NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

NCERT Class 12 Chemistry Solutions for Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds provides in-depth knowledge of the concepts given in the chapter. It helps the students prepare well for boards as well as competitive exams. It also helps the students strengthen their basics for advanced concepts.

The students appearing for UP board, MP board, CBSE, Gujarat board, Maharashtra board, etc. can refer to these NCERT Solutions and score well in the examination.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectChemistry
ChapterChapter 9
Chapter NameCoordination Compounds
Number of Questions Solved43
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Complex compounds are known as coordination compounds. It is an important chapter from the examination perspective. The students need to be thorough with the concepts such as properties, examples and applications of coordination compounds.

A thorough knowledge of the basic concepts helps the students while studying the advanced concepts. This not only helps them during boards and home exams but also during competitive exams.

NCERT IN-TEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Write the formulas of the following coordination compounds:
(a) tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
(b) potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)
(c) tris (ethane-1, 2-diamine) chromium (III) chloride
(d) amminebromidochloridonitrito-N-platinate (II)
(e) dichlorobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) platinum (TV) nitrate
(f) iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (II).
Answer:
(a) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl3
(b) K2[Ni(CN)4]
(c) [Cr(en)3]Cl3
(d) [Pt(NH3)BrCl(NO2)]
(e) [PtCl2(en)2](NO3)2
(f) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3.

Question 2.
Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds:

  1. [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
  2. [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
  3. K3[Fe(CN)6l
  4. K3lFe(C2O4)3]
  5. K2[PdCl4]
  6. [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl

Answer:

  1. Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
  2. Pentaamminechloridecobalt (III) chloride
  3. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
  4. Potassiumtrioxalatoferrate(III)
  5. Potassium tetrachloridopalladate (II)
  6. Diamminechloride (methylamine) platinum (II) chloride

Question 3.
Give the types of isomerism exhibited by the following complexes and draw the structures of these isomers:
(a) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2]
(b) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(c) [CO(NH3)5(NO2)] (NO3)2
(d) [Pt(NH3) (H2O)Cl2] (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2] or K[Cr(H2O)2(OX)2]
(i) It exists as geometrical isomers :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 1
(ii) The cis isomer can also exist as pair of optical isomers.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 2
(b) The complex can exist as optical isomers. For structure, consult section 9.7.
(c) The complex can exist as pair of ionisation isomers as well as linkage isomers.
Ionisation isomers: [Co(NH3)5(NO2)] (NO3)2 and [Co(NH3)5(NO3)](NO2)(NO3)
Linkage isomers: [Co(NH3)5(NO2)](NO3)2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO](NO3)2
(d) The complex can exist as pair of geometrical isomers.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 3

Question 4.
Give evidence to show that [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [CO(NH3)5SO4]Cl exist as ionisation isomers.
Answer:
Dissolve both the complexes separately in water. First add a few drops of BaCl2 solution to both these complexes. Only one of these will give white precipitate with the solution indicating that SO4 is not a part of complex entity. If exists as an anion.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 4
Now again add a few drops of AgN03 solution to both these complexes. Only one of these will give white precipitate with the solution indicating that in this case Cl is not a part of complex entity. It exists as anion.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 5
This shows that the complexes exist as pair of ionisation isomers.

Question 5.
Explain on the basis of valence bond theory that [Ni(CN)4]2- ion with square planar structure is diamagnetic and the[Ni(CN)4]2- ion with tetrahedral geometry is paramagnetic.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 6
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 7

Question 6.
[MCl4]2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why ? (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi2012)
Answer:
In the complex [NiCl4]2-, Ni is in + 2 oxidation state and has the configuration 3d840. The CL ion being a weak ligand cannot pair the two unpaired electrons present in 3d orbitals. This means that 3d orbitals are not involved in hybridisation. The complex is sp3 hybridised (tetrahedral) and is paramagnetic in nature. In the other complex [Ni(CO)4], the oxidation state of Ni is zero and electronic configuration is 3d84s2. In the presence of the ligand CO, the 4s electrons shift to the two half filled 3d orbitals and make all the electrons paired. The valence 4s and 3p orbitals are involved in hybridisation. The complex is tetrahedral but diamagnetic. For more details, consult text part.

Question 7.
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagnetic. Explain.
Answer:
Outer electronic configuration of iron (Z = 26) in-ground state is 3d64s2. Iron in this complex is in +3 oxidation state. Iron achieves +3 oxidation state by the loss of two 4s electrons and one 3d electron. The resulting Fe3+ ion has outer electronic configuration of 3d5. Since H2O is not a strong field ligand, it is unable to cause electron pairing.

Outer electronic configuration of iron (Z=26) in ground state is 3d64s2. Iron in this complex is in a +3 oxidation state. Iron achieves +3 oxidation state by the loss of two 4s electrons and one 3d electron. The resulting Fe3+ ion has an outer electronic configuration as 3d5. CN ion is a strong field ligand

Question 8.
Explain [Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex while [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is an outer orbital complex.
Answer:
In the complex [Co(NH3)6]3+, the oxidation state of cobalt is +3 and has 3d6 configuration. In the presence of NH3 molecules (ligands), two 3d electrons pair up and two 3d orbitals remain empty. Since six ligands are to be accommodated the hybridisation of the metal ion is d2sp3.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 8
As inner d-electrons are involved, the complex is inner orbital complex and is diamagnetic in nature.
In the complex [Ni(NH3)6]3 + , the oxidation state of Ni is +2 and has 3d8 configuration. Since six NH3 molecules (ligands) are to be accomodated, the hybridisation of metal ion is sp3d2. This means that 4d orbitals are involved in the hybridisation.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 9
The complex is paramagnetic as well as outer orbital complex since outer (4d) electrons are involved in the hybridisation.

Question 9.
Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN)4]2- ion.
Answer:
The element Pt(Z = 78) is present in group 10 with electronic configuration 5d96s1. The divalent cation Pt2+ has 5d8 configuration.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 10
For square planar complex, Pt (II) is in dsp2 hybridisation state. To achieve this, the two unpaired electrons present in 5d orbitals get paired. The complex has, therefore, no unpaired electrons.

Question 10.
The hexaquomanganese(II) ion contains five unpaired electrons, while the hexacyano ion contains only one unpaired electron. Explain using Crystal Field Theory.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 11
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 12

Question 11.
Calculate the overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant for [Cu(NH3)4]2+ ion, given that p4 for the complex is 2·1 x 1013.
Answer:
The dissociation constant is the reciprocal of overall stability constant (β4)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 13

NCERT EXERCISE

Question 1.
Explain bonding in co-ordination compounds in terms of Werner’s postulates.
Answer:
Werner’s coordination theory: Alfred Werner gave his co-ordination theory in 1893. The important postulates of this theory are:
(i) All metals in atomic or ionic form exhibit two types of valencies in coordination compounds :
(a) Primary or principal or ionic valency (—–),
(b) Secondary or auxiliary or nonionic valency (—).
The primary valency is ionizable and it is shown by dotted lines. The secondary valency is non-ionizable and is shown by a continuous line.
(ii) Primary valency represents oxidation states of a metal atom or ion and secondary valency represents the co-ordination number of metal ion which is fixed for a particular atom.
(iii) The primary valencies are satisfied by negative ions whereas the secondary valencies may be satisfied either by negative ions (e.g., Cl, Br, CN etc.) or neutral molecules (ag., H2O).
(iv) Secondary valencies are directed towards a fixed position in space.
(v) Every element tends to satisfy both its primary and secondary valencies. For this purpose a negative ion may often act a dual behaviour i.e., it may satisfy primary as well as secondary valency (—–,-).
Example : (i) Luteo cobaltic chloride CoCl3.6NH3 or [Co(NH3)6]Cl3.
(ii) Purpureo cobaltic chloride COC13.5NH3 or [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

Question 2.
FeSO4 solution mixed with (NH4)2SO4solution in 1:1 molar ratio gives the test of, Fe2+ion but CuSO4solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio does not give the test of Cu2+ ion. Explain why.
Answer:
FeSO4 solution mixed with (NH4),SO4 solution in 1 : 1 molar ratio forms a double salt, FeS04 (NH4)2SO4-6H2O (Mohr’s salt) which ionizes in the solution to give Fe2+ions. Hence it gives the tests of Fe2+ ions. CuSO4 solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio forms a complex salt, with the formula [CU(NH3)4]SO4. The complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ does not ionize to give Cu2+ ions. Hence, it does not give the tests of Cu2+ ion.

Question 3.
Explain with two examples each of the following:
coordination entity, ligand, coordination number, coordination polyhedron, homoleptic and heterolepic.
Answer:
(a) Co-ordination Entity: A coordination complex or entity is the species enclosed in square bracket. It is also called co-ordinate sphere. It contains in it a certain metal atom or ion to which a fixed number of neutral molecules or ions capable of donating electron pairs are linked with co-ordinate bonds. e.g. [COCl3(NH3)3]

(b) Ligand: Ligands are the electron donor molecules or ions which may be either neutral, or anionic (sometimes cationic as well) and are linked to the central metal atom or ion by co-ordinate bonds also called dative bonds. In fact, the electrons needed for the bond are provided by the ligands. e.g. H2NCH2CH2NH2 or N(CH2CH2NH2)3

(c) Co-ordination Number: The coordination number [C.N.] of a metal ion in a complex can be defined as the number of ligand or donor atoms to which the metal is directly bonded. For example, in the complex ions, [PtCl6]2- and [Ni(NH3)4]2+, the coordination number of Pt and Ni are 6 and 4 respectively. Similarly, in the complex ions, [Fe(C2O4)3]3- and [CO(en)3]3+,the coordination number of both, Fe and Co, is 6 because C2O42-and en (ethane-1,2-diamine) are bidentate ligands.

(d) Coordination polyhedron : The spatial arrangement of the ligand atoms which are directly attached to the central atom/ion defines a coordination polyhedron about the central atom. The most common coordination polyhedra are octahedral, square planar and tetrahedral. For example, [CO(NH3)6]3+ is octahedral, [Ni(CO)4] is tetrahedral and [PtCl4]2- is square planar.

(e) Homoleptic and heteroleptic complexe : Complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor groups, e.g., [CO(NH3)6]3+, are known as homoleptic. Complexes in which a metal is bound to more than one kind of donor group, e.g., [CO(NH3)4Cl2]+, are known as heteroleptic.

Question 4.
What is meant by unidentate, didentate and ambidentate ligands ? Give two examples for each.
Answer:
Unidentate ligands are those which bind to the metal ion through a single donor atom, e.g., Cl , H2O.

Bidentate ligands are those which bind to the metal ion through two donor atoms. e.g., ethane-1,2-diamine (H2NCH2CH2NH2), oxalate (C2O42-) ion.

Ambidentate ligands are those which can bind to metal ion through two different donor atoms, e.g., NO2 and SCN ion.

