radioactive decay of 14C is 5730 Y. An archaeological artifact contained wood had only 80% of the 14 C found in a living tree. Estimate the age of the sample. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 22
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 23

Question 15.
The experimental data for decomposition of N2O2 [2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2] in gas phase at 318 K are given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 24
(a) Plot [N2O5] against t
(b) Find the half-life period for the reaction
(c) Draw a graph between log [N2O5] and t
(d) What is rate law?
(e) Calculate the rate constant
(f) Calculate the half-life period from k and compare it with (b).
Answer:
The available data is:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 25
(b) Initial cone. of N2O5 = 1·63 x 10-2M. Half of initial cone. = 1/2 x (1·63 x 10-2 M) = 0·815 x 10-2 M Time corresponding to half of inital concentration (t/2) from the plot (a) = 1400 (s) approximately
(c) The graph of log [N2O5] Vs. time has been plotted.
(d) Since the graph between log [N2O5] and time is a straight line the reaction is of the first order
The rate equation : rate (r) = k[N2O5]
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 26
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 27

Question 16.
The rate constant for the first-order reaction is 60 s-1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to its 1/16th value? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2013)
Answer:
For the first-order reaction
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 28

Question 17.
During a nuclear explosion, one of the products is 90Sr with a half period of 28·1 Y. If 1 pg of 90Sr was absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead of calcium, how much of it will remain after 10 years and 60 years if it is not lost metabolically?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 29
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 30

Question 18.
For a first-order reaction, show that the time required for 99% completion is twice the time required for the completion of 90% of the reaction.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics image - 4
Question 19.
A first-order reaction takes 40 minutes for 30% decomposition. Calculate its half-life period. (C. B. S. E. Outside Delhi 2013)
Answer:
tiwari academy class 12 chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 40

Question 20.
For the decomposition of azoisopropane to hexane and nitrogen at 543 K, the following data is obtained.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 38
Calculate the rate constant.
Answer:
The decomposition reaction is of gaseous nature and the expression of the rate equation for the reaction is :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 39

Question 21.
The following data were obtained during the first-order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2 at a constant volume.
SO2Cl2 (g) → SO2 (g) + Cl2(g)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 41
Calculate the rate of the reaction when the total pressure is 0·65 atm. (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 42
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 43

Question 22.
The rate constant for the decomposition of N2O5 at various temperatures is given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 44
Draw a graph between ln k and 1/T and calculate the values of A and Ea. Predict the rate constant at 30° and 50°C.
Answer:
To draw the plot of log K versus 1/T, we can re-write the given data as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 45
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 46
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 47

Question 23.
The rate constant for the decomposition of a hydrocarbon is 2.418 × 10-5 s-1 at 546 K. If the energy of activation is 179.9 kJ/mol, what will be the value of the pre-exponential factor.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics image - 5
Question 24.
Consider a certain reaction A → Products with k = 2·0 x 10-2 s-1. Calculate the concentration of A remaining after 100 s if the initial concentration of A is 1·0 mol L-1.
Answer:
For the first-order reaction :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 48

Question 25.
Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to the first-order rate law with t1/2 = 3·0 hrs. What fraction of the sample of sucrose remains after 8 hours? (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 49

Question 26.
The decomposition of a hydrocarbon follows the equation :
k = (4·5 x 1011 s-1)e-28000k/T.
Calculate the energy of activation (Ea).
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 50

Question 27.
The rate constant for the first-order decomposition of H2O2 is given by the following equation:
log k = 14·34 – 1·25 x 104K/T.
Calculate the Ea for the reaction. At what temperature will the half-life period be 256 minutes?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 51

Question 28.
The decomposition of A into the product has a value of k as 4·5 x 103 s-1 at 10°C and energy of activation 60 kJ mol-1. At what temperature would k be 1·5 x 104 s-1? (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
According to Arrhenius equation,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 52

Question 29.
The time required for 10% completion of a first-order reaction at 298 K is equal to that required for its 25% completion at 308 K. If the value of A is 4 x 1010s-1, calculate k at 318 K and Ea.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 53
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 54

Question 30.
The rate of a particular reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction (R = 8·314 JK-1 mol-1). (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2013)
Answer:
According to Arrhenius equation,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 55

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.