Question 5.
Specify the oxidation numbers of metals in the following co-ordination entities :
(a) [Co(H2O)(CN)(en2)]2+
(b) [PtCl4]2-
(c) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3]
(d) [CoBr2(en)2]+
(e) K3[Fe(CN)6].
Answer:
(a) O.N. of Co : x + 0 + (-1) + 2(0)= + 2 or x = + 2+ 1 = + 3
(b) O.N. of Pt : x + 4 (-1) =-2 or x =-2 + 4 = + 2
(c) O.N. of Cr : x + 3(0) + 3(- 1) = 0 or x = + 3
(d) O.N. of Co : x + 2(- 1) + 2(0) = + 1 or x = + 1 + 2 = + 3
(e) O.N. of Fe : x + 6 (- 1) = – 3 or x = – 3 + 6 = + 3

Question 6.
Using IUPAC norms write the formulas for the following:
(i)Tetrahydroxozincate(Il)
(ii)Potassium tetrachloridopalladate (II)
(iii)Diamminedichlorido platinum (II)
(iv)Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)
(v)Pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt(III)
(vi)Ilexaamminccobalt (III) sulphate
(vii)Potassium tri(oxalato) chromate (III)
(yiii)Hexaammineplatinum (IV)
(ix)Tetrabromidocuprate(II)
(x) Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III)
Answer:
(i)[Zn(OH)4]2- (ii)K2[PdCl4]
(iii)[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(iv)K2[Ni(CN)4]
(v)[Co(NH3)5(ONO)]2+
(vi)[Co(NH3)6]2(SO4)3
(vii)K3[Cr(C2O4)3]
(viii)[Pt(NH3)6]4+
(ix)[CuBr4]2-
(x)[Co(NH3)5(N02)]2+

Question 7.
Using IUPAC norms write the systematic names of the following :
(a) [CO(NH3)6]Cl3
(b) [CO(NH3)4Cl(NO2)]Cl
(c) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
(d) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl
(e) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(f) [NiCl4]2-
(g) [Co(en)3]3+
(h) [Ti(H2O)6]3+
(i) [Ni(CO)4]. (Jharkhand Board 2015)
Answer:
(a) hexamminecobalt(III) chloride
(b) tetramminechloriodonitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride
(c) hexaamminenickel(II) chloride
(d) diamminechlorido (methaneamine) platinum(II) chloride
(e) hexaaquamanganese(II) ion
(f) tetrachloriodonickelate(II) ion
(g) tris(ethane-l, 2-diammine) cobalt(III) ion
(h) hexaaquatitanium(III) ion
(i) tetracarbonylnickel (0).

Question 8.
List various types of isomerism possible for coordination compounds, giving an example of each.
Answer:
(i) Geometrical isomerism: The isomer in which similar ligands occupy adjacent positions is referred to as cis isomer and the isomer in which similar ligands occupy opposite positions is referred to as trans isomer. Therefore, this type of isomerism is also known as cis-trans isomerism.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 14

(ii) Optical isomerism: The isomer which rotates the plane of polarised light to the right is called dextro rotatory and designated as d- and the one which rotates the plane of polarised light to the left is called laevo rotatory and designated as l. These optical isomers have identical physical and chemical properties except their behaviour towards the plane polarised light.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 15

(iii) Linkage isomerism: Linkage isomerism arises in a coordination compound containing ambidentate ligand. A simple example is provided by complexes containing the thiocyanate ligand, NCS, which may bind through the nitrogen to give M-N CS or through sulphur to give M-SCN. This behaviour was seen in the complex [CO(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2, which is obtained as the red form, in which the nitrite ligand is bound through oxygen ( ONO), and as the yellow form, in which the nitrite ligand is bound through nitrogen (-NO2).

(iv) Coordination isomerism : This type of isomerism arises from the interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic entities of different metal ions present in a complex. An example is provided by [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6], in which the NH3 ligands are bound to CO3+ and the CN ligands to Cr3+. In its coordination isomer [Cr(NH3)6][CO(CN)6], the NH3 ligands are bound to Cr3+ and the CN ligands to CO3+.

(v) Ionisation isomerism : This form of isomerism arises when the counter ion in a complex salt is itself a potential ligand and can displace a ligand which can then become the counter ion. An example is provided by the ionisation isomers [CO(NH3)5SO4]Br and [CO(NH3)5Br]SO4.

(vi) Solvate isomerism : This form of isomerism is known as ‘hydrate isomerism in case where water is involved as a solvent. This is similar to ionisation isomerism. Solvate isomers differ by whether or not a solvent molecule is directly bonded to the metal ion or merely present as free solvent molecules in the crystal lattice. An example is provided by the aqua complex [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (violet) and its solvate isomer [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 H2O (grey green).

Question 9.
How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following coordination entities ?
(a) [Cr(C2O4)3]3-
(b) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
Answer:
(a) [Cr(C2O4)2]3- : No geometrical isomerism is possible.
(b) [CO(NH3)3Cl3] : Two geometrical isomers : fac and mer
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 16

Question 10.
Draw the structures of optical isomers of :
(a) [Cr(C2O4)3]3-
(b) [PtCl2(en)2]2+
(c) [Cr(NH3)2Cl2(en)]+ (C.B.S.E. Foreign 2015)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 17

Question 11.
Draw all the isomers (geometrical and optical) of :
(a) [CoCl2(en)2]+
(b) [CoNH3Cl(en)2]2+
(c) [Co(NH3)2Cl2(en)]+
Answer:
(a)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 18
(b)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 19
(c)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 20

Question 12.
Write all the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl)(py)]. How many of these will exhibit optical isomerism ?
Answer:
There are three geometrical isomers.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 21
Optical isomerism is generally not shown by the square planar complexes with CN = 4.

Question 13.
Aqueous copper sulphate solution (blue in colour) gives (a) green precipitate with aqueous potassium fluoride and (b) a bright green solution with aqueous potassium chloride solutions. Explain these experimental results.
Answer:
Aqueous solution of copper sulphate which is blue in colour exists as [Cu(H2O)4]SO4 and gives [Cu(H2O)4]2+ in solution. It is a labile complex entity in which the ligands H2O get easily replaced by F ions of KF and by Cl ions of KCl.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 22

Question 14.
What is the coordination entity formed when excess aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? Why is that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained when H2S(g) is passed through the solution?
Answer:
When an excess aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of CuSO4, Potassiumtetra-cyanocuprate (II) is formed. When H2S(g) is passed through the above solution, no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained because CN ions are strong ligands so the complex [Cu(CN)4]2- is very stable. As Cu2+ ions are not available so CuS precipitate is not formed.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 23

Question 15.
Discuss the nature of bonding in the following co-ordination complexes on the basis of valence bond theory :
(a) [Fe(CN)6]4-
(b) [FeF6]3-
(c) [Co(C2O4)3]3-
(d) [CoF6]3-
Answer:
(a) Hexacyanoferrate(II) ion [Fe(CN)6]4-: Iron in this complex is in +2 oxidation state. Iron achieves + 2 oxidation state by the loss of two 4s electrons. The resulting Fe2+ ion has outer electronic configuration of 3d6.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 24

(b) Hexafluoriodoferrate(II) ion [FeF6]3-: Iron in this complex is in +2 oxidation state. Iron achieves + 2 oxidation state by the loss of two 4s electrons. The resulting Fe2+ ion has outer electronic configuration of 3d6.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 25
(c)

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 26

(d) Hexafluorocobaltate(III) [CoF6]3-: Cobalt ion in the complex is in + 3 oxidation state. Cobalt achieves + 3 oxidation state by the loss of two 4s electrons and one 3d electron. The resulting Co3 + ion has outer electronic configuration of 3d6.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 27

Question 16.
Draw figure to show the splitting of d-orbitals in octahedral crystal field.
Answer:
Let us assume that the six ligands are positioned symmetrically along the Cartesian axes, with a metal atom at the origin.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 28

As the ligands approach, first there is an increase in energy of d-orbitals relative to that of the free ion just as would be the case in a spherical field.

The orbitals lying along the axes (dz2 and dx2 – y2) get repelled more strongly than dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals which have lobes directed between the axes.

The dz2 and dx2-y2 orbitals get raised in energy and dxy dyz, dxz orbitals are lowered in energy relative to the average energy in the spherical crystal field. Thus, the degenerate set of d-orbitals get split into two sets: the lower energy orbitals set, t2g, and the higher energy orbitals set, eg. The energy is separated by ∆0

Question 17.
What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand and a strong field ligand.
Answer:
Spectrochemical series: The arrangement of ligands in order of their increasing field strengths i.e. increasing crystal field splitting energy (CFSE) values is called spectrochemical series, which is as follows:
I < Br < SCN < Cl < S2- < F < OH < C2O2-4 < H2O < NCS < edta-4 < NH3 < en < CN < CO.
Difference between weak field ligand and a strong field ligand: The ligand with a small value of CFSE (∆0) are called weak field ligands whereas those with a large value of CFSE are called strong field ligands.

Question 18.
What is crystal field splitting energy ? How does the magnitude of ∆0 decide the actual configuration of d- orbitals in a coordination entity ?
Answer:
The degenerate d-orbitals (in a spherical field environment) split two-level i.e. eg and t2g in the presence of ligands. The splitting of the degenerate orbitals in the presence of ligands is called crystal field splitting and the energy difference between the two levels (e and t2g) is called the crystal field splitting energy. It is denoted by ∆o. After the orbitals have split, the filling of the electrons takes place. After 1 electron (each) has filled in the three t2g orbitals, the filling of the electrons takes place in 2 ways.

It can enter the orbital (giving) rise to t3g eg, like electronic configuration on the pairing of the electrons can take place in the t2g orbitals (giving rise to t42g eg0 like electronic configuration). If the ∆o value of a ligand is less than the pairing energy, then the electrons enter the eg orbital. On the other hand, if the ∆o value of a ligand is more than the pairing energy, then the electrons enter the t2g orbitals.

Question 19.
[Cr(NH3)6]3+ is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)4]2- is diamagnetic. Explain why?
Answer:
(i) Hexaamminechromium(III) ion [Cr(NH3)6]3+: Outer electronic configuration of chromium (Z=24) in ground state is 3d24s1 and in this complex, it is in the +3 oxidation state. Chromium achieves +3 oxidation state by the loss of one 4s electron and two 3d-electrons. The resulting Cr3+ ion has outer electronic configuration of 3d3.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 29
(ii) Tetracyanonickelate (II) ion [Ni(CN)4]2-: Outer electronic configuration of nickel (Z = 28) in ground state is 3d84s2. Nickel in this complex is in + 2 oxidation state. It achieves + 2 oxidation state by the loss of the two 4s-electrons. The resulting Ni2+ ion has outer electronic configuration of 3d8.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 30

Question 20.
A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green but a solution of [Ni(CN)4]2- is colourless. Explain. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Formation of [Ni(H2O)6]2+
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 31
Since H2P molecules represent weak field ligands, they do not cause any electron pairing. As a result the complex has two unpaired electrons and is coloured. The d-d transitions absorb radiations corresponding to a red light and the complementary colour emitted is green.
Formation of [Ni(CN)4]2-. For the details of the structure of the complex,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 32
Since the complex has no unpaired electrons there is no scope for any d-d transition. The complex is therefore, colourless.

Question 21.
[Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ are of different cdlours in dilute solutions. Why?
Answer:
In both the complexes, Fe is in +2 state with the configuration 3d6 i.e., it has four unpaired electrons. As the ligand H2O and CN possess different crystal field splitting energy (∆0), they absorb different components of the visible light (VIBGYOR) for the transition. Hence, the transmitted colours are different.

Question 22.
Discuss the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.
Answer:
The metal-carbon bond in metal carbonyls possess both s and p character. The M-C σ bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl carbon into a vacant orbital of the metal. The M-C π bond is formed by the donation of a pair of electrons from a filled d-orbital of metal into the vacant antibonding π* orbital of carbon monoxide. The metal to ligand bonding creates a synergic effect which strengthens the bond between CO and the metal.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 33

Question 23.
Give the oxidation state, d-orbital occupation and coordination number of the central metal ion in the following complexes :
(a) K3[CO(C2O4)3]
(b) (NH4)2[CoF4]
(C) Cis – [CrCl22(en)2]Cl
(d) [Mn(H2O)6]SO4
Answer:
(a) OS = + 3, CN = 6, d-orbital occupation is 3d6 \({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 6 }{ e }_{ g }^{ 0 }\),
(b) OS = + 2, CN = 4, 3d7 (\({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 5 }{ e }_{ g }^{ 2 }\)),
(c) OS = + 3, CN = 6, 3d3 (\({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 3 }\)),
(d) OS = + 2, CN = 6, 3d6 (\({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 3 }{ e }_{ g }^{ 2 }\)).

Question 24.
Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes and indicate the oxidation state, electronic configuration and coordination number. Also give stereochemistry and magnetic moment of the complex :
(a) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2]3H2O
(b) [CrCl3(py)3]
(c) K4[Mn(CN)6]
(d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(e) Cs[FeCl4]
Answer:
(a) IUPAC name : potassium diaquadioxalatochromate (III) hydrate.
O.S. of Cr = + 3 ; 3d3 (\({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 3 }{ e }_{ g }^{ 0 }\)) CN = 6 ; shape = octahedral, three unpaired electrons.
Magnetic moment (μ) = \(\sqrt { n\left( n+2 \right) } =\sqrt { 3\times 5 } =\sqrt { 15 } =3\cdot 87BM\)
(b) IUPAC name: trichloridotripyridinechromium (III) O.S. of Cr = + 3; 3 d3 (\({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 3 }{ e }_{ g }^{ 0 }\)) CN = 6
shape = octahedral ; three unpaired electrons.
Magnetic moment (μ) = \(\sqrt { n\left( n+2 \right) } =\sqrt { 3\times 5 } =3\cdot 87BM\)
(c) IUPAC name : potassiumhexacyanomanganate (II) O.S. of Mn = + 2 ; 3d5 (\({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 5 }{ e }_{ g }^{ 0 }\)), CN = 6, shape = octahedral; one unpaired electron.
Magnetic moment (μ) = \(\sqrt { n\left( n+2 \right) } =\sqrt { 1\times 3 } =\sqrt { 3 } =1\cdot 73BM\)
(d) IUPAC name : pentaamminechloridocobalt (III) chloride
O.S. of Co = + 3 ; 3d6 (\({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 6 }{ e }_{ g }^{ 0 }\)), CN = 6
shape = octahedral; zero unpaired electron. Magnetic moment (μ) = 0
(e) IUPAC name : cesium tetrachloridoferrate (III)
O.S. of Fe = + 3 ; 3d5 (\({ e }^{ 2 }{ t }_{ 2 }^{ 3 }\)), CN = 4.
shape = tetrahedral ; five unpaired electrons.
Magnetic moment (μ) = \(\sqrt { n\left( n+2 \right) } =\sqrt { 5\times 7 } =\sqrt { 35 } =5\cdot 92BM\)

Question 25.
What is meant by stability of a coordination compound in solution ? State the factors which govern stability of complexes.
Answer:
The stability of a complex in solution refers to the degree of association between the two species involved in the state of equilibrium. The magnitude of the (stability or formation) equilibrium constant for the association, quantitatively expresses the stability. Thus, if we have a reaction of the type :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 34
then, the larger the stability constant, the higher is the proportion of ML4 that exists in the solution. Free metal ions rarely exist in the solution so that M will usually be surrounded by solvent molecules which will compete with the ligand molecules, L, and be successively replaced by them. For simplicity, we generally ignore these solvent molecules and write four stability constants as follows :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 35
Factors affecting stability of complexes :

  1. The smaller the size of the cation, the greater will be the stability of the complex e.g., Fe3+ forms a more stable complex than Fe2+.
  2. The greater the charge on the central metal ion, the more stable will be the complex e.g., Pt4+ forms a more stable complex than Pt2+.
  3. Stronger the ligand, more stable will be the complex formed e.g., CN forms more stable complex then NH3.

Question 26.
What is meant by chelate effect ? Give an example.
Answer:
When a ligand attaches to the metal ion in a manner that form’s a ring, then the metal-ligand association is found to be more stable. In other words, we can say that complexes containing chelate ring more stable than complexes without rings. This is known as the chelate effect.
Examples: EDTA, DMG, etc.

Question 27.
Discuss briefly giving an example in each case the role of coordination compounds in:
(i) biological systems
(ii) medicinal chemistry
(iii) analytical chemistry and
(iv) extraction/ metallurgy of metals.
Answer:
(i) Role of coordination compounds in biological systems:
We know that photosynthesis is possible by the presence of chlorophyll pigment. This pigment is a coordination compound of magnesium. In the human biological system, several coordination compounds play important roles. For example, the oxygen – carrier of blood, i.e hemoglobin is a coordination compound of iron.

(ii) Role of coordination compounds in Medicinal chemistry: Certain coordination compounds of platinum (for example cis-platin) are used for inhibiting the growth of tumors.

(iii) Role of coordination compounds in analytical chemistry: During salt analysis, a number of basic radicals are detected with the help of the colour changes they exhibit with different reagents. These colour changes are a result of the coordination compounds or complexes that the basic radicals form with different ligands.

(iv) Role of coordination compounds in interaction or metallurgy of metals: The process of extraction of some of the metals from their ores involves the formation of complexes. For example in an aqueous solution, gold combines with cyanide ions to form [Au (CN)2]. From this solution, gold is later extracted by the addition of Zn metal.

Question 28.
How many ions are produced from the complex Co(NH3)6Cl2 in solution?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2.
Answer:
The complex will dissociate in aqueous solution to give three ions
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 36
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.

Question 29.
Amongst the following ions which one has the highest magnetic movement value?
(a) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(c) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
Answer:
The oxidation states of the metals in the complexes along with the electronic configuration are given:
(a) Cr3+ : 3d3 configuration ; unpaired electrons = 3
(b) Fe2+ : 3d6 configuration ; unpaired electrons = 4
(c) Zn2+ : 3d10 configuration ; unpaired electrons = 0
The complex (b) with maximum number of unpaired electrons has the highest magnetic moment. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.

Question 30.
The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is
(a) + 1
(b) + 3
(c) – 1
(d) – 3.
Answer:
O.N. of Co : x + 4(0) = -1 or x = -1. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.

Question 31.
Amongst the following, the most stable complex is :
(a) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(b) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
(c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3-
(d) [FeCl6]3-.
Answer:
In all the complexes, Fe is in + 3 oxidation state. However, the complex (c) is a chelate because three \({ C }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\) ions act as the chelating ligands. Thus, the most stable complex is (c).

Question 32.
What will be the correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the following : [Ni(NO2)6]4-,[Ni(NH3)6]2+,[Ni(H2O)6]2+.
Answer:
In all the complexes, the metal ion is the same (Ni2+). The increasing field strengths of the ligands present as per electrochemical series are in the order :
H2O < NH3 < \({ NO }_{ 2 }^{ – }\)
The energies absorbed for excitation will be in the order :
[Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4-
As E = hc/λ i.e., E ∝ 1/λ; the wavelengths absorbed will be in the opposite order.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles The Mughal Courts

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles The Mughal Courts are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles The Mughal Courts.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectHistory
ChapterChapter 9
Chapter NameKings and Chronicles The Mughal Courts
Number of Questions Solved9
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles The Mughal Courts

Question l.
Describe the process of manuscript production in the Mughal court.
Solution :
The process of manuscript production in the Mughal court involved a variety of tasks as mentioned below :

  • Paper makers prepared the folios of the manuscript.
  • Scribes or calligraphers used to copy the text.
  • Gliders illuminated the pages of the manuscript.
  • Painters illustrated the scenes from the text to describe it in a visual form.
  • Bookbinders gathered the individual folios and set them within ornamental covers.

At the end of above tasks, the finished manuscript was seen as a precious object, a work of intellectual wealth and beauty. It was an example of power of its patron, the Mughal emperor, to bring such beauty into being.

Question 2.
In what ways would the daily routine and special festivities associated with the Mughal court have conveyed a sense of the power of the emperor?
Solution :
The daily routine and special festivities associated with the Mughal court observed the following:

  1. By representing the status of the court.
  2. In form of salutation of emperor.
  3. Jharokha Darshan.
  4. Meeting held by sultan in Diwan-i-Am and Diwan-i-Khas.
  5. By honouring the mansabdar on special occasion with special gifts and jagir.

Question 3.
Assess the role played by women of the imperial household in the Mughal Empire.
Solution :
The role played by women of the imperial household was significant:

  1. Nur Jahan took an important part in the administration during the period of Jahangir.
  2. After Nur Jahan, Mughal queens and princesses began to control significant financial resources. Shah Jahan’s daughters Jahanara and Roshanara enjoyed an annual income often equal to that of high imperial mansabdars. Jahanara, in addition, received revenues from the port city of Surat, which was a lucrative centre of overseas trade.
  3. The princess Jahanara played an important role in the arrangement of marriage of Dara Shukoh and Nadira.
  4. Control over resources enabled women to commission buildings and gardens. Jahanara participated in many architectural projects of Shah Jahan’s new capital, Shahjahanabad (Delhi) which included an imposing double-storeyed caravanserai with a courtyard and garden. The bazaar of Chandni Chowk was too designed by Jahanara.
  5. Besides taking part in different activities, some women such as Gulbadan Begum, daughter of Babur, wrote the Humayun Nama. She was Akbar’s aunt and when Akbar commissioned Abu’l Fazl to write history of his reign, he requested her to record her memoirs of earlier times under Babur and Humayun. She described the conflicts and tensions among the princes and kings and the important mediating role elderly women of the family played in resolving some of these conflicts.

Question 4.
What were the concerns that shaped Mughal policies and attitudes towards regions outside the subcontinent ?
Solution :
The following concerns shaped Mughal policies and attitudes towards regions outside the subcontinent:

  1. The Safavids and Qandahar : Qandahar was a bone of contention between the Safavids and the Mughals due to its strategic importance because all conquerors who sought to make their way into the Indian subcontinent had to cross the Hindukush to have access to north India. It was, therefore, a constant aim of Mughal policy to ward off this potential danger by controlling strategic outposts — notably Qandahar and Kabul. It was under these circumstances that the Mughals tried to have control over Qandahar. It was under the possession of Humayun but later the Mughals lost control of it. Akbar reconquered it in 1595. The Safavids, however, maintained diplomatic relations with the Mughals, but they always continued to stake claims to Qandahar. In 1622, the Persian army besieged Qandahar and defeated the Mughals. The city once again came under the control of the Safavids. Thus, due to its strategic importance Qandahar remained a bone of contention between the Mughals and the Safavids.
  2. The Ottomans : Pilgrimage and trade :
    • The relationship between the Mughals and the Ottomans was to ensure free movement for merchants and pilgrims in the territories under Ottoman control, particularly in Hijaz (Ottoman Arabia) where the important centres of Mecca and Madina were located.
    • The Mughal emperors combined religion and commerce by exporting valuable merchandise to Aden and Mokha, both Red Sea ports. They distributed the proceeds of the sales in charity to the keepers of shrines and religious men there.
  3. Mughals and the Portuguese : After the discovery of a direct sea route to India, the Portuguese king was interested in the propagation of Christianity with the help of missionaries. Akbar too was curious about Christianity. So, Jesuits mission came to India in 1580, 1591 and 1595. At public assemblies, Jesuits were assigned places in close proximity to Akbar’s throne.

Question 5.
Discuss the major features of Mughal provincial administration. How did the centre control the provinces?
Solution :

  1. The head of the provincial administration was the governor (subadar). He reported directly to the emperor.
  2. Each suba was divided into sarkar,
  3. The local administration was looked after at the level of the pargana (sub-district) by three semi-hereditary officers, the qanungo (keeper of revenue records), the chaudhur (in charge of revenue collection) and the qazi.
  4. Each department of administration maintained a large support staff of clerks, accountants, auditors, messengers, and other functionaries who were technically qualified officials, functioning in accordance with standardised rules and procedures, and generating copious written orders and records.

Question 6.
Discuss, with examples, the distinctive features of Mughal chronicles.
Solution :
The distinctive features of Mughal chronicles were as given below :

  1. They projected a vision of enlightened kingdom to all those who were under it and conveyed a message to the resistors that they could not be successful in their objects.
  2. The chronicles were commissioned by the Mughal rulers to ensure that there was an account of their rule for posterity.
  3. The chronicles were written by the courtiers who focused on events centred on the ruler, his family, the court and nobles, wars and administrative arrangements because for them the history of the empire and the court was synonymous with that of the emperor. Their titles were therefore, after the name of emperors such as Akbar Naina, Shahjahan Nama and Alamgir Nama.
  4. Mughal chronicles were written in Persian e.g., Akbar Nama. Babur’s memoirs was translated from the Turkish into Persian Babur Nama.
  5. The chronicles were manuscripts and included paintings to enhance their beauty.
  6. Chronicles showed the power of the Mughal kings came directly from God. The emperors were portrayed wearing the halo to symbolise the light of God.
  7. Mughal chronicles presented the empire as compromising many different ethnic and religious communities. Abu’l Fazl described the ideal of sulh-ikul as the comer stone of enlightened rule.

Question 7.
To what extent do you think the visual material presented in this chapter corresponds with Abu’l Fazl’s description of the taswir (Source 1)?
Ans:

  1. Drawing the likeness of anything is called taswir. His Majesty from his earliest youth, has shown a great predilection for this art, and gives it every encouragement, as he looks upon it as a means both of study and amusement.
  2. A very large number of painters set to work.
  3. Each week, several supervisors and clerks of the imperial workshop submit before the emperor the work done by each artist, and his Majesty gives a reward.
  4. Paintings served not only to enhance the beauty of a book, but were believed to possess special powers of communicating ideas about the kingdom and the power of kings in ways that the written medium could not.
  5. The historian Abu’l Fazl described painting as a ‘magical art’ in his view it had the power to make inanimate objects look as if they possessed life.

Question 8.
What were the distinctive features of the Mughal nobility ? How was their relationship with the emperor shaped ?
Solution :

  1. The distinctive features of the Mughal nobility were as given below :
    • The nobility was recruited from diverse ethnic and religious groups. No faction was large enough to challenge the authority of the state.
    • There were Turani, Iranian, Rajputs, and Indian Muslims (Shaikhzadas).
    • Nur Jahan was an Iranian and so Iranians gained high offices under Jahangir.
    • Aurangzeb appointed Rajputs to high offices.
    • All holders of government offices held mansabs comprising two numerical designations zat and sawar.
    • The nobles participated in military campaigns with their armies. They also served as officers of the empire in the provinces.
    • Akbar established spiritual relationships with a select band of his nobility by treating them as his disciples (murid).
    • Nobles stationed at the court were a reserve force to be deputed to a province or military campaign.
  2. Their relationships with the emperor were shaped in different ways :
    • As the nobility was recruited from diverse ethnic and religious groups, no faction was strong enough to challenge the authority of the state.
    • The emperor personally reviewed their rank, titles and postings.
    • Akbar maintained spiritual relationship with some nobles and treated them as the disciples.
    • The influence of different groups of nobility changed from time to time. For example, Iranians were influential in the time of Jahangir but Rajputs and Marathas became influential dining the time of Aurangzeb.
    • The emperor used to award them with office or titles to maintain their loyality towards
      him.
    • According to the Jesuit priest Father Antonio Monserrate, resident at the court of Akbar, in order to prevent the great nobles becoming insolent through the unchallenged enjoyment of power, the emperor used to summon them to court and give them imperious commands, as though they were his slaves.

Question 9.
Identify the elements that went into the making of the Mughal ideal of kingship.
Solution :
The following elements went into the making of the Mughal ideal of kingship :

  1. Divine light – Court chronicles considered that the power of the Mughal kings came directly from God. Abu’l Fazl placed Mughal kingship as the highest station in the hierarchy of objects receiving light emanating from God. King was the source of spiritual guidance for his subjects. Thus, Mughal artists portrayed emperors wearing the halo to symbolise the light of God.
  2. A unifying force – The emperor was source of peace and stability. He stood above all religious and ethnic groups, mediated among them, and ensured that justice and peace prevailed. Abu’l Fazl describes the ideals of sulh-i kul as the comer stone of enlightened rule. Under the sulh-i kul, the nobility of the Mughals consisted of Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs and Deccanis — all of whom were given positions on the basis of their merits and loyalty to the king. Akbar abolished pilgrimage tax in 1563 and Jizya in 1564.
  3. Just sovereignty as social contract : Under Mughal ideal of kingship, Abu’l Fazl defined sovereignty as a social contract. The emperor protected the life (jan), property (mal), honour (namus) and faith (din) of his subjects and in return demanded their obedience and a share of resources.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles The Mughal Courts help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles The Mughal Courts, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given. NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectPhysics
ChapterChapter 7
Chapter NameAlternating Current
Number of Questions Solved26
CategoryNCERT Solutions

Question 1.
A 100 Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply.
(a) What is the rms value of current in the circuit?
(b) What is the net power consumed over a full cycle?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 1
Question 2.
(a) The peak voltage of an a.c. supply is 300 V. What is the rms voltage?
(b) The rms value of current in an ac circuit is 10 A. What is the peak current?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 2
Question 3.
A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of the current in the circuit.
Answer:
Here, reactance XL = 2 Πv L = 2Π X 50 x 44 x 10-3
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 3

Question 4.
A 60 μF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz ac supply. Determine the RMS value of the current in the circuit.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 4

Question 5.
In Exercise 7.3 and 7.4, what is the net power absorbed by each circuit over a complete cycle? Explain your answer.
Answer:
In the case of an ideal inductor or capacitor, there is no power loss.

Question 6.
Obtain the resonant frequency ωr of a series LCR circuit with L =2.0 H, C = 32 μF and R = 10 Ω. What is the Q-value of this circuit?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 5

Question 7.
A charged 30 μF capacitor is connected to a 27 mil inductor. What is the angular frequency of free oscillations of the circuit ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 6

Question 8.
Suppose the initial charge on the capacitor in Exercise 7.7 is 6 mC. What is the total energy stored in the circuit initially? What is the total energy at later time?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 7
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 8
At a later time, energy is shared between capacitor and inductor, However, the total energy remains the same, provided there is no loss of energy.

Question 9.
A series LCR circuit with R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H and C = 35 μF is connected to a variable-frequency 200 V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural frequency of the circuit, what is the average power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle?
Answer:
At natural frequency
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 9

Question 10.
A radio can tune over the frequency range of a portion of the MW broadcast band : (800 kHz to 1200 kHz). If its LC circuit has an effective inductance of 200 pH, what must be the range of its variable capacitor?
[Hint. For tuning, the natural frequency i.e., the frequency of free oscillations for the LC circuit should be equal to the frequency of the radio wave.]
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 10
Thus, the range of the variable capacitor must be 88 pF to 198 pF.

Question 11.
Figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L = 5.0 H, C = 80 μF, R = 40 Cl.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 11
(a) Determine the source frequency which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating frequency.
(c) Determine the rms potential drops across the three elements of the circuit. Show that the potential drop across the LC combination is zero at the resonating frequency. (C.B.S.E. 1994, 1998, 2006)
Answer:
(a) Resonant angular frequency,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 12

Question 12.
An LC circuit contains a 20 mH inductor and a 50 μF capacitor with an initial charge of 10 mC. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. Let the instant the circuit is closed be t = 0.
(a) What is the total energy stored initially? Is it conserved during LC oscillations?
(b) What is the natural frequency of the circuit?
(c) At what time is the energy stored:
(i) completely electrical (i.e., stored in the capacitor)?
(ii) completely magnetic (i.e., stored in the inductor)?
(d) At what times is the total energy shared equally between the inductor and the capacitor?
(e) If a resistor is inserted in the circuit, how much energy is eventually dissipated as heat? (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 1998)
Answer:
(a) Total initial energy
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 13
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 14
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 15
(e) Total initial energy of 1 J will be lost as heat due to Joule’s heating effect in the resistor.

Question 13.

A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100 Ω is connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz ac supply.
(a) What is the maximum current in the coil?
(b) What is the time lag between the voltage maximum and the current maximum?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 16
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 17

Question 14.

Obtain the answers (a) to (b) in Exercise 7.13 if the circuit is connected to a high-frequency supply (240 V, 10 kHz). Hence, explain the statement that at very high frequency, an inductor in a circuit nearly amounts to an open circuit. How does an inductor behave in a dc circuit after the steady-state?
Answer:
For the given high frequency, ω = 2 Π v = 2 Π x 104 rad s-1
I0, in this case, is too small, so it can be concluded that at high frequencies an inductor behaves as on an open circuit.
In a steady d.c. circuit v = 0, so the inductor acts as a simple conductor.

Question 15.
A 100 μF capacitor in series with a 40 Ω resistance is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz supply.
(а)    What is the maximum current in the circuit?
(b)  What is the time lag between the current maximum and the voltage maximum?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 18
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 20
Question 16.
Obtain the answers to (a) and (b) in Exercise 7.15 if the circuit is connected to a 110 V, 12 kHz supply. Hence, explain the statement that a capacitor is a conductor at very high frequencies. Compare this behavior with that of a capacitor in a dc circuit after the steady-state.
Answer
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 21

embed=”true”>or n is nearly zero at high frequency. In part (a) C term is negligible at a high frequency so it acts like a resistor. For a steady d. c. we have v like

Question 17.
Keeping the source frequency equal to the resonating frequency of the series LCR circuit, if the three elements. L, C, and R are arranged in parallel, show that the total current in the parallel LCR circuit is minimum at this frequency. Obtain the current rms value in each branch of the circuit for the elements and source specified in Exercise 7.11 for this frequency.
Answer:
In the case of parallel LCR circuit, impedance is given by,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 22
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 23

Question 18.
A circuit containing an 80 mF inductor and a 60 μF capacitor in series is connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
(a) Obtain the current amplitude and rms values.
(b) Obtain the rms values of potential drops across each element.
(c) What is the average power transferred to the inductor?
(d) What is the average power transferred to the capacitor?
(e) What is the total average power absorbed by the circuit?
[‘Average’ implies ‘averaged over one cycle’.]
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 24
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 25

Question 19.
Suppose the circuit in Exercise 7.18 has a resistance of 15 Ω. Obtain the average power transferred to each element of the circuit, and the total power absorbed.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 26

Question 20.
A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 Ω is connected to a 230 V variable frequency supply.
(a) What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum. Obtain this maximum value.
(b) What is the source frequency for which the average power absorbed by the circuit is maximum. Obtain the value of this maximum power.
(c) For which frequencies of the source are the power transferred to the circuit half the power at resonant frequency? What is the current amplitude at these frequencies?
(d) What is the Q-factor of the given circuit? (C.B.S.E. 1992 )
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 27
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 28
Question 21.
Obtain the resonant frequency and Q-factor of a series LCR circuit with L = 3.0 H, C = 27 μF, and R = 7.4 Ω. It is desired to improve the sharpness of the resonance of the circuit by reducing its ‘full width at half maximum’ by a factor of 2. Suggest a suitable way.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 29
Question 22.
Answer the following questions :
(a) In any ac circuit, is then applied instantaneous voltage equal to the algebraic sum of the instantaneous voltages across the series elements of the circuit? Is the same true for rms voltage?
(b) A capacitor is used in the primary circuit of an induction coil.
(c) An applied voltage signal consists of a superposition of a dc voltage and an ac voltage of high frequency. The circuit consists of an inductor and a capacitor in series. Show that the dc signal will appear across C and the ac signal across L.
(d) A choke coil in series with a lamp is connected to a dc line. The lamp is seen to shine brightly. Insertion of an iron core in the choke causes no change in the lamp’s brightness. Predict the corresponding observations if the connection is to an ac line.
(e) Why is choke coil needed in the use of fluorescent tubes with ac mains? Why can we not use an ordinary resistor instead of the choke coil?
Answer:
(a) Yes, the applied instantaneous voltage is equal to the algebraic sum of the instantaneous voltages across the series elements of the circuit. It is because voltages across different elements are not in phase.
It is not true for rms voltages. It is because rms voltages across different elements are not in phase with each other.

(b) At the break, a large induced emf is produced. In case the capacitor is not connected, sparking will take place. But when the capacitor is used, the large induced emf produced at break is used up in charging the capacitor and no sparking takes place.

(c)
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 30
For d.c., XL = 0, therefore, XL = 0 and Xc = oo. Hence, d.c. signal appears across capacitor.For high frequency a.c., XL → High and Xc → 0. Hence, a.c. signal appears across inductor.

(d) When a choke coil in series with a lamp is connected to a d.c. line, L has no effect on the steady value of the current. Therefore, the brightness of the lamp is not affected by the insertion of the iron core in the choke. On a.c. line, the lamp will shine dimly due to the impedance of the choke coil. The brightness of the lamp will further go dim on the insertion of an iron core, which increases the impedance of the choke coil.

(e) The choke coil is used to reduce the current. As its power factor is zero, it reduces the current without wasting the power. If an ordinary resistor is used instead of a choke coil, ft will waste power in the form of heat.

Question 23.
A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step-down transformer with its primary windings having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the secondary in order to get output power at 230 V? (C.B.S.E. 1997)
Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 31

Question 24.
At a hydroelectric power plant, the water pressure head is at a height of 300 m and the water flow available is 100 m3s-1. If the turbine generator efficiency is 60%, estimate the electric power available from the plant (g = 9.8 ms-2).
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 32
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 33

Question 25.
A small town with a demand of 800 kW of electric power at 220 V is situated 15 km away from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wirelines carrying power is 0.5 Q per km. The town gets power from the line through a 4000-220 V step-down transformer at a sub-station in the town.
(a) Estimate the line power loss in the form of heat.
(b) How much power must the plant supply, assuming there is negligible power loss due to leakage?
(c) Characterise the step-up transformer at the plant.(C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2003)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 34

Question 26.
Do the same exercise as above with the replacement of the earlier transformer by a 40,000 – 220 V step-down transformer (Neglect, as before, leakage losses though this may not be a good assumption any longer because of the very high voltage transmission involved). Hence, explain why high voltage transmission is preferred.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 7 Alternating Current 35

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NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class Early Societies

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class Early Societies are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class Early Societies.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectHistory
ChapterChapter 3
Chapter NameKinship, Caste and Class Early Societies
Number of Questions Solved9
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class Early Societies

Question 1
Explain why patriliny may have been particularly important among elite families.
Solution :
Patriliny means tracing descent from father to son, grandson and so on. While ; patriliny had existed prior to the composition of the Mahabharata, its central story reinforced the idea that it was valuable. It was important among elite and ruling families to avoid conflicts over land, power and resources including the throne in the case of kings of their fathers when the latter died as had happened between the Kauravas and the Pandavas, who belonged to a single ruling family.

There were, however, variations in practice. Sometimes if there were no sons, brothers succeeded one another. Sometimes other kinsmen claimed the throne, and in very exceptional ; circumstances, women such as Prabhavati Gupta exercised power.

Question 2.
Discuss whether kings in early states invariably were Kshatriyas.
Solution :
As per the Dharmashastra, only Kshatriyas were supposed to be the kings. But it was also to be noted that many important ruling lineages perhaps had different origins. Mauryas were considered Kshatriyas by many people. Some Brahmanical texts described Mauryas as of low origin. The Shungas and Kanvas who were immediate successors of the Mauryas were Brahmanas. In fact those sections of the society controlled the political power which enjoyed support and resources. It did not depend on the question of being bom as Kshatriya.

There were other rulers like Shakas who came from Central Asia. But the Brahmanas considered them as mlechchhas, barbarians and outsiders. Similarly, Gotami-putra Satkami, the best known ruler of the Satavahana dynasty, became a destroyer of the pride of kshatriyas. This we see that the Satavahanas claimed to be Brahmanas whereas the Brahmanas were of the opinion that the king should be Kshatriyas.

Question 3.
Compare and contrast the dharma or norms mentioned in the stories of Drona, Hidimba and Matanga.
Solution :
(a) The following principles of dharma or norms have been mentioned in the stories of Drona, Hidimba and Matanga:

  • Story of Drona : To teach Kshatriyas only, to take fee or guru dakshina from the pupils, and to keep his words.
  • Story of Hidimba : Marriage of Bhima with Hidimba against the principles of marriage.
  • Story of Matanga : To treat chandalas at the very bottom of the hierarchy of vamas due to handling of corpses and dead animals and treating them as “polluting” by those who claimed to be at the top of the social order.

(b) In all the three stories the dharma or norms as mentioned in the Dharmasutras and Dharmashastras have been violated in one way or the other. In case of Drona, he refused to have Ekalavya as his pupil because he was a forest dwelling nishada who did not fit into the fourfold varna system. It was considered a jati. Ekalavya acquired great skill in archery that was perhaps better than Arjuna before the image of Drona. He acknowledged Drona as his teacher. So, when Drona approached him and asked for his right thumb as his fee, he did not hesitate and offered it to his teacher. This shows that Drona followed a double standard towards Ekalavya. He refused to treat him as his pupil but in order to keep his words that no one would be better than Aijuna, he demanded the right thumb from Ekalavya as his fee. It was against the principles of morality.

In case of Hidimba, Yudhisthira agreed to the marriage conditionally. After giving birth to a rakshasa son, the mother and son left the Pandavas. This was in violation of the norms for marriages because rakshasa were the people whose practices differed from those laid down in Brahmanical texts.

In case of Matanga, on his first encounter with Dittha Mangalika, he was beaten as she had seen something inauspicious. Later on Matanga attained spiritual powers and married her. They had a son named Mandavya Kumara who treated Matanga unworthy of alms and treated him badly. When Mangalika learnt about the incident, she sought his forgiveness. This story shows that chandalas were regarded as “polluting”. At the same time this proves that they did not accept the life of degradation prescribed in the Shastra. Matanga attained spiritual powers. He gave a bit of the leftover from his bowl to Dittha Mangalika and asked her to give it to Mandavya and Brahmans which hint that occasionally the social realities were different from the Brahmanical texts. The above stories reflect the realities of social condition of that period.

Question 4.
In what ways was the Buddhist theory of a social contract different from the Brahmanical view of a society derived from the Purusha Sukta?(VBQ)
Solution :
The Purusha Sukta of the Rig Veda says that the four Vamas emerged because of the sacrifice of Purusha, the primeval man. The four vamas were Brahmanas, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas and Shudras. These Vamas had different jobs. The Brahmanas had supreme position in the society. They were also considered as teachers. Kshatriyas were considered warriors. They also ran the administration. The Vaishyas were the masters of trade. The Shudras were at the lowest strata. Their duty was to serve the above three vamas. Under this Brahmanical system, birth was the only criteria to judge the status and prestige in the society.

But the Buddhisftheory of a social contract was different. As per the Buddhist concept, there was inequality in society. But they also opined that this inequality was neither natural nor permanent. They did not favour the idea of birth being the criteria of social status.

Question 5.
The following is an excerpt from the Mahabharata, in which Yudhisthira, the eldest Pandava, speaks to Sanjaya, a messenger :
Sanjaya, convey my respectful greetings to all the Brahmanas and the chief priest of the house of Dhritarashtra. I bow respectfully to teacher Drona… I hold the feet of our preceptor Kripa … (and) the chief of the Kurus, the great Bhishma. I bow respectfully to the old king (Dhritarashtra). I greet and ask after the health of his son Duryodhana and his younger brother .. Also greet all the young Kuru warriors who are our brothers, sons and grandsons … Greet above all him, who is to us like father and mother, the wise Vidura (bom of a slave woman)… bow to the elderly ladies who are known as our mothers. To those who are our wives you say this, “I hope they are well-protected” … Our daughters-in-law bom of good families and mothers of children greet on my behalf. Embrace for me those who are our daughters … The beautiful, fragrant, well-dressed courtesans of ours you should also greet. Greet the slave women and their children, greet the aged, the maimed (and) the helpless …

Try and identify the criteria used to make this list – in terms of age, gender, kinship ties. Are there any other criteria ? For each category, explain why they are placed in a particular position in the list.
Solution :
(a) The list has been prepared on the following basis and order. The criteria used for each category has been mentioned against them :
(b) From the above list it is clear that each category has been placed keeping in view the age, gender and kinship ties as well as their varnas. Slave women and aged, the maimed and the helpless have been placed in the last two categories.

Question 6.
This is what a famous historian of Indian literature, Maurice Wintemitz, wrote about the Mahabharata : “just because the Mahabharata represents more of an entire literature … and contains so much and so many kinds of things. … (it) gives(s) us an insight into the most profound depths of the soul of the Indian folk.” Discuss.
Solution :
The above statement of Maurice Wintemitz about the Mahabharata seems to be correct because it is one of the richest texts of the subcontinent. It is a colossal epic running in

its present form into over 100,000 verses with depictions of a wide range of social categories and situations. It was composed over a period of about 1000 years and some of the stories it contains may have been in circulation even earlier. The text also contains sections laying down norms of behaviour for various social groups. Occasionally, the principal characters seem to follow these norms. Over the centuries, versions of the epic were written in a variety of languages. Several stories that originated in specific regions or circulated among certain people found their way into the epic. The central story of the epic was often retold in different ways. Its episodes have been depicted in sculpture and painting. They also provided themes for a wide range of performing arts – plays, dance, and other kinds of narrations. Its central story describes a feud over land and power between two groups of cousins. It reinforces the principle of patriliny. It mentions rules of marriage too. Thus, it is correct that it contains so many things and gives us an insight into the most profound depths of the soul of the Indian folk.

Question 7.
Discuss whether the Mahabharata could have been the work of a single author.
Solution :

  1. The Mahabharata could not have been the work of a single author because a text which initially perhaps had less than 10,000 verses grew to comprise about 100,000 verses. This enormous composition is traditionally attributed to a sage named Vyasa. There is also a tradition that Vyasa dictated the text to the deity Ganesha.
  2. The original story was probably composed by charioteer-bards known as sutas who generally accompanied Kshatriya warriors to the battlefields. They used to compose poems celebrating their victories and other achievements. These compositions circulated orally.
  3. Then from the fifth century BCE, Brahmanas began to commit it to writing.
  4. This was the time when the Kurus and Panchalas became kingdoms and perhaps the new kings wanted their itihas to be recorded and preserved systematically. Social values were often replaced by new norms and these have been mentioned in the Mahabharata.
  5. The next stage was between 200 BCE and 200 CE when worship of Vishnu grew in importance and Krishna was identified with Vishnu.
  6. Between 200 and 400 CE, large didactic sections resembling Manusmriti were added. Thus, the epic was neither written by one author nor was it written during one period.

Question 8.
How important were gender differences in early societies? Give reasons for your answer.
Solution :
It is seen that in early societies families were generally patriliny. Patriliny means tracing descent from father to son and to grandson and so on. Matriliny family was k generally not in use. But exception was also available. As exception, Satavahanas of Andhra can be mentioned. Historical sources mention the name of some rulers from inscriptions associated with the names of the mothers of the king. As Gotami-putra means’ son of Gotami’. Gotami and Vasistha are the feminines of Gotama and Vasistha. Sons were considered important for the continuity of the family. Attitudes towards daughter were different. They had no claims towards the resources of the household. But marrying them into the families outside the kin was considered desirable. This system of marriage was called exogamy. According to this system, the lives of the young ‘girls and women belonged to those families which claimed that high status were often carefully regulated to ensure that they were married at the right time and to the right person. This gave rise to the tradition that in marriage Kanyadana was an important religious duty of the father.

After marriage women were supposed to give up their father’s gotra and adopt their husband’s.As per Manusmriti, the paternal state was to be divided equally amongst sons after the death of parents, with a special share for the eldest. Women were not given any share
in this state.

But women were allowed to keep the gifts with themselves which they received at the [ time of their marriage. This was called stridhana. This could be inherited by. their children and the husband had no claim over it. But at the same time Manusmriti also told women not to hoard family property or even their own valuables without the permission of their husband.
In fact, social differences were sharpened because ofthe differences in access of resources.Many texts suggest that while upper class women may have access to resources but l and, cattle, money were generally controlled by the men. Vakataka queen Prabhavati Gupta was a rich woman.

Question 9.
Discuss the evidence that suggests that Brahmanical prescriptions about kinship and marriage were not universally followed.
Solution :
The following evidence suggests that Brahmanical prescriptions about kinship and marriage were not universally followed :

  1. Change in kinship relations : There was change in kinship relations. For example, the Mahabharata is a story of a feud over land and power between two groups of cousins, the Kauravas and the Pandavas. Ultimately, the conflict ended in a battle, in which the Pandavas emerged victorious.
  2. Patriliny : Patriliny means tracing descent from father to son, grandson and so on. But there were variations in practice. Sometimes, if there were no sons, brothers succeeded one another. Sometimes other kinsmen claimed the throne. In very exceptional circumstances, women such as Prabhavati Gupta exercised power.
  3. Marriages : The Dharmasutras and Dharmashastras recognised as many as eight forms of marriage. Of these, the first four were considered as “good” while the remaining were condemned. These were perhaps practised by those who did not accept Brahmanical norms.
  4. Gotra of women : According to Brahmanical practice, women were expected to give up their father’s gotra and adopt that of their husband on marriage and members of the same gotra could not marry. This was not followed universally. For example, names of many women who married Satavahana rulers had been derived from gotras such as Gotama and Vasistha, their father’s gotras. They did not adopt their husband’s gotra. Not only this, some of them belonged to the same gotra that was against exogamy. The system of endogamy or marriage within the kin group was too prevalent among several communities in south India.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class Early Societies help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 12 History Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class Early Societi

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State

NCERT Solutions Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 contains the solved questions and answers provided in the textbook. The answers are provided by subject experts and hence the students can refer to these solutions for better preparations. The explanations are provided in an easy language which the students find easy to understand. The diagrammatic representations make the explanations even clearer.

The NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 not only helps the students prepare for their board exams, but also prepares them for competitive exams. The solutions strengthen the conceptual knowledge of the students that clarifies even the minute doubts.

BoardCBSE
TextbookNCERT
ClassClass 12
SubjectChemistry
ChapterChapter 1
Chapter NameThe Solid State
Number of Questions Solved50
CategoryNCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State

“The Solid State” is an important chapter in Chemistry from the examination perspective. We are surrounded by different states of matter. Most of the matter around us is in solid state. The NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 explain the structure, classification and properties of solids. The explanation of the structure of solids states the correlation between the structure and properties of solids.

NCERT IN-TEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Why are solids rigid?
Answer:
Solids are rigid because the constituent particles are very closely packed. They don’t have any translatory movement
and can only oscillate about their mean positions.

Question 2.
Why do solids have a definite volume?
Answer:
The constituent particles of a solid have fixed positions and are not free to move about, i.e., they possess rigidity. That is why they have definite volume.

Question 3.
Classify the following as amorphous and crystalline solids; polyurethane, naphthalene, benzoic acid, Teflon,
potassium nitrate, cellophane, polyvinyl chloride, fibre glass, copper.
Answer:
Amorphous solids: Polyurethane, naphthalene, Teflon, cellophane, polyvinyl chloride, fiberglass. Crystalline solids: Benzoic acid, potassium nitrate, copper.

Question 4.
Why is glass considered a supercooled liquid?
Answer:
Glass is an amorphous solid. Like liquids, it has a tendency to flow, though very slowly. This can be seen from the glass panes of windows or doors of very old buildings which are thicker at the bottom than at the top. Therefore, glass is considered as a supercooled liquid.

Question 5.
The Refractive index of a solid is observed to have the same value along with all the directions. Comment on the nature of the solid. Would it show cleavage property?
Answer:
As the solid has the same refractive index along with all the directions, it is isotropic in nature and is, therefore, an amorphous solid. It is not expected to show a clean cleavage when cut with a special type of knife. It will break into pieces with irregular surfaces.

Question 6.
Classify .the following solids in different categories based on the nature of intermolecular forces operating in them: Potassium sulphate, tin, benzene, urea, ammonia, water, zinc sulphide, graphite, rubidium, argon, silicon carbide
Answer:
Potassium sulphate = Ionic Tin=Metallic.
Benzene = Molecular (non-polar)
Urea=Molecular (polar).
Ammonia=Molecular (H-bonded)
Water = Molecular (H-bonded)
Zinc sulphide = Ionic Graphite=Covalent Rubidipm Metallic Argon = Molecular (non-polar)
Silicon Carbide=Covalent

Question 7.
A solid substance ‘A’ is a very hard and electrical insulator both in the solid-state as well as in the molten state. It has also the very high melting point. Is the solid metal like silver or network solid like silicon carbide (SiC)?
Answer:
Since the solid behaves as an insulator even in the molten state, it cannot be metal like silver. Therefore, it is a covalent or network solid like SiC.

Question 8.
Ionic solids conduct electricity in molten state but not in solid state. Explain
Answer:
In a solid-state, the ions cannot move, they are held by strong electrostatic forces of attraction. So, ionic solids do not conduct electricity in the solid state. However, in the molten state, they dissociate to give tree ions and hence conduct electricity.

Question 9.
What types of solids are electrical conductors, malleable and ductile? (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Metallic solids exhibit these characteristics. Their atoms are linked to one another by metallic bonds.

Question 10.
Give the significance of a ‘lattice point’.
Answer:
Each lattice point represents one constituent particle of the solid. This constituent particle may be an atom, a molecule or an ion.

Question 11.
Name the parameters which characterize a unit cell.
Answer:
A unit cell is characterized by two types of parameters. These are edges (a, b, c) which may or may not be mutually perpendicular, and angles between the edges (α, β, and γ).
(i) Edges or edge lengths. The edges a, b and c represent the dimensions of the unit cell in space along the three axes. The edges may or may not be mutually perpendicular.
(ii) Angles between the edges. There are three angles between the edges. These are denoted as α (between b and c), β (between a and c), and γ (between a and b). Thus, a unit cell may be characterized by six parameters as shown in Fig. 1.12. The various types of crystal systems differ with respect to edge lengths as well as angles between the edges.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 1

Question 12.
Distinguish between
(i) Hexagonal and monoclinic unit cells
(ii) Face-centred and end-centered unit cells.

Answer:
(i)

Hexagonal unit cellMonoclinic unit cell
a=b≠ca≠b≠c
α = β = 90°α = γ = 90°
γ = 120°β ≠ 90°

(ii)

Face-centred unit cellEnd-centred unit cell
A Face-centred unit cell the constituent particles are present at the corners and one at the centre of each face.An End-centred unit cell contains particles at the corners and one at the centre of any two opposite faces.
Total no of particles in a face centered unit cell= 4Total no. of particles in an end centered unit cell = 2

Question 13.
Explain how many portions of an atom located at the
(i) corner and
(ii) body centre of a cubic unit cell is a part of the neighbouring unit cell.
Answer:
(i) An atom located at the corner is shared by eight unit cells. Therefore, its contribution to a particular unit cell is 1/8.
(ii) An atom located at the body of the unit cell is not shared by any unit cell. It belongs to one particular unit cell only.

Question 14.
What is the two-dimensional coordination number of a molecule in a square close-packed layer?
Answer:
In 2D, square close-packed layer, an atom touches 4 nearest neighbouring atoms. Hence, its CN=4

Question 15.
A compound forms a hexagonal close-packed structure. What is the total number of voids in 0.5 mol of it? How many of these are tetrahedral voids?
Answer:
No. of atoms in 0.5 mole of the compound = 0.5 x N0 = 0.5 x 6.022 x 1023 = 3.011 x 1023
No. of octahedral voids = No. of atoms = 3.011 x 1023
No. of tetrahedral voids = 2 x 3.011 x 1023 = 6.022 x 1023
Total no. of voids = (3.011 + 6.022) x 10223 = 9.033 x 1023

Question 16.
A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp and atoms of M occupy l/3rd of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
Answer:
Atoms of N from ccp, therefore, if the lattice points are n, then
No.of atoms of N = n
No. of oct voids = n
No. of td voids = 2n= 2 x 1n/3 = 2n/3
∴ Formula of the compound is: M : N
2/3 n : n
2n: 3n
2: 3
i.e., M2N3

Question 17.
Which of the following lattices has the highest packing efficiency :
(i) simple cubic
(ii) body-centered cubic and
(iii) hexagonal close-packed lattice?
Answer:
The packing efficiency of the different types of arrangement is :
(i) Simple cubic = 52.4%
(ii) Body-centred cubic = 68%
(iii) Hexagonal close-packed = 74%
his means that hexagonal close-packed arrangement has the maximum packing efficiency (74%).

Question 18.
An element with a molar mass 2.7 x 10-2 kg  mol-1 forms a cubic unit cell with an edge length of 405 pm. If its density is 2.7 x 103 kg m-3, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 2

Question 19.
What type of defect can arise when a solid is heated? Which physical property is affected by it and in what
way?
Answer:
When a solid is heated, some atoms or ions may leave the crystal lattice. As a result, vacancies are created and this leads to vacancy defects in the crystalline solid. Since the number of atoms/ions per unit volume decreases, the vacancy defects lead to a decrease in the density.

Question 20.
What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by:
(i) ZnS
(ii) AgBr
Answer:
(i) ZnS shows Frenkel defect
(ii) AgBr shows Frenkel as well as Schottky defect.

Question 21.
Explain how vacancies are introduced in the ionic solid when a cation of higher valence is added as an impurity to it.
Answer:
Let us consider an ionic solid sodium chloride (Na+Cl) to which a small amount of strontium chloride (SrCl2) has been added to act as an impurity. Since the crystal as a whole is to remain electrically neutral, two Na+ ions have to leave their sites to create two vacancies. Out of these, one will be occupied by Sr2+ ion while the other will be vacant. Thus, vacancies will be created in the ionic solid. When a cation of higher valency is added as an impurity in the ionic solid, some of the sites of the original cations are occupied by the cations of higher valency. Each cation of higher valency replaces two or more original cations and occupies the site of one original cation and the other site(s) remains vacant.

Question 22.
Ionic solids which have anionic vacancies due to metal excess defect, develop colour. Explain with the help of a suitable example.
Answer:
Let us illustrate by sodium chloride (Na+Cl) crystals. Upon heating in the atmosphere of sodium (Na) vapours, sodium atoms get deposited on the surface of the crystals. The Cl ions from the crystal lattice leave their sites and diffuse into the surface. They tend to combine with sodium atoms present in the vapours which in turn get ionised to form Na+ ions by releasing electrons. The latter is trapped by the anionic vacancies created by Clions in order to maintain the crystals electrically neutral. Now, the electrons absorb radiations corresponding to a certain colour from white light and start vibrating. They emit radiations corresponding to yellow colour. That is how the crystals of sodium chloride develop yellow colour. These electrons are called F-centres because these are responsible for colours (In German, F = Farbe meaning colour).

Question 23.
A group 14 element is to be converted into an n-type semiconductor by doping it with a suitable impurity. To which group should the impurity element belong?
Answer:
n-type semiconductors are conducting due to the presence of excess negatively charged electrons. In order to convert group 14 elements (e.g. Si, Ge) into n-type semi-conductors, doping is done with some elements of group 15 (e.g. P, As)

Question 24.
What type of substances would make better permanent magnets; ferromagnetic or ferrimagnetic? Justify your answer. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Ferromagnetic substances make better permanent magnets than ferrimagnetic substances. The metal ions of a ferromagnetic substance are grouped into small regions known as domains and these are randomly oriented. Under the influence of the applied magnetic field, all domains are oriented in the direction of the magnetic field and as a result, a strong magnetic field is produced. The ferromagnetic substance behaves as a magnet. This characteristic of the domains persists even when the external magnetic field is removed. This imparts permanent magnetic character to these substances. However, this property is lacking in ferrimagnetic substances. Therefore ferromagnetic substances are better magnets.

NCERT EXERCISE

Question 1.
Define the term ‘amorphous’. Give a few examples of amorphous solids.
Answer:
Amorphous solids are those solids in which the constituent particles may have short-range order but do not have a long-range order. They have irregular shapes and are isotropic in nature. They do not undergo a clean cleavage. They do not have sharp melting points or definite heat of fusion. E.g.: Glass, rubber, and plastics.

Question 2.
What makes a glass different from a solid such as quartz? Under what conditions could quartz be converted into glass?
Answer:
Glass is made up of Si04 tetrahedral units. These constituent particles have short-range order only. Quartz is also made up of Si04 tetrahedral units. On heating it softens and melts over a wide range of temperature. It is a crystalline solid having long-range ordered structure. It has a sharp melting point. Quartz can be converted into glass by first melting and then rapidly cooling it.

Question 3.
Classify each of the following solids as ionic, metallic, molecular, network (covalent), or amorphous:
(a) Tetra phosphorus decoxide (P4O10)
(b) Graphite
(c) Brass
(d) Ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4
(e) SiC
(f) Rb
(g)l2
(h) LiBr
(i) P4
(j) Si
(k) Plastic.
Answer:
(a) Molecular solid
(b) Covalent (Net-work) solid
(c) Metallic solid
(d) Ionic solid
(e) Covalent solid (Network)
(f) Metallic solid
(g) Molecular solid
(h) lonic solid
(i) Molecular solid
(j) Covalent solid
(k) Amorphous solid.

Question 4.
(a) What is meant by the term coordination number?
(b) What is the coordination number of atoms
(i) in a cubic close-packed structure
(ii) in a body-centered cubic structure?
Answer:
(i) The number of nearest neighbours of a particle in its close packing is called its coordination number.
(ii) (a) 12, (b) 8.

Question 5.
How can you determine the atomic mass of an unknown metal if you know its density and the dimensions of its unit cell? Explain.
Answer:
Let the edge length of a unit cell = a
Density = d
Molar mass = M
The volume of the unit cell = a3
Mass of the unit cell = No. of atoms in unit cell x Mass of each atom = Z × m
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 3

Question 6.
(a) Stability of a crystal is reflected in the magnitude of the melting point. Comment.
(b) Collect the melting point of

  • Ice
  • ethyl alcohol
  • diethyl ether
  • methane from a data book. What can you say about intermolecular forces between the molecules?

Answer:
(a) Higher the melting point, greater are tire “forces holding the constituent particles together and hence greater is the stability.

(b) The intermolecular forces in water and ethyl alcohol are mainly hydrogen bonding. The higher melting point of water than alcohol shows that hydrogen bonding in ethyl alcohol molecules is not as strong as in water molecules. Diethyl ether is a polar molecule. The intermolecular forces present in them are the dipole-dipole attraction. Methane is a non-polar molecule. The only forces present in them are the weak Vander Waal’s forces (London / dispersion forces).

Question 7.
How will you distinguish between the following pairs of terms:
(i) Cubic close packing and hexagonal close packing?
(ii) Crystal lattice and unit cell?
(iii) Tetrahedral void and octahedral void?
Answer:
(i) Cubic close packing: When the third layer is placed over the second layer in such a way that the spheres cover the octahedral voids, a layer different from first (A) and second (B) is produced. If we continue packing in this manner, then packing is obtained where the spheres in every fourth layer will vertically aligned. This pattern of packing spheres is called the ABCABC pattern or cubic close packing.

Hexagonal close-packing: When a third layer is placed over the second layer in such a manner that the spheres cover the tetrahedral void, a three-dimensional close packing is obtained where the spheres in every third or alternate layer are vertically aligned. If we continue packing in this manner, then the packing obtained would be called ABAB pattern or hexagonal close packing.

(ii) Crystal lattice: It is a regular arrangement of the constituent particles (i?.e., ions, atoms or molecules) of a crystal in three-dimensional space.
Unit cell: The smallest three-dimensional portion of a complete space lattice which when repeated over and over again in different directions produces the complete crystal lattice is called the unit cell.

(iii) Tetrahedral void: A simple) the triangular void is a crystal is surrounded by four spheres and is called a tetrahedral void.
Octahedral void: A double triangular void is surrounded by six spheres and is called an octahedral void.

Question 8.
How many lattice points are there in one unit cell of each of the following lattices
(a) face-centered-cubic
(b) face centred tetragonal
(c) body-centered cubic?
Answer:
(i) In the face-centered cubic arrangement, a number of lattice points are = 8 (at comers) + 6 (at face centres)
Lattice points per unit cell = 8 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 } \) + 6 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) = 4.

(ii) In face centred tetragonal, number of lattice points are = 8 (at comers) + 6 (at face centres)
Lattice points per unit cell = 8 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 } \) + 6 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) = 4

(iii) In body centred cubic arrangement, number of lattice points are = 8 (at comers) + 1 (at body centres)
Lattice points per unit cell = 8 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 } \) + 1 = 2

Question 9.
Explain:
(i) The basis of similarities and differences between metallic and ionic crystals.
(ii) Ionic solids are hard and brittle.
Answer:
(i) Basis of similarities. The basis of similarities between the metallic and ionic crystals are the presence of strong electrostatic forces of attraction. These are present among the ions in the ionic crystals and among the kernels and
valence electrons in the metallic crystals. That is why both metals and ionic compounds are good conductors of electricity and have high melting points.
Basis of differences. The basis of differences in the absence of mobility of ions in the ionic crystals while the same is present in the valence electrons and kernels in the case of metallic crystals. As a consequence, the ionic compounds conduct electricity only in the molten state while the metals can do so even in the solid-state.
(ii) The ionic solids are hard and brittle because of strong electrostatic forces of attraction which are present in the oppositely charged ions.
The ionic solids are hard because of the presence of strong inter-ionic forces of attraction in the oppositely charged ions. These ions are arranged in three-dimensional space. The ionic solids are brittle because the ionic bond
is non-directional.

Question 10.
Calculate the efficiency of packing in the case of metal crystal for:
(i) Simple cubic
(ii) Body centered cubic
(iii) Face centered cubic (with the assumption that the atoms are touching each other). (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2011) Answer:
(i) Simple cubic: We know that in a simple cubic unit cell, there is one atom (or one sphere) per unit cell. If r is the radius of the sphere, the volume occupied by one sphere present in the unit cell = 4/3πr3.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 4
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 5
(ii) Body-centred cubic: We know that a body-centered cubic unit cell has 2 spheres (atoms) per unit cell. If r is the radius of the sphere Volume of one sphere = 4/3πrsup>3
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 6
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 7
(iii) Face centred cubic: We know that a face centered cubic unit cell (fcc) contains four spheres (or atoms) per unit cell.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 8
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 9

Question 11.
Silver crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice with all the atoms at the lattice points. The length of the edge of
the unit cell as determined by X-ray diffraction studies is found to be 4.077 x 10-8 cm. The density of silver is 10.5 g cm-3. Calculate the atomic mass of silver. (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2012)(Uttarakhand Board 2015)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 10

Question 12.
A cubic solid is made up of two elements P and Q. Atoms of Q are at the corners of the cube and P at the body centre. What is the formula of the compound? What are the coordination numbers of P and Q?
Answer:
As atom Q are present at the 8 comers of the cube, therefore, number of atoms of Q in the unit cell = 8 × \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 } \) = 1.
As atoms P are present at the body centre, therefore a number of atoms P in the unit cell = 1.
∴ The formula of the compound = PQ
Co-ordination number of each P and Q = 8.

Question 13.
Niobium crystallizes in a body-centered cubic structure. If the density is 8.55 g cm-1, calculate the atomic radius of niobium given that the atomic mass of niobium is 93 g mol-1. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Step I. Calculation of edge length of unit cell.
No. of particles in b.c.c. type unit cell (Z) = 2
Atomic mass of the element (M) = 93 g mol-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 111
Step II. Calculation of radius of unit cell
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 12

Question 14.
If the radius of octahedral void is r and the radius of the atom in close packing is R, derive the relation between r and R. (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2017)
Answer:
Let length of each side of the square is a and the radii of the void and the sphere are r and R respectively. Consider the right angled triangle ABC.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 13
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 14
∴ Radius of octahedral void is 0.414R(or 41.4% as compared to that of the sphere).

Question 15.
Copper crystallises into a foc lattice with edge length 3•61 x 10-8 cm. Show that the calculated density is in agreement with its measured value of 8.92 g cm. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2009 Comptt.)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 15
The calculated value of the density is nearly the same as the measured value.

Question 16.
Analysis shows that nickel oxide has formula Nin.os 01.00. What fraction of nickel exists as Ni2+ and as Ni3+ ions ?
Answer:
The ratio of Ni and O atoms in pure nickel oxide (NiO) = 1:1
Let x be the no. of Ni (II) atoms replaced by Ni (III) atoms in the oxide.
∴ No. of Ni (II) atoms present = (0.98 – x)
Since the oxide is neutral in nature,
Charge on Ni atoms = Charge on oxygen atoms
2(0.98 – x) + 3x = 2
1.96 – 2x + 3x = 2
x = 2 – 1.96 = 0.04
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 16
% of Ni (II) atoms in nickel oxide = 100 – 4:01 = 95.99%

Question 17.
What is a semiconductor? Describe the two main types of semiconductors and contrast their conduction mechanism.
Answer:
Those solids which have intermediate conductivities ranging from 10-6 to 104 ohm-1 m-1 are classified as semiconductors. As the temperature rises, there is a rise in conductivity value because electrons from the valence band jump to the conduction band.

(i) n-type semiconductor: When a silicon or germanium crystal is doped with group 15 elements like P or As, the dopant atom forms four covalent bonds like Si or Ge atom but the fifth electron, not used in bonding, becomes delocalized and continues its share towards electrical conduction. Thus silicon or germanium doped with P or As is called an H-type semiconductor, a-indicative of negative since it is the electron that conducts electricity.

(ii) p-type semiconductor: When silicon or germanium is doped with group 13 elements like B or Al, the dopant is present only with three valence electrons. An electron vacancy or a hole is created at the place of the missing fourth electron. Here, this hole moves throughout the crystal-like a positive charge giving rise to electrical conductivity. Thus Si or Ge doped with B or Al is called p-tvpe semiconductor, p stands for the positive hole since it is the positive hole that is responsible for conduction.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State image - 1
Question 18.
Non-stoichiometric cuprous oxide (Cu2O) can be prepared in the laboratory. In this oxide, the copper to oxygen ratio is slightly less than 2:1. Can you account for the fact that this substance is a p-type semiconductor?
Answer:
The ratio less than 2: 1 in Cu2O shows that some cuprous (Cu+) ions have been replaced by cupric (Cu2+) ions. To maintain electrical neutrality, every two Cu+ ions will be replaced by one Cu2+ ion thereby creating a hole. As conduction will be due to the presence of this positive hole, hence it is a p-type semiconductor.

Question 19.
Ferric oxide crystallizes in a hexagonal close-packed array of oxide ions with two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by ferric ions. Derive the formula of ferric oxide.
Answer:
There is one octahedral hole for each atom in the hexagonal close-packed arrangement.
If the number of oxide ions (O2-) per unit cell is 1, then the number of Fe3+ ions = 2/3 x octahedral holes = 2/3 x 1 = 2/3.
Thus, the formula of the compound = Fe2/3O1, or Fe2O3.

Question 20.
Classify each of the following as being either a p-type or an n-type semiconductor.
(i) Ge doped with In
(ii) B doped with Si.
Answer:
(i) Ge belongs to group 14 and In belongs to group 13, therefore an electron-deficient hole is created and hence it is an n-type semiconductor.
(ii) B belongs to group 13 and Si belongs to group 14, therefore there will be a free electron and hence it is an n-type semiconductor.

Question 21.
Gold (atomic radius = 0.144 nm) crystallizes in a face-centered unit cell. What is the length of a side of the cell?
Answer:
For fee lattice, edge length,
a = 2 √2 x 0.144 nm = 0.407 nm

Question 22.
In terms of Band Theory, what is the difference
(i) between a conductor and an insulator
(ii) between a conductor and semi-conductor?
Answer:
The variation in the electrical conductivity of the solids can be explained with the help of the band theory.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 17
(i) In insulators, the energy gaps are very large and the no electron jump is feasible from the valence band to the conduction band. The energy gaps also called forbidden zones. The insulators, therefore, do not conduct electricity.
(ii) In semi-conductors, there is a small energy gap between the valence band and conduction band. However, some electrons may jump to the conduction band and these semiconductors can exhibit a little electrical conductivity.

Question 23.
Explain the following terms with suitable examples.
(i) Schottky defect,
(ii) Frenkel defect,
(iii) Interstitials,
(iv) F-centres.
Answer:
(i) Schottky defect: This rises because certain ions are missing from the crystal lattice and vacancies or holes are created at their respective positions. Since a crystal is electrically neutral, the number of such missing cations (A+) and anions (B) must be the same. e.g., KCl, NaCl, KBr, etc.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 18
(ii) Frenkel defect:
It results when certain ions leave their normal sites and occupy positions elsewhere in the crystal lattice. Holes are created at their respective positions. Since cations are smaller in size as compared to anions normally these are involved in Frenkel defect. e.g., AgBr, ZnS, etc.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 19
(iii) Interstitials:
This defect is noticed when constituent particles (atoms or molecules) occupy the interstitial sites in the crystal lattice. As a result, the number of particles per unit volume increases and so the density of the solid.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 20
(iv) F-centres:
These are the anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons. F-centres impart colour to crystals. The colour results by the excitation of electrons when they absorb energy from the visible light falling on the crystal.

Question 24.
Aluminium crystallises in a cubic close-packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125 pm.
(a) What is the length of the side of the unit cell?
(b) How many unit cells are there in 1.00 cm? of aluminum? (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Step I. Calculation of length of side of the unit cell
For f.c.c. unit cell, a = \(2\sqrt { 2 } r\) = \(2\sqrt { 2 } \) (125pm) = 2 x 1.4142 x (125 pm) = 354 pm.
Step II. Calculation of no. of unit cells in 1:00 cm3 of aluminium.
Volume of one unit cell = (354 pm)3 = (354 x 10-10 cm)3 = 44174155 x 10-30 cc.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 21

Question 25.
If NaCl is doped with 10-3 mol % of SrCl2, what is the concentration of cation vacancies?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State 22

Question 26.
Explain the following with suitable examples.
(a) Ferromagnetism
(b) Piezoelectric effect
(c) Paramagnetism
(d) Ferrimagnetism
(e) Antifluoride structure
(f) 12 – 16 and 13 – 15 compounds.
Answer:
(a) Ferromagnetism: A few solids like iron. cobalt, nickel, gadolinium and CeO2 are attracted very strongly by magnetic fields. These are known as ferromagnetic solids. Apart from that, they can be even permanently magnetised or become permanent magnet. e.g., Fe, Ni, Co and CrO2

(b) Piezoelectric effect: A dielectric crystal which has a resultant dipole moment can produce electricity or show the electrical property when external pressure is applied. Such a crystal is known as piezoelectric crystal and this property is called piezoelectricity or pressure electricity. e.g., PbZrO2, Nh4H2PO4 etc.

(c) Paramagnetism: These are the solids attracted by a magnet. Actually, the atoms of the elements present have certain unpaired electrons. Their spins or magnetic moments may lead to magnetic characters. Many transition metals such as Co, Ni, Fe, Cu, etc. and their ions are paramagnetic. e.g., O2, Cu2+, Fe3+, etc

(d) Ferrimagnetism: They have certain resultant magnetic moment or magnetic character which is of permanent nature. However, ferrimanetic solids are less magnetic than ferromagnetic solids. For example, magnetic oxide of iron (Fe3O4) and ferrites with general formula MFe2O4. e.g., Fe3O4

(e) Antifluoride structure: In this structure, the positions of the cations and anions as compared to fluorite structure get reversed i.e. the smaller cations occupy the position of fluoride ions while the anions with bigger size occupy the positions of calcium ions. e.g., Li2O, K2O, Rb2O and Rb2S.

(f) 12 – 16 and 13 – 15 compounds: A large variety of solid-state materials have been prepared by the combination of elements belonging to groups 13 and 15 or group 12 and 16. A few examples of compounds 13-15 combinations are InSb, Alp and GaAs. Similarly, compounds resulting from 12 – 16 combinations are AdS, CdSe, HgTe.

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